Kerala LLB 5 Year 2023 Question Paper with Answers

ANSWER KEY FINAL

Exam: FIVE YEAR LLB 2023
Date of Test: 06-08-2023

Question1:-Find out the incorrectly spelled word
A:-Conscientous
B:-Peculiar
C:-Accommodate
D:-Repetition
Question2:-Find out the incorrectly spelled word
A:-Separrate
B:-Sufficient
C:-Deceive
D:-Ambiguous
Question3:-Find out the incorrectly spelled word
A:-Rendezvous
B:-Definite
C:-Paralell
D:-Consequence
Question4:-Find out the incorrectly spelled word
A:-Perseverance
B:-Labyrinth
C:-Diligent
D:-Recomendation
Question5:-Find out the incorrectly spelled word
A:-Accomplish
B:-Mischevious
C:-Dilemma
D:-Subtle
Question6:-Find out the word which is nearest to the opposite in meaning to the key word given in capitals. OSTENTATIOUS
A:-Disgusting
B:-Modest
C:-Shameful
D:-Extravagant
Question7:-Find out the word which is nearest to the opposite in meaning to the key word given in capitals. EBULLIENT
A:-Foolish
B:-Filthy
C:-Depressed
D:-Gentle
Question8:-Find out the word which is nearest to the opposite in meaning to the key word given in capitals. CONSTERNATION
A:-Cheerfulness
B:-Calmness
C:-Loneliness
D:-Joyful
Question9:-Find out the word which is nearest to the opposite in meaning to the key word given in capitals. INTRANSIGENT
A:-Magnificent
B:-Mysterious
C:-Agressive
D:-Flexible
Question10:-Find out the word which is nearest to the opposite in meaning to the key word given in capitals. EFFICACIOUS
A:-Ineffective
B:-Ugly
C:-Careless
D:-Uncooperative
Question11:-Find the nearest one-word from the alternatives given below: A person who is excessively concerned about their health
A:-Altruist
B:-Extrovert
C:-Hypochondriac
D:-Skeptic
Question12:-Identify the meaning of the idiom or phrase in capitals from the choices. She was WALKING ON THIN ICE.
A:-Walking carefully on a thin surface
B:-Engaging in risky behavior
C:-In a dangerous or precarious situation
D:-Walking gracefully on a slippery surface
Question13:-Identify the meaning of the idiom or phrase in capitals from the choices. He had to FACE THE MUSIC for his actions.
A:-Listen to music as a form of punishment
B:-Attend a music concert as a punishment
C:-Take responsibility and face the consequences

D:-Enjoy the success of efforts taken
Question14:-Identify the meaning of the idiom or phrase in capitals from the choices. The team WENT THE EXTRA MILE to ensure customer satisfaction.
A:-Exceeded expectations and put in additional effort
B:-Traveled a long distance to meet customers
C:-Completed the task within the specified limit
D:-Reached the destination before others
Question15:-Identify the meaning of the idiom or phrase in capitals from the choices. The comedian had the audience IN STITCHES
A:-Caused physical injury to the audience
B:-Performed magic tricks for the audience
C:-Made the audience laugh uncontrollably
D:-Presented a serious and thought-provoking performance
Question16:-Identify the meaning of the idiom or phrase in capitals from the choices. He has a CHIP ON HIS SHOULDER
A:-Has a physical chip on his shoulder
B:-Displays a negative attitude and is easily provoked
C:-Always carries a bag of chips with him
D:-Prefers peaceful and harmonious discussions
Question17:-Identify the meaning of the idiom or phrase in capitals from the choices. The politician BEAT AROUND THE BUSH when journalists met him
A:-Engaged in physical exercise
B:-Avoided giving a direct answer
C:-Literally beat a bush
D:-Provided a straightforward response
Question18:-Identify the meaning of the idiom or phrase in capitals from the choices. The project HIT A SNAG when the funding was unexpectedly cut.
A:-Encountered a physical obstacle
B:-Made progress smoothly
C:-Experienced a delay or setback
D:-Received additional resources and support
Question19:-Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete. A good education is the foundation for a
…..................future.
A:-Better
B:-Best
C:-Bright
D:-Brilliant
Question20:-Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete. It is important to have a balanced
…..................for a healthy lifestyle.
A:-Diet
B:-Exercise
C:-Routine
D:-Regimen
Question21:-A sentence is divided into 3 parts. Choose the incorrect part. If no error in the sentence, choose 'D
A:-The child ran across
B:-the street without
C:-looking for oncoming traffic
D:-No error
Question22:-A sentence is divided into 3 parts. Choose the incorrect part. If no error in the sentence, choose 'D'
A:-The team celebrated
B:-their victory
C:-by doing a victory dance
D:-No error
Question23:-A sentence is divided into 3 parts. Choose the incorrect part. If no error in the sentence, choose 'D'
A:-He apologized
B:-for his mistake
C:-and promised not to repeat on it
D:-No error
Question24:-A sentence is divided into 3 parts. Choose the incorrect part. If no error in the sentence, choose 'D
A:-The teacher asked the students
B:-to hand in
C:-their assignments on tomorrow
D:-No error
Question25:-A sentence is divided into 3 parts. Choose the incorrect part. If no error in the sentence, choose 'D
A:-She opened the fridge
B:-and found delicious cake
C:-to surprise her guests with
D:-No error
Question26:-A sentence is divided into 3 parts. Choose the incorrect part. If no error in the sentence, choose 'D
A:-She wore a beautiful dress
B:-to the party
C:-and impressed everyone present
D:-No error

Question27:-A sentence is divided into 3 parts. Choose the incorrect part. If no error in the sentence, choose 'D
A:-The student studied
B:-hardly for the exam
C:-but still failed to pass.
D:-No error
Question28:-A sentence is divided into 3 parts. Choose the incorrect part. If no error in the sentence, choose 'D
A:-The dog chased
B:-after the ball
C:-and fetched it back
D:-No error
Question29:-Pick out the best filler which can complete the given sentence correctly. The movie was so captivating that the audience………………………….
A:-Can't stop talking about it
B:-Couldn't stop talking about it
C:-Not stop talking about it
D:-Should stop talking about it
Question30:-Pick out the best filler which can complete the given sentence correctly. They ran so fast that they…………………………..
A:-May have won the race
B:-Won the race
C:-Winning the race
D:-Had won the race
Question31:-Pick out the best filler which can complete the given sentence correctly. He spoke so confidently that he…………………………..
A:-Could convince anyone
B:-Was convinced anyone
C:-Convincing anyone
D:-Should convince anyone
Question32:-Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word given in capital letters: COMPASSIONATE
A:-Ordinary
B:-Benevolent
C:-Apathetic
D:-Charismatic
Question33:-Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word given in capital letters: ADVERSARY
A:-Wanderer
B:-Outsider
C:-Antagonist
D:-Militant
Question34:-Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word given in capital letters: EXEMPLARY
A:-Yielding
B:-Reserved
C:-Outstanding
D:-Hesitant
Question35:-Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word given in capital letters: TENACIOUS
A:-Weak-willed
B:-Persistent
C:-Average
D:-Specialized
Question36:-Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word given in capital letters: VERSATILE
A:-Adaptable
B:-Agreeable
C:-Lethargic
D:-Timid
Question37:-Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word given in capital letters: CONTEMPLATE
A:-Neglect
B:-Disregard
C:-Ponder
D:-Retain
Question38:-Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word given in capital letters: ABANDON
A:-Forsake
B:-Keep
C:-Hover
D:-Observe
Question39:-Find the nearest one-word from the alternatives given below: A sudden and dramatic change or event
A:-Upheaval
B:-Transition
C:-Evolution
D:-Alteration
Question40:-Find the nearest one-word from the alternatives given below: A person who opposes war or violence
A:-Belligerent
B:-Pacifist
C:-Activist

D:-Radical
Question41:-Find the nearest one-word from the alternatives given below: A person who is excessively focused on their own needs and desires
A:-Empath
B:-Optimist
C:-Pessimist
D:-Egotist
Question42:-Find the nearest one-word from the alternatives given below: A temporary halt or suspension of activity
A:-Continuum
B:-Hiatus
C:-Catalyst
D:-Resurgence
Question43:-Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

The sun was shining brightly, casting a warm ....................... on the beach.
A:-Light
B:-Ray
C:-Glow
D:-Shine
Question44:-Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete. Her success is a result of her hard
work, determination, and unwavering ……………..
A:-Faith
B:-Belief
C:-Commitment
D:-Conviction
Question45:-Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

The team worked together in perfect....................... to achieve their goal.
A:-Unity
B:-Harmony
C:-Synchronization
D:-Collaboration
Question46:-Convert the sentence given in indirect speech into direct speech.

She told me that she had already finished her work.
A:-She said, "I have already finished my work."
B:-She said, "She has already finished her work."
C:-She said, "I had already finished my work."
D:-She said, "She will already finish her work."
Question47:-Convert the sentence given in indirect speech into direct speech.

Sheila said that she would come to the party.
A:-Sheila said, "She will come to the party."
B:-Sheila said, "I would come to the party."
C:-Sheila said, "I will come to the party."
D:-Sheila said, "She says she will come to the party."
Question48:-Find the nearest one-word from the alternatives given below:

A person who is skilled in decorative handwriting or lettering.
A:-Artist
B:-Sculptor
C:-Illustrator
D:-Calligrapher
Question49:-Read the following passage and answer the question by choosing among the four alternatives given:

The Great Barrier Reef is not only visually stunning but also incredibly diverse. It is home to a vast array of marine life, including more than 1,500 species of fish, 600
species of coral, and numerous other animals such as turtles, dolphins, and sharks. The vibrant colors of the coral and the teeming schools of fish create a truly
mesmerizing underwater spectacle. This magnificent ecosystem serves as an important breeding ground and nursery for many marine species. It provides shelter, food,
and protection for countless organisms, making it a crucial part of the ocean's delicate balance. In addition to its ecological significance, the Great Barrier Reef is also a
popular destination for tourists, who come from all over the world to witness its beauty firsthand. Unfortunately, this natural wonder is facing numerous challenges.
Climate change, pollution, and over-fishing are some of the major threats to the reef's health. Rising sea temperatures have led to coral bleaching, causing significant
damage to the delicate coral structures. Efforts are being made to mitigate these impacts and protect the reef, including the establishment of marine protected areas and
the promotion of sustainable fishing practices. Preserving the Great Barrier Reef is not only essential for the future of this unique ecosystem but also for the well-being of
our planet as a whole. It serves as a stark reminder of the importance of conservation and the need to protect our natural heritage. By taking action to address the threats
it faces, we can ensure that future generations will be able to enjoy and appreciate this awe-inspiring wonder of nature.

What is the main purpose of establishing marine protected areas and promoting sustainable fishing practices for the Great Barrier Reef?
A:-To increase the tourism revenue and attract more visitors to the reef
B:-To mitigate the impacts of climate change and pollution on the reef’s health
C:-To enhance the diversity and abundance of marine life in the reef
D:-To restore the coral structures and prevent further bleaching events
Question50:-Choose the word that best fits the blank in the following sentence: "She was by the news of her friend's sudden death."
A:-Shocked
B:-Shocking
C:-Shock

D:-Shockingly
Question51:-Read the passage and answer the question following it:

"Malala Yousafzai was born on July 12, 1997, in Mingora, Pakistan. As a child, she became an advocate for girls’ education, which resulted in the Taliban issuing a death
threat against her. On October 9, 2012, a gunman shot Malala when she was traveling home from school. She survived and has continued to speak out on the
importance of education. She was nominated for a Nobel Peace Prize in 2013. In 2014, she was nominated again and won, becoming the youngest person to receive the
Nobel Peace Prize."

What is the genre of above passage?
A:-Biography
B:-Autobiography
C:-Memoir
D:-Fantasy
Question52:-Choose the word that best fits the blank in the following sentence: “He about his new job.”
A:-had exciting
B:-was excited
C:-was exciting
D:-is excitement
Question53:-Choose the word that best fits the blank in the following sentence.

The teacher was very with the students’ progress and praised them for their hard work.
A:-impressed
B:-depressing
C:-expressive
D:-aggressive
Question54:-Identify the error in the following sentence: "She is more smarter than her brother.
A:-She
B:-is
C:-more smarter
D:-than her brother
Question55:-Fill in the blank with the appropriate preposition: "He is very good playing chess."
A:-at
B:-in
C:-on
D:-with
Question56:-Read the passage and answer the question that follows:

"The Taj Mahal is one of the most famous monuments in India. It was built by Shah Jahan, a Mughal emperor, in memory of his beloved wife, Mumtaz Mahal, who died in
1631. The Taj Mahal is located on the banks of the Yamuna river in Agra, Uttar Pradesh. It is made of white marble and decorated with precious stones and intricate
carvings. The Taj Mahal is considered a masterpiece of Mughal architecture and a symbol of eternal love."

What is the main purpose of this passage?
A:-To persuade the reader to visit the Taj Mahal.
B:-To inform the reader about the history and features of the Taj Mahal.
C:-To entertain the reader with a story about Shah Jahan and Mumtaz Mahal.
D:-To compare and contrast the Taj Mahal with other monuments in India.
Question57:-Read the following passage and answer the question by choosing among the four alternatives given:

Photography has witnessed a remarkable evolution with the advent of digital technology. The accessibility of high-quality cameras, smartphone advancements, and
advanced image editing software has democratized the art form, allowing aspiring photographers to experiment with diverse techniques and styles. Social media
platforms have further revolutionized the landscape by providing a global platform to showcase and share photographs, fostering a sense of community among
photography enthusiasts. However, the digital age also presents challenges to photographers. The oversaturation of images on social media has led to a constant
struggle for attention and recognition. Standing out amidst the sea of visual content requires photographers to not only demonstrate technical prowess but also develop a
unique artistic vision and storytelling ability. Crafting compelling narratives through images and cultivating a distinctive visual style are essential in capturing viewers'
attention and creating a lasting impact. Furthermore, the proliferation of image editing tools has sparked debates about the authenticity and ethical boundaries of
photography. The ease of manipulating images has raised concerns about the representation of reality and the potential for misleading or deceptive visual storytelling.
Photographers must navigate these ethical considerations and maintain transparency and integrity in their work.

Question: In the digital age, one of the skills that is essential for photographers to stand out and create a lasting impact is to?
A:-Quantity over quality of images shared on social media
B:-Cultivate a distinct artistic perspective
C:-Using editing techniques as a trade secret
D:-Limiting oneself to conventional techniques and styles
Question58:-Read the following passage and answer the question by choosing among the four alternatives given:

Space exploration has captured the imagination of humankind for centuries. Advancements in technology have allowed us to expand our understanding of the universe
and our place within it. Through missions and telescopic observations, scientists have made remarkable discoveries about distant planets, galaxies, and celestial
phenomena. Space exploration not only deepens our scientific knowledge but also inspires innovation and technological advancements here on Earth. The quest to
explore the cosmos has led to the development of cutting-edge technologies, such as satellite communication, GPS systems, and medical advancements in life support
and radiation shielding. Additionally, space exploration has fostered international collaborations and cooperation, transcending national boundaries and bringing together
scientists and engineers from around the world. Moreover, the study of space has ignited a sense of wonder and curiosity among people of all ages, encouraging the
pursuit of scientific careers and inspiring future generations to push the boundaries of human knowledge.

Question: What is one of the indirect benefits of space exploration?
A:-Advancement in communication and medical technologies
B:-Expansion of national boundaries and competition
C:-Discovery of new life forms in the universe

D:-Increase in space tourism opportunities
Question59:-Read the following passage and answer the question by choosing among the four alternatives given:

The concept of sustainable agriculture has gained significant attention in recent years as the global population continues to grow, placing increasing pressure on food
production systems. Sustainable agriculture aims to minimize environmental impact, conserve natural resources, and promote long-term ecological balance while
meeting the food demands of a growing population. It emphasizes the use of organic farming practices, crop rotation, soil conservation techniques, and integrated pest
management. By reducing reliance on synthetic fertilizers and pesticides, sustainable agriculture seeks to maintain soil fertility, protect biodiversity, and safeguard the
health of both farmers and consumers. Additionally, it encourages local food systems, reducing the carbon footprint associated with transportation and supporting local
economies. Embracing sustainable agricultural practices is crucial for ensuring food security, promoting environmental stewardship, and building resilient farming
communities.

Question: What is one of the key targets of sustainable agriculture?
A:-Maximizing the use of synthetic fertilizers and pesticides
B:-Minimizing the reliance on organic farming practices
C:-Promoting long-term ecological balance and soil conservation
D:-Encouraging the use of monoculture and intensive farming techniques
Question60:-Read the following passage and answer the question by choosing among the four alternatives given:

I woke up early in the morning, feeling a sense of excitement coursing through my veins. Today was the day I had been preparing for—the marathon race. Months of
training, countless hours of pushing my limits, and overcoming mental barriers had led me to this moment. As I laced up my running shoes and stepped outside, I took a
deep breath, ready to face the challenge ahead. The racecourse stretched out before me, a daunting yet exhilarating path that would test my endurance and
determination. With every step, the crowd's cheers resonated in my ears, fueling my motivation. The miles seemed to blur together as I settled into a rhythm, focusing on
my breathing and maintaining a steady pace. Fatigue began to set in, but I pushed through, drawing strength from the sheer willpower within me. As I approached the
finish line, a surge of energy surged through my body, propelling me forward. Crossing that finish line was a moment of triumph, a culmination of perseverance and
resilience. It was a testament to the power of the human spirit and the limitless potential within us all.

Question: What is the main theme of the passage?
A:-The joy of running in a marathon
B:-The importance of teamwork in marathon races
C:-Overcoming physical and mental challenges
D:-The history and significance of marathon races
Question61:-Who has been appointed as India's second Chief of Defence Staff?
A:-Manoj Kumar
B:-R. Dinesh
C:-Anil Chauhan
D:-Sanjay Agarwal
Question62:-Who among the following won the 2022 Golden Globe Race?
A:-Kirsten Neuschäfer
B:-Abhilash Tomy
C:-Michael Guggenberge
D:-Elliott Smith
Question63:-Which film won the Best Picture Oscar in 2023?
A:-Everything Everywhere All at Once
B:-The Whale
C:-Avatar 2: The Way of the Water
D:-All Quiet on the Western Front
Question64:-Which nation has announced construction of "The Line" - world's first vertical city in the world?
A:-Singapore
B:-Saudi Arabia
C:-China
D:-Israel
Question65:-National Highway Authority of India created a world record by making 75 kms of road between Amravati and Akola in 5 days in which state?
A:-Gujarat
B:-Rajasthan
C:-Madhya Pradesh
D:-Maharashtra
Question66:-Which district recently became the first Open Defecation Free Plus (ODF+) district in India?
A:-Indore
B:-Surat
C:-Alappuzha
D:-Wayanad
Question67:-Acronym KFON stands for?
A:-Kerala Fast Online Network
B:-Kerala Fiber Online Network
C:-Kerala Fiber Optic Network
D:-Kerala Fast Optical Network
Question68:-Who was the first Indian woman to become the President of the Indian National Congress?
A:-Sarojini Naidu
B:-Annie Besant
C:-Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
D:-Indira Gandhi
Question69:-Who was the first Indian woman to become a Chief Minister of an Indian State?

A:-Sucheta Kripalani
B:-Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
C:-Mayawati
D:-J. Jayalalithaa
Question70:-Which two entities were involved in the Battle of Colachel?
A:-Kingdom of Mysore and British East India Company
B:-Nawab of the Carnatic and Dutch East India Company
C:-Kingdom of Travancore and Dutch East India Company
D:-Nawab of Carnatic and British East India Company
Question71:-Who was the Prime Minister of the United Kingdom during India's independence?
A:-Winston Churchill
B:-Clement Attlee
C:-Ramsay Macdonald
D:-Anthony Eden
Question72:-Whose writings had a significant impact on Mahatma Gandhi?
A:-Leo Tolstoy
B:-Karl Marx
C:-Bernard Shaw
D:-Lenin
Question73:-Which event served as the catalyst for the outbreak of World War One?
A:-Germany's invasion of Poland
B:-The sinking of the Lusitania
C:-The Tsar's refusal of an offer to visit Germany
D:-The assassination of Archduke Francis Ferdinand
Question74:-Who is regarded as the founder of Modern Turkey?
A:-Celal Bayar
B:-Ismet Inonu
C:-Mustafa Kemal Pasha
D:-Cemal Gursel
Question75:-The headquarters of Pazhassi Raja for a significant period of time, often referred to as the "Aravallis of Malabar", was:
A:-Puralimala
B:-Aruvamuzhi
C:-Ezhimala
D:-Agastyakutan
Question76:-The Khadakwasla Dam is located in which state?
A:-Punjab
B:-Maharashtra
C:-Odisha
D:-Karnataka
Question77:-Rohtang Pass connects which of the following places?
A:-Kullu valley with Lahaul and Spiti
B:-Pindari valley with Milam valley
C:-Uttarakhand with Tibet
D:-Sikkim with Lhasa
Question78:-Which of the following is the largest island in India?
A:-Majuli Island
B:-Great Nicobar Island
C:-Little Andaman Island
D:-Pamban Island
Question79:-Which of the following national parks is located in the state of Rajasthan?
A:-Bandhavgarh National Park
B:-Kanha National Park
C:-Pench National Park
D:-Ranthambore National Park
Question80:-The Strait of Gibraltar separates which two bodies of water?
A:-Mediterranean Sea and Atlantic Ocean
B:-Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
C:-Red Sea and Persian Gulf
D:-Persian Gulf and Arabian Sea
Question81:-The correct sequence of different layers of the atmosphere from the surface of the Earth upwards is:
A:-Troposphere, Stratosphere, Ionosphere, Mesosphere
B:-Stratosphere, Troposphere, Ionosphere, Mesosphere
C:-Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Ionosphere
D:-Stratosphere, Troposphere, Mesosphere, Ionosphere
Question82:-Which country is called “Sugar Bowl of world”?
A:-Norway
B:-Sweden
C:-India
D:-Cuba

Question83:-In which district of Kerala is the Silent Valley National Park situated?
A:-Idukki
B:-Wayanad
C:-Palakkad
D:-Thrissur
Question84:-Which of these was selected as a fundamental unit for developing banking infrastructure in the Lead Bank Scheme?
A:-Town
B:-Village
C:-District
D:-Panchayat
Question85:-The Laffer curve is the graphical representation of:
A:-The inverse relationship between the rate of unemployment and the rate of inflation in an economy.
B:-The relationship between tax rates and absolute revenue these rates generate for the government.
C:-The relationship between environmental quality and economic development.
D:-The inequality in income distribution
Question86:-Consider the following statements:

1. The issuance of bonus shares by a company involves converting profits into additional shares.
2. Sweat equity refers to the compensation in lieu of payment for the contribution made to a project

Which among the above statements is / are correct?
A:-Only 1
B:-Only 2
C:-Both 1 & 2
D:-Neither 1 nor 2
Question87:-In the World Trade Organization (WTO) framework, the Principle of Reciprocity envisages:
A:-If a State reduces its trade barriers, it expects a corresponding reduction from other states.
B:-Implementation of trade barriers uniformly across nations.
C:-Safeguarding of intellectual property rights.
D:-Granting an expanded role to State controls on trade.
Question88:-The purchase of shares and bonds of Indian companies by Foreign Institutional Investors is called
A:-Foreign Direct Investment
B:-Portfolio Investment
C:-NRI Investment
D:-Merger and Acquistion
Question89:-What does the term "dumping" refer to when it comes to the actions of a seller in global market?
A:-Exceeding the demand for products in the global market.
B:-Exceeding the supply in the domestic market.
C:-Engaging in the practice of selling a commodity at a lower price in the global market than the price charged at the domestic market.
D:-Engaging in the practice of selling a commodity at a higher price in the global market while charging a lower price in the domestic market.
Question90:-Which institution among the following is a Bretton Woods Institution?
A:-International Monetary Fund (IMF)
B:-World Economic Forum
C:-Organisation of Economic Cooperation and Development
D:-World Trade Organisation
Question91:-Which of the following inventions is NOT attributed to ancient China?
A:-Gunpowder
B:-Concrete
C:-Paper money
D:-Silk
Question92:-Which of the following yellow metals is an alloy of copper and zinc?
A:-Gold
B:-Silver
C:-Bronze
D:-Brass
Question93:-If a metal can be drawn into wires relatively easily, it is called:
A:-Ductile
B:-Malleable
C:-Brittle
D:-Conductive
Question94:-The most abundant organic molecule on the surface of the Earth is:
A:-Cellulose
B:-Chitin
C:-DNA
D:-Haemoglobin
Question95:-Which organization recently developed the 'Real-Time Train Information System (RTIS)', which provides automatic acquisition of train movement timing ?
A:-Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
B:-Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL)
C:-Centre for Railway Information Systems (CRIS)

D:-Indian Railways Institute of Signal Engineering and Telecommunications (IRISET)
Question96:-What is the name of the technology that allows for secure and transparent record-keeping and data transfer?
A:-Blockchain
B:-Cryptocurrency
C:-Neural Networks
D:-Generative AI
Question97:-What is the name of a celestial object that results from a supernova explosion?
A:-Neutron star
B:-Black hole
C:-White dwarf
D:-All of the above
Question98:-What is the name of the process by which stars produce energy?
A:-Nuclear fission
B:-Radioactive decay
C:-Nuclear fusion
D:-Nuclear transmutation
Question99:-Which nation recently increased the age of consent in from 13 years old to 16 years old for ensuring the well-being and protection of young individuals ?
A:-South Korea
B:-Japan
C:-Pakistan
D:-Bangladesh
Question100:-What is Silent Barker in the context of space technology?
A:-A satellite constellation developed by the US Space Force and NRO to enhance global communication networks.
B:-A space mission aimed at exploring the possibility of extraterrestrial life.
C:-An initiative by the US Space Force to study and monitor the effects of climate change from space.
D:-A satellite constellation designed by US Space Force which has capacity to disable hostile space vehicles.
Question101:-What is Operation Karuna which was launched in May 2023?
A:-An Indian military operation to provide humanitarian aid to cyclone hit Myanmar
B:-An Indian military operation to rescue Indians from war torn Ukraine
C:-An Indian government initiative to peace between Indian and Myanmar
D:-Indian military operation to provide humanitarian aid to earth quake hit Syria
Question102:-What is a cloud kitchen?
A:-A kitchen located high up in the mountains.
B:-A kitchen that specializes in cooking with cloud-based technology.
C:-A type of kitchen that operates exclusively for online food delivery.
D:-A kitchen that serves only cloud-themed dishes.
Question103:-What is Euthanasia?
A:-A medical procedure to induce labor in pregnant women
B:-A method of treating mental health disorders
C:-The deliberate act of ending a person's life to relieve suffering
D:-A legal process for changing one's name
Question104:-What is the Rebuild Kerala Initiative?
A:-A campaign to promote tourism in the state of Kerala after COVID 19
B:-A program to rehabilitate and rebuild infrastructure after floods of 2018
C:-A social welfare scheme for the underprivileged in Kerala
D:-A cultural preservation project to protect heritage sites of Kera
Question105:-Who is the first Indian meteor astronomer recently honoured by International Astronomical Union by naming a minor planet in his name?
A:-Subramanya Chandrasekhar
B:-Aswin Sekhar
C:-Meganath Saha
D:-Jayant Narlikar
Question106:-Find the missing number in the series: 6,3,3,6,24,?
A:-186
B:-184
C:-188
D:-192
Question107:-John has two pieces of rope, one is 18 meters long and the other is 15 meters long. He wants to cut them into smaller pieces of equal length without any
rope left over. How many pieces will he have in total?
A:-11
B:-12
C:-10
D:-9
Question108:-A gardener has 36562 plants. He wants to arrange them in the form of a square with equal number of columns an rows. After arranging he found some of
the plants unused, the remaining plants is?
A:-36
B:-65
C:-81
D:-97

Question109:-The average score of a batsman after his 30th match was 25.5. After the 40th match, his average score increased by 3.2. What is his average score in the
last ten matches?
A:-38.3
B:-36.3
C:-40.3
D:-42.3
Question110:-In a class there are 48 students. The ratio of number of boys to number of girls is 5:3. The number of girls to be added to the class so that the number of
boys to girls is 6:5 is
A:-7
B:-6
C:-12
D:-17
Question111:-If the price of petrol increased by 20% by what percentage should the consumption be decreased by the consumer so that the expenditure on petrol
remains unchanged?
A:-16 ⅔
B:-6 ⅔
C:-8
D:-15
Question112:-By selling a table at Rs 475, a person loses 5%. To get a gain of 5%, he should sell the table for
A:-Rs 500
B:-Rs 525
C:-Rs 535
D:-Rs 575
Question113:-A certain sum becomes 8 fold in 15 year at simple interest. What will be the rate of interest?
A:-46 ⅗
B:-46 ⅔
C:-46 ⅜
D:-46 ⅖
Question114:-Arun starts a business with Rs. 8000 and Avinash joined him after 6 months with an investment of Rs. 40000. What will be the ratio of the profits of Arun
and Avinash at the end of the year?
A:-2:5
B:-1:5
C:-5:2
D:-5:1
Question115:-Ratio of milk and water in a mixture is 4:3 respectively. If 6 Litres of water is added to this mixture, the respective ratio of milk and water becomes 8:7. What
is the quantity of milk in the original mixture?
A:-98 Litres
B:-36 Litres
C:-84 Litres
D:-48 Litres
Question116:-A can do a piece of work in x days and B can do the work in 3x days. To finish the work together, they take 12 days. What is the value of x?
A:-8
B:-10
C:-12
D:-16
Question117:-Two cities A and B are 360 km apart. A car goes from A to B with a speed of 40 km/h and returns to A with a speed of 60 km/h. What is the average speed
of the car?
A:-45 km/hr
B:-50 km/hr
C:-48 km/hr
D:-55 km/hr
Question118:-There are two tanks A and B to fill up a water tank. The tank can be filled in 40 min together by A and B, if the tank can be filled in 60 min when tap A alone
is on. How much time will tap B alone take to fill up the tank?
A:-64 min
B:-80 min
C:-96 min
D:-120 min
Question119:-Select the letter cluster from among the given options which can replace the question (?) mark : BMRG, DLTF, FKVE, HJXD, ?
A:-JIZC
B:-JZIB
C:-GFIB
D:-MOLC
Question120:-Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.

Pilot: Cockpit:: Surgeon: ?
A:-Operating room
B:-Waiting room
C:-Hospital
D:-Scrub room

Question121:-Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?
1. Seed
2. Flower
3. Fruit
4. Tree
A:-1, 2, 3, 4
B:-4, 3, 2, 1
C:-1, 4, 2, 3
D:-4, 1, 2, 3
Question122:-From the given alternatives, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word

CHARACTERISTIC
A:-Race
B:-Skate
C:-Car
D:-Earth
Question123:-A man drove east for 5 kms, then drove north 3 kms, then turned to my left and drove for 2 kms and again turned to his left. Which direction was he going
now?
A:-South
B:-North
C:-West
D:-North- West
Question124:-Five boys A,B,C,D and E are in a row. A is on the right of B, E is on the left of B but on the right of C and A is on the left of D. Who is second from the left?
A:-D
B:-A
C:-E
D:-B
Question125:-In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements?

Statements:
1. No tap is nozzle
2. Some valves are taps

Conclusions:
I. All nozzles are valves
II. All valves are nozzles
A:-Only conclusion I follows
B:-Only conclusion II follows
C:-Neither conclusion I nor II follows
D:-Both conclusions follow
Question126:-In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements?

Statements:
1. All dogs are cats.
2. Some monkeys are cats

Conclusions:
I. Some monkeys are cats
II. No dog is cat
A:-Only conclusion I follows
B:-Only conclusion II follows
C:-Neither conclusion I nor II follows
D:-Both conclusions follow
Question127:-Read the given statements and conclusions carefully and decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:
1. People who live in the big city crowd into jammed buses
2. They cross the street in competition with high powered motor cars

Conclusions
I. Traffic jam is inevitable in big cities
II. Traveling is very difficult for city people
A:-Only conclusion I follows
B:-Only conclusion II follows
C:-Neither conclusion I nor II follows
D:-Both conclusions follow
Question128:-Given that 25 February 2008 is Monday, what day is 2 March of 2008?
A:-Tuesday
B:-Saturday
C:-Sunday
D:-Monday
Question129:-A clock with only dots marking 3,6,9 and 12 positions has been kept upside down in front of a mirror. A person reads the time in the reflection as 9:50.
What is the actual time?
A:-2:10
B:-8:40

C:-8:50
D:-4:15
Question130:-Manohar told his friend pointing to a photograph: "Her father is the only son of my mother". The photograph is of Manohar's:
A:-Niece
B:-Mother
C:-Daughter
D:-Sister
Question131:-Which of these is the chief court of the UN?
A:-International Court of Justice (ICJ)
B:-Permanent Court of International Justice (PCIJ)
C:-European Court of Justice (ECJ)
D:-International Criminal Court (ICC)
Question132:-Who among the following is called, “The father of International Law”
A:-Humphrey Waldock
B:-J. L. Brierly
C:-Hugo Grotius
D:-Pufendorf
Question133:-Which International Law provides a definition for the term "state"?
A:-Law of the Sea
B:-Law of Treaties
C:-Montevideo Convention
D:-International Criminal Law
Question134:-Which international agreement or document defines the concept of an Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)?
A:-Convention on the Law of the Sea
B:-Universal Declaration of Human Rights
C:-Free Trade Agreements
D:-Monroe Doctrine
Question135:-A state is admitted to the membership of the United Nations (U.N.) by:
A:-Through a majority vote of the U.N. General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council.
B:-By a unanimous decision of the U.N. Security Council upon recommendation of U.N. General Assembly
C:-Through a majority vote of the U.N. General Assembly upon the direct consideration of the request
D:-Through a direct approval from the U.N. Secretary-General upon consideration of the request
Question136:-What does the term "Persona non grata" refer to?
A:-A diplomat who is considered ungrateful by the receiving state
B:-A diplomat who is deemed inefficient by the receiving state
C:-A diplomat who is considered undesirable by the receiving state
D:-A diplomat who is considered most desirable by the receiving state
Question137:-Perspective that focuses on the idea that punishment should primarily serve as a means to inflict harm or suffering upon an offender
A:-Preventive Theory
B:-Deterrent Theory
C:-Reformative theory
D:-Retributive theory
Question138:-What does the term "Volksgeist" refer to?
A:-The concept of individualism and personal freedom.
B:-The belief in the superiority of one race over others
C:-The spiritual essence or collective spirit of a particular nation or culture.
D:-The idea of a global community and interconnectedness of humanity.
Question139:-Which School of Jurisprudence avoids any dogmatic formulation and concentrate on decisions given by law courts?
A:-Analytical
B:-Philosophical
C:-Realist
D:-Sociological
Question140:-Subordinate legislation includes
A:-Directions and notifications
B:-Acts of Parliament
C:-Rules and Regulations
D:-Both a and c
Question141:-Possession through a servant is an example of
A:-Mediate possession
B:-Incorporeal possession
C:-Immediate possession
D:-Corporeal possession
Question142:-The term Juristic person refers to ?
A:-Judge
B:-Legal Luminary
C:-Entity to which law attributes a personality
D:-None of the above
Question143:-What is the role of corroborative evidence in a legal proceeding?

A:-It provides additional support or confirmation to the main evidence.
B:-It undermines the credibility of the primary evidence.
C:-It is used to cross-examine witnesses during a trial.
D:-It refers to evidence that is inadmissible in court.
Question144:-What does the term "locus standi" mean in legal context?
A:-The physical location where a trial takes place.
B:-The right of an individual or party to bring a legal action.
C:-The judge's authority to make decisions in a case.
D:-The process of selecting a jury for a trial.
Question145:-What does the term "abettor" mean?
A:-A person who assists in the commission of a crime.
B:-A legal document that grants power of attorney.
C:-A type of legal defense in criminal cases.
D:-A formal accusation or charge brought against an individual.
Question146:-What is a characteristic of Public Interest Litigation (PIL)?
A:-Litigation involving disputes between private individuals.
B:-Litigation focused on personal financial interests.
C:-Litigation initiated for the protection of societal welfare.
D:-Litigation handled exclusively by government entities.
Question147:-What does the term "ipso facto" indicate?
A:-Automatic revocation of a contract.
B:-Voluntarily relinquishing one's rights in a legal proceeding.
C:-Direct result of something else that is already known
D:-Asserting a legal claim against a third party.
Question148:-What does the Civil Procedure Code lay down?
A:-Rules and procedures to be followed in civil litigation cases.
B:-Guidelines for investigations and prosecutions involving civilians
C:-Principles and regulations for administrative law cases.
D:-Standards and regulations for corporate governance.
Question149:-Prosecution is to Accused as is to Defendant?
A:-Munsiff
B:-Plaintiff
C:-Appellant
D:-Witness
Question150:-Chief Election Commissioner of India is
A:-Appointed by the Council of Ministers
B:-Appointed by the Prime minister
C:-Appointed by the Parliament
D:-Appointed by the President of India
Question151:-Which of the following principles is NOT explicitly mentioned in the Preamble?
A:-Liberty
B:-Equality
C:-Diversity
D:-Justice
Question152:-Provisions for amendment of Constitution is provided under
A:-Article 348
B:-Article 368
C:-Article 370
D:-Article 378
Question153:-Choose the correct option based on following:

Assertion (A): Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution are non-justifiable in nature.

Reason (R): The Directive Principles are essentially guiding principles for the government to strive towards achieving social and economic justice.

Please select the appropriate code for the given statements:
A:-Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B:-Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C:-A is true but R is false.
D:-A is false but R is true.
Question154:-Which one of the following is NOT a type of Emergency stipulated in Indian Constitution
A:-National Emergency
B:-State Emergency
C:-Financial Emergency
D:-Military Emergency
Question155:-Choose the correct option based on the statements given:

(1) In Civil law, the initiation of a case starts with the filing of a complaint by the aggrieved party against the wrongdoer, whereas in Criminal Law, the case is filed by the
Government against the accused.

(2) Burden of proving the evidence in Civil Law lies on the plaintiff, whereas in Criminal Law it always lies on the State.

A:-Only (1) is true
B:-Only (2) is true
C:-Both (1) and (2) are true
D:-Both (1) and (2) are false
Question156:-Choose the correct option based on the statements given:

(1) In Criminal Law, the punishment maybe given in terms of compensation whereby the wrongdoer reimburses the other party the amount of loss sustained by him as
decided by the court.

(2) In Criminal Law the guilty is punished by incarceration with or without fine, or in some rarest of the rare cases with death penalty.
A:-Only (1) is true
B:-Only (2) is true
C:-Both (1) and (2) are true
D:-Both (1) and (2) are false
Question157:-Which of the following statements best describes the Doctrine of Lis Pendens?
A:-It refers to the legal principle that states the first court to receive a case has exclusive jurisdiction over it.
B:-It is a legal doctrine that allows a plaintiff to initiate multiple lawsuits against the same defendant for the same cause of action.
C:-It is a doctrine that prohibits the transfer of property that is the subject of ongoing litigation.
D:-It is a principle that grants the court authority to dismiss a case without a trial if the plaintiff fails to present sufficient evidence.
Question158:-Choose the correct option based on the statements given:

(1) A transfer of ownership of property that is made voluntarily and without consideration is called a Lease

(2) When two persons transfer ownership of one thing for the ownership of another, it is called Gift
A:-Only (1) is true
B:-Only (2) is true
C:-Both (1) and (2) are true
D:-Both (1) and (2) are false
Question159:-Securing a Uniform Civil Code is a
A:-Fundamental Duty
B:-Fundamental Right
C:-Directive Principle of State Policy
D:-None of the above
Question160:-A liablity on property is known as
A:-Ownership
B:-Lease
C:-Consideration
D:-Encumberance
Question161:-According to the principle of joint liability, in an unlawful assembly with common object, which statement is true?
A:-The liability of each member in an unlawful assembly varies depending on their level of participation.
B:-Every member of an unlawful assembly is responsible only for their own acts.
C:-Every member of an unlawful assembly is responsible for acts committed by any other member.
D:-Only the main offender in an unlawful assembly is held liable for the acts committed.
Question162:-What does the term 'mens rea' refer to?
A:-The process used by the courts to establish guilt.
B:-The state of mind which may give rise to criminal liability.
C:-The phrase used when a defendant is found guilty of an offense.
D:-A phrase that means 'innocent person'.
Question163:-Choose the correct option based on the statements below:

Statement 1: Indian Penal Code and Criminal Procedure Code are both substantive law

Statement 2: Substantive Law prescribes the offences and the punishments for these offences
A:-Only statement 1 is true
B:-Only statement 2 is true
C:-Both statements are true
D:-Both statements are false
Question164:-The term 'Wrongful loss' means
A:-loss by unlawful means of property which the person losing it, is legally entitled
B:-loss by lawful means of property which the person losing it is not legally entitled
C:-loss by lawful means of property which the person losing is not legally entitled
D:-All the above
Question165:-The right to private defence is based on the natural instinct of:
A:-Justice and fairness
B:-Revenge and retaliation
C:-Self-preservation
D:-Avoiding legal consequences
Question166:-Under which of the following situations would Indian Courts have jurisdiction?
I. Crime committed by an Indian in a foreign country.
II. Crime committed by a foreigner in India.
III. Crime committed by a person on an Indian ship.
A:-I and II

B:-II only
C:-I and III
D:-I, II and III
Question167:-Liability in tort depends upon
A:-quantum of damages suffered
B:-involvement of intention
C:-infringement of legal right
D:-effect on public interest
Question168:-Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
A:-In tort, action lies against the wrong doer in a civil court.
B:-Tort is a civil wrong in which claim for unliquidated damages is made.
C:-For a tortuous liability, a jail term can also be awarded.
D:-In some torts an injunction can also be issued against the wrong-doer
Question169:-Choose the correct option based on the statements below:

Statement 1: An offer when accepted becomes an agreement. An offer and acceptance must be definite and certain.

Statement 2: A communication in electronic form or over emails does not amount to communication of offer or acceptance.
A:-Only (1) is true
B:-Only (2) is true
C:-Both (1) and (2) are true
D:-Both (1) and (2) are false
Question170:-Which among the following is not a reason for Discharge of a contract due to Impossibility of Performance :
A:-Destruction of the subject matter
B:-Death or incapacity
C:-Outbreak of war
D:-Unauthorized alteration of the terms of the agreement.
Question171:-Choose the correct option based on the statements below:

(1) Forum shopping is a practice that involves the intentional selection of a specific judge or court by litigants or lawyers in order to increase the chances of a favorable
outcome for their case.

(2) In the case of Vijay Kumar Ghai vs. State of W.B., the Supreme Court has recognized forum shopping as a reputable practice that has legal sanction and
paramountcy.
A:-Only (1) is true
B:-Only (2) is true
C:-Both (1) and (2) are true
D:-Both (1) and (2) are false
Question172:-According to a recent ruling by the Supreme Court,the constitution of committee that is responsible for selecting the Chief Election Commissioner and
Election Commissioners until a dedicated law is passed by the Parliament will be
A:-Prime Minister, Speaker of the Lok Sabha, and the Chief Justice of India
B:-Prime Minister, Speaker of the Lok Sabha, and Vice President of India
C:-Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha, and the Chief Justice of India
D:-President, Speaker of the Lok Sabha, and the Chief Justice of India
Question173:-Choose the correct option based on the statements below:

(1) Previously, penalties for anti-competitive behavior in India were based on the percentage of the entity's global turnover.

(2) After a recent amendment of Competition Act, the Competition Commission of India (CCI) is now authorized to penalize entities engaged in anti-competitive behavior
based on their domestic turnover.
A:-Only (1) is true
B:-Only (2) is true
C:-Both (1) and (2) are true
D:-Both (1) and (2) are false
Question174:-A is a term used to denote the legal status that provides same-sex couples specific rights and responsibilities normally conferred upon married
couples.
A:-Cohabitation Agreement
B:-Civil Union
C:-Secular Marriage
D:-Registered Union
Question175:-According to Section 27 of the Domestic Violence Act, who is allowed to invoke the law?
A:-Foreign citizens
B:-NRIs (Non-Resident Indians)
C:-Persons whose families belong to the jurisdiction of the family court
D:-All of the above
Question176:-Which of the following is NOT considered a basic structure of the Indian constitution?
A:-Supremacy of the Legislature
B:-Judicial Review
C:-Unity and integrity of the nation
D:-Federalism
Question177:-Choose the correct option based on the statements below:

(1) The Attorney-General of India is appointed by the President of India under Article 76 of the Indian Constitution.

(2) The tenure of the Attorney-General is specified as 5 years in the Constitution.

(3) The President of India has the authority to dismiss the Attorney-General.
A:-Only (1) is true
B:-Only (1) and (2) is true
C:-Only (1) and (3) is true
D:-All statements are true
Question178:- is the the deliberate process of legal evolution that involves formulating norms of human conduct in a set form through a prescribed
procedure by agencies designated by the Constitution?
A:-Legislation
B:-Precedent
C:-Jurisdiction
D:-Custom
Question179:-The legal system followed by the countries in the mainland of Western Europe, and distinguished from the legal system of England, is known as the

A:-Common Legal System
B:-Continental Legal System
C:-Islamic Legal System
D:-Customary Legal System
Question180:-Choose the correct option based on the statements below:

1. In Muslim Law, all property is one and there is no distinction between ancestral or self acquired or separate property, whereas in Hindu law there is separate and self
acquired property.

2. There are no such things as joint family property in a Muslim family whereas, amongst Hindus the concept of joint family property is prevalent.
A:-Only (1) is true
B:-Only (2) is true
C:-Both (1) and (2) are true
D:-Both (1) and (2) are false
Question181:- is an order of a superior court commanding a person holding a public office or a public authority to do or not to do something, in the nature of
public duty?
A:-Mandamus
B:-Habeas Corpus
C:-Certiorari
D:-Prohibition
Question182:-Choose the correct option based on the statements below:

1. In case of overlapping between three lists under Constitution regarding a matter, the predominance is given to the Union Law
2. Power to legislate with respect to any matter not enumerated in any three lists is given to both Union and States
A:-Only (1) is true
B:-Only (2) is true
C:-Both (1) and (2) are true
D:-Both (1) and (2) are false
Question183:-Choose the correct option based on the statements below:

1. Fundamental Rights are affirmative directions while Directive Principles are prohibitive in nature because they put limitations on the State

2. Fundamental Rights establish a Welfare State in India while Directive Principles make India a liberal political democracy.
A:-Only (1) is true
B:-Only (2) is true
C:-Both (1) and (2) are true
D:-Both (1) and (2) are false
Question184:-Which of the following statements about Rajya Sabha is true?
A:-Rajya Sabha is a temporary House that gets dissolved periodically.
B:-Members of Rajya Sabha are elected for four years.
C:-One-third of Rajya Sabha members retire every three years.
D:-Members elected against a mid-term vacancy serve for the remaining period only
Question185:-Who among the following is the Supreme Commander of Indian armed forces?
A:-Vice President of India
B:-Prime Minister of India
C:-President of India
D:-Defense Minister of India
Question186:-What is the term of Prime Minister as mentioned in the Constitution?
A:-5 Years
B:-6 Years
C:-No defined term
D:-None of the above
Question187:-In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following type of citizens?
A:-A woman or a child
B:-A mentally ill or otherwise disabled person
C:-An industrial workman

D:-All of the above
Question188:-Grievous Hurt is a crime defined under:
A:-Section 322 of IPC
B:-Section 324 of IPC
C:-Section 320 of IPC
D:-Section 420 of IPC
Question189:-What does UAPA stand for in the context of Indian law?
A:-Unauthorised Access (Protection) Act
B:-Unlawful Authorities (Prevention) Act
C:-Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act
D:-Unauthorised Association (Penalty) Act
Question190:-What is the term for a judicial inquiry into the cause of death of a person?
A:-Inquiry
B:-Inquest
C:-Autopsy
D:-Investigation
Question191:-What is the time limit for filing a claim in the Motor Accidents Claims Tribunal after a motor accident?
A:-30 days
B:-60 days
C:-90 days
D:-No time limit
Correct Answer:- Question Cancelled
Question192:-Which of the following statements is true about the POCSO Act and the Juvenile Justice Act?
A:-The POCSO Act applies to children below 18 years of age, while the Juvenile Justice Act applies to children below 16 years of age.
B:-The POCSO Act deals with sexual offences against children, while the Juvenile Justice Act deals with children in conflict with law and children in need of care
and protection.
C:-The POCSO Act allows for juveniles in conflict with law to be tried as adults for heinous offences, while the Juvenile Justice Act prohibits such trials.
D:-The POCSO Act has a separate provision for adoption of children, while the Juvenile Justice Act does not deal with adoption.
Question193:-What is the name of the committee that every employer is required to constitute under the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention,
Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013?
A:-Internal Complaints Committee
B:-Internal Protection Committee
C:-Internal Prevention Committee
D:-Internal Redressal Committee
Question194:-What is the name of the United Nations agency that sets international labour standards and promotes social and economic justice?
A:-International Labor Union
B:-International Labour Organization
C:-International Trade Union Confederation
D:-International Federation of Trade Unions
Question195:-Which of the following events does not constitute a "Force Majeure" according to the common definition of the term?
A:-A volcanic eruption that disrupts air travel and damages crops
B:-A labor strike that halts the production and delivery of goods
C:-A pandemic that causes lockdowns and quarantines around the world
D:-A breach of contract by one of the parties that results in financial loss
Question196:-Which agency was established under the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act?
A:-Central Bureau of Investigation
B:-Central Vigilance Commission
C:-Intelligence Bureau
D:-National Investigation Agency
Question197:-Who was the first woman judge to be elevated directly from the Bar Council of India to the Supreme Court of India?
A:-Fathima Beevi
B:-Sujata Manohar
C:-Indu Malhotra
D:-B. V. Nagarathna
Question198:-Which of the following High Courts of India does not have a common jurisdiction over two or more states or union territories?
A:-Allahabad High Court
B:-Bombay High Court
C:-Kerala High Court
D:-Gauhati High Court
Question199:-Which of the following words were added to the preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976?
A:-Sovereign and Democratic
B:-Socialist and Secular
C:-Republic and Fraternity
D:-Justice and Liberty
Question200:-Which of the following countries does not have a bicameral legislature?
A:-United Kingdom
B:-United States
C:-China
D:-India