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APTET Question Paper with Answers 10 Jun 2018 Paper 1 (Shift 1)

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Page 1

APTET – May – 2018
PAPER - 1
(10-6-2018 (S1)

1. For observing the behaviour of his students, the teacher
himself involved as a player in a game played by the students,
this type of observation is
1. Participatory observation
2. General observation
3. Non-participatory observation
4. Macro observation

Page 2

2. One of the following statements is true
1. Development is a short term process
2. There are no individual differences in development
3. Development is not uniform in all the developmental
stages
4. Development is not predictable

3. The third stage in the order of language development is
1. Bobbling stage
2. Prelingual stage
3. Language comprehension stage
4. Sound imitation stage

1.
2.
3.
4.

Page 3

4. One of the following techniques is not mentioned by Sigmund
Freud for dwelling out the repressed unconscious feelings
1. Free association
2. Gestaultism
3. Dream analysis
4. Hypnosis

5. The study that supports the influence of Heredity on
development of an individual
1. Pearson – Darwin’s family
2. Freeman – Miltred Rooth
3. Skodak – Foster children
4. Gordon – Gipsy children

Page 4

6. The following is a play that is said to be the first social
activity of a child with his friends
1. Solitary play
2. Parallel play
3. Co-operative play
4. Arrogant play

1.
2.
3.
4.

7. According to instincts and its corresponding emotions the
following is a right pair
1. Parental urge - anger
2. Curiosity - fear
3. Laughter – spirit/activeness
4. Structure - abhorrence

Page 5

8. Lack of concept of irreversibility is related to this stage of
Piaget’s Cognitive development
1. Sensory motor stage
2. Pre-operational stage
3. Concrete operational stage
4. Formal operational stage

9. The present performance of an individual that shows the
future achievement is
1. Interest
2. Aptitude
3. Attitude
4. Performance

Page 6

10. The stage of ‘obedience for avoiding punishment’ is in this
level of Kohlberg’s moral development
1. Pre-moral or Pre-conventional
2. Conventional moral level
3. Self accepted moral or Late conventional level
4. Natural moral level

11. Irrespective of his intention to participate in the essay
competition the child doesn’t participate in it because of his
fear of poor performance and not being able to get a reward.
The defense mechanism related to this is
1. Regression
2. Identification
3. Projection
4. Withdrawal

Page 7

12. Prameela got seat in a Govt. residential college. She likes to
join in that college but she does not like to reside in the
hostel. The conflict is
1. Approach - Approach
2. Approach - Avoidance
3. Avoidance - Avoidance
4. Double approach - Avoidance

13. One of the following is a secondary need
1. Food
2. Recognition
3. Sleep
4. Water

Page 8

14. Law of readiness, law of exercise, law of effect are the
outcomes of the following learning theory
1. Insight theory of learning
2. Trial and error theory of learning
3. Classical conditioning theory
4. Operant conditioning theory

15. The type of reinforcement related to acquiring own standards
without expecting anything from others
1. Direct Reinforcement
2. Indirect Reinforcement
3. Self Reinforcement
4. Negative Reinforcement

Page 9

16. In this type of memory the content is in memory for a long
time
1. Rote memory
2. Short term memory
3. Passive memory
4. Active memory

17. Even though we haven’t seen the situation we are seeing now,
we feel it as we have seen that before – this feeling is,
1. Zeigarnik effect
2. Hallo effect
3. Deja vu
4. Gestalt effect

Page 10

18. One of the following enhances memory
1. Repression
2. Disuse
3. Interference
4. Motivation

19. In terms of transfer of learning ‘the effect of mother tongue in
learning correct pronunciation of a foreign language’ can be
termed as,
1. Positive transfer
2. Negative transfer
3. Bilateral transfer
4. Zero transfer

Page 11

20. The gradual disappearance of conditioned response of
Salivation to bell in classical conditioning is
1. Reinforcement
2. Spontaneous Recovery
3. Generalization
4. Extinction

21. One of the following is a reason for mental ill-health in
students
1. Pleasant school atmosphere
2. Over burdened learning programs
3. Flexible examination system
4. Healthy habits of students

Page 12

22. According to Bandura the first item in the process of social
learning is
1. Retention
2. Reproduction
3. Attention
4. Reinforcement

23. The following is not related to Bruner’s Theory of Instruction
1. Readiness
2. Analysis
3. Content construction
4. Serial order

Page 13

24. There are 151 students in a primary school. As per RTE Act -
2009 the number of teachers to be placed in the school
1. 5 primary teachers + one science teacher
2. 4 primary teachers + one language teacher
3. 4 primary teachers + one head teacher
4. 5 primary teachers + one head teacher

25. As per NCF-2005, the general aspect which is a physical
inconvenience to children
1. Caring school staff
2. Proximity in availability of school
3. Well equipped Toilets
4. Over burdened school bags

NCF-

Page 14

26. In this leadership style, the leader is nominal and the
members enjoy complete freedom and take final decisions by
themselves.
1. Democratic
2. Autocratic
3. Laissez faire
4. Mixed

27. The type of counselling process proposed by Carl Rogers is
1. Directive counselling
2. Non-directive counselling
3. Eclectic counselling
4. Dominant counselling

Page 15

28. Among the following ‘Educable mentally retarded’ are
1. Profound mentally retarded
2. Severe mentally retarded
3. Moderate mentally retarded
4. Mild mentally retarded

29. Intellectual resource among the following
1. Scientists
2. Water falls
3. Farm fields
4. Zoo

Page 16

30. In the formative assessment, weightage to be given for
slip-test is

1. 10 marks
2. 20 marks
3. 25 marks
4. 15 marks

Page 17

31.

32.

33. ______

Page 18

34.

35.

36.

37.

Page 19

38.

39.

40.

41.

Page 20

42.

43.

44.

45.

Page 21

46.

47.

48.

49.

Page 22

50.

51.

Page 23

52.

53.

54.

Page 24

55.

56.

57.

Page 25

58.

59.

60.

Page 26

61. The snow covered up the grass with her great white cloak.
Choose the meaning of the word “cloak” .

1. a short wide pipe.
2. a small brown and grey bird.
3. a strong wind.
4. a type of coat that has no sleeves.

62. Usha’s meticulous systematic training began in earnest.
Choose the synonym of the word, ‘earnest’.

1. calm
2. serious
3. untidy
4. thin

Page 27

63. Oliver was frightened at the sight of so many gentlemen,
which made him tremble.

Choose the antonym of the word, ‘many’.

1. several
2. few
3. any
4. a few

64. Choose the word with wrong spelling.

1. aboriginol
2. spectacle
3. miniature
4. inhabitants

65. Ramesh set up a new business.

Choose the meaning of the phrasal verb ‘set up’ in the
context.
1. bought
2. offered
3. started
4. showed

Page 28

66. Choose the suffix that suits the word “quick” to form an
adverb.

1. ly
2. lly
3. ness
4. er

67. If you are thirsty, you can drink buttermilk.

This is;
1. a simple sentence
2. a compound sentence
3. a complex sentence
4. an interrogative sentence

68. Choose the grammatically correct sentence from the
following.

1. One should do his duty.
2. One should do one’s duty.
3. One should do her duty.
4. One should do their duty.

Page 29

69. How can you ………. that ?
Choose the correct form of the verb that fits the blank.

1. say
2. said
3. says
4. have said

70. They never expected to have any more.

Choose the part of speech of the word, ‘never’.

1. a pronoun
2. a conjunction
3. an adverb
4. an adjective

71. He hopes that he will win the first prize.

This sentence has;

1. a noun clause
2. a conditional clause
3. a defining relative clause
4. a non-defining relative clause

Page 30

72. The patient had died before the doctor …………. .

Choose the correct form of the verb that fits the blank.

1. arriving
2. arrived
3. was arriving
4. had arrived

73. Manjula and Sruthi play ………… guitar well.

Choose the correct article that fits the blank.
1. a
2. an
3. the
4. No article is needed.

74. The teacher explained the problem ………. the students.

Choose the correct preposition that fits the blank.

1. with
2. to
3. by
4. up

Page 31

75. Lara is not so great as Tendulkar.

Choose the comparative degree of this sentence.

1. Tendulkar is as great as Lara.
2. Tendulkar is greater than Lara.
3. Lara is greater than Tendulkar.
4. Lara is as great as Tendulkar.

76. You must take care of your parents.

This sentence indicates;

1. obligation
2. suggestion
3. command
4. request

77. Come out now, Cousin.

Choose the correct question tag of this sentence.

1. do you ?
2. don’t you ?
3. are you ?
4. won’t you ?

Page 32

78. “ I’ll catch you in a minute ”, replied Seema.

Choose the correct reported speech of the sentence.

1. Seema said to that she will catch you in a minute.
2. Seema says that she would catch him in a minute.
3. Seema replied that she would catch him in a minute.
4. Seema told that she will catch you in a minute.

79. I built a high wall all around.

Choose the correct passive voice of the sentence.

1. A high wall is built by me all around.
2. A high wall was built all around by me.
3. I was built a high wall all around.
4. All around a high wall has been built by me.

80. Choose the correctly punctuated sentence.

1. “I’m sorry,” the chemist said.
2. “I’m sorry the chemist said”
3. I’m sorry, “the chemist said.”
4. “I’m sorry” the chemist said.

Page 33

81. The following is NOT the part of a letter to apply for a job.

1. The details of father.
2. Educational Qualifications.
3. Age and date of birth.
4. Contact details.

82. Choose the list of words in the correct alphabetical order.

1. property, properly, proper, properate
2. proper, properate, property, properly
3. proper, properate, properly, property
4. properate, properly, property, proper

83. Read the passage and choose the correct answer to the
question given after.

Horses have close to 360 degree all-round vision. The only
place they cannot see is directly behind or right in front of
them, which is why it’s dangerous to stand behind a horse.
The horse riders cover their horse’s eyes with blinkers.

The horse riders cover their horse’s eyes with blinkers so that
the horses.
1. can see what is behind.
2. can move faster.
3. can carry heavy loads.
4. can focus only to the road ahead.

Page 34

84. Read the passage and choose the correct answer to the
question given after.
A library inspires the students to develop the habit of reading
books. The reading room provides an atmosphere where
every man wants to read the books.

We can develop our reading habit;
1. by visiting a library frequently.
2. by watching TV serials.
3. by visiting our friends’ houses.
4. by meeting people in various places.

85. Formative evaluation is:

1. a process of conducting test on the whole syllabus.
2. a process of ultimate feedback on performance.
3. a process of ongoing feedback on performance.
4. a process of assessing all-round development.

86. While searching for a particular train in the Railway
timetable, we use the following reading technique.

1. Extensive reading
2. Skimming
3. Scanning
4. Intensive reading

Page 35

87. The following is not suggested to be prescribed in the
supplementary reader as syllabus.

1. Stories
2. Incidents
3. Descriptions
4. Poems

88. The following focuses on natural way of learning a second
language like that of the acquisition of the first language.

1. Direct method
2. Translation method
3. S.O.S. method
4. Bilingual method

89. The form of reliability that is used to judge the consistency of
results across items on the same test is;

1. Test – Retest Reliability
2. Inter-rater Reliability
3. Split Item Reliability
4. Parallel – Forms Reliability

Page 36

90. Middle English was the result of the:

1. Norman Invasion
2. Saxon Invasion
3. Anglo-Saxon Invasion
4. West Saxon Invasion

Page 37

91. 1 billion is equal to

1. 10 millions
2. 100 millions
3. 1000 lakhs
4. 10000 lakhs

92. The sum of first three common multiples of 3, 4 and 9 is

1. 108
2. 144
3. 216
4. 252

93. Convert 2 : 3 into percentage

200
1. %
3
200
2. %
300
2
3. %
300
100
4. %
3

Page 38

3
94. The following fraction is equivalent to
5
3
5

5
1.
3
9
2.
25
9
3.
15
13
4.
15

95. The next number in the pattern 62, 37, 12, ….. is

62, 37, 12 …

1. 25
2. 13
3. 0
4. 13

96. The cost of 20 tons of iron is ` 6,00,000 then the cost of
560 kg of iron is (in rupees)

`

1. 1680000
2. 168000
3. 16800
4. 33600

Page 39

97. A lorry requires 54 liters of diesel to travel a distance of
297 km then the diesel required to travel a distance of 550 km
is (in liters)

1. 100
2. 50
3. 25.16
4. 25

98. The interest on ` 12000 for one month at the rate of 10% per
annum is (in Rupees)

`

1. 12100
2. 1200
3. 600
4. 100

Page 40

99. A triangle shaped instrument in the geometry box is called

1. Protractor
2. Compass
3. Divider
4. Set square

1.
2.
3.
4.

100. The angle between two parallel lines is

1. 0o
2. 90o
3. 180o
4. 270o

101. The three angles of a quadrilateral are 55o, 65o and 105o
respectively then the fourth angle is
55o, 65o
105o

1. 85o
2. 105o
3. 115o
4. 135o

Page 41

102. If an angle is 4 times of its supplement then the measure of
that angle is

1. 36o
2. 72o
3. 108o
4. 144o

103. The 3D shaped figure which does not have a vertex

1. Cone
2. Sphere
3. Pyramid
4. Prism

1.
2.
3.
4.

Page 42

2 9 2x 1
3 3 3
104. If then the value of x is
13 13 13

2 9 2x 1
3 3 3
‘x’
13 13 13

1. 6
2. 5
3. 5
4. 6

5 4
105. The order of the polynomial 4 x 3 x 3 x 2 is
2
5 4
4 x3 x 3x 2
2
5
1.
2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 2

106. Twice of a number reduced by 10 equals to 32 then the
number is

1. 32
2. 21
3. 11
4. 10

Page 43

107. Area of a rectangle and the area of a circle are equal. If the
dimensions of the rectangle are 14cm 11cm then the radius
of the circle is (in cms)

1. 21
2. 14
3. 10.5
4. 7

108. The cost of fencing a square park of side 250 m. at the rate of
` 20 per meter is (in Rupees)

`

1. 5000
2. 10,000
3. 20,000
4. 50,000

109. 1 kilo liter in milliliters

1. 10,00,000
2. 1,00,000
3. 10,000
4. 1,000

Page 44

110. Neeraja studies from 7.00 PM to 8.15 PM then the time
allotted for her studies is (in minutes)

PM PM

1. 45
2. 60
3. 75
4. 115

111. The marks obtained by 15 students in a test respectively are
8, 1, 5, 2, 6, 5, 5, 0, 1, 9, 7, 8, 0, 3, 5. The number of students
who got 5 or more than 5 marks are

8, 1, 5, 2, 6, 5, 5, 0,
1, 9, 7, 8, 0, 3, 5

1. 9
2. 8
3. 7
4. 5

Page 45

112. The tally mark that represents ‘9’ is

1.
2.
3.
4.

113. Length of the class of the class intervals 125-150, 150-175,
175-200, ….. is

125-150, 150-175, 175-200, ….

1. 150
2. 175
3. 25
4. 25

114. If Tushar ate 3 parts out of 5 parts of a cake then the
remaining part in fraction form is

3
1.
5
2
2.
5
5
3.
3
5
4.
2

Page 46

115. “Mathematics is the science of quantity” defined by
1. August Comte
2. Benjamin Pierce
3. Aristotle
4. Eudoxus

1.
2.
3.
4.

116. The Educational Value that was not shown in “Young’s
Classification”

1. Utilitarian value

2. Other functions of mathematics

3. Mathematics as a mode of thought

4. Disciplinary value

1.
2.
3.
4.

Page 47

117. One of the characteristic feature of “Deductive Method”

1. Example to Principle
2. General to Specific
3. Unknown to known
4. Concrete to Abstract

1.
2.
3.
4.

118. This aid is used in teaching of “Geometrical Concepts”
1. Grid paper
2. Bulletin board
3. Geo board
4. Notice board

1.
2.
3.
4.

Page 48

119. One of the following does not belong to the “principles of
curriculum construction” -
1. Principle of utility
2. Principle of correlation
3. Principle of child centeredness
4. Spiral approach

1.
2.
3.
4.

120. The Academic Standard to be tested through the following
test item
“Show 3 4 = 12 on the number line”

1. Reasoning - Proof
2. Communication
3. Connection
4. Representation - Visualization

3 4 = 12

1.
2.
3.
4.

Page 49

121. The fibre that gives pungent smell on burning
1. Silk
2. Cotton
3. Wool
4. Nylon

122. The nearest atmospheric layer to the earths surface is
1. Stratosphere
2. Thermosphere
3. Troposphere
4. Ionosphere

Page 50

123. The thermometric substance in Galileo’s thermometer is
1. Mercury
2. Alcohol
3. Bromine
4. Air

124. The bulb that consumes more electricity among the bulbs
with wattages 25W, 40W, 60W and 100W is

25W, 40W, 60W 100W

1. 100 W
2. 25 W
3. 60 W
4. 40 W

Page 51

125. The self adjusting force is
1. Static friction
2. Sliding friction
3. Rolling friction
4. Fluid friction

126. The chemical nature of metallic oxide is
1. Acidic
2. Basic
3. Amphoteric
4. Neutral

Page 52

127. In a food chain decomposers are also called as
1. Producers
2. Primary consumers
3. Secondary consumers
4. Recyclers

128. “Micro organisms could be killed by boiling”. This was
proved by
1. Lazzaro Spallanzani
2. Ronald Ross
3. Edward Jenner
4. Jonas Salk

Page 53

129. The joints between the skull bones are
1. Hinge joints
2. Pivotal joints
3. Fixed joints
4. Ball and socket joints

130. Earthworm breathes through its
1. Lungs like sacs
2. Whole body surface
3. Trachea
4. Net work of respiratory tubes

Page 54

131. For free medical and health suggestions Government
provided a phone number. It is

1. 108
2. 104
3. 1098
4. 100

132. Choose the correct pair
1. Mary Kom - Boxing
2. Methali Raj - Badminton
3. Saina Nehwal - Cricket
4. Koneru Humpy - Kabaddi

Page 55

133. The weapon used by Eskimos to hunt Seals is
1. Stones
2. Dogger
3. Harpoon
4. Gun

134. The person responsible for Jallianwala Bagh massacre
1. General Dyer
2. Lord Rippon
3. Lord Curzon
4. Lord Litton

Page 56

135. River Nile joins in this sea
1. Aral Sea
2. Caspian Sea
3. Mediterranean Sea
4. Black Sea

136. Paper industries are using this as a substitute to Bamboo
1. Neem
2. Subabul
3. Jatropa
4. Pine

Page 57

137. The popular king in Gupta’s dynasty
1. Chandragupta Vikramaditya
2. Ashoka
3. Bindusara
4. Ajatha Sathru

138. Generally the direction shown at the top of a map
1. North
2. South
3. East
4. West

Page 58

139. The brave man who revolted against Moghals and established
Maratha Kingdom
1. Shivaji
2. Sambhaji
3. Shahaji Bhosle
4. Samardha Ramadasu

140. The largest plateau in India
1. Tibet Plateau
2. Deccan Plateau
3. Malwa Plateau
4. Chota Nagapur Plateau

Page 59

141. Different forms of condensed water vapour falling on the
Earth is known as
1. Condensation
2. Precipitation
3. Evaporation
4. Humidity

142. The trees that grow only in very cold climates and have
snowfall
1. Teak
2. Mahagani
3. Eboni
4. Coniferous

Page 60

143. The rate of interest paid to recurring deposits when compared
to fixed deposits is always…
1. More
2. Less
3. Equal
4. Too high

144. ‘Khudkhasth’ means
1. Self cultivated land by Zamindars
2. Tax paid by farmers
3. Tax paid by employees
4. Tax levied by Church

Page 61

145. Expand NNP
1. Net National Productivity
2. Normal Nutrition Productivity
3. Net National Procedure
4. Normal Nutrition Process

NNP

146. Affective domain is related to
1. Body
2. Consciousness
3. Heart
4. Brain

Page 62

147. The curriculum should possess this characteristic feature
1. Rigidity
2. Elasticity
3. Limitedness
4. Unlimitedness

148. The highest percentage of learning takes place through this
sense organ of our body
1. Ear
2. Nose
3. Eye
4. Skin

Page 63

149. ‘A project is a unit of activity in which pupils are made
responsible for planning and purposing’. This definition is
given by
1. W.H. Kilpatrick
2. Ballard
3. J.A. Stevenson
4. Parkar

150. Qualitative assessment tool among the following
1. Data analysis
2. Survey
3. Biography
4. Rating scale

Page 64

TET-June- 2018 - Final key
Paper-I - Telugu Medium - Set-A 10.06.2018 Morning Session
Q. Nos. CDP Q. Nos. Telugu Q. Nos. English Q. Nos. Maths Q. Nos. EVS
1 1 31 2 61 4 91 4 121 4
2 3 32 3 62 2 92 3 122 3
3 4 33 4 63 2 or 4 93 1 123 4
4 2 34 4 64 1 94 3 124 1
5 1 35 3 65 3 95 2 125 1
6 2 36 4 66 1 96 3 126 2
7 3 37 2 67 3 97 1 127 4
8 2 38 2 68 2 98 4 128 1
9 2 39 1 69 1 99 4 129 3
10 1 40 2 70 3 100 1 130 2
11 4 41 3 71 1 101 4 131 2
12 2 42 1 72 2 102 4 132 1
13 2 43 3 73 3 103 2 133 3
14 2 44 2 74 2 104 1 134 1
15 3 45 3 75 2 105 3 135 3
16 4 46 2 76 1 106 2 136 2
17 3 47 4 77 4 107 4 137 1
18 4 48 4 78 3 108 3 138 1
19 2 49 4 79 2 109 1 139 1
20 4 50 2 80 1 110 3 140 2
21 2 51 3 81 1 111 1 141 2
22 3 52 1 82 3 112 3 142 4
23 2 53 2 83 4 113 3 143 2
24 4 54 4 84 1 114 2 144 1
25 4 55 3 85 3 115 3 145 1
26 3 56 4 86 3 116 4 146 3
27 2 57 2 87 4 117 2 147 2
28 4 58 2 88 1 118 3 148 3
29 1 59 1 89 3 119 4 149 4
30 2 60 2 90 1 120 4 150 4

Document Details

Board / OrgAndhra Pradesh Exams
ExamAndhra Pradesh Teacher Eligibility Test
TypeQuestion Paper
Pages64
Updated09 Jun 2026