CLAT 2025 Question Paper

Entrance Exam
2025

QUESTION
PAPER

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UG 2025 Question Booklet No.

* 1. Name of Candidate :

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Instructions to Candidates
Duration of Test : 2 hours (120 minutes) Maximum Marks : 120
1. This Question Booklet (QB) contains 120 4. You should write the QB Number, and the
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for rough work. is for 120 marks. Every Right Answer secures
1 mark. Every Wrong Answer results in the
2. You have to answer ALL questions in the
deduction of 0.25 mark. There shall be no

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DO NOT OPEN TILL 2 P.M.
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Contents of Question Paper

Subject Q. Nos. Page No.

English Language 1 – 24 3–8

Current Affairs Including General Knowledge 25 – 52 9 – 17

Legal Reasoning 53 – 84 18 – 27

Logical Reasoning 85 – 108 28 – 34

Quantitative Techniques 109 – 120 35 – 38

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english Language

I. From a very early age, I knew that when I grew up, I should be a writer. I had the lonely
child’s habit of making up stories and holding conversations with imaginary persons,
* and I think from the very start my literary ambitions were mixed up with the feeling
of being isolated and undervalued. I knew that I had a facility with words and a power
of facing unpleasant facts, and I felt that this created a sort of private world in which
I could get my own back for my failure in everyday life. I wanted to write enormous
naturalistic novels with unhappy endings, full of detailed descriptions and arresting
similes, and also full of purple passages in which words were used partly for the sake
of their sound. I give all this background information because I do not think one can
assess a writer’s motives without knowing something of his early development.

His subject-matter will be determined by the age he lives in – at least this is true in
tumultuous, revolutionary ages like our own – but before he ever begins to write he
will have acquired an emotional attitude from which he will never completely escape.
It is his job to discipline his temperament, but if he escapes from his early influences
altogether, he will have killed his impulse to write. I think there are four great motives for
writing, at any rate for writing prose. They are: (i) Sheer egoism: Desire to seem clever,
to be talked about, to be remembered after death, to get your own back on grown-ups
who snubbed you in childhood; (ii) Aesthetic enthusiasm: Desire to share an experience
which one feels is valuable and ought not to be missed (iii) Historical impulse: Desire to
see things as they are, to find out true facts and store them up for the use of posterity
(iv) Political purpose : Desire to push the world in a certain direction, to alter other
people’s idea of the kind of society that they should strive after.

[Extracted with edits from George Orwell’s “Why I Write”]

1. For the author, aesthetic enthusiasm is an important motive for writing because it ...
(A) shapes the thoughts
(B) creates an artistic piece
(C) becomes invaluable
(D) non-utilitarian
2. The author strongly advocates the writers to:
(A) avoid any egoistic impression in their work
(B) be apolitical in their approach
(C) be contemporary in their treatment of their work
(D) None of the above

3. Which of the following is a synonym for the word “tumultuous”?
(A) Chaotic
(B) Turbulent
(C) Disorderly
(D) All of the above

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4. George Orwell’s loneliness during childhood led to
(A) estrangement with his father
(B) unhappy days
(C) making up stories
(D) unpleasant incidents

5. Why does Orwell give background information?
(A) He had the lonely child’s habits
(B) It is essential to know about motives of writers
(C) Because of his historic impulse
(D) Due to the aesthetic enthusiasm

6. If writer escapes from early impulses, he will ...
(A) lose his urge to write
(B) be unable to imagine creatively
(C) be able to converse with imaginary characters
(D) be able to influence others

II. Education is not the amount of information that is put into your brain and runs riot there,
undigested, all your life. We must have life-building, man-making, character-making
assimilation of ideas…. If education were identical with information, the libraries are
the sages in the world and encyclopaedias are the rishis. Getting by heart the thoughts
of others in a foreign language and stuffing your brain with them and taking some
University degree, you consider yourself educated. Is this education? What is the goal
of your education? Open your eyes and see what a piteous cry for food is rising in the
land of Bharata, proverbial for its food. Will your education fulfill this want?

We want that education by which character is formed, strength of mind is increased,
the intellect is expanded and by which one can stand on one’s own feet. What we need
to study independent of foreign control, different branches of the knowledge that is our
own, and with it the English language and Western science; we need technical education
and all else that will develop industries so that men instead of seeking for service may
earn enough to provide for themselves and save against a rainy day. The end of all
education, all training, should be man-making. The end and aim of all training are to
make the man grow. The training by which the current expression of will are brought
under control and become fruitful, is called education. What our country now wants
are muscles of iron and nerves of steel, gigantic wills, which nothing can resist, which
can penetrate into the mysteries and secrets of the universe and will accomplish their
purpose in any fashion, even if it meant going down to the bottom of the ocean, meeting
death face to face.

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There is only one method of attaining knowledge. It is by concentration. The very essence
of education is concentration of mind. From the lowest to the highest man, all have to
use the same method to attain knowledge. The chemist who works in the laboratory
concentrates on elements to analyze them. Knowledge is acquired by concentration.
* [Extracted with edits from “Education” by Swami Vivekananda]
7. According to the author, we need to study:
(A) English Language
(B) Technical Education
(C) Western Science
(D) All of the above

8. According to the author, which among the following is key to attain knowledge?
(A) University Degrees
(B) Library
(C) Concentration of mind
(D) Hard work and sports training

9. Which of the following words is related to the word “assimilation”?
(A) Integration
(B) Adjustment
(C) Acclimatization
(D) All of the above

10. Education, as described by the author means:
(A) Information
(B) Library
(C) Degrees
(D) None of the above

11. As per the author, the aim of education should be:
(A) to help a person build his/her character
(B) to help a person earn his/her livelihood
(C) to help a person develop his/her intellect
(D) All of the above

12. According to the author the country wants:
(A) massive will power
(B) spirit of philanthropy
(C) iron and steel industries
(D) All of the above

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III. Punctually at midday, he opened his bag and spread out his professional equipment,
which consisted of a dozen cowrie shells, a square piece of cloth with obscure mystic
charts on it, a notebook, and a bundle of palmyra writing. His forehead was dazzling
with sacred ash and vermilion, and his eyes sparkled with a sharp, abnormal gleam
which was really an outcome of a continual searching look for customers, but which
his simple clients took to be a prophetic light and felt comforted. The power of his eyes
was considerably enhanced by their position—placed as they were between the painted
forehead and the dark whiskers which streamed down his cheeks: even a half-wit’s eyes
would sparkle in such a setting. People were attracted to him as bees are attracted to
cosmos or dahlia stalks. He sat under the boughs of a spreading tamarind tree which
flanked a path running through the town hall park. It was a remarkable place in many
ways: a surging crowd was always moving up and down this narrow road morning till
night. A variety of trades and occupations was represented all along its way: medicine
sellers, sellers of stolen hardware and junk, magicians, and, above all, an auctioneer
of cheap cloth, who created enough din all day to attract the whole town. Next to him
in vociferousness came a vendor of fried groundnut, who gave his ware a fancy name
each day, calling it “Bombay Ice Cream” one day, and on the next “Delhi Almond,”
and on the third “Raja’s Delicacy,” and so on and so forth, and people flocked to him.
A considerable portion of this crowd dallied before the astrologer too. The astrologer
transacted his business by the light of a flare which crackled and smoked up above the
groundnut heap nearby.
(Extracted with edits from “An Astrologer’s Day” by R.K. Narayan)

13. Which among the following is the word for the phrase ‘Bright and colourful in an
impressive way’ ?
(A) Mystic (B) Flare (C) Sparkle (D) Dazzling

14. Which among the following is not a trade or occupation represented in the pathway
running through the town hall park?
(A) Magicians (B) Medicine sellers
(C) Auctioneers of cheap Bags (D) Sellers of Stolen Hardware

15. Who among the following used names like “Bombay Ice Cream”, “Delhi Almond,”
and “Raja’s Delicacy” to attract the crowd?
(A) The sellers of cheap clothes (B) The sellers of Medicine
(C) The ice cream seller (D) The groundnut seller

16. Which among the following is the meaning of the expression ‘vociferousness’ ?
(A) Expressing opinions or feelings in a loud and confident way
(B) Words that are spoken or sung to have a magical effect
(C) Willing or prepared to do something
(D) To hang about aimlessly

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17. When did the astrologer usually start his day’s business?
(A) When people are attracted to him as bees
(B) When the surging crowd moves up and down the road
(C) Punctually at midday
(D) By the light of a flare

18. What was considered as a prophetic light by the simple clients of the
astrologer?
(A) The resplendent forehead of the astrologer with sacred ash and vermillion
(B) The sparkling eyes of the astrologer with an abnormal gleam
(C) The dark whiskers which streamed down the cheeks of the astrologer
(D) The saffron coloured turban around the head of astrologer

IV. The right kind of education consists in understanding the child as he is without imposing
upon him an ideal of what we think he should be. To enclose him in the framework
of an ideal is to encourage him to conform, which breeds fear and produces in him a
constant conflict between what he is and what he should be: and all inward conflicts
have their outward manifestations in society. If the parent loves the child, he observes
him, he studies his tendencies, his moods, and peculiarities. It is only when one feels
no love for the child that one imposes upon him an ideal, for then one’s ambitions are
trying to fulfill themselves in him, wanting him to become this or that. If one loves, not
the ideal but the child, then there is a possibility of helping him to understand himself
as he is.

Ideals are a convenient escape, and the teacher who follows them is incapable of
understanding his students and dealing with them intelligently; for him, the future
ideal, the what should be, is far more important than the present child. The pursuit of
an ideal excludes love, and without love no human problem can be solved. If the teacher
is of the right kind, he will not depend on a method, but will study each individual pupil.
In our relationship with children and young people, we are not dealing with mechanical
devices that can be quickly repaired, but with living beings who are impressionable,
volatile, sensitive, afraid, affectionate: and to deal with them, we have to have great
understanding, the strength of patience and love. When we lack these, we look to quick
and easy remedies and hope for marvellous and automatic results. If we are unaware,
mechanical in our attitudes and actions, we fight shy of any demand upon us that is
disturbing and that cannot be met by an automatic response, and this is one of our
major difficulties in education.
(Extract with edits from “The right kind of Education” by J. Krishna Murti)

19. According to the passage, why do we look for quick and easy remedies and hope
for marvellous and automatic results?
(A) Because children are impressionable, volatile, sensitive, and affectionate
(B) Because of major difficulties in education
(C) Because we lack intelligence and skills
(D) Because we lack understanding, patience and love

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20. What does the passage highlight as the quality of a parent who really desires to
understand his child?
(A) They look at their child through the prism of an ideal
(B) They observe and study the tendencies, moods, and peculiarities of the
child
(C) They love their child to become someone great as per their ambitions
(D) They encourage the child to find out what she/he is and what she/he should
be

21. What is the antonym for the word “volatile”?
(A) Stable
(B) Steady
(C) Constant
(D) All of the above

22. Which of the following currently reflects the intention of the author of this
passage?
(A) The right kind of education for a child cannot be without love, care and
understanding
(B) True education should be governed by a tendency to conform a child to our
ideals
(C) The teacher should focus on how a child should be according to his/her
methodology, hope, or expectation
(D) Parents and teachers should work together collectively to guide a child on
what she/he should do as per their ambitions

23. In light of the above passage, what will be the result of forcing a child to conform
to the framework of an ideal?
(A) It will make the child an ideal child
(B) It will create confusion and fear in the child
(C) The child will get into a conflict
(D) Will discourage the child to conform to the ideal

24. According to the author, what should be the attitude of a right kind of teacher?
(A) They should not empathise with the students
(B) They should use modern and scientific methods of teaching
(C) They should focus on studying each student individually
(D) They should instill great ideals in the students

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Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

V. Chinese President Xi Jinping and Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi used a BRICS
summit in Russia recently to showcase ambitions for a more harmonious relationship
between the world’s two most populous countries after years of animosity.

The meeting between Xi and Modi, who have not held formal talks for five years, was
one highlight of a summit. BRICS also gave an opportunity to the Russian President
Vladimir Putin for showcasing that the West had failed to isolate Russia over the
Ukraine war.

A final communique listed a number of projects aimed at facilitating trade between
BRICS nations - including an alternative payment system to the dollar - but did not
include details or timelines.

Just two days after New Delhi announced that it had reached a deal with Beijing to
resolve a four-year military stand-off on their disputed Himalayan frontier, Xi told
Modi that they should enhance communication and cooperation and effectively manage
differences.

BRICS - an idea thought up inside Goldman Sachs two decades ago to describe the
growing economic clout of China and other major emerging markets - is now a group
that accounts for 45% of the world’s population and 35% of the global economy.

Former Goldman Sachs economist Jim O’Neill, who coined the BRIC term in 2001,
told Reuters that he had little optimism for the BRICS club as long as China and India
remained so divided.

“It seems to me basically to be a symbolic annual gathering where important emerging
countries, particularly noisy ones like Russia, but also China, can basically get together
and highlight how good it is to be part of something that doesn’t involve the U.S. and
that global governance isn’t good enough,”

The 43-page final communique from the summit ranged from geopolitics and narcotics
to artificial intelligence and even the preservation of Big Cats, but lacked detail on some
major issues. It mentioned Ukraine just once.

(Excerpts from “Putin scores a BRICS win with rare Xi and Modi show of harmony” By
Vladimir Soldatkin and Guy Faulconbridge , Reuters, October 23, 2024)

25. The 16th BRICS achieved the following:
(A) Launch of BRICS currency
(B) De scalation of Russian-Ukrainian conflict
(C) Diplomatic dialogue between India and China
(D) All of the above

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26. What does the letter “S” in BRICS stand for?

(A) Saudi Arabia

(B) Singapore

(C) South America

(D) South Africa

27. The initiative of Big Cats Alliance refers to:

(A) Lions, Tigers and Jaguar

(B) Tigers, Jaguar and Leopard

(C) Lions, Cheetah and Snow Leopard

(D) All of the above

28. Which statement reflects as a critique from the Western Economists ?

(A) BRICS currency cannot displace Dollars

(B) Asian economies will not impact western economy

(C) Indo-China conflicts will impact progress of BRICS

(D) All of the above

29. The emergence of BRICS signals:
(A) Asian consolidation of economic power
(B) Diminishing European dominance
(C) Revival of Nonaligned movement
(D) A geo-politics without US dominance

30. Which one of the below is an outcome of 16th BRICS meeting?
(A) Proposal to end Russia-Ukraine war
(B) To expand BRICS by including Scandinavian countries
(C) To recognise China’s claim of Taiwan
(D) Reducing tension between India and China

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VI. On the recommendation of Parliament, the President of India effectively abrogated
Article 370 of the Indian Constitution and gave assent to the Jammu and Kashmir
Reorganization Act, 2019. The former state of Jammu & Kashmir has been reorganized
as the new Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir and the new Union Territory of
Ladakh on 31st October 2019.

The new Union Territory of Ladakh consists of two districts of Kargil and Leh. The rest
of the former State of Jammu and Kashmir is in the new Union Territory of Jammu
and Kashmir

By 2019, the state government of former Jammu and Kashmir had reorganized the
areas of these 14 districts into 28 districts. The names of the new districts are as follows -
Kupwara, Bandipur, Ganderbal, Srinagar, Budgam, Pulwama, Shupian, Kulgam,
Rajouri, Ramban, Doda, Kishtivar, Samba and Kargil.

Out of these, Kargil district was carved out from the area of Leh and Ladakh district.
The Leh district of the new Union Territory of Ladakh has been defined in the Jammu
and Kashmir Reorganization (Removal of Difficulties) Second Order, 2019, issued by
the President of India, to include the areas of the districts of Gilgit, Gilgit Wazarat,
Chilhas and Tribal Territory of 1947, in addition to the remaining areas of Leh and
Ladakh districts of 1947, after carving out the Kargil District.

[Extracted from the article of Press Information Bureau, published by the Union Home
Ministry on 2nd November 2019]

31. Which of the following statements regarding Article 370 of the Constitution of
India is correct?
(A) It gave special status to the erstwhile state of Jammu and Kashmir
(B) It created a special tribunal for the state of Jammu and Kashmir on certain
occasions
(C) It introduced Goods and Services Tax in Jammu and Kashmir
(D) It confers special jurisdiction on the Supreme Court on matters coming from
Jammu & Kashmir

32. The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, divided the erstwhile State
of Jammu and Kashmir into which of the following?
(A) 2 States
(B) 1 State and 1 Union Territory
(C) 2 Union Territories
(D) 1 State and 2 Union Territories

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33. Which of the following Union Territories of India has a legislative assembly?
(A) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Daman and Diu
(D) Lakshadweep

34. How many States and Union Territories are present in India?
(A) 28 states and 8 Union territories
(B) 27 states and 8 Union territories
(C) 28 states and 7 Union territories
(D) 27 states and 7 Union territories

35. Which among the following is the capital city of the Union Territory of Ladakh?
(A) Leh
(B) Changtang
(C) Dras
(D) Nubra

36. Which of the following is false?
(A) Kargil was formerly a union territory
(B) Ladakh is administered by J&K assembly
(C) Fifteen new districts were formed to be part of J &K in 2019
(D) All of the above

VII. The “Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam”, 2023 Act received near-unanimous support in
both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. The legislation mandates the reservation
of one-third of all seats in the Lok Sabha, state legislative assemblies, and Delhi (as a
union territory with an elected assembly) for women. This linking of the implementation
of the Act to the implementing of two long-term exercises of census and delimitation,
makes little sense to many, and sounds quite like empowerment delayed for now.

In a 2012 article ‘Holding Up Half the Sky: Reservations for Women in India’, Rudolf
C Heredia breaks down the common misconceptions that cloud our understanding of
women’s political participation- “When women do attain a national leadership role it
is often because they have inherited the mantle from their fathers or husbands, rather
than as persons in their own right and are then projected as matriarchs, part of the
joint family, complementary to the patriarchy rather than a challenge to it.”

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In ‘Equality versus Empowerment: Women in Indian Legislature’, 2023, Soumya
Bhowmick makes the case for going a step beyond quotas, and to turn our attention
to the complexities that shape women’s agency in the country. This, he argues, would
require a bottoms-up approach, rather than merely handing out reservations in a
top-down manner. “In a country like India with a considerably large heterogeneous
population, the dissemination of legislative power would be insufficient to protect the
interests of minority groups such as women, Scheduled Castes, and Scheduled Tribes.”
He concludes that “implementing the idea of reservation for women would bring about
descriptive representation, but its transformation into substantive representation would
depend on the change in the attitudes of the people.”

While the reservation of one-third of seats for women belonging to the scheduled
castes and tribes under the amendment to article 330a and 332 of the constitution is a
welcome step, it remains to be seen whether it fully acknowledges the complex interplay
of hierarchies, socio-political relationships which also affect the extent and nature of
complications that surround effective realisation of women’s politics for Indian politics
to emerge as a truly emancipatory space.

37. The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam 2023:
(A) Will come to force from Jan 2025
(B) Will come to force after all the States and UTs approve it
(C) Will come to force after Census
(D) None of the above

38. As per Rudolf Heredia women’s political leadership depends upon :

(A) Mentorship of spouse’s political affiliations

(B) Parental guidance

(C) Property inheritance

(D) None of the above

39. According to Soumya Bhowmick the quotas for women should:

(A) Require a top down model

(B) Fulfill a descriptive representation

(C) Transform to substantive representation

(D) To be implemented homogeneously

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40. The amendment to the Art. 330 (a) & 332 aims to:
(A) Appoint Rajya Sabha members based on cultural diversity
(B) Quota for women Governors
(C) Women sportspersons
(D) None of the above

VIII. During the First World War, Indian merchants and industrialists wanted protection
against imports of foreign goods, and a rupee-sterling foreign exchange ratio that would
discourage imports. To organise business interests, they formed the Indian Industrial
and Commercial Congress in 1920 and the Federation of the Indian Chamber of
Commerce and Industries (FICCI) in 1927. The industrialists attacked colonial control
over the Indian economy, and supported the Civil Disobedience Movement when it
was first launched. They gave financial assistance and refused to buy or sell imported
goods. After the failure of the Round Table Conference, business groups were no longer
uniformly enthusiastic. They were apprehensive of the spread of militant activities, and
worried about prolonged disruption of business, as well as of the growing influence of
socialism amongst the younger members of the Congress.

The industrial working classes did not participate in the Civil Disobedience Movement
in large numbers, except in the Nagpur region. As the industrialists came closer to the
Congress, workers stayed aloof. But inspite of that, some workers did participate in the
Civil Disobedience Movement, selectively adopting some of the ideas of the Gandhian
programme, like boycott of foreign goods, as part of their own movements against low
wages and poor working conditions. There were strikes by railway workers in 1930 and
dockworkers in 1932. In 1930, thousands of workers in Chotanagpur tin mines wore
Gandhi caps and participated in protest rallies and boycott campaigns. But the Congress
was reluctant to include workers’ demands as part of its programme of struggle. It felt
that this would alienate industrialists and divide the anti-imperial forces.

Another important feature of the Civil Disobedience Movement was the large-scale
participation of women. During Gandhiji’s salt march, thousands of women came out
of their homes to listen to him. They participated in protest marches, manufactured
salt, and picketed foreign cloth and liquor shops. Many went to jail.

[Excerpt from Chapter II - Nationalism in India, India and the Contemporary World,
NCERT]

41. Which event in Indian history marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience
Movement?
(A) Launch of Non-Cooperation Movement
(B) Commencing of Dandi March
(C) Signing of Gandhi-Irwin Pact
(D) Withdrawal of Non-Cooperation Movement

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42. Which of the following is true in the context of civil disobedience movement?
(A) The Indian industrialist preferred partnership with MNCs
(B) The Indian industrialist were concerned of disruption of business
(C) The working class rejected the civil disobedience movement
(D) The Round Table Conference was a partial success

43. Which of the following was the predicament for Congress?
(A) Danger of division of opposition to the British Government
(B) Loss of faith by marginalised sections in Congress
(C) Falling value of Rupee against Sterling
(D) None of the above

44. Which of the following statements is correct with reference to the Civil Disobedience
Movement?
(A) It encouraged militancy among workers
(B) Breaking of the salt law, manufacturing salt, and demonstrating it in front
of government salt factories
(C) It urged the industrialists to accept socialism
(D) All of the above

45. Which among the following mass movement was supported by the Indian
industrialists?
(A) Home Rule Movement
(B) Civil Disobedience Movement
(C) Non-Cooperation Movement
(D) Quit India Movement

46. Which of the following can be considered as major outcome of civil disobedience
movement?
(A) a partial support of working class
(B) Galvanising women in political sphere
(C) Socialistic influence among the Congress cadre
(D) All of the above

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IX. In keeping with the slogan for this year’s Olympics, “Games Wide Open,” the opening
ceremony took place outside a stadium setting by the river for the first time. In many
respects, the Paris Games turned out to be one of the most elaborate cultural rituals
since Covid swept across the world beginning in late 2019. Health restrictions forced the
organizers of Tokyo 2020 and Beijing 2022 to sharply limit the scale of the festivities,
with events largely closed to the public. Paris 2024, powered in part by pent-up demand
for communal experiences, symbolized an international post-pandemic vibe shift.

The International Olympic Committee and French officials managed strict security
measures in place. Yet the recent history of violence in France — including the 2015
terror attack in Paris that left 138 people dead and at least 416 injured — stalked
public consciousness prior to the games. The geopolitical backdrop for the Paris Games
was no less troubling. The war between Israel and Hamas which had crossed the
six-month mark, raised fears of a protracted conflict and wider regional instability. The
devastation in the Gaza Strip has provoked international outrage, isolating Israel on
the global stage. Meanwhile, Russia continues to gain ground in its military offensive
against Ukraine as some Western nations worry about the rise of authoritarianism.
These international crises raised serious concerns that could come into play during the
Games in the form of protests and other political demonstrations.

Nevertheless, Olympics organizers put up a show that stunned the throngs assembled
on the boulevards of Paris, not to mention the millions of people who watched the
Games unfold on their televisions and mobile devices. At the Paris 2024 Olympics,
India secured a total of six medals: one silver and five bronze which was one down
from the highest haul of medals from the previous Olympics. Neeraj Chopra earned a
silver in men’s javelin with an 89.45 throw, narrowly missing gold to Pakistan’s Arshad
Nadeem. Shooter Manu Bhaker made history by clinching bronze in the women’s 10’m
air pistol, becoming the first Indian woman to win a medal in Olympic shooting. The
men’s hockey team achieved a second consecutive bronze, defeating Spain 2-1, with
captain Harmanpreet Singh scoring both goals.

(Extracted, with edits and revision, from “The Olympics are nearly here. For a weary
world, they can’t come soon enough”, NBCNEWS)

47. India won a back-to-back Olympics hockey medal at:

(A) Beijing and Paris

(B) Rio and Beijing

(C) Beijing and Tokyo

(D) None of the above

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48. According to the passage, what is the peculiarity of the Paris Olympics, 2024?
(A) It symbolized an international post-pandemic vibe shift
(B) The opening ceremony took place outside a stadium
(C) It is one of the most elaborate cultural rituals since Covid
(D) All of the above

49. Which of the following incidents support the argument that “the geopolitical
backdrop for the Paris Games is no less troubling”?
(A) Israel-Hamas conflict
(B) The immigrant influx in to Europe
(C) Political stability of French government
(D) All of the above

50. Which one of the following is true?
(A) Tokyo Olympics was better than Beijing Olympics
(B) Spectators thronged for a post Covid sporting experience
(C) Olympic games are unaffected by conflicts in a region
(D) All of the above

51. The highest Olympic medal tally for India was at:
(A) Beijing
(B) Rio
(C) London
(D) Tokyo

52. Where is the opening ceremony of the Paris Olympics, 2024, held?

(A) Seine River

(B) Versailles Palace

(C) Eiffel Tower

(D) Arc de Triomphe

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Legal Reasoning

X. Children come in contact with the criminal justice system either as victims or witnesses
to a crime or as children in conflict with law (CICL). As CICL, they could be alleged of,
accused or recognised as having broken the law by committing a crime. According to the
National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) Report 2021, India recorded a total number
of 1,49,404 instances of crimes against children in 2021 — a rise of over 16 per cent
from the previous year. In terms of percentage, the top categories under crime against
children were kidnapping and abduction, followed by cases registered under the POCSO
Act. Further, the NCRB report revealed that of the total cases, 53,874 were registered
under POCSO Sections. Sexual offences against children shows a steady ascent, with
47,221 such cases being recorded in 2020, and 47,335 cases in 2019. In 2019, as many
as 32,269 cases were registered across the country, while the 2021 report registered a
decline of 3.5 per cent recording 31,170 cases.

The Criminal Justice system of any country broadly refers to agencies of the government
charged with enforcing law, adjudicating crime, and correcting criminal conduct.
The main objective of the criminal justice system is ‘deterrence’, i.e., to punish the
‘transgressors and the criminals’ and to maintain law and order in the society. Globally,
children and young people are routinely exposed to various forms of violence if they
are before the criminal justice system. They are at risk of physical and psychological
abuse, sexual assault, and other harms, including inadequate educational opportunities,
poor and outdated vocational training. They face several challenges including mental,
emotional, and behavioural disorders. Children, who are victims of violence or exposed
to violence during childhood, are more likely to have difficulty in school, abuse drugs or
alcohol, act aggressively, suffer from depression or other mental health problems and
engage in criminal behaviour as adults.

[Extracted, with edits and revisions from “Child Rights in the Criminal Justice System:
Need for Law Reform” written by Dr. Asha Bajpai published in the Journal of the National
Human Rights Commission, India].

53. Which of the following issues, children, who are victims of violence during childhood
face in life, as per the author of the above passage?
(A) They may have difficulties in school
(B) They may abuse drugs or alcohol and suffer from mental health problems
(C) They may act aggressively and engage in criminal behaviours
(D) All of the above

54. What is the primary objective of the criminal justice system as mentioned in the
passage?
(A) Rehabilitation of offenders (B) Punishment of the offenders
(C) Reformation of the offenders (D) Protection of victims from the offender

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55. The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) in India is responsible for:
(A) Conducting forensic investigations of Records of Criminals
(B) Maintaining a national database of fingerprints of Criminals
(C) Compiling and analysing crime data
(D) Maintaining a national database of enforcement of criminal laws

56. Which category had the highest number of cases under crimes against children
according to the NCRB Report 2021?
(A) POCSO (B) Kidnapping and abduction
(C) Sexual Offences (D) All of the above

57. Which one of the following is the correct expansion of the term POCSO used in
the passage?
(A) Protection of Children from Sexual Offences
(B) Prosecution of Criminals of Sexual Offences
(C) Protection of Children & Women from Sexual Offences
(D) None of the above

58. What risks do children face when exposed to the criminal justice system as per
the passage?
(A) Limited access to vocational training
(B) Exposed to risk of physical abuse
(C) Mental health challenges and behavioural disorders
(D) All of the above

XI. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1976 introduced the concept of environmental
protection in an explicit manner into the Constitution through introduction of Article 48-A
and Article 51-A (g). In many judgments, the Supreme Court ruled that both the state and
its residents have a fundamental duty to preserve and protect their natural resources.
The recent judgment obliquely makes way for an enforceable right, and a potential
obligation on the state unless the same is overturned by an Act of Parliament.

India is signatory of various international environmental conservation treaties under
which India has the binding commitment to reduce carbon emission. During the COP
21, India signed Paris Agreement along with 196 countries, under which universally
binding agreement was made to limit greenhouse gas emission to levels that would
prevent global temperatures from increasing to more than 1.5 degree Celsius before
the industrial revolution. India has committed to generating 50% of its energy through
renewable resources and will generate 500 GW of energy from non-fossil fuels by 2030,
reducing the carbon emission by 1 billion ton. Additionally, India has committed to
achieve net zero carbon emission target by 2070.

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Supreme Court’s March 21, 2024 verdict builds on the bulwark of jurisprudence in place
since 1986, and, through various other judgments, the Supreme Court has recognised
the right to clean environment along with right to clean air, water and soil free from
pollution which is absolutely necessary for the enjoyment of life. Any disturbance with
these basic elements of environment would amount to violation of Article 21. It also
establishes duty of the state to maintain ecological balance and hygienic environment.
Although right to clean environment has existed, by recognizing the right against climate
change it shall compel the states to prioritize environmental protection and sustainable
development.

(Extracted, with edits and revision, from “Supreme Court of India bolts Right to Life
with climate justice”, The Economic Times, 06-05-2024)

59. In which among the following, changes were introduced for environmental
protection through the Constitution of India (42nd Amendment) Act?
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
(A) 1 & 2 only
(B) 2 & 3 only
(C) 1 & 3 only
(D) 1,2 & 3

60. The nature of binding commitment of India to reduce carbon emission through the
signing of various international environmental conservation treaties especially
the Paris Agreement may be described as:

(A) The signatory shall take adequate measures to reduce carbon emission

(B) The signatory may take adequate measures to reduce carbon emission

(C) The signatory should explore the possibility to reduce carbon emission

(D) The signatory may formulate necessary policies to reduce carbon emission

61. Under Article 51-A(g) of the Indian Constitution, it is specifically mentioned that
citizens shall have the duty to protect and improve the natural environment that
includes:

(A) Rivers & Lakes (B) Forests & Wildlife

(C) All living Creatures (D) Only (A) and (B)

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62. As per the aforementioned passage and decision of the Supreme Court:
(A) The fundamental duty to preserve and protect natural resources is upon the
State only
(B) Citizens alone have the fundamental duty to preserve and protect natural
resources
(C) Both the state and citizens have the duty to preserve and protect natural
resources
(D) State’s duty to maintain ecological balance and citizens right against climate
change

63. According to the passage, what makes India committed to reduce carbon
emission?
(A) Because of being a signatory of international environmental conservation
treaties
(B) Because of the Supreme Court verdicts which obliquely make way for an
enforceable right
(C) Because of the policy decisions of Government
(D) Because of the Constitution of India (42nd Amendment) Act

64. The passage mentions that “any disturbance with these basic elements of
environment would amount to violation of Article 21”. Article 21 of the Constitution
deals with:
(A) Right to equality
(B) Right against exploitation
(C) Right to freedom of residence
(D) Right to life and personal liberty

XII. The Contract Act 1872 deals with contract law in India, its rights, duties, and exceptions
arising out of it. Section 2(h) of the Act gives us the definition of a contract, which is
simply an agreement enforceable by law. To understand the difference between void
agreements and voidable contracts it is important to talk about sections 2(h), 2(a),
2(i), 2(d), 14, 16 (3) and 15,24-28 of the Indian Contact Act. Void agreements, are
fundamentally invalid making them unenforceable by default. These agreements cannot
be fulfilled as they consist of illegal elements and they cannot be enforced even after
subjecting it to both parties. However, in the case of voidable contract, the agreement
is initially enforceable but it is later on denied at the option of either of the parties due
to various reasons.

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Unless rejected by a party, this contract will remain valid and enforceable. The party
who is at the disadvantage due to any circumstance applicable to the contract has
the ability to render the agreement void. A void agreement is void ab initio making it
impossible to rectify any defects in it while voidable contracts can be rectified. In case
of a void agreement, neither of the parties is subject to any compensation for any losses
but voidable contracts have some remedies.

A valid agreement forms a contract that may again be either valid or voidable. The
primary difference between a void agreement and voidable contract is that a void
agreement cannot be converted into a contract.

(Extracted with edits from A Comparative Study of Voidable Contracts and Void
Agreements)

65. Which of the following best describes a void agreement?
(A) An agreement that is valid until declared invalid by a court
(B) An agreement that has no legal effect from the beginning
(C) An agreement that is legally enforceable
(D) An agreement that can be enforced if one party chooses to do so

66. A contract between two parties to rob a bank and share the proceeds equally can
be termed as:
(A) Void Contract (B) Valid Contract
(C) Voidable Contract (D) Legally Enforceable Contract

67. An agreement made by an adult but involving a minor child where the signatory
is a minor child himself, this agreement would be:
(A) A valid and enforceable agreement
(B) A voidable agreement
(C) A void agreement
(D) An agreement that cannot be enforced by the minor

68. Which of the following scenarios would most likely result in a void agreement?
(A) An agreement signed by someone under duress
(B) A contract with mutually agreed terms to sell a house
(C) An agreement to pay 10 lakhs on getting a government job
(D) A contract with a minor who understands the terms

69. An agreement made without consideration is generally:
(A) Valid agreement (B) Enforceable agreement
(C) Void agreement (D) Voidable agreement

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XIII. Geographical Indications (GIs) are a form of intellectual property that designates
a product as originating from a specific geographic location, where a given quality,
reputation, or other characteristic is essentially attributable to its geographic origin. GIs
protect names that are used to identify products with specific qualities or characteristics
due to their geographic origin. For example, ‘Champagne’ refers to sparkling wine
produced in the Champagne region of France, and ‘Darjeeling Tea’ refers to tea grown
in the Darjeeling region of India. The protection of GIs ensures that only products
genuinely originating from a specific region are allowed to use the geographical name.
This helps maintain the product’s reputation and quality, prevents misuse or imitation,
and supports local economies by promoting regional products. International agreements
such as the TRIPS Agreement under the World Trade Organization (WTO) provide a
framework for the protection of GIs globally.

70. Which of the following statements about Geographical Indications (GIs) is not
true?
(A) GIs are protected under international law to ensure that only products from
specific regions can use the GI name.
(B) The use of a GI name can be legally challenged if it is used by products not
originating from the specified region.
(C) Geographical Indications (GI) can be used to any product which is licenced
regardless of its place of origin.
(D) The TRIPS Agreement under the WTO establishes a framework for the
protection of GIs on a global scale.

71. If a product named “Darjeeling Tea” is produced outside of the Darjeeling region,
which of the following legal actions is likely to be taken under GI protection
laws?
(A) The product can still be sold but with a disclaimer about its true origin
(B) The use of the GI name “Darjeeling Tea” can be legally contested and
potentially prohibited
(C) The product can be sold under a different GI name of “Not Darjeeling Tea”
(D) The product can be marketed as “Darjeeling Tea” and will face no legal
consequences

72. Which of the following is not a potential consequence of the misuse of a Geographical
Indication?
(A) Loss of consumer trust in the authenticity of the product.
(B) Decrease in the market value of the GI-protected product.
(C) Compulsory license on the patents of the misusing entity
(D) Potential Legal action of infringement against the misuse.

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73. In the context of GIs, which of the following scenarios best illustrates the concept
of “geographic origin”?
(A) A product’s name is changed to reflect its local ingredients rather than its
place of production
(B) A product is marketed with a GI name even though it is produced in a different
region and country
(C) A product is identified by a GI name that corresponds to the region where it is
traditionally made/cultivated with distinctive qualities due to that location
(D) A product is sold under a generic name with no reference to its production
location

74. Choose the most appropriate objective of the TRIPS Agreement concerning
Geographical Indications:
(A) To harmonize intellectual property laws across member countries
(B) To ensure uniform product labelling standards globally
(C) To provide a framework for the protection and enforcement of Geographical
Indications among WTO members
(D) To promote international trade by standardizing product names and prices

XIV. The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 that has provision for
up to five years’ imprisonment and a fine of up to ` 1 crore for malpractices and organized
cheating in government recruitment exams was notified by the Union government and
came into effect from June 21, 2024. The Bill had received assent from the President
of India on the 13th February 2024. The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair
Means) Act, 2024 mentions punishments for “leakage of question paper or answer key”,
“directly or indirectly assisting the candidate in any manner unauthorisedly in the
public examination” and “tampering with the computer network or a computer resource
or a computer system” as offences done by a person, group of persons or institutions.
Besides these, “creation of fake website to cheat or for monetary gain”, “conduct of
fake examination, issuance of fake admit cards or offer letters to cheat or for monetary
gain” and “manipulation in seating arrangements, allocation of dates and shifts for the
candidates to facilitate adopting unfair means in examinations” are also among the
offences punishable under the law.

“Any person or persons resorting to unfair means and offences under this Act shall be
punished with imprisonment for a term not less than three years but which may extend
to five years and with fine up to `10 lakh,” said the Act. A service provider, engaged by
the public examination authority for conduct of examinations, shall also be liable to be
punished with imposition of a fine up to `1 crore “and proportionate cost of examination

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shall also be recovered” from it, according to the Act. Such service providers shall also
be barred from being assigned with any responsibility for the conduct of any public
examination for a period of four years.

[Extracted, with edits and revisions from “Act that Punishes Organized Cheating in
Government Exams Comes into Effect” published in The Hindu dated 22-06-2024]

75. A Bill becomes an Act only when………………………………
(A) Both the houses of the Parliament pass with simple majority
(B) Both the houses of the Parliament pass with absolute majority
(C) When the Prime Minister of India gives his approval
(D) When the President of India gives the Assent

76. A service provider, engaged by the public examination authority for conduct of
examinations, indirectly helped his family member by giving hint on questions
that were supposed to be asked in the examination shall
(A) be liable to be punished with imposition of a fine of `1 crore
(B) be liable to be punished with imposition of a fine upto `1 crore
(C) be liable to be punished with imposition of a fine upto `1 crore and the entire
cost of conduct of the examination
(D) None of the above

77. An invigilator of a public examination found guilty of manipulating the seating
arrangement to favour his relative writing the public examination is punished by
the Court. Which among the following is the appropriate punishment as per the
punishment mentioned in the above passage?
(A) Imprisonment for 1 year and fine of 1 lakh
(B) Imprisonment for 2 years and a fine of 10 lakhs
(C) Imprisonment for 3 years and fine of 15 lakhs
(D) Imprisonment for 4 years and fine of 5 lakhs

78. Identify which of the following is not an unfair means relating to the conduct of
a public examination?
(A) Coaching Centre conducting mock tests for students
(B) The Coaching Centre offering help to its students during the examination
(C) The Centre Superintendent of the public examination on the request of the
Coaching Centre provides seating arrangement of all its students in one
hall
(D) The Centre Superintendent of the public examination indirectly assisting the
candidate

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79. Who among the following is not a service provider in the context of a public
examination?
(A) Coaching Centre which prepares students for passing in the public
examination
(B) Printing Press where the question paper of the public examination is
printed
(C) The Software Company that manages the website of the public
examination
(D) The Company which scans the OMR sheets of the public examination

XV. The Supreme Court of India declared that the right to privacy is a fundamental right
and that the right to informational privacy is part of this right. Subsequently, the
Parliament of India enacted a new law relating to digital personal data protection. The
law applies to Indian residents and businesses collecting the data of Indian residents. It
also applies to non-citizens living in India whose data processing is “in connection with
any activity related to the offering of goods or services” that happens outside India. The
law allows personal data to be processed for any lawful purpose. If the personal data
is sensitive, then additional safeguards are to be observed. The entity processing data
can do so either by taking the concerned individual’s consent or for “legitimate uses”-
which include situations where an individual has voluntarily provided personal data
for a specified purpose. The law requires that an individual’s consent must be “free,
specific, informed, unconditional and unambiguous with a clear affirmative action”
and for a specific purpose. The data collected has to be limited to that necessary for the
specified purpose. A clear notice containing these details has to be provided to consumers,
including the rights of the concerned individual and the grievance redressal mechanism.
Individuals have the right to withdraw consent if consent is the ground on which data
is being processed. The law also creates rights and obligations for individuals. These
include the right to get a summary of all the collected data and to know the identities
of all other entities/organisations with whom the personal data has been shared, along
with a description of the data shared. Individuals also have the right to correction,
completion, updating, and erasure of their data. Besides, they have a right to obtain
redressal for their grievances and a right to nominate persons who will receive their
data.
[Excerpts from Anirudh Burman, “Understanding India’s New Data Protection Law”,
CARNEGIE INDIA, October 03, 2023]

80. An Indian company collects personal data from its users to provide personalized
services. The company intends to share this data with a third-party vendor for
targeted advertisements. Under the digital personal data protection law in India,
what must the company do before sharing the data?
(A) Obtain explicit consent from the users
(B) Share the data by informing the users, as it is for business purposes
(C) Encrypt the data and share it with the third-party vendor
(D) Inform the third-party vendor that the data is sensitive

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81. A social media platform processes user data based on the consent given during account
creation. A user now wishes to withdraw consent to process their data. Under the digital
personal data protection law in India, what must the platform do?
(A) Refuse to accept the withdrawal request since consent was already given
(B) Comply with the legal requirements and stop processing the data
(C) Continue processing the data but notify the user
(D) Allow withdrawal only after 30 days

82. A financial institution collects biometric data from its clients for verification
purposes. If the clients wish to know what data has been collected, under the
digital personal data protection law in India, what right allows them to request
this information?
(A) Right to Data Portability
(B) Right to Correction
(C) Right to Access
(D) Right to Be Forgotten

83. A startup provides a health-tracking app that collects sensitive health data from
users. Under the digital personal data protection law in India, what additional
precautions must the startup take compared to regular personal data?
(A) No additional measures are needed
(B) Ensure explicit consent and adopt higher security standards
(C) Store the data only with the government agencies
(D) Store the data only with the hospitals and other health care institutions

84. As per the passage, what are the rights included under the digital data protection
law of India?
1. Right to get the summary of collected data
2. Right to know to whom the data has been shared
3. Right to correct and update the data
4. Right to get the data removed from the database
5. Right to decide on who can receive their data
6. Right to get redressal of grievances
(A) 1, 2, 5 and 6
(B) 1, 3, 4 and 6
(C) 1, 3, 5 and 6
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

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Logical Reasoning

XVI. While a majority of homeless groups exist solely in modernized cultures, homelessness
remains a problem throughout the world. Everywhere there are people in constant
search of food, water and shelter. Many of these people have nowhere to go and can
find no end or relief to their suffering. Homelessness was originally believed to be
a cultural problem but is now revealing itself as a global problem. It is a problem
suffered by all of humanity and must be faced and solved as such. Although this problem
exists everywhere, it is more severe in certain parts of the world. Due to the differing
circumstances of homelessness around the world, there can be no one solution or one
set of guidelines for everyone to follow.

Even the United States constantly struggles with homelessness, despite being one
of the wealthiest countries in the world. According to a 2005 survey by the United
Nations, 1.6 billion people lack adequate housing. The causes vary depending on the
place and person. Common reasons include a lack of affordable housing, poverty, a lack
of mental health services, and more. Homelessness is rooted in systemic failures that
fail to protect those who are most vulnerable. Approximately 580,000 people experience
homelessness on any given night in the United States, as stated by the Housing
and Urban Development (HUD) Department of the United States. The number of
individuals experiencing homelessness varies by region, with urban areas experiencing
higher rates of homelessness compared to rural areas. The COVID-19 pandemic has
exacerbated homelessness and housing insecurity, leading to increased rates of eviction,
unemployment, and housing instability. Using social distancing measures to curb
the virus’s transmission has presented difficulties for homeless shelters and service
providers in maintaining their capacity. The economic fallout from the pandemic has
further strained resources and support systems for individuals and families experiencing
homelessness.

(Extracted with revisions and modifications from an article ‘The impact of COVID-19
and housing insecurity on lower-income women’ published in Journal of Social Issues,
October 3, 2022)

85. For the above paragraph, which of the following statements is true?
(A) When people in industrialized civilizations think of homelessness, they
generally imagine third-world countries where poverty is rampant
(B) Generally, the impoverished are thought of to exist in third-world countries
only, but they are present even in the largest cities of the world
(C) Homelessness increases due to major turbulence on the economic and cultural
aspects
(D) All of the Above

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86. There are several causes of homelessness; which of the following is the least likely
a cause of homelessness?

(A) violence in the home

(B) loss of job or income

(C) substance abuse

(D) proper health care

87. Homelessness in case of mental illness can be amplified because of the following
reason:

(A) The stress of being homeless may exacerbate previous mental illness and
encourage anxiety, fear, depression, sleeplessness and substance use.

(B) People with mental illness remain homeless for longer periods of time and
have less contact with family and friends.

(C) Poor mental health predisposes individuals to homelessness and homelessness
exposes individuals further to particularly severe health problems.

(D) All of the above

88. Homelessness in reference to the above paragraph can be observed most closely
in the form of:

(A) inadequate entertainment avenues

(B) shortage of appropriate clothing

(C) poor prospects for employment

(D) inadequate medial services

89. Approximately how many people in America are currently experiencing
homelessness on any given day?

(A) 1 million people

(B) More than 5.5 million

(C) 3.5 million

(D) 100 million

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90. Which of the following is not a myth about people experiencing homelessness?

(A) People who are homeless choose to be so, by themselves

(B) People experiencing homelessness are lazy

(C) All people who experience homelessness are addicts

(D) People experiencing homelessness find it difficult to obtain a job

XVII. Being a consultant, your work consists of a deep examination of the company’s
environment and its internal system to notice inefficiencies and potential improvements.
The interaction with the company’s management and different sections to decipher
their objectives, opportunities, and processes. This means that, through the use of
data analysis, industry best practices, and the formulation of creative ways of solving
all problems, to come up with unique solutions to all problems to increase efficiency
and productivity, and hence, increase profitability for employers. This might entail
operations such as logistics redesign, business process reengineering, adopting new
applications, systems, or even community relation programs. People management is a
critical component of change management, to make sure that all the relevant parties
interpret the potential alterations positively. Also, to offer orientation and create
resources to explain the changes to the group and make it comfortable with the shift.
The general goal is the organization’s ability to continue to grow and remain relevant
with the shareholders and stakeholders in the industries it operates.

91. What is the primary responsibility of you being a company’s efficient
consultant?

(A) Analyzing the organization’s structure, processes, and market position

(B) Managing daily operations

(C) Hiring new employees

(D) Conducting maintenance

92. With whom does a consultant work closely to understand a company’s goals and
challenges?

(A) Customers

(B) Higher management and various departments

(C) External vendors

(D) Competitors

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93. Imagine yourself as a consultant and find what methods you will use to develop
customized solutions?

(A) Intuition and guesswork

(B) Social media trends

(C) Random selection

(D) Data analysis, industry best practices, and innovative strategies

94. Which of the following might a consultant optimize to improve company
efficiency?

(A) Office decoration

(B) Supply chain management

(C) Employee dress code

(D) Lunch menus

95. Why is communication the most relevant thing for a consultant?

(A) To ensure all stakeholders understand the proposed changes

(B) To organize consumer meets

(C) To update the company website

(D) To manage the human resources

96. What additional support might a consultant provide to help the team adapt to
new processes?

(A) Planning a retreat for the team members

(B) Training and support

(C) Personal counselling

(D) Mental Health programs

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XVIII. Read the information carefully and answer the questions based on the seating
arrangement:

“Ram, Shyam, Rohit, Mohit, Rohan, Sohan, Mohan, Rakesh and Suresh are sitting
around a circle facing the centre. Rohit is third to the left of Ram. Rohan is fourth to
the right of Ram. Mohit is fourth to the left of Suresh who is second to the right of Ram.
Sohan is third to the right of Shyam. Mohan is not an immediate neighbour of Ram.”

97. What is Rakesh’s position with respect to Rohan?
(A) Eighth to the right of Ram
(B) Fourth to the left
(C) Fifth to the right
(D) Fifth to the left

98. Who is third to the right of Mohan?
(A) Shyam (B) Mohit
(C) Ram (D) None of these

99. Who is fifth to the right of Rohan?
(A) Sohan (B) Rohit
(C) Rakesh (D) Suresh

100. Who is second to the left of Rakesh?
(A) Ram
(B) Mohan
(C) Mohit
(D) Data inadequate

101. Who is the immediate right of Mohit?
(A) Sohan
(B) Rohit
(C) Ram
(D) Data inadequate

102. Who is third to the right of Sohan?
(A) Rohit (B) Rohan
(C) Rakesh (D) Shyam

* 32

UG

XIX. India is poised for rapid economic growth, potentially spurred by a young population
driving production and demand. In the process, inevitably, lifestyles are being
dramatically altered for the worse. India now reports the highest growth of
ultra-processed food consumption among the youth, as well as low levels of exercise
and adequate sleep. Cultural changes, including smartphones and a preponderance
of English in schools, are also associated with weakened family relationships. Until
recently, in the absence of extensive data, the role of these factors on mental well-being,
encompassing our full range of mental capability, was not well understood. Recent
findings based on a large database of over 1,50,000 individuals in India are beginning
to shed light on the correlates of mental well-being among adolescents. The findings
are dire. There is a silent epidemic of mental ill-health in India. Previous studies
have found that ownership of smartphones is “frying” the brain. Data also suggests
that it is not merely the ownership of a phone but also the early age of access that is
associated with worse cognition and mental well-being as young adults. The young
brain is developing and must be nurtured. These gadgets are handed to adolescents,
presumably more out of convenience than sound logic. The American philosopher David
Henry Thoreau remarked over 175 years ago, “Technology is an improved means to an
unimproved end.” This is an extreme position but one worth mulling. India reports the
highest growth in consumption of ultra-processed foods. Some evidence suggests that
these foods are as addictive as smoking. Recent data globally and from India shows a
strong association between the consumption of ultra-processed foods and poor mental
well-being, particularly the capacities for emotional and cognitive control.

[Source- V. Anantha Nageswaran and Shailender Swaminathan, “How our lifestyle
is creating an epidemic of mental ill health”, THE INDIAN EXPRESS, September 7,
2024]

103. Based on the above passage, which of the following should be the most suitable
title for the passage?
(A) Lifestyle and Mental Health
(B) Economic Growth and Mental Health
(C) Impact of Technology on the Youth
(D) Language and Cultural Change

104. Consider the given statement “Technology is an improved means to an
unimproved end”. Which of the following closely reflects the meaning of the given
statement?
(A) New technologies have to be accepted by primarily focusing on its positive
results
(B) New technologies create a hindrance to the physical health of an individual
(C) Poor mental health is a result of the invention of new technologies
(D) New technologies should be looked upon with scepticism, considering its
negative impact

33 *

UG

105. Which of the following statements strengthens the author’s argument regarding
the negative use of smartphones among the youth?

(A) Excessive use of smartphones may lead to weakened family relationships

(B) There has to be an unhindered use of smartphones

(C) Smartphones have economic usefulness

(D) Ownership of smartphones at an early age results due to lack of care by
parents

106. Which of the following can be a plausible solution for better mental well-being
among the youth?

(A) Limiting the correlation between physical and mental health

(B) Limiting the research on excessive use of smartphones

(C) Limiting the widespread consumption of ultra-processed foods

(D) Limiting the informed use of smartphones across all age groups

107. Which of the following statements by the author lack credible evidence in the
passage?

(A) Excessive mobile usage linked to mental health issues

(B) Providing mobiles to adolescents resulting in mental stress

(C) Students learning the English language have weakened family
relationships

(D) Inadequate sleep and junk food resulting in mental distress

108. “These gadgets are handed to adolescents, presumably more out of convenience
than sound logic.” Which of the following is the most suitable explanation echoed
by the author as per the given statement?

(A) Logic prevails over reasoning

(B) Logic and emotions go hand in hand

(C) Logic taking a backseat over utility

(D) Logic and benefits can never be understood together

* 34

UG

Quantitative Techniques

XX. According to the estimates of the World Inequality Report 2022, in India, men earn
82 percent of the labour income, whereas women earn 18 percent of it. A woman
agriculture field labourer makes Rs. 88 per day lesser than her male counterpart,
according to the Ministry of Agriculture’s data for 2020-21. While a man is paid
Rs. 383 a day on an average, a woman makes a mere Rs. 294 a day. The gap in their
daily wages is more than the cost of two kilograms of rice. This gap differs from State
to State. Field laborers, for instance, make the most money in Kerala. While a man gets
Rs. 789 per day, a woman is paid Rs. 537. While this is the highest amount paid to a
woman labourer in a State, it is also Rs. 252 lesser than what her male counterpart was
paid. As of 2020-21, Tamil Nadu has the highest gender wage gap among agriculture
field laborers at 112 per cent. It is followed by Goa (61 percent) and Kerala. The wage
gap is the lowest in Jharkhand and Gujarat (6 percent each), but the women laborers
there get paid just Rs. 239 and Rs. 247 per day, respectively.

Men earn more than women across all forms of work, the gap greatest for the
self-employed. In 2023, male self-employed workers earned 2.8 times that of women. In
contrast, male regular wage workers earned 24% more than women and male casual
workers earned 48% more. The gender gap in earnings is still a persistent phenomenon.
However, there are differences in trends. The gender gap has increased for self-employed
workers, while falling for regular wage workers. Male regular wage workers earned
34% more than women from 2019 to 2022, with the gap falling to 24% in 2023.

109. If the wages paid to men working in agricultural sector in Goa are Rs. 335 on an
average, what is the amount of wages paid to women in the region?

(A) Rs. 204 approx.

(B) Rs. 330 approx.

(C) Rs. 239 approx.

(D) None of these

110. With reference to the information in Ques. 109 above, which region of the below
mentioned states offers the least wages to the women workers in any sector?

(A) Gujarat

(B) Goa

(C) Kerala

(D) Jharkhand

35 *

UG

111. In 2023, if the average annual income of female self-employed workers is Rs. 250,
how much do male self-employed workers earn on an average?

(A) Rs. 550

(B) Rs. 673

(C) Rs. 700

(D) None of these

112. If a female casual worker earns Rs. 200 per hour, what is the hourly wage of a
male casual worker, given that male casual workers earn 48% more than female
casual workers?

(A) Rs. 480

(B) Rs. 296

(C) Rs. 248

(D) Cannot be determined

113. Assume that in 2022, the earnings gap between male and female self-employed
workers was 2.5 times. In 2023, the gap increased to 2.8 times. What is the
percentage increase in the earnings gap for self-employed workers from 2022 to
2023?

(A) 12%

(B) 5%

(C) 4.8%

(D) 24%

* 36

UG

114. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) The wage gap of Goa and Kerala state is less than Tamil Nadu

(B) The wage gap of Tamil Nadu is greater than Jharkhand and Gujarat

(C) Both (a) and (b)

(D) None of the above

XXI. Mr. Das is working in a construction company. He has a family, including his wife and
a daughter. His total monthly income includes a salary of Rs. 9228/- and a 10% house
rent allowance. Due to increasing inflation, he is keeping a home budget that accounts
for the income and expenses of the household. Out of his total monthly income, he spends
25% on food expenses, 18% on paying the house-rent, 9% on entertainment, 23% on the
education of his child, 13% on medical expenses, and he saves 12% of his total monthly
income.

Based on the above information, answer the following questions.

115. How much money does Mr. Das pay as the house-rent?

(A) Rs. 1827 /-

(B) Rs. 1661 /-

(C) Rs. 1783 /-

(D) Rs. 1935 /-

116. If Mr. Das gets 12% annual interest on the savings and he wishes to save
Rs. 30,000/- in two years period, how much extra should he save in the next
year?

(A) Rs. 1200/-

(B) Rs. 1300/-

(C) Rs. 1400/-

(D) There is no need for saving

37 *

UG

117. Which of the following is true regarding the home budget of Mr. Das?

(A) The total amount spent on house-rent, entertainment and education is
greater than the total amount spent on food expenses, medical expenses and
savings

(B) The total amount spent on entertainment, medical expenses and education
is equal to the total amount spent on house-rent, food expenses and savings

(C) The total amount spent on savings, medical expenses and education is less than
the total amount spent on house-rent, food expenses and entertainment

(D) None of the above

118. How much money remains for other expenses after the house-rent and savings?

(A) Rs. 7061/-

(B) Rs. 7601/-

(C) Rs. 7106/-

(D) Rs. 7016/-

119. If the expenditure on food and entertainment is increased by 10% due to inflation in
prices, what will be the new percentage of savings in the same monthly salary?

(A) 8.4%

(B) 8.6%

(C) 8.8%

(D) 8.2%

120. How much total money has he spent on food and entertainment?

(A) Rs. 3541/-

(B) Rs. 3461/-

(C) Rs. 3371/-

(D) None of the above

* 38

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