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APTET Question Paper with Answers 17 Jun 2018 Paper 2 Maths and Science (Shift 1)

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Page 1

APTET – 2018

(PAPER-II) MATHS & SCIENCE
17-6-2018 - S-1

1. One of the following is not the basis for formation of attitudes
1. Integrating experiences
2. Differentiating experiences
3. Sudden incidents
4. Rejecting available attitudes

Page 2

2. According to Erickson the Psychosocial critical situation,
‘Initiative Vs Guilt’ is present in the children of this age
group.
1. 1½ – 3 years
2. 6 – 12 years
3. 3 – 6 years
4. 12 – 20 years

Vs

1½ – 3
6 – 12
3–6
12 – 20

3. One of the following is not a social factor that influences
student’s learning
1. Self control of the student
2. Stress felt by the student
3. Social maturity of the student
4. Heredity of the student

Page 3

4. ‘Social Smarts’ are
1. Persons with interpersonal intelligence
2. Persons with naturalistic intelligence
3. Persons with Bodily kinaesthetic intelligence
4. Persons with Intrapersonal intelligence

5. At this level of Kohlberg’s moral development, the morality
will be assessed in terms of physical punishment
1. Pre conventional morality
2. Post conventional morality
3. Conventional morality
4. Natural conventional morality

Page 4

6. In-spite of her visual impairment Helen Keller got fame as a
great writer. The defense mechanism that applies here is
1. Identification
2. Displacement
3. Compensation
4. Regression

7. According to Golman ‘the skills Reliability, Adaptability,
Innovations’ come under this dimension of emotional
intelligence
1. Self awareness
2. Self motivation
3. Self regulation
4. Empathy

Page 5

8. The fear of tall buildings and places belong to this type of
phobia
1. Acrophobia
2. Monophobia
3. Claustrophobia
4. Haemotophobia

9. Objectivity is more in this method
1. Introspection
2. Experimental
3. Observation
4. Interview

Page 6

10. In the experiment ‘The influence of memory on student’s
achievement’ the dependent variable is
1. Students achievement
2. Memory
3. Health
4. Home work

11. The psychologist who expressed that a child is born with
‘Language Acquisition Device’ - LAD
1. Bandura
2. Chomsky
3. Rogers
4. Vygotsky

LAD

Page 7

12. The characteristic features of a person having Integrated
Personality is
1. Impatience
2. Despair
3. Social instability
4. Foresight

13. This statement is not true with regard to the class room
implications of Piaget’s cognitive development theory
1. Process is important rather than answers
2. Teaching the lesson basing on the readiness for
learning
3. Preparing the children to think like elders
4. Accepting the individual differences in progress and
development

Page 8

14. The difference between child’s own capacity of performance
and the capacity of performance achieved with the
cooperation of more knowledgeable people is called as
1. Zone of Proximal development
2. Zone of distant development
3. Zone of middle development
4. Zone of Temporary development

15. As per Gilgord’s classification the people who learn easily
performing experiments and enacting are called
1. Bodily Kinesthetic learners
2. Auditory learners
3. Visual learners
4. Special learners

Page 9

16. This is a contrary concept with regard to classroom
implications of insight learning
1. Drilling should be encouraged
2. Construction of knowledge should be made in the
students
3. Motivate students towards learning
4. Importance should be given to whole aspect rather
than parts

17. A driver with a habit of driving vehicle with right side
steering was given a vehicle with left side steering suddenly.
The type of transfer of training in this case is
1. Negative
2. Positive
3. Zero
4. Bilateral

Page 10

18. The reappearance of a conditioned response to conditioned
stimulus in Pavlov’s experiment after extinction for a period
is called,
1. Extinction
2. Spontaneous recovery
3. Higher order conditioning
4. Discrimination

19. ‘Teaching machine’ is the result of this theory
1. Classical conditioning
2. Trail and Error learning
3. Operant conditioning
4. Insight learning

Page 11

20. The correct sequential order of steps in Bandura’s Social
learning
1. Retention, Attention, Performance, Reinforcement
2. Performance, Retention, Attention, Reinforcement
3. Attention, Performance, Retention, Reinforcement
4. Attention, Retention, Performance, Reinforcement

21. Reading the dramas of Shakespeare for the purpose of
examination is
1. Intrinsic Motivation
2. Extrinsic Motivation
3. Achievement Motivation
4. Artificial Motivation

Page 12

22. This is not a reason for forgetting
1. Concentration
2. Interference
3. Repression
4. Disuse

23. As per RTE Act - 2009 and Rules of Government of
Andhra Pradesh the Upper Primary school should exist in the
habitation within a radius of
1. 1 km.
2. 2 km.
3. 3 km.
4. 5 km.

RTE Act - 2009,

Page 13

24. One of the following is a Group learning method
1. Discussions
2. Distance learning
3. Resource based learning
4. Programmed learning

25. The counseling method which was constructed on the basis of
the presumption that the counselee has the capacity, reasoning
and the counselee needs only support from the counselor to
utilize them is
1. Directive
2. Non directive
3. Eclectic
4. Authoritative

Page 14

26. According to Heather’s theory, the first level in inquiry based
learning is
1. Structured inquiry
2. Confirmation inquiry
3. Guided inquiry
4. True inquiry

27. This is not the characteristic of collaborative learning class
room
1. Students work interdependently
2. Co-operation among the students is less
3. Personal responsibility and accountability exists in
students
4. Students solve the problems by working in groups

Page 15

28. The Resource model of Teaching in Inclusive education
takes place through
1. Regular teacher + Resource teacher
2. Regular teacher + Itinerant teacher
3. Regular teacher with specialized training
4. Teaching through distance programmes

29. According to Bruner this is not related to the sequential order
of methods for providing subject related learning content
1. Enactive method
2. Iconic method
3. Symbolic method
4. Insight method

Page 16

30. The following is a situation which indicates
‘Teacher Centered classroom’
1. Evaluation is an independent process
2. Importance to results only
3. Activities are selected by students
4. Construction of knowledge takes place

Page 26

61. The officer noticed many mistakes in the document in his
scrutiny.
Choose the meaning of the word, ‘scrutiny’ in the sentence
above.

1. Property acceptable as security for a loan.
2. Close and careful examination.
3. Quality of being stubborn.
4. A strong feeling in favour of others.

62. Tagore was a versatile person.
This sentence says that;

1. Tagore possessed many talents.
2. Tagore wrote poetry only.
3. Tagore could not write novels.
4. Tagore helped many people.

63. Choose the prefix that means ‘forward’.

1. bene -
2. pro -
3. mono -
4. intro -

Page 27

64. Choose the word with wrong spelling.

1. Jubilant
2. Favourite
3. Fabric
4. Choros

65. Identify the word with the same pronunciation as ‘some’.

1. Came
2. Sum
3. Come
4. Shame

66. He was a brilliant student right from the start.
Choose the antonym of the word ‘right.’
1. Wrong
2. Left
3. Inexactly
4. Stright

67. This old man brought up an orphan.
Choose the meaning of the phrasal verb “brought up.”

1. Raised
2. Praised
3. Rose
4. Arose

Page 28

68. We eat that we may live.
The purpose of using ‘may’ in this sentence is;

1. to express purpose
2. to express permission
3. to express concession
4. to express doubt

69. This is …………….. universal truth.
Choose the correct word to fill the blank.

1. a
2. an
3. the
4. No article is needed.

70. Don’t throw stones …….. birds.
Choose the correct preposition that fits the blank.

1. on
2. at
3. to
4. with

Page 29

71. No one knows who stole the watch.
This sentence has;

1. a relative clause
2. a defining relative clause
3. a noun clause
4. a noun phrase in apposition

72. Don’t make a noise.
This sentence indicates;

1. a request
2. a wish
3. an order
4. a statement

73. He will be coming.
The correct question tag for this sentence is;

1. didn’t he ?
2. won’t he ?
3. doesn’t he ?
4. will he ?

Page 30

74. Choose the sentence that ends with a question mark.

1. Don’t go there
2. Don’t you go there
3. Do what I say
4. I shall meet him

75. Ram says to Sita, “ I like Coffee.”
Choose the reported speech of the sentence above.
1. Ram asks Sita if she likes coffee.
2. Ram says that Sita likes coffee.
3. Ram said to Sita that she liked coffee.
4. Ram tells Sita that he likes coffee.

76. A lot of money …………… wasted.
Choose the correct form of verb to complete the sentence.

1. are
2. were
3. was
4. have

Page 31

77. The poem …………. in 1998.
Choose the correct tense form that fits the blank.

1. wrote
2. writes
3. was writing
4. was written

78. Choose the noun form from the following.

1. pavement
2. amazed
3. deserve
4. passed

79. Choose the linker that can be used to indicate sequence.

1. Yet
2. Secondly
3. On the other hand
4. All the same.

80. He signed the agreement. That was foolish.
The meaning of these two sentences can be conveyed as;

1. He foolishly signed the agreement.
2. The agreement was foolish to be signed.
3. He was fooled because of the agreement.
4. The agreement made him a fool.

Page 32

81. Choose the grammatically correct sentence from the
following.

1. When you saw the movie?
2. When do you saw the movie?
3. When did you see the movie?
4. When did you saw the movie?

82. I had about sixty rupees in my suitcase
This sentence can be ended with;

1. a full stop
2. a question mark
3. a comma
4. an exclamatory mark

83. Inverted commas are used;

1. to separate the clauses
2. to mark the exact words of a speaker
3. to avoid the repeation
4. to mark off the nominative of address

84. Choose the sentence in passive voice.

1. Fleming discovered penicillin.
2. Fleming was discover penicillin.
3. Penicillin was discovered by Fleming.
4. Penicillin was discover by Fleming.

Page 33

85. Alexander was ………….. soldier in the world.
Choose the correct expression that fits the blank.

1. so great as
2. the greatest
3. the greater
4. as great as

86. I request you to attend my elder sister’s marriage on 7th of
next month along with your family.
The above information appears in;

1. a story about a marriage
2. a letter of invitation
3. a diary entry
4. an essay on marriages.

87. Choose the list of words in correct alphabetical order.

1. go, went, gone, going
2. going, gone, went, go
3. went, gone, going, go
4. go, going, gone, went

Page 34

88. People had to welcome in gloomy colours.
Choose the synonym of the word ‘gloomy.’

1. dirty
2. muddy
3. bright
4. sad

89. Read the following passage and choose the correct
answer to the question.

Glenn Cunningham was a good runner. In races at school, he
ran faster than his friends. “I want to become the fastest
runner in the world,” Glenn told himself.
One day, there was a big fire at Glenn’s school. His
legs were burnt very badly. The doctors looked at his legs and
said that he would not be able to run again.

The determination of Glenn was;
1. to save the burning people.
2. to create fire at school.
3. to become the fastest runner in the world.
4. to burn people very badly.

Page 35

90. Read the following passage and choose the correct
answer to the question.

Glenn Cunningham was a good runner. In races at school, he
ran faster than his friends. “I want to become the fastest
runner in the world,” Glenn told himself.
One day, there was a big fire at Glenn’s school. His
legs were burnt very badly. The doctors looked at his legs and
said that he would not be able to run again.

Glenn ran faster than his friends because;

1. he wanted to stand first.
2. he wanted to escape from the fire.
3. he wanted to meet the doctor.
4. he wanted to burn his legs.

Page 36

91. If A, B are disjoint sets. n(A) = 4 and n(A B) = 7 then n(B)
is equal to
A, B n(A) = 4 n(A B) = 7
n(B)

1. 4
2. 11
3. 3
4. 20

92. If 2log(x + 3) = log81 then the value of x.

2log(x + 3) = log81 x

1. 6
2. 5
3. 7
4. 8

1
93. If 2 = 1.414 then the value of is
2 2
1
2 = 1.414
2 2
1. 0.0352
2. 3.541
3. 0.3535
4. 0.2525

Page 37

94. If one zero of the quadratic polynomial 2x2 + Kx – 15 is 3
then the other zero is :

2x2 + Kx – 15

15
1.
2
2. 5
5
3.
2
4. –1

95. a1x + b1y + c1 = 0; a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 are two straight lines.
a1 b1 c1
If , then the lines are
a2 b2 c2

1. Intersecting lines
2. Parallel lines
3. Coincident lines
4. Perpendicular lines

a1x + b1y + c1 = 0; a2x + b2y + c2 = 0
a1 b1 c1
a2 b2 c2

1.
2.
3.
4.

Page 38

96. If the area of a square is 4489 sq.cm then its length of the side
is (in cm)

1. 57
2. 67
3. 35
4. 43

97. The numbers 10, 12, 14, x–3, x, x+2, 25 are in ascending
order. If the median is 15 then the value of x is

10, 12, 14, x–3, x, x+2, 25
x

1. 16
2. 15
3. 17
4. 18

98. If A = 4x2 + y2 – 6xy; B = 3y2 + 12x2 – 2xy
Then 2A + B is equal to

A = 4x2 + y2 – 6xy; B = 3y2 + 12x2 – 2xy
2A + B

1. 20x2 – 5y2 – 14xy
2. 20x2 + 5y2 – 14xy
3. 15x2 – 4y2 + 12xy
4. –15x2 + 4y2 + 2xy

Page 39

99. If difference of two supplementary angles is 34o then smaller
angle is (in degrees)

34o

1. 63
2. 53
3. 43
4. 73

100. If 125 5x+7 = 1 then the value of x is

125 5x+7 = 1 x

1. 10
2. –10
3. 7
4. –7

101. One of the exterior angles of a triangle is 125o and the interior
opposite angles are in the ratio 2 : 3 then one of the interior
angle is (in degrees)

125o
2:3

1. 38
2. 48
3. 50
4. 58

Page 40

1
102. If Tan = then 7 Sin2 + 3 Cos2 is equal to
3

1
Tan = 7 Sin2 + 3 Cos2
3
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

12
103. If Cos A = then the value of Sin A is
13

12
Cos A = Sin A
13
12
1.
13
5
2.
13
13
3.
5
5
4.
12

Page 41

104. If a die is rolled, then the probability of getting an even
number is

1
1.
6
1
2.
3
2
3.
5
1
4.
2

105. If (–1, 5) is the midpoint of the line joining the points (–4, a),
(2, 8) then the value of ‘a’ is

(–4, a), (2, 8) (–1, 5)
‘a’

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Page 42

106. The area of the triangle with vertices (t, 2t), (–2, 6), (3, 1) is
5 sq. units then the value of ‘t’ is

(t, 2t), (–2, 6), (3, 1)
‘t’

1
1.
2
1
2.
2
3. 2
4. –2

107. If three angles of a quadrilateral are 60o, 80o and 120o then the
fourth angle is (in degrees)

60o, 80o, 120o

1. 80
2. 90
3. 95
4. 100

Page 43

108. In geometric progression the 8th term is 192 and common
ratio is 2 then first term is

3
1.
2
1
2.
2
3. 2
4. 3

109. If the 17th term of an Arithmetic Progression exceeds its 10th
term by 7 then the common difference is

1. 4
2. 3
3. 1
4. 0

110. Discriminant of the quadratic equation 2x2 – 4x + 3 = 0 is

2x2 – 4x + 3 = 0

1. –8
2. 8
3. 0
4. 15

Page 44

111. The length, breadth and height of a cuboid are equal to 15cm,
12cm, 10cm respectively, then its total surface area is
(in cm2)

1. 700
2. 800
3. 900
4. 890

112. G.C.D of 72, 252 is 36 then their L.C.M is
72, 252

1.
2. 504
3. 325
4. 175

113. If the slope of the line joining the points (2, 5) and (x, 3) is 2
then the value of x is

(2, 5) (x, 3)
x

1. 3
2. 2
3. 1
4. –1

Page 45

114. ABC DEF and their areas are respectively 64 cm2 and
121 cm2. If EF = 15.4 cm then BC is equal to (in cm)

ABC DEF
EF = 15.4
BC

1. 12.2
2. 11.2
3. 10.2
4. 4.5

Page 46

115. The word “Mathematics” is derived from the following Greek
words
(A) Techne (B) Arsmathematica (C) Manthanein

1. A&B
2. B&C
3. C&A
4. A, B & C

“Mathematics”

(A) Techne (B) Arsmathematica (C) Manthanein

1. A B
2. B C
3. C A
4. A, B C

Page 47

116. The specification “Translates” belongs to this objective

1. Skill
2. Application
3. Understanding
4. Knowledge

1.
2.
3.
4.

117. The characteristic feature that belongs to “Synthetic Method”
is

1. Hypothesis to Conclusion
2. Specific to General
3. Concrete to Abstract
4. Example to Principle

1.
2.
3.
4.

Page 48

118. The first step of the lesson plan as per “Herbartian Approach”

1. Presentation
2. Application
3. Association
4. Preparation

1.
2.
3.
4.

119. Following is the demerit of the oral work

1. Previous knowledge of the students can be tested
2. Correct the articulation errors of the students
3. It depends mostly on the memory of the students
4. Enhances speed and accuracy

1.
2.
3.
4.

Page 49

120. The Academic Standard to be tested through the following
test item
“Write the decimal number 303.03 in expanded form”
1. Representation – Visualisation
2. Communication
3. Connection
4. Reasoning – Proof

1.
2.
3.
4.

Page 50

121. Natural magnet among the following
1. Bar magnet
2. Horse shoe magnet
3. Ring magnet
4. Load stone

122. In Celsius scale thermometer each division is equal to (in ºC)

ºC

1. 1
2. 0.1
3. 0.2
4. 10

Page 51

123. Planets that rotate from East to West are
1. Earth, Mercury
2. Earth, Venus
3. Venus, Uranus
4. Uranus, Neptune

124. The situation that has only potential energy is
1. flying air craft
2. a rolling stone
3. stretched rubber band
4. flowing water

Page 52

125. The refractive index of glass with respect to air is 2. Then the
critical angle of glass - air interface is (in degrees)

1. 0
2. 30
3. 45
4. 60

Joule
126. is equal to
Colomb
1. 1 Watt
2. 1 Volt
3. 1 Ampere
4. 1 Ohm

Page 53

127. The colour of phenolphthalein indicator in acidic medium is
1. Red
2. Pink
3. Yellow
4. Colourless

128. The chemical nature of a non-metallic oxide is
1. Acidic
2. Basic
3. Amphoteric
4. Neutral

Page 54

129. The following gas has rotten egg smell
1. Carbon dioxide
2. Carbon monoxide
3. Hydrogen sulphide
4. Hydrogen

130. In galvanization, iron is coated with
1. Tin
2. Chromium
3. Nickel
4. Zinc

Page 55

131. The material obtained from petro chemicals is
1. Glass
2. Metals
3. Plastics
4. Wood

132. The mixture of water and diesel is an example for
1. Colloidal solution
2. True solution
3. Miscible mixture
4. Immiscible mixture

Page 56

133. To get ‘Honeydew’ ants keep a type of insects called
1. Aphids
2. Honeybees
3. Soldier ants
4. Drones

134. The joint between the upper jaw and the rest of the head is
1. Hinge Joint
2. Fixed Joint
3. Pivot Joint
4. Ball and Socket Joint

Page 57

135. One of the following is an Indian native crop
1. Tomato
2. Cauliflower
3. Pear
4. Sugarcane

1.
2.
3.
4.

136. The process of killing larvae inside a cocoon before silk
reeling is
1. Stuffing
2. Sealing
3. Stifling
4. Stalking

Page 58

137. “The nucleus is an integral part of the cell”. This was stated
by
1. Robert Hook
2. Robert Brown
3. Felice Fontana
4. Jan Swammerdam

138. ‘Helicobacter pylori’ is responsible for
1. Peptic ulcer
2. Jaundice
3. Uterine cancer
4. Hepatitis - D

1.
2.
3.
4. D

Page 59

139. The alternative method for ‘incineration’, to burn materials is
1. Hydrolysis
2. Pyrolysis
3. Methanation
4. Eutrofication

140. ‘Lichens’ are the colonies of
1. Bacteria and Fungi
2. Algae and Fungi
3. Virus and Algae
4. Bacteria and Virus

Page 60

141. One of the following is not the sites of taste sensation
1. Fungiform papillae
2. Circumvallate papillae
3. Foliate papillae
4. Filiform papillae

142. Find the correct pair with reference to vitamins and their
chemical names
1. A – Ascorbic acid
2. D – Calciferol
3. B1 – Biotin
4. E – Phylloquinone

1. A–
2. D–
3. B1 –
4. E–

Page 61

143. The alkaloid that acts as an insecticide is
1. Scopolamine
2. Reserpine
3. Pyrithroid
4. Caffine

144. Number of synergids, antipodals and egg cells in an
embryo sac of a flower in majority flowering plants
respectively are

1. 3, 2, 2
2. 2, 3, 1
3. 1, 2, 3
4. 4, 1, 2

Page 62

145. The important nature of an ‘objective’ –
1. it is abstract
2. it takes long time to achieve
3. it is a long-term goal
4. it is measurable

Page 63

146. As per National Policy on Education – 1986 the percentage of
content to be specified to the local needs in the whole
curriculum is

147. John Dewy’s Pragramatism is the basis for the following
method
1. Discussion Method
2. Project Method
3. Lecture Demonstration Method
4. Lecture Method

Page 64

148. A graphic aid among the following is
1. Flannel Board
2. Bulletin Board
3. Chart
4. Radio

149. In the laboratory dry sand is to be sprinkled on the flames
when fire accidents take place due to the following reason.
1. Electric flames
2. Liquids that catches fire easily
3. Commonly flammable substances
4. Flames from metals

Page 65

150. Accuracy and efficiency of a test can be brought out by this
characteristic feature
1. Reliability
2. Comprehensiveness
3. Validity
4. Interpretability

Page 66

TET -June-2018 - Final key
Paper-II(A)- Telugu Medium-Set-L (M&S) 17.06.2018 Morning Session
Q.Nos CDP Q.Nos Telugu Q.Nos English Q.Nos Maths Q.Nos Science
1 4 31 2 61 2 91 3 121 4
2 3 32 4 62 1 92 1 122 2
3 4 33 3 63 2 93 3 123 3
4 1 34 1 64 4 94 3 124 3
5 1 35 1 65 2 95 3 125 2
6 3 36 4 66 3 96 2 126 2
7 3 37 2 67 1 97 4 127 4
8 1 38 1 68 1 98 2 128 1
9 2 39 3 69 1 99 4 129 3
10 1 40 2 70 2 100 2 130 4
11 2 41 4 71 3 101 3 131 3
12 4 42 1 72 3 102 4 132 4
13 3 43 2 73 2 103 2 133 1
14 1 44 4 74 2 104 4 134 2
15 1 45 3 75 4 105 2 135 4
16 1 46 1 76 3 106 3 136 3
17 1 47 2 77 4 107 4 137 2
18 2 48 4 78 1 108 1 138 1
19 3 49 4 79 2 109 3 139 2
20 4 50 4 80 1 110 1 140 2
21 2 51 4 81 3 111 3 141 4
22 1 52 3 82 1 112 2 142 2
23 3 53 1 83 2 113 3 143 3
24 1 54 3 84 3 114 2 144 2
25 2 55 2 85 2 115 3 145 4
26 2 56 2 86 2 116 3 146 1
27 2 57 2 87 4 117 1 147 2
28 1 58 3 88 4 118 4 148 3
29 4 59 1 89 3 119 3 149 4
30 2 60 3 90 1 120 2 150 3

Document Details

Board / OrgAndhra Pradesh Exams
ExamAndhra Pradesh Teacher Eligibility Test
TypeQuestion Paper
Pages66
Updated30 Apr 2026