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Page 2
CLAT - 2016
Section : Constitutional Law
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
1
Q.1
The
total
number
of
members
in
the
Legislative
Council
of
a
State
having
such
a
Council
shall
not
exceed:
Ans
1.
two-‐third
of
the
total
number
of
members
in
the
Legislative
Assembly
of
State.
2.
the
total
number
of
members
in
the
Legislative
Assembly
of
State.
3.
one-‐half
of
the
total
number
of
members
in
the
Legislative
Assembly
of
State.
4.
one-‐third
of
the
total
number
of
members
in
the
Legislative
Assembly
of
State.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
2
Q.2
Right
to
enforce
Articles
of
the
Constitution
cannot
be
suspended
during
emergency?
Ans
1.
Articles
19
and
21
2.
Articles
20
and
21
3.
Articles
21
and
22
4.
Articles
19
and
20
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
3
Q.3
Which
Article
of
the
Constitution
provides
"Subject
to
the
provisions
of
any
law
made
by
Parliament
or
any
rules
made
under
Article
145,
the
Supreme
Court
shall
have
the
power
to
review
any
judgement
pronounced
or
order
made
by
it"?
Ans
1.
Article
134
2.
Article
142
3.
Article
137
4.
Article
135
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
4
Q.4
Which
Article
of
the
Constitution
says
Law
declared
by
the
Supreme
Court
shall
be
binding
on
all
courts
within
the
territory
of
India?
Ans
1.
Article
142
2.
Article
141
3.
Article
140
4.
Article
146
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
5
Q.5
The
concept
of
curative
petition
was
applied
by
the
Supreme
Court
in
the
case
of:
Ans
1.
P.A.
Inamdar
v.
State
of
Maharashtra
(2005)
2.
Ashok
Kumar
Thakur
v.
UOI
(2008)
3.
Rupa
Ashok
Hurra
v.
Ashok
Hurra
(2002)
4.
Om
Kumar
v.
UOI
(2002)
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
6
Section : Constitutional Law
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
1
Q.1
The
total
number
of
members
in
the
Legislative
Council
of
a
State
having
such
a
Council
shall
not
exceed:
Ans
1.
two-‐third
of
the
total
number
of
members
in
the
Legislative
Assembly
of
State.
2.
the
total
number
of
members
in
the
Legislative
Assembly
of
State.
3.
one-‐half
of
the
total
number
of
members
in
the
Legislative
Assembly
of
State.
4.
one-‐third
of
the
total
number
of
members
in
the
Legislative
Assembly
of
State.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
2
Q.2
Right
to
enforce
Articles
of
the
Constitution
cannot
be
suspended
during
emergency?
Ans
1.
Articles
19
and
21
2.
Articles
20
and
21
3.
Articles
21
and
22
4.
Articles
19
and
20
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
3
Q.3
Which
Article
of
the
Constitution
provides
"Subject
to
the
provisions
of
any
law
made
by
Parliament
or
any
rules
made
under
Article
145,
the
Supreme
Court
shall
have
the
power
to
review
any
judgement
pronounced
or
order
made
by
it"?
Ans
1.
Article
134
2.
Article
142
3.
Article
137
4.
Article
135
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
4
Q.4
Which
Article
of
the
Constitution
says
Law
declared
by
the
Supreme
Court
shall
be
binding
on
all
courts
within
the
territory
of
India?
Ans
1.
Article
142
2.
Article
141
3.
Article
140
4.
Article
146
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
5
Q.5
The
concept
of
curative
petition
was
applied
by
the
Supreme
Court
in
the
case
of:
Ans
1.
P.A.
Inamdar
v.
State
of
Maharashtra
(2005)
2.
Ashok
Kumar
Thakur
v.
UOI
(2008)
3.
Rupa
Ashok
Hurra
v.
Ashok
Hurra
(2002)
4.
Om
Kumar
v.
UOI
(2002)
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
6
Page 3
Q.6
All
doubts
and
disputes
arising
out
of
or
in
connection
with
the
election
of
the
President
shall
be
inquired
into
and
decided
by
the:
Ans
1.
Supreme
Court
2.
Elected
members
of
Parliament
and
State
Legislative
Assemblies
3.
Election
Commission
of
India
4.
Parliament
in
consultation
with
Election
Commission
of
India
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
7
Q.7
Under
Article
of
the
Constitution,
a
Commission
to
investigate
the
conditions
of
Backward
Classes
can
be
appointed
by
the
President
of
India?
Ans
1.
Article
340
2.
Article
341
3.
Article
342
4.
Article
16
(4)
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
8
Q.8
Which
of
the
statement
is
correct?
Ans
1.
A
law
put
into
the
IX
Schedule
of
the
Constitution
cannot
be
challenged
on
the
ground
of
violation
of
basic
structure
2.
Only
those
laws
have
been
put
into
the
IX
Schedule
after
24th
April,
1973
can
be
challenged
on
the
ground
of
violation
of
basic
structure
3.
A
law
put
into
the
IX
Schedule
of
the
Constitution
can
be
challenged
on
the
ground
of
violation
of
basic
structure,
irrespective
of
the
fact
when
the
law
was
put
in
the
IX
Schedule
4.
Only
those
laws
have
been
put
into
the
IX
Schedule
after
10th
May,
1973
can
be
challenged
on
the
ground
of
violation
of
basic
structure
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
9
Q.9
Which
is
the
correct
language
of
Article
20
(2)
of
the
Constitution?
Ans
1.
No
person
shall
be
prosecuted
or
punished
for
the
same
offence
more
than
once.
2.
No
person
shall
be
prosecuted
and
punished
for
the
same
offence
more
than
once.
3.
No
person
shall
be
punished
for
the
same
offence
more
than
once.
4.
No
person
shall
be
prosecuted
for
the
same
offence
more
than
once.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
10
Q.10
In
case
Supreme
Court
held
"the
mental
privacy"
is
a
part
of
Article
21
of
the
Constitution?
Ans
1.
Kesavananda
Bharti
v.
State
of
Kerala,
AIR
1973
SC
1461.
2.
Aruna
Shanbaug
v.
UOI
(2011)
4
SCC
454
3.
Selvi
v.
State
of
Karnataka
(2010)
7
SCC
263
4.
Bachpan
Bachao
Andolan
v.
UOI
(2011)
5
SCC
1
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
11
Q.11
The
conclusive
part
of
Article
31
C,
i.e.
"and
no
law
containing
a
declaration
it
is
for
giving
effect
to
such
policy
shall
be
called
in
question
in
any
court
on
the
ground
it
does
not
give
effect
to
such
policy"
was
struck
down
by
the
Supreme
Court
in
the
case
of:
Ans
1.
Kesavananda
Bharti
v.
State
of
Kerala,
AIR
1973
SC
1461
2.
Bhim
Singh
v.
UOI,
AIR
1981
SC
234
All
doubts
and
disputes
arising
out
of
or
in
connection
with
the
election
of
the
President
shall
be
inquired
into
and
decided
by
the:
Ans
1.
Supreme
Court
2.
Elected
members
of
Parliament
and
State
Legislative
Assemblies
3.
Election
Commission
of
India
4.
Parliament
in
consultation
with
Election
Commission
of
India
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
7
Q.7
Under
Article
of
the
Constitution,
a
Commission
to
investigate
the
conditions
of
Backward
Classes
can
be
appointed
by
the
President
of
India?
Ans
1.
Article
340
2.
Article
341
3.
Article
342
4.
Article
16
(4)
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
8
Q.8
Which
of
the
statement
is
correct?
Ans
1.
A
law
put
into
the
IX
Schedule
of
the
Constitution
cannot
be
challenged
on
the
ground
of
violation
of
basic
structure
2.
Only
those
laws
have
been
put
into
the
IX
Schedule
after
24th
April,
1973
can
be
challenged
on
the
ground
of
violation
of
basic
structure
3.
A
law
put
into
the
IX
Schedule
of
the
Constitution
can
be
challenged
on
the
ground
of
violation
of
basic
structure,
irrespective
of
the
fact
when
the
law
was
put
in
the
IX
Schedule
4.
Only
those
laws
have
been
put
into
the
IX
Schedule
after
10th
May,
1973
can
be
challenged
on
the
ground
of
violation
of
basic
structure
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
9
Q.9
Which
is
the
correct
language
of
Article
20
(2)
of
the
Constitution?
Ans
1.
No
person
shall
be
prosecuted
or
punished
for
the
same
offence
more
than
once.
2.
No
person
shall
be
prosecuted
and
punished
for
the
same
offence
more
than
once.
3.
No
person
shall
be
punished
for
the
same
offence
more
than
once.
4.
No
person
shall
be
prosecuted
for
the
same
offence
more
than
once.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
10
Q.10
In
case
Supreme
Court
held
"the
mental
privacy"
is
a
part
of
Article
21
of
the
Constitution?
Ans
1.
Kesavananda
Bharti
v.
State
of
Kerala,
AIR
1973
SC
1461.
2.
Aruna
Shanbaug
v.
UOI
(2011)
4
SCC
454
3.
Selvi
v.
State
of
Karnataka
(2010)
7
SCC
263
4.
Bachpan
Bachao
Andolan
v.
UOI
(2011)
5
SCC
1
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
11
Q.11
The
conclusive
part
of
Article
31
C,
i.e.
"and
no
law
containing
a
declaration
it
is
for
giving
effect
to
such
policy
shall
be
called
in
question
in
any
court
on
the
ground
it
does
not
give
effect
to
such
policy"
was
struck
down
by
the
Supreme
Court
in
the
case
of:
Ans
1.
Kesavananda
Bharti
v.
State
of
Kerala,
AIR
1973
SC
1461
2.
Bhim
Singh
v.
UOI,
AIR
1981
SC
234
Page 4
3.
Golak
Nath
v.
State
of
Punjab,
AIR
1967
SC
1643
4.
Minerva
Mills
v.
UOI,
AIR
1980
SC
1789
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
12
Q.12
In
case
Articles
323
A
(2)
(d)
and
Article
323
B
(3)
(d)
were
declared
unconstitutional
to
the
extent
they
exclude
the
jurisdiction
of
the
High
Courts
and
the
Supreme
Court
under
Articles
226/227
and
32
of
the
Constitution?
Ans
1.
L.
Chandra
Kumar
v.
Union
of
India
(1997)
2.
I.R.
Coelho
v.
State
of
Tamil
Nadu
(2007)
3.
Maneka
Gandhi
v.
Union
of
India
(1978)
4.
S.P.
Sampath
Kumar
v.
Union
of
India
(1987)
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
13
Q.13
Financial
emergency
under
Article
360
of
the
Constitution
once
imposed,
after
the
approval
by
both
the
Houses
of
Parliament
within
the
period
of
two
months,
shall
remain
valid
for
the
period
of:
Ans
1.
one
year
2.
till
it
is
revoked
by
the
Parliament
3.
six
months
4.
three
year
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
14
Q.14
The
Constitution
(One
Hundredth
Amendment)
Act,
2015
gave
effect
to
the
exchange
of:
Ans
1.
51
Bangladeshi
and
51
Indian
enclaves.
2.
111
Indian
and
111
Bangladeshi
Enclaves.
3.
51
Bangladeshi
and
111
Indian
Enclaves.
4.
111
Bangladeshi
and
51
Indian
Enclaves.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
15
Q.15
Which
case
is
popularly
known
as
"Cash
for
Question"
case?
Ans
1.
Rajnath
Singh
v.
Hon'ble
Speaker
Lok
Sabha
(2008)
2.
In
re
Keshav
Singh
case
(1965)
3.
Amrinder
Singh
v.
Punjab
Vidhan
Sabha
(2010)
4.
Raja
Ram
Pal
v.
Hon'ble
Speaker
Lok
Sabha
(2007)
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
16
Q.16
If
any
question
arises
as
to
whether
a
member
of
either
House
of
Parliament
has
become
subject
to
any
of
the
disqualifications
mentioned
in
Clause
(1)
of
Article
102
of
the
Constitution,
the
question
shall
be
referred
for
the
decision
of
the
_______
and
his
decision
shall
be
final.
Ans
1.
Prime
Minister
2.
Vice-‐President
3.
Speaker/Chairman
of
the
House
4.
President
Golak
Nath
v.
State
of
Punjab,
AIR
1967
SC
1643
4.
Minerva
Mills
v.
UOI,
AIR
1980
SC
1789
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
12
Q.12
In
case
Articles
323
A
(2)
(d)
and
Article
323
B
(3)
(d)
were
declared
unconstitutional
to
the
extent
they
exclude
the
jurisdiction
of
the
High
Courts
and
the
Supreme
Court
under
Articles
226/227
and
32
of
the
Constitution?
Ans
1.
L.
Chandra
Kumar
v.
Union
of
India
(1997)
2.
I.R.
Coelho
v.
State
of
Tamil
Nadu
(2007)
3.
Maneka
Gandhi
v.
Union
of
India
(1978)
4.
S.P.
Sampath
Kumar
v.
Union
of
India
(1987)
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
13
Q.13
Financial
emergency
under
Article
360
of
the
Constitution
once
imposed,
after
the
approval
by
both
the
Houses
of
Parliament
within
the
period
of
two
months,
shall
remain
valid
for
the
period
of:
Ans
1.
one
year
2.
till
it
is
revoked
by
the
Parliament
3.
six
months
4.
three
year
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
14
Q.14
The
Constitution
(One
Hundredth
Amendment)
Act,
2015
gave
effect
to
the
exchange
of:
Ans
1.
51
Bangladeshi
and
51
Indian
enclaves.
2.
111
Indian
and
111
Bangladeshi
Enclaves.
3.
51
Bangladeshi
and
111
Indian
Enclaves.
4.
111
Bangladeshi
and
51
Indian
Enclaves.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
15
Q.15
Which
case
is
popularly
known
as
"Cash
for
Question"
case?
Ans
1.
Rajnath
Singh
v.
Hon'ble
Speaker
Lok
Sabha
(2008)
2.
In
re
Keshav
Singh
case
(1965)
3.
Amrinder
Singh
v.
Punjab
Vidhan
Sabha
(2010)
4.
Raja
Ram
Pal
v.
Hon'ble
Speaker
Lok
Sabha
(2007)
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
16
Q.16
If
any
question
arises
as
to
whether
a
member
of
either
House
of
Parliament
has
become
subject
to
any
of
the
disqualifications
mentioned
in
Clause
(1)
of
Article
102
of
the
Constitution,
the
question
shall
be
referred
for
the
decision
of
the
_______
and
his
decision
shall
be
final.
Ans
1.
Prime
Minister
2.
Vice-‐President
3.
Speaker/Chairman
of
the
House
4.
President
Page 5
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
17
Q.17
Which
Article
of
the
Constitution
puts
obligation
on
the
State
to
promote
with
special
care
the
educational
and
economic
interests
of
the
weaker
sections
of
the
people,
and,
in
particular,
of
the
Scheduled
Castes
and
the
Scheduled
Tribes?
Ans
1.
Article
46
2.
Article
43
3.
Article
45
4.
Article
21-‐A
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
18
Q.18
The
President
of
India
may
be
removed
from
the
office
by
impeachment
on
the
ground
of:
Ans
1.
proved
misbehavior
or
incapacity
2.
proved
misbehavior
and
misconduct
3.
violation
of
the
Constitution
4.
proved
misbehavior
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
19
Q.19
An
Ordinance
promulgated
by
the
President
under
Article
123
of
the
Constitution
shall
cease
to
operate
at
the
expiration
of
____
from
the
reassembly
of
Parliament,
or,
if
before
the
expiration
of
period
resolutions
disapproving
it
are
passed
by
both
the
Houses
of
Parliament
and
in
such
case
upon
the
passing
of
the
second
of
those
resolutions;
and
may
be
withdrawn
at
any
time
by
the
President.
Ans
1.
two
months
2.
six
months
3.
six
weeks
4.
one
month
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
20
Q.20
By
amendment
to
the
Constitution,
Article
16
(4B)
was
added?
Ans
1.
The
Constitution
(Eighty-‐fifth
Amendment)
Act,
2001
2.
The
Constitution
(Ninetieth
Amendment)
Act,
2003
3.
The
Constitution
(Eighty-‐first
Amendment)
Act,
2000
4.
The
Constitution
(Eighty-‐second
Amendment)
Act,
2000
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
21
Q.21
Which
Schedule
of
the
Constitution
of
India
deals
with
the
provisions
as
to
disqualification
on
ground
of
defection?
Ans
1.
X
2.
VIII
3.
VII
4.
IX
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
22
Q.22
Article
21-‐A
was
inserted
in
the
Indian
Constitution
by:
in
the
Sub
No
:
17
Q.17
Which
Article
of
the
Constitution
puts
obligation
on
the
State
to
promote
with
special
care
the
educational
and
economic
interests
of
the
weaker
sections
of
the
people,
and,
in
particular,
of
the
Scheduled
Castes
and
the
Scheduled
Tribes?
Ans
1.
Article
46
2.
Article
43
3.
Article
45
4.
Article
21-‐A
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
18
Q.18
The
President
of
India
may
be
removed
from
the
office
by
impeachment
on
the
ground
of:
Ans
1.
proved
misbehavior
or
incapacity
2.
proved
misbehavior
and
misconduct
3.
violation
of
the
Constitution
4.
proved
misbehavior
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
19
Q.19
An
Ordinance
promulgated
by
the
President
under
Article
123
of
the
Constitution
shall
cease
to
operate
at
the
expiration
of
____
from
the
reassembly
of
Parliament,
or,
if
before
the
expiration
of
period
resolutions
disapproving
it
are
passed
by
both
the
Houses
of
Parliament
and
in
such
case
upon
the
passing
of
the
second
of
those
resolutions;
and
may
be
withdrawn
at
any
time
by
the
President.
Ans
1.
two
months
2.
six
months
3.
six
weeks
4.
one
month
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
20
Q.20
By
amendment
to
the
Constitution,
Article
16
(4B)
was
added?
Ans
1.
The
Constitution
(Eighty-‐fifth
Amendment)
Act,
2001
2.
The
Constitution
(Ninetieth
Amendment)
Act,
2003
3.
The
Constitution
(Eighty-‐first
Amendment)
Act,
2000
4.
The
Constitution
(Eighty-‐second
Amendment)
Act,
2000
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
21
Q.21
Which
Schedule
of
the
Constitution
of
India
deals
with
the
provisions
as
to
disqualification
on
ground
of
defection?
Ans
1.
X
2.
VIII
3.
VII
4.
IX
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
22
Q.22
Article
21-‐A
was
inserted
in
the
Indian
Constitution
by:
Page 6
Ans
1.
the
Constitution
(Ninety-‐second
Amendment)
Act,
2003
2.
the
Constitution
(
Eighty-‐fifth
Amendment)
Act,
2001
3.
the
Constitution
(Forty-‐second
Amendment)
Act,
1976
4.
the
Constitution
(Eighty-‐sixth
Amendment)
Act,
2002
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
23
Q.23
The
doctrine
of
"occupied
field"
was
applied
by
the
Supreme
Court
in
the
case
of:
Ans
1.
Union
of
India
v.
Tulsi
Ram
Patel
(1985)
2.
A.
B.
Krishna
v.
State
of
Karnataka
(1998)
3.
I.
R.
Coelho
v.
Union
of
India
(2007)
4.
Kesavananda
Bharti
v.
State
of
Kerala
)1973)
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
24
Q.24
In
Article
of
the
Constitution
the
"Contingency
Fund"
of
India
is
defined?
Ans
1.
Article
267
2.
Article
266
3.
Article
269
4.
Article
268
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
25
Q.25
In
case
of
a
deadlock
over
an
Ordinary
Bill
between
two
Houses
in
a
State
Legislature,
the
Bill
is
deemed
to
have
been
passed:
Ans
1.
after
the
Bill
has
been
passed
for
the
second
time
by
the
Legislative
Assembly
and
more
than
six
months
elapse
from
the
date
on
the
Bill
is
laid
for
the
second
time
before
the
Legislative
Council
without
the
Bill
being
passed
by
it.
2.
after
the
Bill
has
been
passed
for
the
second
time
by
the
Legislative
Assembly
and
more
than
three
months
elapse
from
the
date
on
the
Bill
is
laid
for
the
second
time
before
the
Legislative
Council
without
the
Bill
being
passed
by
it.
3.
only
in
the
form
in
it
is
passed
in
the
joint
sitting
of
both
the
Houses
of
the
State
Legislature.
4.
after
the
Bill
has
been
passed
for
the
second
time
by
the
Legislative
Assembly
and
more
than
one
month
elapses
from
the
date
on
the
Bill
is
laid
for
the
second
time
before
the
Legislative
Council
without
the
Bill
being
passed
by
it.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
26
Q.26
Election
to
fill
a
vacancy
in
the
office
of
President
occurring
by
reason
of
his
death,
resignation
or
removal,
or
otherwise,
shall
be
held
as
soon
as
possible
after,
and
in
no
case
later
than:
Ans
1.
two
months
from
the
date
of
occurrence
of
the
vacancy
2.
six
months
from
the
date
of
occurrence
of
the
vacancy
3.
one
month
from
the
date
of
occurrence
of
the
vacancy
4.
three
months
from
the
date
of
occurrence
of
the
vacancy
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
27
Q.27
Who
in
respect
of
every
financial
year
cause
to
be
laid
before
both
the
Houses
of
Parliament,
a
statement
of
the
estimated
receipts
and
expenditure
of
the
Government
of
India
for
year,
is
known
as
"annual
financial
statement"?
Ans
1.
Speaker
of
the
House
1.
the
Constitution
(Ninety-‐second
Amendment)
Act,
2003
2.
the
Constitution
(
Eighty-‐fifth
Amendment)
Act,
2001
3.
the
Constitution
(Forty-‐second
Amendment)
Act,
1976
4.
the
Constitution
(Eighty-‐sixth
Amendment)
Act,
2002
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
23
Q.23
The
doctrine
of
"occupied
field"
was
applied
by
the
Supreme
Court
in
the
case
of:
Ans
1.
Union
of
India
v.
Tulsi
Ram
Patel
(1985)
2.
A.
B.
Krishna
v.
State
of
Karnataka
(1998)
3.
I.
R.
Coelho
v.
Union
of
India
(2007)
4.
Kesavananda
Bharti
v.
State
of
Kerala
)1973)
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
24
Q.24
In
Article
of
the
Constitution
the
"Contingency
Fund"
of
India
is
defined?
Ans
1.
Article
267
2.
Article
266
3.
Article
269
4.
Article
268
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
25
Q.25
In
case
of
a
deadlock
over
an
Ordinary
Bill
between
two
Houses
in
a
State
Legislature,
the
Bill
is
deemed
to
have
been
passed:
Ans
1.
after
the
Bill
has
been
passed
for
the
second
time
by
the
Legislative
Assembly
and
more
than
six
months
elapse
from
the
date
on
the
Bill
is
laid
for
the
second
time
before
the
Legislative
Council
without
the
Bill
being
passed
by
it.
2.
after
the
Bill
has
been
passed
for
the
second
time
by
the
Legislative
Assembly
and
more
than
three
months
elapse
from
the
date
on
the
Bill
is
laid
for
the
second
time
before
the
Legislative
Council
without
the
Bill
being
passed
by
it.
3.
only
in
the
form
in
it
is
passed
in
the
joint
sitting
of
both
the
Houses
of
the
State
Legislature.
4.
after
the
Bill
has
been
passed
for
the
second
time
by
the
Legislative
Assembly
and
more
than
one
month
elapses
from
the
date
on
the
Bill
is
laid
for
the
second
time
before
the
Legislative
Council
without
the
Bill
being
passed
by
it.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
26
Q.26
Election
to
fill
a
vacancy
in
the
office
of
President
occurring
by
reason
of
his
death,
resignation
or
removal,
or
otherwise,
shall
be
held
as
soon
as
possible
after,
and
in
no
case
later
than:
Ans
1.
two
months
from
the
date
of
occurrence
of
the
vacancy
2.
six
months
from
the
date
of
occurrence
of
the
vacancy
3.
one
month
from
the
date
of
occurrence
of
the
vacancy
4.
three
months
from
the
date
of
occurrence
of
the
vacancy
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
27
Q.27
Who
in
respect
of
every
financial
year
cause
to
be
laid
before
both
the
Houses
of
Parliament,
a
statement
of
the
estimated
receipts
and
expenditure
of
the
Government
of
India
for
year,
is
known
as
"annual
financial
statement"?
Ans
1.
Speaker
of
the
House
Page 7
2.
Prime
Minister
3.
President
4.
Finance
Minister
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
28
Q.28
By
amendment
the
ground
of
"armed
rebellion"
for
imposing
national
emergency
was
substituted
for
the
ground
"internal
disturbance"?
Ans
1.
The
Constitution
(Thirty-‐ninth
Amendment)
Act,
1975
2.
The
Constitution
(Forty-‐second
Amendment)
Act,
1976
3.
The
Constitution
(Fiftieth
Amendment)
Act,
1984
4.
The
Constitution
(Forty-‐fourth
Amendment)
Act,
1978
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
29
Q.29
Article
30
of
the
Constitution
gives
the
right
to
establish
and
administer
educational
institutions
of
their
choice
to
all
minorities
whether
based
on:
Ans
1.
religion
and
language
2.
language
3.
religion
or
language
4.
religion
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
30
Q.30
Which
of
the
judgment
of
the
Supreme
Court
is
related
to
rights
of
third
gander?
Ans
1.
Democratic
Union
v.
Govt.
of
India
(2015)
2.
Ramprakash
v.
State
of
UP
(2013)
3.
Peoples
Union
for
Civil
Liberty
v.
State
of
Maharashtra
(2000)
4.
National
Legal
Services
Authority
v.
Union
of
India
(2014)
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
31
Q.31
In
case
the
Supreme
Court
declared
Clauses
(4)
and
(5)
of
Article
368
of
the
Constitution
as
unconstitutional?
Ans
1.
Minerva
Mills
Ltd.
v.
Union
of
India
(1980)
2.
I.R.
Coelho
v.
Union
of
India
(2007)
3.
Indira
Nehru
Gandhi
v.
Raj
Narain
(1976)
4.
L.
Chandra
Kumar
v.
Union
of
India
(1997)
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
32
Q.32
In
case
the
Supreme
Court
of
India
held
"right
to
life"
does
not
include
"right
to
die"?
Ans
1.
Gian
Kaur
v.
State
of
Punjab
(1996)
2.
State
of
Maharashtra
v.
Maruti
Sripati
(1987)
3.
Mithu
v.
State
of
Punjab
(1983)
4.
P.
Rathinam
v.
Union
of
India
(1994)
Prime
Minister
3.
President
4.
Finance
Minister
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
28
Q.28
By
amendment
the
ground
of
"armed
rebellion"
for
imposing
national
emergency
was
substituted
for
the
ground
"internal
disturbance"?
Ans
1.
The
Constitution
(Thirty-‐ninth
Amendment)
Act,
1975
2.
The
Constitution
(Forty-‐second
Amendment)
Act,
1976
3.
The
Constitution
(Fiftieth
Amendment)
Act,
1984
4.
The
Constitution
(Forty-‐fourth
Amendment)
Act,
1978
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
29
Q.29
Article
30
of
the
Constitution
gives
the
right
to
establish
and
administer
educational
institutions
of
their
choice
to
all
minorities
whether
based
on:
Ans
1.
religion
and
language
2.
language
3.
religion
or
language
4.
religion
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
30
Q.30
Which
of
the
judgment
of
the
Supreme
Court
is
related
to
rights
of
third
gander?
Ans
1.
Democratic
Union
v.
Govt.
of
India
(2015)
2.
Ramprakash
v.
State
of
UP
(2013)
3.
Peoples
Union
for
Civil
Liberty
v.
State
of
Maharashtra
(2000)
4.
National
Legal
Services
Authority
v.
Union
of
India
(2014)
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
31
Q.31
In
case
the
Supreme
Court
declared
Clauses
(4)
and
(5)
of
Article
368
of
the
Constitution
as
unconstitutional?
Ans
1.
Minerva
Mills
Ltd.
v.
Union
of
India
(1980)
2.
I.R.
Coelho
v.
Union
of
India
(2007)
3.
Indira
Nehru
Gandhi
v.
Raj
Narain
(1976)
4.
L.
Chandra
Kumar
v.
Union
of
India
(1997)
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
32
Q.32
In
case
the
Supreme
Court
of
India
held
"right
to
life"
does
not
include
"right
to
die"?
Ans
1.
Gian
Kaur
v.
State
of
Punjab
(1996)
2.
State
of
Maharashtra
v.
Maruti
Sripati
(1987)
3.
Mithu
v.
State
of
Punjab
(1983)
4.
P.
Rathinam
v.
Union
of
India
(1994)
Page 8
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
33
Q.33
Under
Article
355
of
the
Constitution
it
shall
be
the
duty
of
the
Union
to
protect
every
State
against:
Ans
1.
war,
external
aggression
and
armed
rebellion
2.
external
aggression
3.
external
aggression
and
armed
rebellion
4.
external
aggression
and
internal
disturbance
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
34
Q.34
In
the
Constitution
of
India,
disqualification
for
appointment
on
remunerative
political
post
is
provided
in:
Ans
1.
Article
361
-‐
A
2.
Article
361
3.
Article
361
-‐
B
4.
Article
362
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
35
Q.35
Article
29
(2)
of
the
Constitution
provides
"No
citizen
shall
be
denied
admission
into
any
educational
institution
maintained
by
the
State
or
receiving
aid
out
of
State
funds
on
grounds
only
of:
Ans
1.
religion,
race,
caste,
place
of
birth,
language
or
any
of
them.
2.
religion,
race,
caste,
language
or
any
of
them.
3.
race,
caste,
sex,
language
or
any
of
them.
4.
religion
race,
caste,
sex,
language
or
any
of
them.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
36
Q.36
The
joint
sitting
of
both
the
Houses
of
Parliament
in
certain
cases
can
be
called
by
the
President
under
Article:
Ans
1.
107
2.
110
3.
108
4.
109
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
37
Q.37
For
the
election
of
the
President,
the
electoral
college
shall
consist
of:
Ans
1.
Elected
members
of
both
the
Houses
of
Parliament,
members
of
the
Legislative
Assemblies
of
the
States
and
elected
members
of
the
Legislative
Assemblies
of
Delhi
and
Pondicherry.
2.
Members
of
both
the
Houses
of
Parliament,
members
of
Legislative
Assemblies
of
States
and
Legislative
Assemblies
of
Delhi
and
Pondicherry.
3.
Elected
members
of
both
the
Houses
of
Parliament,
members
of
the
Legislative
Assemblies
of
States
including
National
Capital
Territory
of
Delhi
and
the
Union
Territory
of
Pondicherry.
4.
Elected
members
of
both
the
Houses
of
Parliament
and
elected
members
of
Legislative
Assemblies
of
the
States
including
National
Capital
Territory
of
Delhi
and
the
Union
Territory
of
Pondicherry.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
38
Q.38
In
case
the
Supreme
Court
ruled
the
defence
of
"sovereign
immunity"
is
alien
to
the
concept
of
guarantee
of
fundamental
rights?
in
the
Sub
No
:
33
Q.33
Under
Article
355
of
the
Constitution
it
shall
be
the
duty
of
the
Union
to
protect
every
State
against:
Ans
1.
war,
external
aggression
and
armed
rebellion
2.
external
aggression
3.
external
aggression
and
armed
rebellion
4.
external
aggression
and
internal
disturbance
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
34
Q.34
In
the
Constitution
of
India,
disqualification
for
appointment
on
remunerative
political
post
is
provided
in:
Ans
1.
Article
361
-‐
A
2.
Article
361
3.
Article
361
-‐
B
4.
Article
362
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
35
Q.35
Article
29
(2)
of
the
Constitution
provides
"No
citizen
shall
be
denied
admission
into
any
educational
institution
maintained
by
the
State
or
receiving
aid
out
of
State
funds
on
grounds
only
of:
Ans
1.
religion,
race,
caste,
place
of
birth,
language
or
any
of
them.
2.
religion,
race,
caste,
language
or
any
of
them.
3.
race,
caste,
sex,
language
or
any
of
them.
4.
religion
race,
caste,
sex,
language
or
any
of
them.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
36
Q.36
The
joint
sitting
of
both
the
Houses
of
Parliament
in
certain
cases
can
be
called
by
the
President
under
Article:
Ans
1.
107
2.
110
3.
108
4.
109
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
37
Q.37
For
the
election
of
the
President,
the
electoral
college
shall
consist
of:
Ans
1.
Elected
members
of
both
the
Houses
of
Parliament,
members
of
the
Legislative
Assemblies
of
the
States
and
elected
members
of
the
Legislative
Assemblies
of
Delhi
and
Pondicherry.
2.
Members
of
both
the
Houses
of
Parliament,
members
of
Legislative
Assemblies
of
States
and
Legislative
Assemblies
of
Delhi
and
Pondicherry.
3.
Elected
members
of
both
the
Houses
of
Parliament,
members
of
the
Legislative
Assemblies
of
States
including
National
Capital
Territory
of
Delhi
and
the
Union
Territory
of
Pondicherry.
4.
Elected
members
of
both
the
Houses
of
Parliament
and
elected
members
of
Legislative
Assemblies
of
the
States
including
National
Capital
Territory
of
Delhi
and
the
Union
Territory
of
Pondicherry.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
38
Q.38
In
case
the
Supreme
Court
ruled
the
defence
of
"sovereign
immunity"
is
alien
to
the
concept
of
guarantee
of
fundamental
rights?
Page 9
Ans
1.
Rudal
Sah
v.
State
of
Bihar
(1983)
2.
PUDR
v.
Union
of
India
(1983)
3.
Nilabati
Behera
v.
State
of
Orissa
(1993)
4.
Maneka
Gandhi
v.
Union
of
India
(1978)
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
39
Q.39
In
case
the
Supreme
Court
observed
there
is
no
fundamental
right
to
strike?
Ans
1.
Sodan
Hussain
v.
N.D.M.C.
(1989)
2.
Delhi
Police
Non-‐Gazetted
Karamchari
Union
v.
Union
of
India
(1987)
3.
T.
K.
Rangarajan
v.
State
of
Tamil
Nadu
(2003)
4.
Manohar
Lal
v.
State
of
Punjab
(1961)
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
40
Q.40
In
case
the
administration
had
approached
the
High
Court
seeking
order
for
termination
of
pregnancy
of
an
orphan
women,
suffering
from
mild
mental
retardation
and
found
pregnant
(allegedly
on
having
been
raped)?
Ans
1.
Savita
Kumari
v.
Chandigarh
Admn.
2.
Orphan
Society
v.
Delhi
Admn.
3.
Suchita
Srivastava
v.
Chandigarh
Admn.
4.
Suchita
Krishnan
v.
Delhi
Admn.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
41
Q.41
The
operative
part
of
Article
310
(1)
of
the
Constitution
is:
Ans
1.
Subject
to
the
provisions
of
this
Constitution
2.
Notwithstanding
anything
provided
by
this
Constitution
3.
Except
as
expressly
provided
by
this
Constitution
4.
Subject
to
the
provision
of
Article
311
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
42
Q.42
Under
Articles
of
the
Constitution
the
rights
given
therein
are
available
only
to
the
citizens
of
India?
Ans
1.
Articles
15,
16,
19
and
17
2.
Articles
15,
16,
19
and
21
3.
Articles
15,
16,
19
and
29
4.
Articles
15,
16,
19
and
25
(2)
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
43
Q.43
Which
Article
of
the
Constitution
puts
a
duty
on
every
citizen
of
India
to
renounce
practices
derogatory
to
the
dignity
of
the
woman?
Ans
1.
Article
21
2.
Article
51
A
(g)
3.
Article
51
A
(e)
1.
Rudal
Sah
v.
State
of
Bihar
(1983)
2.
PUDR
v.
Union
of
India
(1983)
3.
Nilabati
Behera
v.
State
of
Orissa
(1993)
4.
Maneka
Gandhi
v.
Union
of
India
(1978)
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
39
Q.39
In
case
the
Supreme
Court
observed
there
is
no
fundamental
right
to
strike?
Ans
1.
Sodan
Hussain
v.
N.D.M.C.
(1989)
2.
Delhi
Police
Non-‐Gazetted
Karamchari
Union
v.
Union
of
India
(1987)
3.
T.
K.
Rangarajan
v.
State
of
Tamil
Nadu
(2003)
4.
Manohar
Lal
v.
State
of
Punjab
(1961)
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
40
Q.40
In
case
the
administration
had
approached
the
High
Court
seeking
order
for
termination
of
pregnancy
of
an
orphan
women,
suffering
from
mild
mental
retardation
and
found
pregnant
(allegedly
on
having
been
raped)?
Ans
1.
Savita
Kumari
v.
Chandigarh
Admn.
2.
Orphan
Society
v.
Delhi
Admn.
3.
Suchita
Srivastava
v.
Chandigarh
Admn.
4.
Suchita
Krishnan
v.
Delhi
Admn.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
41
Q.41
The
operative
part
of
Article
310
(1)
of
the
Constitution
is:
Ans
1.
Subject
to
the
provisions
of
this
Constitution
2.
Notwithstanding
anything
provided
by
this
Constitution
3.
Except
as
expressly
provided
by
this
Constitution
4.
Subject
to
the
provision
of
Article
311
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
42
Q.42
Under
Articles
of
the
Constitution
the
rights
given
therein
are
available
only
to
the
citizens
of
India?
Ans
1.
Articles
15,
16,
19
and
17
2.
Articles
15,
16,
19
and
21
3.
Articles
15,
16,
19
and
29
4.
Articles
15,
16,
19
and
25
(2)
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
43
Q.43
Which
Article
of
the
Constitution
puts
a
duty
on
every
citizen
of
India
to
renounce
practices
derogatory
to
the
dignity
of
the
woman?
Ans
1.
Article
21
2.
Article
51
A
(g)
3.
Article
51
A
(e)
Page 10
4.
Article
19
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
44
Q.44
In
case
the
Supreme
Court
upheld
the
use
of
Aadhaar
Card
for
certain
government
schemes?
Ans
1.
K.
S.
Puttaswamy
v.
UOI
2.
Sandeep
v.
UOI
3.
M.
C.
Mehta
v.
UOI
4.
PUDR
v.
UOI
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
45
Q.45
Under
Article
of
the
Constitution
the
Prime
Minister
is
duty
bound
to
furnish
information
to
the
President
regarding
all
decisions
of
Council
of
Ministers
relating
to
the
administration
of
the
affairs
of
the
Union
and
proposals
for
legislation
as
the
President
may
call
for?
Ans
1.
Article
76
2.
Article
78
3.
Article
79
4.
Article
77
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
46
Q.46
President
can
appoint
distinguished
jurist
as
a
Judge:
Ans
1.
of
the
High
Court
only
2.
of
the
High
Court
as
well
as
Supreme
Court
3.
neither
of
the
High
Court
nor
of
the
Supreme
Court
4.
of
the
Supreme
Court
only
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
47
Q.47
Which
of
the
statement
is
correct?
Ans
1.
Some
provisions
of
the
Constitution
came
into
force
on
26.11.1949
and
the
remaining
provisions
came
into
force
on
26.01.1950.
2.
All
the
provisions
of
the
Constitution
came
into
force
on
15.08.1947.
3.
Some
provisions
of
the
Constitution
came
into
force
on
15.08.1947
and
the
remaining
provisions
came
into
force
on
26.11.1949.
4.
All
the
provisions
of
the
Constitution
came
into
force
on
26.01.1950.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
48
Q.48
By
amendment
to
the
Constitution,
Article
13
(4)
was
added?
Ans
1.
The
Constitution
(Twenty-‐fifth
Amendment)
Act,
1971
2.
The
Constitution
(Twenty-‐fourth
Amendment)
Act,
1971
3.
The
Constitution
(Twenty-‐ninth
Amendment)
Act,
1972
4.
The
Constitution
(Twenty-‐third
Amendment)
Act,
1969
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
49
Q.49
The
total
number
of
ministers,
including
the
Prime
Minister,
in
the
Council
of
Ministers
shall
not
exceed:
Article
19
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
44
Q.44
In
case
the
Supreme
Court
upheld
the
use
of
Aadhaar
Card
for
certain
government
schemes?
Ans
1.
K.
S.
Puttaswamy
v.
UOI
2.
Sandeep
v.
UOI
3.
M.
C.
Mehta
v.
UOI
4.
PUDR
v.
UOI
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
45
Q.45
Under
Article
of
the
Constitution
the
Prime
Minister
is
duty
bound
to
furnish
information
to
the
President
regarding
all
decisions
of
Council
of
Ministers
relating
to
the
administration
of
the
affairs
of
the
Union
and
proposals
for
legislation
as
the
President
may
call
for?
Ans
1.
Article
76
2.
Article
78
3.
Article
79
4.
Article
77
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
46
Q.46
President
can
appoint
distinguished
jurist
as
a
Judge:
Ans
1.
of
the
High
Court
only
2.
of
the
High
Court
as
well
as
Supreme
Court
3.
neither
of
the
High
Court
nor
of
the
Supreme
Court
4.
of
the
Supreme
Court
only
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
47
Q.47
Which
of
the
statement
is
correct?
Ans
1.
Some
provisions
of
the
Constitution
came
into
force
on
26.11.1949
and
the
remaining
provisions
came
into
force
on
26.01.1950.
2.
All
the
provisions
of
the
Constitution
came
into
force
on
15.08.1947.
3.
Some
provisions
of
the
Constitution
came
into
force
on
15.08.1947
and
the
remaining
provisions
came
into
force
on
26.11.1949.
4.
All
the
provisions
of
the
Constitution
came
into
force
on
26.01.1950.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
48
Q.48
By
amendment
to
the
Constitution,
Article
13
(4)
was
added?
Ans
1.
The
Constitution
(Twenty-‐fifth
Amendment)
Act,
1971
2.
The
Constitution
(Twenty-‐fourth
Amendment)
Act,
1971
3.
The
Constitution
(Twenty-‐ninth
Amendment)
Act,
1972
4.
The
Constitution
(Twenty-‐third
Amendment)
Act,
1969
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
49
Q.49
The
total
number
of
ministers,
including
the
Prime
Minister,
in
the
Council
of
Ministers
shall
not
exceed:
Page 11
Ans
1.
15%
of
the
total
number
of
members
of
the
Parliament
2.
15%
of
the
total
number
of
members
of
House
of
the
People
3.
15%
of
the
total
number
of
elected
members
of
House
of
the
People
and
Council
of
States
4.
15%
of
the
total
number
of
members
of
the
Council
of
States
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
50
Q.50
In
case
the
Supreme
Court
upheld
the
Haryana
Panchayati
Raj
Act
prescribing
minimum
educational
qualifications
for
contesting
elections
of
Panchayats?
Ans
1.
Chaudhry
Ranbir
Singh
v.
State
of
Haryana
2.
Ravibala
v.
State
of
Haryana
3.
Rajbala
v.
State
of
Haryana
4.
Chaudhry
Ravi
Singh
v.
State
of
Haryana
Section : Jurisprudence
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
1
Q.1
The
Indian
Penal
Code
is
a:
Ans
1.
customary
code
2.
consolidating
code
3.
refined
code
4.
creative
code
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
2
Q.2
Who
defined
'administration
of
justice'
as
the
'maintenance
of
right
within
a
political
community
by
means
of
the
physical
force
of
the
State'?
Ans
1.
Duguit
2.
Keeton
3.
Ihering
4.
Salmond
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
3
Q.3
"
The
movement
of
progressive
societies
has
hitherto
been
a
movement
from
status
to
contract".
This
was
stated
by:
Ans
1.
Savigny
2.
Maitland
3.
Savigny
and
Maine
4.
Maine
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
4
Q.4
The
absolutist
theories
of
sovereignty
were
given
by:
Ans
1.
Bodin,
Hobbes
and
Austin
2.
Austin;
Almond
and
Maine
3.
Austin,
Kelsen
and
Maine
1.
15%
of
the
total
number
of
members
of
the
Parliament
2.
15%
of
the
total
number
of
members
of
House
of
the
People
3.
15%
of
the
total
number
of
elected
members
of
House
of
the
People
and
Council
of
States
4.
15%
of
the
total
number
of
members
of
the
Council
of
States
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
50
Q.50
In
case
the
Supreme
Court
upheld
the
Haryana
Panchayati
Raj
Act
prescribing
minimum
educational
qualifications
for
contesting
elections
of
Panchayats?
Ans
1.
Chaudhry
Ranbir
Singh
v.
State
of
Haryana
2.
Ravibala
v.
State
of
Haryana
3.
Rajbala
v.
State
of
Haryana
4.
Chaudhry
Ravi
Singh
v.
State
of
Haryana
Section : Jurisprudence
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
1
Q.1
The
Indian
Penal
Code
is
a:
Ans
1.
customary
code
2.
consolidating
code
3.
refined
code
4.
creative
code
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
2
Q.2
Who
defined
'administration
of
justice'
as
the
'maintenance
of
right
within
a
political
community
by
means
of
the
physical
force
of
the
State'?
Ans
1.
Duguit
2.
Keeton
3.
Ihering
4.
Salmond
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
3
Q.3
"
The
movement
of
progressive
societies
has
hitherto
been
a
movement
from
status
to
contract".
This
was
stated
by:
Ans
1.
Savigny
2.
Maitland
3.
Savigny
and
Maine
4.
Maine
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
4
Q.4
The
absolutist
theories
of
sovereignty
were
given
by:
Ans
1.
Bodin,
Hobbes
and
Austin
2.
Austin;
Almond
and
Maine
3.
Austin,
Kelsen
and
Maine
Page 12
4.
Austin;
Bentham
and
Savigny
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
5
Q.5
While
differentiating
between
judicial
and
legislative
creativity,
it
was
stated
"the
creative
power
of
the
courts
is
limited
by
existing
legal
material
at
their
command.
They
find
the
material
and
shape
it.
The
legislature
may
manufacture
entirely
new
material".
Who
made
this
statement?
Ans
1.
Savigny
2.
Allen
3.
Salmond
4.
Austin
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
6
Q.6
Find
out
the
odd
man
out
among
the
following:
Ans
1.
Comte
2.
Hegel
3.
Savigny
4.
Puchta
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
7
Q.7
That
"Jurisprudence
then,
in
the
present
hypothesis,
is
the
Lawyers
extra
version"
was
observed
by:
Ans
1.
Julius
Stone
2.
John
Locke
3.
Kelsen
4.
Ihering
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
8
Q.8
Which
of
the
is
said
to
be
"Nine
Points
in
Law"?
Ans
1.
Ownership
2.
Right
3.
Possession
4.
Might
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
9
Q.9
Who
said
"Certainty
of
law
is
a
legal
myth"?
Ans
1.
Kelsen
2.
Salmond
3.
Jerome
Frank
4.
Holmes
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
10
Q.10
A
Right
is:
Austin;
Bentham
and
Savigny
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
5
Q.5
While
differentiating
between
judicial
and
legislative
creativity,
it
was
stated
"the
creative
power
of
the
courts
is
limited
by
existing
legal
material
at
their
command.
They
find
the
material
and
shape
it.
The
legislature
may
manufacture
entirely
new
material".
Who
made
this
statement?
Ans
1.
Savigny
2.
Allen
3.
Salmond
4.
Austin
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
6
Q.6
Find
out
the
odd
man
out
among
the
following:
Ans
1.
Comte
2.
Hegel
3.
Savigny
4.
Puchta
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
7
Q.7
That
"Jurisprudence
then,
in
the
present
hypothesis,
is
the
Lawyers
extra
version"
was
observed
by:
Ans
1.
Julius
Stone
2.
John
Locke
3.
Kelsen
4.
Ihering
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
8
Q.8
Which
of
the
is
said
to
be
"Nine
Points
in
Law"?
Ans
1.
Ownership
2.
Right
3.
Possession
4.
Might
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
9
Q.9
Who
said
"Certainty
of
law
is
a
legal
myth"?
Ans
1.
Kelsen
2.
Salmond
3.
Jerome
Frank
4.
Holmes
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
10
Q.10
A
Right
is:
Page 13
Ans
1.
A
righteous
claim
2.
A
legal
claim
3.
A
just
claim
4.
A
moral
claim
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
11
Q.11
According
to
the
"Purpose
theory"
of
personality:
Ans
1.
The
dignity
of
being
a
"juristic
person"
as
having
to
be
conceded
by
the
State.
2.
beneficiary
of
a
foundation
is
a
person.
3.
person
is
applicable
only
to
human
beings.
4.
corporate
entity
is
a
person.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
12
Q.12
Rights
in
're
propria'
mean:
Ans
1.
Intangible
rights
2.
Rights
in
one's
own
things
3.
Tangible
rights
4.
Rights
in
the
things
of
others
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
13
Q.13
The
physical
control
of
an
object
is:
Ans
1.
possessio
civilis
2.
practor's
interdicts
3.
possessio
naturales
4.
possessio
interdicts
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
14
Q.14
Which
of
the
was
the
famous
work
of
Jermy
Bentham?
Ans
1.
Limits
of
Jurisprudence
Defined
2.
The
Concept
of
Law
3.
The
Spirit
of
Law
4.
Province
of
Law
Determined
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
15
Q.15
According
to
Historical
School,
the
important
source
of
law
is:
Ans
1.
Judicial
Precedent
2.
Legislation
3.
Custom
1.
A
righteous
claim
2.
A
legal
claim
3.
A
just
claim
4.
A
moral
claim
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
11
Q.11
According
to
the
"Purpose
theory"
of
personality:
Ans
1.
The
dignity
of
being
a
"juristic
person"
as
having
to
be
conceded
by
the
State.
2.
beneficiary
of
a
foundation
is
a
person.
3.
person
is
applicable
only
to
human
beings.
4.
corporate
entity
is
a
person.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
12
Q.12
Rights
in
're
propria'
mean:
Ans
1.
Intangible
rights
2.
Rights
in
one's
own
things
3.
Tangible
rights
4.
Rights
in
the
things
of
others
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
13
Q.13
The
physical
control
of
an
object
is:
Ans
1.
possessio
civilis
2.
practor's
interdicts
3.
possessio
naturales
4.
possessio
interdicts
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
14
Q.14
Which
of
the
was
the
famous
work
of
Jermy
Bentham?
Ans
1.
Limits
of
Jurisprudence
Defined
2.
The
Concept
of
Law
3.
The
Spirit
of
Law
4.
Province
of
Law
Determined
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
15
Q.15
According
to
Historical
School,
the
important
source
of
law
is:
Ans
1.
Judicial
Precedent
2.
Legislation
3.
Custom
Page 14
4.
Morality
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
16
Q.16
Who
stated,
"Common
law
is
essentially
judge
made
law"?
Ans
1.
Salmond
2.
Pollock
3.
Holmes
4.
Blackstone
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
17
Q.17
One
of
the
important
aspects
of
Sociological
School
is
to
study:
Ans
1.
Effect
of
law
on
international
order
2.
Effect
of
law
on
society
3.
Effect
of
law
on
morality
4.
Effect
of
law
on
religion
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
18
Q.18
Which
theory
of
law
is
known
as
"Vienna
School"
of
legal
thought?
Ans
1.
Pure
2.
Natural
3.
Historical
4.
Philosophical
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
19
Q.19
Which
of
the
is
not
a
characteristic
of
sovereignty
as
per
Austin's
analysis?
Ans
1.
Essentiality
2.
Indivisibility
3.
Illimitability
4.
Divinity
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
20
Q.20
Who
said
the
task
of
law
is
'social
engineering'?
Ans
1.
Durkheim
2.
Roscoe
Pound
3.
Henry
Marne
4.
Ehrlich
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
21
Q.21
"Ignorantia
facit
execusat"
means:
Morality
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
16
Q.16
Who
stated,
"Common
law
is
essentially
judge
made
law"?
Ans
1.
Salmond
2.
Pollock
3.
Holmes
4.
Blackstone
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
17
Q.17
One
of
the
important
aspects
of
Sociological
School
is
to
study:
Ans
1.
Effect
of
law
on
international
order
2.
Effect
of
law
on
society
3.
Effect
of
law
on
morality
4.
Effect
of
law
on
religion
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
18
Q.18
Which
theory
of
law
is
known
as
"Vienna
School"
of
legal
thought?
Ans
1.
Pure
2.
Natural
3.
Historical
4.
Philosophical
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
19
Q.19
Which
of
the
is
not
a
characteristic
of
sovereignty
as
per
Austin's
analysis?
Ans
1.
Essentiality
2.
Indivisibility
3.
Illimitability
4.
Divinity
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
20
Q.20
Who
said
the
task
of
law
is
'social
engineering'?
Ans
1.
Durkheim
2.
Roscoe
Pound
3.
Henry
Marne
4.
Ehrlich
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
21
Q.21
"Ignorantia
facit
execusat"
means:
Page 15
Ans
1.
Ignorance
of
fact
is
no
excuse
2.
Ignorance
of
law
is
excuse
3.
Ignorance
of
law
is
no
excuse
4.
Ignorance
of
fact
is
excuse
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
22
Q.22
Who
was
the
author
of
"The
Province
of
Jurisprudence
Determined"?
Ans
1.
Kelsen
2.
Dias
3.
Austin
4.
Salmond
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
23
Q.23
In
Pure
Theory
of
Law,
a
legal
norm
derives
its
validity
from:
Ans
1.
Sovereign
2.
Higher
Legal
Norm
3.
Higher
Moral
Norm
4.
Higher
Social
Norm
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
24
Q.24
Who
said
"the
essence
of
legal
right
seems
to
me
to
be
not
legally
guaranteed
power
to
realize
an
interest"?
Ans
1.
Salmond
2.
Allen
3.
Hegel
4.
Paton
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
25
Q.25
Fill
in
the
blanks
by
choosing
the
correct
option:
_________________
justice
prescribes
equality.
There
has
to
be
equal
distribution
among
equals,
unequal
distribution
among
unequals.
_____________
justice
seeks
to
restore
equality,
when
this
has
been
shaken,
on
the
assumption
the
situation
has
been
upset
was
distributively
first.
Ans
1.
Distributive,
Corrective
2.
Classic,
Corrective
3.
Particular,
Distributive
4.
Universal,
Classic
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
26
Q.26
In
India,
of
the
cannot
logically
be
said
to
be
the
manifestation
of
"VOLKSGEIST"?
Ans
1.
GURUKUL
Education
2.
Community
Labour
(SHRAMDAN)
1.
Ignorance
of
fact
is
no
excuse
2.
Ignorance
of
law
is
excuse
3.
Ignorance
of
law
is
no
excuse
4.
Ignorance
of
fact
is
excuse
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
22
Q.22
Who
was
the
author
of
"The
Province
of
Jurisprudence
Determined"?
Ans
1.
Kelsen
2.
Dias
3.
Austin
4.
Salmond
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
23
Q.23
In
Pure
Theory
of
Law,
a
legal
norm
derives
its
validity
from:
Ans
1.
Sovereign
2.
Higher
Legal
Norm
3.
Higher
Moral
Norm
4.
Higher
Social
Norm
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
24
Q.24
Who
said
"the
essence
of
legal
right
seems
to
me
to
be
not
legally
guaranteed
power
to
realize
an
interest"?
Ans
1.
Salmond
2.
Allen
3.
Hegel
4.
Paton
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
25
Q.25
Fill
in
the
blanks
by
choosing
the
correct
option:
_________________
justice
prescribes
equality.
There
has
to
be
equal
distribution
among
equals,
unequal
distribution
among
unequals.
_____________
justice
seeks
to
restore
equality,
when
this
has
been
shaken,
on
the
assumption
the
situation
has
been
upset
was
distributively
first.
Ans
1.
Distributive,
Corrective
2.
Classic,
Corrective
3.
Particular,
Distributive
4.
Universal,
Classic
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
26
Q.26
In
India,
of
the
cannot
logically
be
said
to
be
the
manifestation
of
"VOLKSGEIST"?
Ans
1.
GURUKUL
Education
2.
Community
Labour
(SHRAMDAN)
Page 16
3.
Untouchability
4.
Panchayat
system
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
27
Q.27
Who
stated
"I
recognize
without
hesitation
judges
must
and
do
legislate,
but
they
do
so
only
interstitially;
they
are
confined
from
molar
to
molecular
motions"?
Ans
1.
Justice
Holmes
2.
Grey
3.
Kant
4.
Justice
Cardozo
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
28
Q.28
According
to
Kelsen
Ans
1.
Law
is
to
serve
social
purpose
2.
Law
is
a
means
not
an
end
3.
Law
is
the
command
of
the
sovereign
4.
Law
is
a
normative
science
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
29
Q.29
Four
elements
of
State
are:
Ans
1.
Population,
Territory,
Sovereignty
and
Divinity
2.
Population,
Territory,
Government
and
Sovereignty
3.
Population,
Sovereignty
and
Territory
and
Equality
4.
Sovereignty,
Government
and
Territory
and
Morality
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
30
Q.30
Savigny,
Salmond
and
Dicey
were
the
main
supporters
of
theory
of
personality?
Ans
1.
Organic
theory
2.
Concession
theory
3.
Bracket
theory
4.
Fiction
theory
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
31
Q.31
According
to
Hohfeld
what
is
the
"jural
opposite"
of
power?
Ans
1.
Right
2.
Liability
3.
Disability
4.
Duty
the
in
the
Untouchability
4.
Panchayat
system
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
27
Q.27
Who
stated
"I
recognize
without
hesitation
judges
must
and
do
legislate,
but
they
do
so
only
interstitially;
they
are
confined
from
molar
to
molecular
motions"?
Ans
1.
Justice
Holmes
2.
Grey
3.
Kant
4.
Justice
Cardozo
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
28
Q.28
According
to
Kelsen
Ans
1.
Law
is
to
serve
social
purpose
2.
Law
is
a
means
not
an
end
3.
Law
is
the
command
of
the
sovereign
4.
Law
is
a
normative
science
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
29
Q.29
Four
elements
of
State
are:
Ans
1.
Population,
Territory,
Sovereignty
and
Divinity
2.
Population,
Territory,
Government
and
Sovereignty
3.
Population,
Sovereignty
and
Territory
and
Equality
4.
Sovereignty,
Government
and
Territory
and
Morality
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
30
Q.30
Savigny,
Salmond
and
Dicey
were
the
main
supporters
of
theory
of
personality?
Ans
1.
Organic
theory
2.
Concession
theory
3.
Bracket
theory
4.
Fiction
theory
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
31
Q.31
According
to
Hohfeld
what
is
the
"jural
opposite"
of
power?
Ans
1.
Right
2.
Liability
3.
Disability
4.
Duty
the
in
the
Page 17
Sub
No
:
32
Q.32
Who
is
the
author
of
the
famous
work
"Law
in
the
Making"?
Ans
1.
C.K.
Allen
2.
Kelsen
3.
Upendra
Baxi
4.
Henry
Maine
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
33
Q.33
According
to
Hohfeld
if
'X'
has
a
power,
'Y'
has
a
liability.
A
liability
in
'Y'
means
the
absence
of
immunity
in
him.
Therefore,:
Ans
1.
There
is
no
relation
between
power
and
liability.
2.
Power
and
liability
are
"jural
contradicts".
3.
Power
and
liability
are
"jural
opposites".
4.
Power
and
liability
are
"jural
correlatives.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
34
Q.34
Salmond
distinguished
between
"corporeal
possession"
and
"incorporeal
possession".
According
to
him
corporeal
possession
refers
to:
Ans
1.
Possession
of
physical
objects
2.
Possession
of
rights
3.
intention
to
possess
physical
objects
4.
intention
to
possess
rights
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
35
Q.35
Who
defined
law
as
'a
social
institution
to
satisfy
social
wants"?
Ans
1.
Duguit
2.
Ihering
3.
Pound
4.
Kelsen
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
36
Q.36
Who
said
"Jurisprudence
was
the
first
of
the
social
sciences
to
be
born"?
Ans
1.
Savigny
2.
Duguit
3.
Wurzel
4.
Hegel
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
37
Q.37
Who
summarized
Austin's
thesis
by
stating
"this,
at
first
sight,
looks
like
a
circular
reasoning.
Law
is
law
since
it
is
made
by
the
Sovereign.
The
Sovereign
is
Sovereign
because
he
makes
the
law"?
Ans
1.
Fuller
2.
Buckland
No
:
32
Q.32
Who
is
the
author
of
the
famous
work
"Law
in
the
Making"?
Ans
1.
C.K.
Allen
2.
Kelsen
3.
Upendra
Baxi
4.
Henry
Maine
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
33
Q.33
According
to
Hohfeld
if
'X'
has
a
power,
'Y'
has
a
liability.
A
liability
in
'Y'
means
the
absence
of
immunity
in
him.
Therefore,:
Ans
1.
There
is
no
relation
between
power
and
liability.
2.
Power
and
liability
are
"jural
contradicts".
3.
Power
and
liability
are
"jural
opposites".
4.
Power
and
liability
are
"jural
correlatives.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
34
Q.34
Salmond
distinguished
between
"corporeal
possession"
and
"incorporeal
possession".
According
to
him
corporeal
possession
refers
to:
Ans
1.
Possession
of
physical
objects
2.
Possession
of
rights
3.
intention
to
possess
physical
objects
4.
intention
to
possess
rights
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
35
Q.35
Who
defined
law
as
'a
social
institution
to
satisfy
social
wants"?
Ans
1.
Duguit
2.
Ihering
3.
Pound
4.
Kelsen
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
36
Q.36
Who
said
"Jurisprudence
was
the
first
of
the
social
sciences
to
be
born"?
Ans
1.
Savigny
2.
Duguit
3.
Wurzel
4.
Hegel
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
37
Q.37
Who
summarized
Austin's
thesis
by
stating
"this,
at
first
sight,
looks
like
a
circular
reasoning.
Law
is
law
since
it
is
made
by
the
Sovereign.
The
Sovereign
is
Sovereign
because
he
makes
the
law"?
Ans
1.
Fuller
2.
Buckland
Page 18
3.
Holland
4.
Hart
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
38
Q.38
Who
used
the
"social
solidarity"
as
a
criterion
of
the
validity
of
Laws?
Ans
1.
Duguit
2.
Pound
3.
Kelsen
4.
Ihering
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
39
Q.39
X
was
allowed
to
put
her
goods
in
certain
rooms
in
Y's
house.
X
sent
them
by
agent,
who
locked
them
in
the
rooms
allotted
for
purpose
in
Y's
house
by
Y,
and
took
away
the
key.
Ans
1.
X
was
in
possession
of
the
rooms
2.
The
agent
of
'X'
was
in
possession
of
the
rooms
3.
The
agent
of
'X'
and
'Y'
were
in
possession
of
the
rooms.
4.
'Y'
was
in
possession
of
the
rooms
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
40
Q.40
According
to
Analytical
School,
pre-‐existence
of
of
the
is
necessary
for
the
growth
of
Positive
Law?
Ans
1.
Family
2.
State
3.
Tribe
4.
Clan
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
41
Q.41
Which
school
regards
the
judge
made
law
as
"an
unauthorized
encroachment
upon
the
powers
of
the
legislators
to
make
law"?
Ans
1.
Realist
school
2.
Historical
school
3.
Sociological
school
4.
Analytical
school
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
42
Q.42
What
is
the
correlative
of
"Immunity",
according
to
Hohfeld?
Ans
1.
Duty
2.
Liability
3.
Disability
4.
Power
the
in
the
Holland
4.
Hart
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
38
Q.38
Who
used
the
"social
solidarity"
as
a
criterion
of
the
validity
of
Laws?
Ans
1.
Duguit
2.
Pound
3.
Kelsen
4.
Ihering
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
39
Q.39
X
was
allowed
to
put
her
goods
in
certain
rooms
in
Y's
house.
X
sent
them
by
agent,
who
locked
them
in
the
rooms
allotted
for
purpose
in
Y's
house
by
Y,
and
took
away
the
key.
Ans
1.
X
was
in
possession
of
the
rooms
2.
The
agent
of
'X'
was
in
possession
of
the
rooms
3.
The
agent
of
'X'
and
'Y'
were
in
possession
of
the
rooms.
4.
'Y'
was
in
possession
of
the
rooms
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
40
Q.40
According
to
Analytical
School,
pre-‐existence
of
of
the
is
necessary
for
the
growth
of
Positive
Law?
Ans
1.
Family
2.
State
3.
Tribe
4.
Clan
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
41
Q.41
Which
school
regards
the
judge
made
law
as
"an
unauthorized
encroachment
upon
the
powers
of
the
legislators
to
make
law"?
Ans
1.
Realist
school
2.
Historical
school
3.
Sociological
school
4.
Analytical
school
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
42
Q.42
What
is
the
correlative
of
"Immunity",
according
to
Hohfeld?
Ans
1.
Duty
2.
Liability
3.
Disability
4.
Power
the
in
the
Page 19
Sub
No
:
43
Q.43
American
Realist
movement
is
a
combination
of
the:
Ans
1.
natural
Law
positivist
and
sociological
approaches
2.
analytical
positivist
and
sociological
approaches
3.
historical
positivist
and
sociological
approaches
4.
natural
Law
positivist
and
historical
approaches
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
44
Q.44
Right
to
one's
Reputation
is
a:
Ans
1.
right
in
rem
2.
right
in
personam
3.
an
easement
right
4.
property
right
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
45
Q.45
Cicero
defined
law
as:
Ans
1.
The
highest
reason
implanted
in
nature.
2.
The
aggregate
of
rules
set
by
men
or
politically
superior,
or
sovereign,
to
men
or
politically
subject.
3.
A
social
institution
to
satisfy
social
wants.
4.
The
form
of
the
guarantee
of
the
conditions
of
life
of
society
assured
by
state's
power
of
constraint.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
46
Q.46
Who
is
the
propounder
of
"Bracket
theory"
of
personality?
Ans
1.
Ihering
2.
Baker
3.
Savigny
4.
Salmond
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
47
Q.47
That
"Life
of
Law
has
not
been
logic,
it
has
been
experience"
was
observed
by:
Ans
1.
Hohfield
2.
Holmes
3.
Holland
4.
Henry
Maine
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
48
Q.48
Who
is
the
author
of
the
famous
book
"The
Concept
of
Law"?
Ans
1.
Kelsen
2.
Upendra
Baxi
No
:
43
Q.43
American
Realist
movement
is
a
combination
of
the:
Ans
1.
natural
Law
positivist
and
sociological
approaches
2.
analytical
positivist
and
sociological
approaches
3.
historical
positivist
and
sociological
approaches
4.
natural
Law
positivist
and
historical
approaches
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
44
Q.44
Right
to
one's
Reputation
is
a:
Ans
1.
right
in
rem
2.
right
in
personam
3.
an
easement
right
4.
property
right
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
45
Q.45
Cicero
defined
law
as:
Ans
1.
The
highest
reason
implanted
in
nature.
2.
The
aggregate
of
rules
set
by
men
or
politically
superior,
or
sovereign,
to
men
or
politically
subject.
3.
A
social
institution
to
satisfy
social
wants.
4.
The
form
of
the
guarantee
of
the
conditions
of
life
of
society
assured
by
state's
power
of
constraint.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
46
Q.46
Who
is
the
propounder
of
"Bracket
theory"
of
personality?
Ans
1.
Ihering
2.
Baker
3.
Savigny
4.
Salmond
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
47
Q.47
That
"Life
of
Law
has
not
been
logic,
it
has
been
experience"
was
observed
by:
Ans
1.
Hohfield
2.
Holmes
3.
Holland
4.
Henry
Maine
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
48
Q.48
Who
is
the
author
of
the
famous
book
"The
Concept
of
Law"?
Ans
1.
Kelsen
2.
Upendra
Baxi
Page 20
3.
Austin
4.
Hart
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
49
Q.49
Who
is
called
the
"father
of
English
Jurisprudence"?
Ans
1.
Kelsen
2.
John
Austin
3.
Ihering
4.
Justice
Holmes
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
50
Q.50
The
reaction
against
law
theories
provided
a
rich
bed
in
the
seeds
of
historical
scholarship
took
root
and
spread?
Ans
1.
Realist
law
theories
2.
Natural
law
theories
3.
Analytical
law
theories
4.
Pure
law
theories
Section : Other Subjects such as Contract , Torts , Criminal Law , International Law, IPR etc
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
1
Q.1
'A'
signs
his
own
name
to
a
bill
of
exchange,
intending
it
may
be
believed
the
bill
was
drawn
by
another
person
of
the
same
name.
'A'
commits:
Ans
1.
attempt
of
cheating
2.
forgery
3.
attempt
of
forgery
4.
cheating
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
2
Q.2
Article
51
of
the
UN
Charter
saves
of
the
rights
as
being
inherent?
Ans
1.
Right
to
free
trade
with
member-‐States
2.
Right
to
enter
into
relations
with
other
States
3.
Right
of
self-‐defence
4.
Right
of
self-‐determination
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
3
Q.3
A,
being
executor
to
the
will
of
a
deceased
person,
dishonestly
disobeys
the
law
directs
him
to
divide
the
assets
according
to
the
will,
and
appropriates
the
assets
to
his
own
use.
A
commits:
Ans
1.
criminal
breach
of
trust
2.
theft
3.
cheating
4.
forgery
Austin
4.
Hart
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
49
Q.49
Who
is
called
the
"father
of
English
Jurisprudence"?
Ans
1.
Kelsen
2.
John
Austin
3.
Ihering
4.
Justice
Holmes
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
50
Q.50
The
reaction
against
law
theories
provided
a
rich
bed
in
the
seeds
of
historical
scholarship
took
root
and
spread?
Ans
1.
Realist
law
theories
2.
Natural
law
theories
3.
Analytical
law
theories
4.
Pure
law
theories
Section : Other Subjects such as Contract , Torts , Criminal Law , International Law, IPR etc
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
1
Q.1
'A'
signs
his
own
name
to
a
bill
of
exchange,
intending
it
may
be
believed
the
bill
was
drawn
by
another
person
of
the
same
name.
'A'
commits:
Ans
1.
attempt
of
cheating
2.
forgery
3.
attempt
of
forgery
4.
cheating
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
2
Q.2
Article
51
of
the
UN
Charter
saves
of
the
rights
as
being
inherent?
Ans
1.
Right
to
free
trade
with
member-‐States
2.
Right
to
enter
into
relations
with
other
States
3.
Right
of
self-‐defence
4.
Right
of
self-‐determination
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
3
Q.3
A,
being
executor
to
the
will
of
a
deceased
person,
dishonestly
disobeys
the
law
directs
him
to
divide
the
assets
according
to
the
will,
and
appropriates
the
assets
to
his
own
use.
A
commits:
Ans
1.
criminal
breach
of
trust
2.
theft
3.
cheating
4.
forgery
Page 21
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
4
Q.4
Under
the
Patents
Act,
1970
a
patent
is
granted
for:
Ans
1.
invention
2.
discovery
3.
observation
4.
finding
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
5
Q.5
'A'
gives
authority
to
'B'
to
sell
A's
land
and
to
pay
himself,
out
of
the
proceeds,
the
debts
due
to
him
from
'A':
Ans
1.
A
cannot
revoke
this
authority.
2.
The
authority
can
be
terminated
after
the
death
of
'A'.
3.
A
can
revoke
this
authority
subsequently.
4.
The
authority
can
be
terminated
on
the
ground
of
insanity
of
'A'.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
6
Q.6
'A'
voluntarily
throws
into
a
river
a
ring
belonging
to
'Z',
with
the
intention
of
thereby
causing
wrongful
loss
to
'Z'.
'A'
has
committed:
Ans
1.
extortion
2.
theft
3.
cheating
4.
mischief
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
7
Q.7
The
Judges
of
International
Court
of
Justice
are
elected
for
nine
years
and
the
court
shall
elect
its
President
or
Vice-‐President
for
a
term
of:
Ans
1.
Nine
years
2.
Three
years
3.
Five
years
4.
Seven
years
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
8
Q.8
A
married
couple
has
adopted
a
son
under
the
provisions
of
the
Hindu
Adoptions
and
Maintenance
Act,
1956.
While
the
adopted
son
is
alive,
the
couple
is
willing
to
adopt
another
son
as
the
said
adopted
son
was
not
medically
fit
to
produce
a
child.
The
couple-‐
Ans
1.
can
adopt
another
son
with
the
permission
of
the
Court
2.
cannot
adopt
another
son
3.
can
adopt
another
son
with
the
consent
of
the
adopted
son
4.
can
adopt
another
son
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
9
Q.9
A
nine
year
old
boy
bought
petrol
in
a
Can
from
the
defendant,
a
petrol
dealer
by
falsely
stating
his
mother
needed
it
for
her
car.
In
fact,
he
used
it
to
play
with
it,
and,
in
doing
so,
sustained
burn
injuries.
The
defendant
is:
Ans
1.
there
was
contributory
negligence
of
the
boy,
therefore
defendant
is
not
liable.
in
the
Sub
No
:
4
Q.4
Under
the
Patents
Act,
1970
a
patent
is
granted
for:
Ans
1.
invention
2.
discovery
3.
observation
4.
finding
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
5
Q.5
'A'
gives
authority
to
'B'
to
sell
A's
land
and
to
pay
himself,
out
of
the
proceeds,
the
debts
due
to
him
from
'A':
Ans
1.
A
cannot
revoke
this
authority.
2.
The
authority
can
be
terminated
after
the
death
of
'A'.
3.
A
can
revoke
this
authority
subsequently.
4.
The
authority
can
be
terminated
on
the
ground
of
insanity
of
'A'.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
6
Q.6
'A'
voluntarily
throws
into
a
river
a
ring
belonging
to
'Z',
with
the
intention
of
thereby
causing
wrongful
loss
to
'Z'.
'A'
has
committed:
Ans
1.
extortion
2.
theft
3.
cheating
4.
mischief
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
7
Q.7
The
Judges
of
International
Court
of
Justice
are
elected
for
nine
years
and
the
court
shall
elect
its
President
or
Vice-‐President
for
a
term
of:
Ans
1.
Nine
years
2.
Three
years
3.
Five
years
4.
Seven
years
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
8
Q.8
A
married
couple
has
adopted
a
son
under
the
provisions
of
the
Hindu
Adoptions
and
Maintenance
Act,
1956.
While
the
adopted
son
is
alive,
the
couple
is
willing
to
adopt
another
son
as
the
said
adopted
son
was
not
medically
fit
to
produce
a
child.
The
couple-‐
Ans
1.
can
adopt
another
son
with
the
permission
of
the
Court
2.
cannot
adopt
another
son
3.
can
adopt
another
son
with
the
consent
of
the
adopted
son
4.
can
adopt
another
son
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
9
Q.9
A
nine
year
old
boy
bought
petrol
in
a
Can
from
the
defendant,
a
petrol
dealer
by
falsely
stating
his
mother
needed
it
for
her
car.
In
fact,
he
used
it
to
play
with
it,
and,
in
doing
so,
sustained
burn
injuries.
The
defendant
is:
Ans
1.
there
was
contributory
negligence
of
the
boy,
therefore
defendant
is
not
liable.
Page 22
2.
not
liable
in
negligence
because
possession
of
the
Can
and
money
proved
boy
acted
as
a
reasonable
person.
3.
not
liable
in
negligence
as
the
boy
had
made
a
false
statement
and
the
defendant
believed
it
to
be
true.
4.
liable
in
negligence
for
supplying
petrol
to
so
young
a
boy
who
was
not
expected
to
know
the
properties
of
petrol.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
10
Q.10
A,
B,
C,
D,
and
E,
while
carrying
away
property
obtained
by
theft
committed
in
a
house
fired
shots
in
the
air
with
a
view
to
scare
away
the
inmates,
from
pursuing
them.
They
are
guilty
of:
Ans
1.
extortion
2.
dacoity
3.
roit
4.
theft
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
11
Q.11
Who
said
the
Public
International
Law
is
"a
Vanishing
Point
of
Jurisprudence"?
Ans
1.
Fawcett
2.
Brierly
3.
Holland
4.
Grotius
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
12
Q.12
'A'
supplies
to
the
dependent
wife
and
children
of
a
lunatic
'B',
necessities
suitable
to
their
needs
and
conditions
of
life.
'A'
is:
Ans
1.
entitled
to
reimbursement
from
B's
property.
2.
entitled
to
partial
reimbursement
only.
3.
not
entitled
to
any
reimbursement.
4.
entitled
to
reimbursement
at
the
discretion
of
'B'.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
13
Q.13
A'
agrees
to
buy
from
'B'
a
certain
horse.
It
turns
out
horse
was
dead
at
the
time
of
the
bargain,
though
neither
party
was
aware
of
the
fact.
The
agreement
is:
Ans
1.
valid
for
claim
of
compensation
2.
voidable
3.
valid
4.
void
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
14
Q.14
An
accused
head
master
of
a
school
threatens
a
lady
teacher
to
sign
certain
blank
papers
and
if
she
does
not
do
so,
he
would
defame
her.
The
head
master
is
guilty
of:
Ans
1.
extortion
2.
attempt
to
commit
defamation
3.
criminal
intimidation
not
liable
in
negligence
because
possession
of
the
Can
and
money
proved
boy
acted
as
a
reasonable
person.
3.
not
liable
in
negligence
as
the
boy
had
made
a
false
statement
and
the
defendant
believed
it
to
be
true.
4.
liable
in
negligence
for
supplying
petrol
to
so
young
a
boy
who
was
not
expected
to
know
the
properties
of
petrol.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
10
Q.10
A,
B,
C,
D,
and
E,
while
carrying
away
property
obtained
by
theft
committed
in
a
house
fired
shots
in
the
air
with
a
view
to
scare
away
the
inmates,
from
pursuing
them.
They
are
guilty
of:
Ans
1.
extortion
2.
dacoity
3.
roit
4.
theft
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
11
Q.11
Who
said
the
Public
International
Law
is
"a
Vanishing
Point
of
Jurisprudence"?
Ans
1.
Fawcett
2.
Brierly
3.
Holland
4.
Grotius
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
12
Q.12
'A'
supplies
to
the
dependent
wife
and
children
of
a
lunatic
'B',
necessities
suitable
to
their
needs
and
conditions
of
life.
'A'
is:
Ans
1.
entitled
to
reimbursement
from
B's
property.
2.
entitled
to
partial
reimbursement
only.
3.
not
entitled
to
any
reimbursement.
4.
entitled
to
reimbursement
at
the
discretion
of
'B'.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
13
Q.13
A'
agrees
to
buy
from
'B'
a
certain
horse.
It
turns
out
horse
was
dead
at
the
time
of
the
bargain,
though
neither
party
was
aware
of
the
fact.
The
agreement
is:
Ans
1.
valid
for
claim
of
compensation
2.
voidable
3.
valid
4.
void
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
14
Q.14
An
accused
head
master
of
a
school
threatens
a
lady
teacher
to
sign
certain
blank
papers
and
if
she
does
not
do
so,
he
would
defame
her.
The
head
master
is
guilty
of:
Ans
1.
extortion
2.
attempt
to
commit
defamation
3.
criminal
intimidation
Page 23
4.
robbery
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
15
Q.15
The
essential
tests
for
the
existence
of
international
custom
are:
Ans
1.
uniform
states
practice
and
opinio
juris
sive
necessitatis
2.
ancient
nature
3.
ancient
nature,
uniform
states
practice
and
opinio
juris
sive
necessitatis
4.
ancient
nature,
uniform
states
practice
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
16
Q.16
Indian
Copyright
Act,
1957
protects
the
literary
work
for
term:
Ans
1.
Life
of
author
plus
25
Years
after
his/her
death
2.
Full
life
only
3.
Life
of
author
plus
50
Years
after
his/her
death
4.
Life
of
author
plus
60
Years
after
his
/her
death
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
17
Q.17
In
his
definition
of
'Law
of
Tort',
Winfield
supports
the
principle
given
in
the
maxim:
Ans
1.
Ubi
remedium
ibi
jus
2.
Ubi
jus
ibi
remedium
3.
Respondeat
superior
4.
Damnum
sine
injuria
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
18
Q.18
Emission
Trading
mechanism
is
a
market
based
mechanism
provided
in:
Ans
1.
Warsaw
Amendment,
2013
2.
Kyoto
Protocol,
1997
3.
U.N.
Convention
on
Climate
Change,
1992
4.
Lima
Agreement,
2014
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
19
Q.19
Basic
principles
of
award
of
compensation
for
breach
of
contract
were
laid
down
in:
Ans
1.
Hadley
v.
Baxendale
2.
Solomon
v.
Solomon
3.
Harvey
v.
Facie
4.
Carllil
v.
Carbolic
Smoke
Ball
Co.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
20
Q.20
'A'
lets
to
'B',
for
hire,
a
horse
for
his
riding.
'B'
uses
the
horse
to
drive
the
carriage:
robbery
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
15
Q.15
The
essential
tests
for
the
existence
of
international
custom
are:
Ans
1.
uniform
states
practice
and
opinio
juris
sive
necessitatis
2.
ancient
nature
3.
ancient
nature,
uniform
states
practice
and
opinio
juris
sive
necessitatis
4.
ancient
nature,
uniform
states
practice
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
16
Q.16
Indian
Copyright
Act,
1957
protects
the
literary
work
for
term:
Ans
1.
Life
of
author
plus
25
Years
after
his/her
death
2.
Full
life
only
3.
Life
of
author
plus
50
Years
after
his/her
death
4.
Life
of
author
plus
60
Years
after
his
/her
death
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
17
Q.17
In
his
definition
of
'Law
of
Tort',
Winfield
supports
the
principle
given
in
the
maxim:
Ans
1.
Ubi
remedium
ibi
jus
2.
Ubi
jus
ibi
remedium
3.
Respondeat
superior
4.
Damnum
sine
injuria
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
18
Q.18
Emission
Trading
mechanism
is
a
market
based
mechanism
provided
in:
Ans
1.
Warsaw
Amendment,
2013
2.
Kyoto
Protocol,
1997
3.
U.N.
Convention
on
Climate
Change,
1992
4.
Lima
Agreement,
2014
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
19
Q.19
Basic
principles
of
award
of
compensation
for
breach
of
contract
were
laid
down
in:
Ans
1.
Hadley
v.
Baxendale
2.
Solomon
v.
Solomon
3.
Harvey
v.
Facie
4.
Carllil
v.
Carbolic
Smoke
Ball
Co.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
20
Q.20
'A'
lets
to
'B',
for
hire,
a
horse
for
his
riding.
'B'
uses
the
horse
to
drive
the
carriage:
Page 24
Ans
1.
The
bailment
is
automatically
terminated.
2.
The
termination
of
bailment
is
at
the
of
'A'.
3.
The
bailment
can
be
terminated
at
the
of
'B'.
4.
The
bailment
cannot
be
terminated.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
21
Q.21
'A'
inserts
his
finger
into
the
anus
of
a
woman
against
her
will.
Under
one
of
the
Sections
of
the
Indian
Penal
Code,
1860
'A'
is
punishable?
Ans
1.
Section
377
2.
Section
354
3.
Section
376
4.
Section
509
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
22
Q.22
For
the
offence
of
cheating,
one
of
the
state(s)
of
guilty
mind/s
is/are
to
be
proved?
Ans
1.
Fraudulently
or
dishonestly
2.
Dishonestly
3.
Fraudulently
4.
Fraudulently
and
dishonestly
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
23
Q.23
Who
is
called
father
of
Public
International
Law?
Ans
1.
Grotius
2.
Holland
3.
Starke
4.
Oppenheim
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
24
Q.24
A'
proposes,
by
letter,
to
sell
a
house
to
'B'
at
a
certain
price.
'B'
accepts
the
proposal
of
'A'
by
posting
a
letter
to
'A'.
Select
the
correct
option:
Ans
1.
There
cannot
be
an
agreement
between
'A'
and
'B'
by
post.
2.
The
communication
of
the
acceptance
is
complete
against
'B'
when
the
letter
is
posted
by
'B'.
3.
The
communication
of
the
acceptance
is
complete
against
'B'
when
the
letter
is
received
by
'A'.
4.
The
communication
of
the
proposal
is
complete
when
letter
of
proposal
was
posted
by
'A'.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
25
Q.25
India
acceded
to
the
International
Covenant
on
Civil
and
Political
Rights
in:
Ans
1.
1972
2.
1966
3.
1979
1.
The
bailment
is
automatically
terminated.
2.
The
termination
of
bailment
is
at
the
of
'A'.
3.
The
bailment
can
be
terminated
at
the
of
'B'.
4.
The
bailment
cannot
be
terminated.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
21
Q.21
'A'
inserts
his
finger
into
the
anus
of
a
woman
against
her
will.
Under
one
of
the
Sections
of
the
Indian
Penal
Code,
1860
'A'
is
punishable?
Ans
1.
Section
377
2.
Section
354
3.
Section
376
4.
Section
509
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
22
Q.22
For
the
offence
of
cheating,
one
of
the
state(s)
of
guilty
mind/s
is/are
to
be
proved?
Ans
1.
Fraudulently
or
dishonestly
2.
Dishonestly
3.
Fraudulently
4.
Fraudulently
and
dishonestly
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
23
Q.23
Who
is
called
father
of
Public
International
Law?
Ans
1.
Grotius
2.
Holland
3.
Starke
4.
Oppenheim
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
24
Q.24
A'
proposes,
by
letter,
to
sell
a
house
to
'B'
at
a
certain
price.
'B'
accepts
the
proposal
of
'A'
by
posting
a
letter
to
'A'.
Select
the
correct
option:
Ans
1.
There
cannot
be
an
agreement
between
'A'
and
'B'
by
post.
2.
The
communication
of
the
acceptance
is
complete
against
'B'
when
the
letter
is
posted
by
'B'.
3.
The
communication
of
the
acceptance
is
complete
against
'B'
when
the
letter
is
received
by
'A'.
4.
The
communication
of
the
proposal
is
complete
when
letter
of
proposal
was
posted
by
'A'.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
25
Q.25
India
acceded
to
the
International
Covenant
on
Civil
and
Political
Rights
in:
Ans
1.
1972
2.
1966
3.
1979
Page 25
4.
1976
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
26
Q.26
Under
the
Copyright
Act,
1957
copyright
can
be
granted
to?
Ans
1.
invention
2.
handicrafts
3.
design
of
a
bottle
4.
literary,
dramatic,
musical
and
artistic
work
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
27
Q.27
Which
one
of
the
is
not
a
defence
to
the
strict
liability
rule
in
tort?
Ans
1.
Plaintiff's
own
default.
2.
Inevitable
accident.
3.
Act
of
God.
4.
Escape
of
dangerous
things
through
the
unforeseeable
act
of
a
stranger.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
28
Q.28
Which
one
of
the
is
not
an
element
of
the
tort
of
malicious
prosecution?
Ans
1.
Prosecution
of
the
plaintiff
by
the
defendant.
2.
Damage
to
the
plaintiff
due
to
malicious
prosecution.
3.
Termination
of
the
criminal
case
in
favour
of
the
defendant.
4.
Absence
of
reasonable
and
probable
cause
for
prosecution.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
29
Q.29
Which
one
of
the
is
accepted
as
mens
rea
for
constituting
the
offence
of
theft?
Ans
1.
voluntarily
2.
Dishonestly
3.
Fraudulently
4.
knowingly
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
30
Q.30
Where
the
principle
of
"Common
but
differentiated
responsibilities"
finds
a
place?
Ans
1.
Paris
Agreement,
2015
2.
Montreal
Protocol,
1987
3.
U.N.
Convention
on
Biodiversity,
1992
4.
Warsaw
Amendment,
2013
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
31
Q.31
When,
U.N.
Human
Rights
Council,
is
successor
to
the
U.N.
Commission
on
Human
Rights,
was
established?
1976
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
26
Q.26
Under
the
Copyright
Act,
1957
copyright
can
be
granted
to?
Ans
1.
invention
2.
handicrafts
3.
design
of
a
bottle
4.
literary,
dramatic,
musical
and
artistic
work
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
27
Q.27
Which
one
of
the
is
not
a
defence
to
the
strict
liability
rule
in
tort?
Ans
1.
Plaintiff's
own
default.
2.
Inevitable
accident.
3.
Act
of
God.
4.
Escape
of
dangerous
things
through
the
unforeseeable
act
of
a
stranger.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
28
Q.28
Which
one
of
the
is
not
an
element
of
the
tort
of
malicious
prosecution?
Ans
1.
Prosecution
of
the
plaintiff
by
the
defendant.
2.
Damage
to
the
plaintiff
due
to
malicious
prosecution.
3.
Termination
of
the
criminal
case
in
favour
of
the
defendant.
4.
Absence
of
reasonable
and
probable
cause
for
prosecution.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
29
Q.29
Which
one
of
the
is
accepted
as
mens
rea
for
constituting
the
offence
of
theft?
Ans
1.
voluntarily
2.
Dishonestly
3.
Fraudulently
4.
knowingly
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
30
Q.30
Where
the
principle
of
"Common
but
differentiated
responsibilities"
finds
a
place?
Ans
1.
Paris
Agreement,
2015
2.
Montreal
Protocol,
1987
3.
U.N.
Convention
on
Biodiversity,
1992
4.
Warsaw
Amendment,
2013
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
31
Q.31
When,
U.N.
Human
Rights
Council,
is
successor
to
the
U.N.
Commission
on
Human
Rights,
was
established?
Page 26
Ans
1.
2010
2.
2012
3.
2013
4.
2006
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
32
Q.32
In
execution
of
a
decree
for
the
maintenance,
salary
of
a
person
can
be
attached
to
the
extent
of:
Ans
1.
two
third
2.
one
half
3.
one
fourth
4.
one
third
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
33
Q.33
If
International
Law
were
only
a
kind
of
morality,
the
framers
of
State
Papers
Concerning
Foreign
Policy
would
throw
all
their
strength
on
moral
argument.
Who
made
this
observation?
Ans
1.
Fitzmaurice
2.
J.G.
Starke
3.
John
Austin
4.
Frederick
Pollock
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
34
Q.34
The
maxim
'qui
facit
per
alium
facit
per
se'
means:
Ans
1.
he
who
acts
through
others
is
deemed
in
law
as
doing
it
himself.
2.
responsibility
must
not
be
of
the
superior.
3.
a
person
is
responsible
for
his
wrongful
acts.
4.
an
agent
is
not
liable
to
principal.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
35
Q.35
The
International
Criminal
Court
was
established
by:
Ans
1.
Rome
Statute,
1998
2.
UN
Charter,
1945
3.
League
of
Nations,
1919
4.
Hague
Conference,
1907
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
36
Q.36
As
per
The
Copyright
Act
1957,
who
is
not
included
in
the
definition
of
Performer?
Ans
1.
Snake
charmer
2.
Acrobat
3.
Cobbler
1.
2010
2.
2012
3.
2013
4.
2006
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
32
Q.32
In
execution
of
a
decree
for
the
maintenance,
salary
of
a
person
can
be
attached
to
the
extent
of:
Ans
1.
two
third
2.
one
half
3.
one
fourth
4.
one
third
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
33
Q.33
If
International
Law
were
only
a
kind
of
morality,
the
framers
of
State
Papers
Concerning
Foreign
Policy
would
throw
all
their
strength
on
moral
argument.
Who
made
this
observation?
Ans
1.
Fitzmaurice
2.
J.G.
Starke
3.
John
Austin
4.
Frederick
Pollock
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
34
Q.34
The
maxim
'qui
facit
per
alium
facit
per
se'
means:
Ans
1.
he
who
acts
through
others
is
deemed
in
law
as
doing
it
himself.
2.
responsibility
must
not
be
of
the
superior.
3.
a
person
is
responsible
for
his
wrongful
acts.
4.
an
agent
is
not
liable
to
principal.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
35
Q.35
The
International
Criminal
Court
was
established
by:
Ans
1.
Rome
Statute,
1998
2.
UN
Charter,
1945
3.
League
of
Nations,
1919
4.
Hague
Conference,
1907
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
36
Q.36
As
per
The
Copyright
Act
1957,
who
is
not
included
in
the
definition
of
Performer?
Ans
1.
Snake
charmer
2.
Acrobat
3.
Cobbler
Page 27
4.
Singer
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
37
Q.37
'A'
agrees
to
sell
his
house
worth
Rs.
5
lac
for
Rs.
1000/-‐.
'A'
denies
his
consent
to
the
agreement
was
freely
given.
Ans
1.
The
contract
is
void
because
of
inadequacy
of
consideration.
2.
'A'
cannot
take
this
plea
after
the
agreement.
3.
The
court
should
take
into
account
the
inadequacy
of
the
consideration
in
considering
whether
or
not
'A's
consent
was
freely
given.
4.
The
court
cannot
take
into
account
the
inadequacy
of
the
consideration
in
considering
whether
or
not
'A's
consent
was
freely
given.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
38
Q.38
The
Supreme
Court
in
the
case
of
Novartis,
AG
v.
Union
of
India,
rejected
the
patent
of
drug?
Ans
1.
Macsarin
2.
Gleevec
3.
Zimmerman
4.
Aspirin
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
39
Q.39
'A'
and
'B'
agree
'A'
shall
pay
Rs.
20000
for
'B'
shall
deliver
either
rice
or
heroin.
The
contract
is:
Ans
1.
void
as
to
delivery
of
heroin
and
valid
as
to
delivery
of
rice
2.
void
3.
voidable
4.
valid
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
40
Q.40
An
invention
under
the
Patent
in
India
can
be
protected
for
a
term
of
-‐
Ans
1.
20
Years
2.
50
Years
3.
10
Years
4.
25
Years
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
41
Q.41
In
of
the
case,
the
Supreme
Court
of
India
held
'if
a
Hindu
husband
converts
into
Islam
and
marries
again,
he
will
be
guilty
of
bigamy'?
Ans
1.
Revanasiddappa
v.
Mallikarjun
AIR
2011
SC
(Supp)
155
2.
Bhaurao
Shanker
Lokhande
v.
State
of
Maharashtra
AIR
1965
SC
1564
3.
Sarla
Mudgal
v.
Union
of
India
AIR
1995
SC
1531
4.
Bharatha
Matha
v.
R.
Vijaya
Renganathan
AIR
2010
SC
2685
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
42
Q.42
'A'
dies
leaving
behind
a
son
X
and
a
married
daughter
Y,
a
suit
filed
by
'A',
can
be
continued
by:
Singer
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
37
Q.37
'A'
agrees
to
sell
his
house
worth
Rs.
5
lac
for
Rs.
1000/-‐.
'A'
denies
his
consent
to
the
agreement
was
freely
given.
Ans
1.
The
contract
is
void
because
of
inadequacy
of
consideration.
2.
'A'
cannot
take
this
plea
after
the
agreement.
3.
The
court
should
take
into
account
the
inadequacy
of
the
consideration
in
considering
whether
or
not
'A's
consent
was
freely
given.
4.
The
court
cannot
take
into
account
the
inadequacy
of
the
consideration
in
considering
whether
or
not
'A's
consent
was
freely
given.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
38
Q.38
The
Supreme
Court
in
the
case
of
Novartis,
AG
v.
Union
of
India,
rejected
the
patent
of
drug?
Ans
1.
Macsarin
2.
Gleevec
3.
Zimmerman
4.
Aspirin
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
39
Q.39
'A'
and
'B'
agree
'A'
shall
pay
Rs.
20000
for
'B'
shall
deliver
either
rice
or
heroin.
The
contract
is:
Ans
1.
void
as
to
delivery
of
heroin
and
valid
as
to
delivery
of
rice
2.
void
3.
voidable
4.
valid
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
40
Q.40
An
invention
under
the
Patent
in
India
can
be
protected
for
a
term
of
-‐
Ans
1.
20
Years
2.
50
Years
3.
10
Years
4.
25
Years
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
41
Q.41
In
of
the
case,
the
Supreme
Court
of
India
held
'if
a
Hindu
husband
converts
into
Islam
and
marries
again,
he
will
be
guilty
of
bigamy'?
Ans
1.
Revanasiddappa
v.
Mallikarjun
AIR
2011
SC
(Supp)
155
2.
Bhaurao
Shanker
Lokhande
v.
State
of
Maharashtra
AIR
1965
SC
1564
3.
Sarla
Mudgal
v.
Union
of
India
AIR
1995
SC
1531
4.
Bharatha
Matha
v.
R.
Vijaya
Renganathan
AIR
2010
SC
2685
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
42
Q.42
'A'
dies
leaving
behind
a
son
X
and
a
married
daughter
Y,
a
suit
filed
by
'A',
can
be
continued
by:
Page 28
Ans
1.
'X'
alone
as
legal
representative
2.
'Y'
alone
as
legal
representative
3.
'X',
'Y'
and
the
husband
of
Y
as
legal
representatives
4.
'X'
and
'Y'
both,
as
legal
representatives
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
43
Q.43
Which
one
of
the
essentials
for
seeking
claim
of
patent
is
wrong?
Ans
1.
Compulsory
Licensing
2.
Non-‐obviousness
3.
Novelty
4.
Industrial
Utility
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
44
Q.44
The
liability
to
pay
compensation,
of
an
enterprise
carrying
on
an
inherently
dangerous
and
hazardous
activity,
on
death
of
a
worker
due
to
leakage
of
lethal
gas
is
based
on
the
principle
of:
Ans
1.
fault
Liability
2.
negligence
3.
absolute
liability
4.
wrongful
intention
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
45
Q.45
Which
body
of
the
United
Nations
requested
International
Court
of
Justice
to
give
an
advisory
opinion
on
the
issue
of
legality
of
use
or
threat
to
use
nuclear
weapons
on
15
December
1994?
Ans
1.
U.N.
General
Assembly
2.
Security
Council
3.
Economic
and
Social
Council
4.
W.H.O.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
46
Q.46
Which
element
is
not
required
in
the
tort
of
defamation?
Ans
1.
Wrongful
intention
2.
Defamatory
statement
3.
Referring
to
the
Plaintiff
4.
Publication
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
47
Q.47
For
fixing
vicarious
liability
of
master
in
tort
for
the
wrongs
committed
by
servant,
master
servant
relationship
is
determined
on
the
basis
of:
Ans
1.
employment
2.
payment
of
wages
3.
conditions
of
service
1.
'X'
alone
as
legal
representative
2.
'Y'
alone
as
legal
representative
3.
'X',
'Y'
and
the
husband
of
Y
as
legal
representatives
4.
'X'
and
'Y'
both,
as
legal
representatives
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
43
Q.43
Which
one
of
the
essentials
for
seeking
claim
of
patent
is
wrong?
Ans
1.
Compulsory
Licensing
2.
Non-‐obviousness
3.
Novelty
4.
Industrial
Utility
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
44
Q.44
The
liability
to
pay
compensation,
of
an
enterprise
carrying
on
an
inherently
dangerous
and
hazardous
activity,
on
death
of
a
worker
due
to
leakage
of
lethal
gas
is
based
on
the
principle
of:
Ans
1.
fault
Liability
2.
negligence
3.
absolute
liability
4.
wrongful
intention
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
45
Q.45
Which
body
of
the
United
Nations
requested
International
Court
of
Justice
to
give
an
advisory
opinion
on
the
issue
of
legality
of
use
or
threat
to
use
nuclear
weapons
on
15
December
1994?
Ans
1.
U.N.
General
Assembly
2.
Security
Council
3.
Economic
and
Social
Council
4.
W.H.O.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
46
Q.46
Which
element
is
not
required
in
the
tort
of
defamation?
Ans
1.
Wrongful
intention
2.
Defamatory
statement
3.
Referring
to
the
Plaintiff
4.
Publication
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
47
Q.47
For
fixing
vicarious
liability
of
master
in
tort
for
the
wrongs
committed
by
servant,
master
servant
relationship
is
determined
on
the
basis
of:
Ans
1.
employment
2.
payment
of
wages
3.
conditions
of
service
Page 29
4.
control
of
master
over
servant's
acts
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
48
Q.48
Under
the
Indian
Contract
Act,
1872
a
finder
of
goods
is
subject
to
the
same
duties
as
a:
Ans
1.
custodian
2.
owner
3.
bailee
4.
trustee
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
49
Q.49
Which
one
of
the
is
not
an
essential
element
of
the
defence
of
fair
comment
in
tort
of
defamation?
Ans
1.
The
comment
must
be
an
assertion
of
fact.
2.
The
comment
must
be
fair.
3.
The
matter
commented
on
must
be
of
public
interest.
4.
The
comment
must
not
be
malicious.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
50
Q.50
'A'
and
'B'
jointly
owe
Rs.
100/-‐
to
'C'.
'A'
alone
pays
the
whole
amount
to
'C'
and
'B'
not
knowing
this
fact
also
pays
Rs.
100/-‐
to
'C':
Ans
1.
'C'
is
bound
to
repay
Rs.
100/-‐
to
'B'.
2.
C'
is
not
bound
to
repay
Rs.
100/-‐
to
either
'A'
or
'B'
because
'B'
paid
on
his
own.
3.
C'
is
bound
to
pay
Rs.
50/-‐
to
'B'.
4.
C'
is
bound
to
pay
Rs.
100/-‐
each
to
'A'
and
'B'.
control
of
master
over
servant's
acts
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
48
Q.48
Under
the
Indian
Contract
Act,
1872
a
finder
of
goods
is
subject
to
the
same
duties
as
a:
Ans
1.
custodian
2.
owner
3.
bailee
4.
trustee
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
49
Q.49
Which
one
of
the
is
not
an
essential
element
of
the
defence
of
fair
comment
in
tort
of
defamation?
Ans
1.
The
comment
must
be
an
assertion
of
fact.
2.
The
comment
must
be
fair.
3.
The
matter
commented
on
must
be
of
public
interest.
4.
The
comment
must
not
be
malicious.
the
in
the
Sub
No
:
50
Q.50
'A'
and
'B'
jointly
owe
Rs.
100/-‐
to
'C'.
'A'
alone
pays
the
whole
amount
to
'C'
and
'B'
not
knowing
this
fact
also
pays
Rs.
100/-‐
to
'C':
Ans
1.
'C'
is
bound
to
repay
Rs.
100/-‐
to
'B'.
2.
C'
is
not
bound
to
repay
Rs.
100/-‐
to
either
'A'
or
'B'
because
'B'
paid
on
his
own.
3.
C'
is
bound
to
pay
Rs.
50/-‐
to
'B'.
4.
C'
is
bound
to
pay
Rs.
100/-‐
each
to
'A'
and
'B'.
Document Details
| Board / Org | NLUs |
| Exam | CLAT |
| Type | Question Paper |
| Pages | 29 |
| Language | english |
| Updated | 22 Jul 2026 |