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Karnataka NMMS 2022 Question Paper SAT

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Page 1

Question Booklet Sl. No.
SAT (K-8) NMMS
SAT – 2022 – 23
±Ü£ÅPæ – 2 / PAPER – 2
/ SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST
REGISTER NO. :

ÓÜÊÜá¿á : 90 90
TIME : 90 MINUTES ENGLISH / KANNADA MAX. MARKS : 90

Instructions to Students ˨ݦìWÜÚWæ ÓÜãaÜ®æWÜÙÜá
1. This Question Booklet contains 90 questions. 1. D± 90
2. All questions are compulsory. Each question carries 2.
one mark and there will be no negative marking.
3. Each correct answer will be awarded one mark. 3.
4. Write your Eleven digit Register number as allotted 4.
to you in the admission ticket clearly on the test
booklet. 5.
5. During the examination, ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜ
Read the questions carefully. (OMR)
Completely darken/shade the relevant circle against
Question No. in the OMR answer sheet using
blue/black ball point pen. Do not try to alter the
entry and not to do any stray marks on OMR
(OMR)
Sheet.
Example : In a question booklet if option ‘C’ is : 20 ‘C’
the correct answer for Question No. 20, then in (OMR) ‘C’
the OMR answer sheet, shade the circle ‘C’ using
blue / black ball point pen as follows.
20. A B C D (This is an example only) 20. A B C D ( )
6. If more than one circle is darkened for a given question, 6.
such answer is treated as wrong and no marks will be
given.
7. The Student and Room Invigilator should sign in 7. (OMR)
the OMR sheet in the space provided. ±Ü³
8. Candidate should return the answered OMR sheet only
8. (OMR)
to the Room Invigilator before leaving the examination
hall.
9. The calculator, mobiles and any other electronic 9.
equipments are not allowed inside the examination hall.
10. English version of the question paper will be
10.
out of variation in translated version. ±Ü£ÅPæ¿á C áÜ ±
11. Rough work can be done in the place provided in the 11.
Question Booklet.
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Page 2

SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST

ËÐÜ¿áÓÜãb / CONTENTS
Question No. /
Sl.
Page No. /
No. / Subject / ËÐÜ¿á
From / To /
Cí¨Ü Wæ
PHYSICS
1 1 12 3-5

CHEMISTRY
2 13 23 6-9

BIOLOGY
3 24 35 10-14

HISTORY
4 36 45 15-17
C£ÖÝÓÜ
GEOGRAPHY
5 46 53 18-20

ECONOMICS AND BUSINESS STUDIES
6 54 70 21-25

MATHEMATICS
7 71 90 26-30

Page 3

PHYSICS
1. Mahesh holds one end of iron wire 1.
with his hand and other end on

heat and leaves iron wire. The
phenomenon responsible for this
incident is :
A) Convection B) Conduction A) B)
C) Radiation D) Insulation C) D)
2.
which bulbs ABCD will glow when
switch is moved to “ON” position : ABCD
A B A B

C D C D
A) in the direction ABDC A) ABDC
B) in the direction ACDB B) ACDB
C) in the direction CABD C) CABD
D) simultaneously all ABCD D) ABCD

3.

temperature of the land :
A) is equal to that of water in oceans
A)
B) is less than that of water in oceans
B)
C) is more than that of water in oceans
C)
D) not depends on the temperature
of water in oceans D)
3

Page 4

4. When a rubber Sucker is pressed 4.

surface. The reason for this is :
A) the pressure exerted by us A)
B)
B) the atmospheric pressure acting
on it
C)
C) the air sucked by rubber
D) one of the character of rubber D)
5.
with a pin :
A) it bursts A)
B)
B) air escapes slowly
C)
C) air escapes very fast
D) creates a loud sound D)
6.

of friction acting on the car on
different surface in increasing
A)
order is :

B)

C)

D)

4

Page 5

7. A boat comes to rest if we stop 7. Ö
rowing. The reason for this is :
A) Magnetic force
B) Muscular force A)
B)
C) Gravitational force C)
D) Force of friction D)
8. Camel can walk easier than horse 8.

A) broader feet B) lesser weight A) B)
C) smaller feet D) heavier body C) D)
9.
used for ultrasound scanning of
abdomen :
A) less than 20 Hz A) 20 Hz
B) less than 20000 Hz and B) 20000 Hz
greater than 20 Hz 20 Hz
C) greater than 20000 Hz C) 20000 Hz
D) greater than 2000 Hz and D) 2000 Hz
less than 20000 Hz 20000 Hz
10. The medium in which sound 10.
propagates faster :
A) Copper wire B) Air A) B)
C) Water D) Vacuum C) D)
11. When two charged balloons comes 11.

A) attracts each other A)
B) release opposite charges B)
C) neither attracts nor repels C)
D) repel each other D)
12. The mirror which produces lateral 12.
inversion is :
A) Convex mirror A)
B) Concave mirror B)
C) Plane mirror C)
D) Planoconvex mirror D)
5

Page 6

CHEMISTRY
13. The appropriate statement 13.
related to production of wool in
the following is : A)
A) Pashmina shawls are woven by
the Marwari breeds of Haryana
B) Lohi breeds of Punjab are B)
selectively bred for good
quality wool
C) Brown fleece is obtained from C)
Angora breeds of Rajasthan
D) Carpet wools are obtained from
Bakharwal breeds of Jammu D)
and Kashmir
14. 14. ±ÜÅ®ÝÙÜ ‘x’
separate colourless solutions. Pink
colour is obtained when both are
are : ‘x’ WÜÙáÜ PÜÅÊÜáÊÝX :
A) Sulphuric acid and iodine A)
B) Copper sulphate and methyl B)
orange
C) Ammonium hydroxide and C)
phenolphthalein
D) Nitric acid and methylene blue D)
tals are 15.
changes to white. This is :
A) Physical change where water
evaporates A)
B) Chemical change which cannot B)
be reversible
C) Physical change where colour C)
changes D)
D) Chemical change which can be
reversible
16. ‘X’
prepare bedsheet when added to
cotton and carpet when added to
wool. Then ‘X’ is : ‘X’ :
A) Rayon B) Nylon A) B)
C) Acrylic D) Terylene C) D)
6

Page 7

17. Observe the experimental setup 17. C
given here. To get a gas burning ‘±Ý±…’
‘P’ ‘Q’ WÜÙáÜ PÜÅÊÜáÊÝX :

P P

Q Q

A) P = Cu, Q = HCl A) P = Cu, Q = HCl
B) P = S, Q = H2SO4 B) P = S, Q = H2SO4
C) P = Al, Q = NaOH C) P = Al, Q = NaOH
D) P = C, Q = HNO3 D) P = C, Q = HNO3
18. A person decided to visit Shimla 18.
during the month of December. To

A) Nylon B) Melamine A) B)
C) Acrylic D) Terylene C) D)
19. Part ‘x’ in the electric circuit shown 19.
‘x’
choices given. Right choice which ‘ ’
help to glow the ‘bulb’ is :

9V 9V

x x
A) Coal B) Graphite A) B)
C) Sulphur D) Diamond C) D)
7

Page 8

20. Observe the given statements related 20.
to petroleum.
i. Constituents of petroleum i.
are separated by fractional
distillation.
ii.
ii. The formation of petroleum in
nature is very slow.
iii. Petroleum deposits are available iii.
plenty in nature.
iv. Combustion of constituents of iv.
petroleum is a major cause for
air pollution.
(T) (F)
The sequence which represents true(T)

A) TTFT B) TFFT A) TTFT B) TFFT
C) TFTT D) TFTF C) TFTT D) TFTF

21. Observe the given list of constituents 21.
of petrol and their uses.
List – I List – II
a. Petrol i. Lubricant –I – II
a. i.
b. Bitumen ii. Paints
b. ii.
c. Diesel iii. Solvent for c. iii.
dry cleaning

d. iv.
generators
v. Ointments v.
when these are matched :
A) a – iv, b – iii, c – v, d – ii A) a – iv, b – iii, c – v, d – ii
B) a – v, b – ii, c – i, d – iii B) a – v, b – ii, c – i, d – iii
C) a – iii, b – ii, c – iv, d – v C) a – iii, b – ii, c – iv, d – v
D) a – ii, b – v, c – iii, d – iv D) a – ii, b – v, c – iii, d – iv
8

Page 9

22. Observe two gases in the table which 22.

2017 2018 2017 2018
Gases
(in ppm) (in ppm)
(ppm WÜÙÈ
Ü É ) (ppm WÜÙÈ
Ü É)
Sulphur
7 16 7 16
di-oxide

Nitrogen
61 73 61 73
oxides

A) LPG as domestic fuel A) LPG

B) Methane in industries B)

C) Coal in thermal power plants C)

D) CNG as vehicle fuel D) CNG

23. The reaction in which a large amount 23.
of gas is fo
and sound among the following is :

A) Magnesium is burnt in air A)

B) Chunk of sodium is put in water B)

in stove C)

D) White phosphorus is put in water D)
9

Page 10

BIOLOGY
24. Correct order of changing stages 24.
after the fertilization of an egg is :
A) Embryo, Zygote, Seed A)
B) Zygote, Seed, Embryo B)
C) Zygote, Embryo, Seed C)
D) Embryo, Seed, Zygote D)
25. Observe the given diagram of human 25.
sperm. Correct order of the parts

c c

b b

a a

A) Middle piece, Tail, Head A)
B) Tail, Middle piece, Head B)
C) Head, Middle piece, Tail C)
D) Tail, Head, Middle piece D)
correct statement 26.

among the following : A)
A) Blood rich in carbon dioxide
from right ventricle reaches
B)
B) Blood rich in oxygen from
right atrium reaches liver for
C)
C) Blood rich in carbon dioxide
from left ventricle reaches lungs

D) Blood rich in oxygen from D)
left atrium reaches liver for
10

Page 11

27. Correct combination related to food 27.
items and their preservatives is :
A) Fish – Sugar
A)
B) Fruit juice – Baking soda
B)
C) Jam – Table salt (sodium chloride) C)
D) Pickle – Vinegar D)
28. The main purpose of ‘Project Tiger’ 28. ‘ ’¿á ±ÜÅÊÜááS
of the Government is :
A) To decrease the population of A)
tigers.
B) Saving tigers to decrease the B)
number of other animals in the
forest.
C) Maintaining the ecological C)
balance by protecting tigers.
D) Increasing the number of tigers D)
in the environment to decrease
producers.
29. Few seeds of a particular plant are 29.
put in the vessel containing water
as shown in the diagram. Correct ‘X’
statement related to ‘X’ is :

X – Seeds X–

Y – Water Y–

A) damaged seeds not suitable for A)
sowing.
B) good, healthy seeds suitable for B)
sowing.
C) heavier seeds, useful for good C)
yield.
D) capable of germinating in any D)
type of soil.
11

Page 12

30. Observe the given food chain. 30.
Grass Insects Frog Snake PÜ±æ³ ÖÝÊÜâ
Eagle
If all the frogs in this food chain are

A) increase in the population of A)
snakes.
B) decrease in the population of B)
insects.
C) increase in the population of C)
eagles.
D) decrease in the population of D)
snakes.

31. Observe the statements related to the 31.
need of water for the proper growth
of plants.
i.
i. nutrients are transported to the
parts of a plant through water.
ii.
ii. gives protection to the crop from
frost and hot air currents.
iii. provides dryness required for iii.
the germination of seeds.
iv. helps to maintain the moisture iv.
of the soil.
Correct statements from these are :
A) i, ii, iv only A) i, ii, iv
B) i, ii, iii, iv B) i, ii, iii, iv
C) i, ii only C) i, ii
D) i, iii, iv only D) i, iii, iv
12

Page 13

32. Lists of few micro-organisms and 32.

a. Protozoa i. Typhoid a. i.

b. ii.
c. Virus iii. Dysentry ( )

c. iii.
matched :
A) a – iii, b – ii, c – i A) a – iii, b – ii, c – i
B) a – i, b – iii, c – ii B) a – i, b – iii, c – ii
C) a – ii, b – iii, c – i C) a – ii, b – iii, c – i
D) a – iii, b – i, c – ii D) a – iii, b – i, c – ii

33. Observe the given statements related 33.
to migration of birds.

i. to avoid climatic changes. i.

ii. in search of food.

iii. for entertainment. ii.

iv. for the reproduction. iii.

The options which has correct iv.

statements :

A) i, iii, iv only A) i, iii, iv

B) i, ii, iv only B) i, ii, iv

C) i, ii, iii only C) i, ii, iii

D) ii, iv only D) ii, iv
13

Page 14

34. Correct statement related to the 34. ‘ ’
function of ‘chromosomes’ is :

A) destroys the useless organelles A)

in the cell.

B)
B) produces energy required for the
biological activities.

C)
C) helps to transfer the characters
from parents to the offsprings.

D) provide green colour to the D)
leaves.

35. Group of animals where 35.
metamorphosis is observed : WÜáí±Üâ :

A) frog, lizard, moth A)

B) frog, silkworm, moth B)

C) moth, snake, bat C)

D) moth, frog, crocodile D)

14

Page 15

HISTORY C£ÖÝÓÜ

36. Recognise the correct pairs from the 36.
following.
a. Kautilya : Arthashastra a.
b. Srivijaya : Deepavamsha b.
c. Kalhana : Rajatarangini c.
d. Fa-hien : Gho-Kho-Ki d.
A) a, b, c, d are correct A) a, b, c, d
B) Only a, b, d are correct B) a, b, d
C) Only a, c, d are correct C) a, c, d
D) Only b, c, d are correct D) b, c, d

37.

A) Jayaprakash Narayan A)
B) Vallabhbhai Patel B)
C) Motilal Nehru C)
D) Subhash Chandra Bose D)
15

Page 16

38. Read the following statements and 38. PæÙÜ
choose the correct alternative.
a. Samudragupta was not just a a.
conqueror but a great poet and a
lover of music too.
b.
b. His passion for music can be
seen in the gold coins which
depict him playing the veena.
A) both a and b are true A) a b
B) a is false and b is true B) a b
C) both a and b are false C) a b
D) a is true and b is false D) a b

39. Match the following and choose the 39.
correct alternative.
a. Hwang Ho i. Greek a. i.
Civilization b. ii.
b. Aegean Sea ii. Egyptian
Civilization
c. iii.
c. Euphrates iii. Chinese
and Tigris Civilization
d. Nile iv. Mesopotamian d. iv.
Civilization
A) a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i A) a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i
B) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv B) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv
C) a – ii, b – i, c – iv, d – iii C) a – ii, b – i, c – iv, d – iii
D) a – iii, b – i, c – iv, d – ii D) a – iii, b – i, c – iv, d – ii

40. The fourth Buddhist Conference was 40.
held at :
A) Pataliputra B) Prayaga A) B)

C) Kashmir D) Ujjaini C) D)
16

Page 17

41. Iden 41. "
related to ‘Sapta Sindhu’.
A) Sindhu, Vitasta, Asikni,
Parushni, Vipasha, Shutudri and A)
Sarasvati
B) Sindhu, Ganga, Brahmaputra,
Yamuna, Godavari, Vipasha and B)
Sarasvati
C) Kaveri, Kosi, Mahanadi, C)
Kali, Krishna, Narmada and
Netravathi
D) Sindhu, Ganga, Kaveri, D)
Narmada, Sarasvati, Vipasha
and Yamuna
42. The part of a Veda which describes 42. á° £ÚÓÜáÊÜ
A) Samhitas B) Brahmanas A) B)
C) Aranyakas D) Upanishads C) D)
43. The four princip 43.
Parswanatha were : A)
A) Non-violence, Brahmacharya,
Truth and Thought B)
B) Right Action, Speech, Vision
and Effort C)
C) Non-violence, Right Action,
Thought and Effort
D) Non-violence, Truth, Astheya D)
and Aparigraha
44.
spread the teachings of Buddha :
A) Yukta A)
B) Dharma Mahamatras B)
C) Samaharta C)
D) Senapati D)
45. Subhash Chandra Bose entered 45.

A) Chittaranjan Das A)
B) Motilal Nehru B)
C) Jayaprakash Narayan C)
D) Acharya Narendra Dev D)
17

Page 18

GEOGRAPHY

46. ‘P’
select the correct option ‘Q’
regarding ‘P’ and ‘Q’.

Active Volcano Extinct Volcano

P Q P Q

A) ‘P’ can be Arthur’s seat and ‘Q’ A) ‘P’
can be Mt. Krakatova ‘Q’
B) ‘P’ can be Mauna loa and ‘Q’ B) ‘P’
can be Mt. Gorongoro ‘Q’
C) ‘P’
C) ‘P’ can be Mt. Fujiyama and ‘Q’
‘Q’ can be St. Helens
D) ‘P’
D) ‘P’ can be Mt. Kilimanjaro and ‘Q’
‘Q’ can be Mt. Etna
47. Parvathi was travelling across some 47. ±ÝÊÜì£
landforms t
of denudation in Indian States. She

proper sequence of the agents of
denudation that Parvathi travelled.
A)
A) River, winds, glacier, sea waves
B)
B) River, winds, sea waves, glacier
C)
C) River, sea waves, glacier, winds
D) River, sea waves, winds, glacier D)

18

Page 19

48. If the local time at Channapatna 48. 78° ±
located at 78° East longitude is 08 : 00 A.M
at Itanagar located at 93° East 93°
longitude is :
A) 08 : 00 P.M. B) 09 : 00 P.M. A) 08 : 00 P.M. B) 09 : 00 P.M.
C) 08 : 00 A.M. D) 09 : 00 A.M. C) 08 : 00 A.M. D) 09 : 00 A.M.
49. The right group of States that lies in 49.
the temperate region is :
A) Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala
B) Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh, Tamil A)
Nadu B)
C) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan C)
D) Uttar Pradesh, Telangana,
Andhra Pradesh D)
50. Match List – I (regions) with 50. –I( – II

correct answer using the codes
given below. –I – II
List – I List – II a. i.
a. Russia i. Hurricane
b. ii.
b. India ii. Willy Willies
c. Australia iii. Whirlpool c. iii.
d. Mexico iv. Cyclone d. iv.
Codes :
A) a – iii, b – iv, c – ii, d – i A) a – iii, b – iv, c – ii, d – i
B) a – i, b – iii, c – iv, d – ii B) a – i, b – iii, c – iv, d – ii
C) a – iv, b – i, c – iii, d – ii C) a – iv, b – i, c – iii, d – ii
D) a – iii, b – ii, c – i, d – iv D) a – iii, b – ii, c – i, d – iv
51. The correct pair of North Atlantic 51.
Ocean’s Cold Currents is :
a. Labrador a.
b. California b.
c. Canary c.
d. Falkland d.
A) a and d only A) a d
B) c and b only B) c b
C) a and c only C) a c
D) b and d only D) b d
19

Page 20

52. Consider the following statements 52.

choose the correct answer using the
codes given below.
a. The latitudinal extent of India is a. 8°
8° North to 37° North.
37°
b. The Anaimudi is found in b.
Northern plains.
c. 23 ½° North latitude passes
c. 23 ½°
through the centre of India.

Codes :
A) ‘a’ is true, ‘b’ is true, ‘c’ is true A) ‘a’ ‘b’ ‘c’
B) ‘a’ is true, ‘b’ is false, ‘c’ is true B) ‘a’ ‘b’ ‘c’
C) ‘a’ is false, ‘b’ is true, ‘c’ is true C) ‘a’ ‘b’ ‘c’
D) ‘a’ is true, ‘b’ is true, ‘c’ is false D) ‘a’ ‘b’ ‘c’

53. Assertion (A 53. ±ÜÅ£±Ý¨Ü®æ (A
North America’s 90% of wine from 90%
grapes.

Reason (R) : California is called as R

A) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ A) ‘A’ ‘R’
is the exact explanation of ‘A’ ‘R’Wæ ‘A’
B) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is B) ‘A’ ‘R’
not the correct explanation of ‘A’ ‘A’Wæ ‘R’
C) ‘A’ is false, and ‘R’ is true C) ‘A’ ‘R’
D) ‘A’ is true, and ‘R’ is false D) ‘A’ ‘R’
20

Page 21

ECONOMICS AND BUSINESS STUDIES

54. Politics was given an independent 54.

A) Greeks B) Chinese A) B)
C) Indians D) Persians C) D)

55. The correct group of Nations having 55.
Veto power :
A) USA, India, Japan, Russia, A)
Germany
B) USA, Russia, India, China, B)
Britain
C) Russia, China, USA, Brazil, C)
India
D) USA, Russia, Britain, France, D)
China

56. Read the given statements and 56.

related to all the statements.
i. The systematic study of political i.
science.
ii. ‘The politics’ was the famous ii.
work.
iii. Discussed the origin, iii.
development and functions of
State.
iv.
iv. The Greek thinker.
A) Plato B) Socrates A) B)
C) Aristotle D) Vattel C) D)
21

Page 22

57. The Constitutional Amendment 57.
that reduced the age from 21 to 21 Ü 18
A) 42nd Amendment of 1976 A) 42 1976
B) 61st Amendment of 1989 B) 61 1989
C) 73rd Amendment of 1992 C) 73 1992
D) 44th Amendment of 1978 D) 44 1978
58. Recognise the correct chronological 58.
sequence of Indian Prime Ministers
from beginning to present among
there is : i.
i. Manmohan Singh
ii.
ii. Vajpayee
iii.
iii. Indira Gandhi
iv. Narendra Modi iv.
A) iii, ii, i, iv B) ii, iii, i, iv A) iii, ii, i, iv B) ii, iii, i, iv
C) iii, i, ii, iv D) ii, iii, iv, i C) iii, i, ii, iv D) ii, iii, iv, i
59. In List ‘A’ the agencies and in List 59. ‘A’ ‘B’
±Ü
Choose the correct answer group

A B
a. International i. New York A B
Court of a. i.
Justice
b. The Secretariat ii. Geneva b. ii.
c. Food and iii. Hague
Agricultural c. iii.
Organization
d. World Health iv. Paris
d. iv.
Organization
v. Rome v.
A) a – iii, b – i, c – iv, d – v A) a – iii, b – i, c – iv, d – v
B) a – iv, b – ii, c – v, d – i B) a – iv, b – ii, c – v, d – i
C) a – v, b – iv, c – ii, d – iii C) a – v, b – iv, c – ii, d – iii
D) a – iii, b – i, c – v, d – ii D) a – iii, b – i, c – v, d – ii
22

Page 23

60. Statement (1) : Those who were 60. ÚPæ (1) : 1950 26
born before 26th
India were granted citizenship.
Statement (2) : Foreigners can (2)
submitting an application to the
President of India.
A) Both Statement (1) and (2) are A) (1) (2)
true
B) Statement (1) is true and (2) is B) (1)
false (2)
C) Statement (1) is false and (2) is
C) (1)
true
(2)
D) Both Statement (1) and (2) are
false D) (1) (2)
61. ‘‘Man differs from all other animals 61. ""Ê
and he is creative’’ due to this

i. Fingers especially thumb i.
ii. Upright posture ii.
iii. Hairs iii.
iv. Brain iv.
A) i, ii and iii B) ii, iii and iv A) i, ii iii B) ii, iii iv
C) i, iii and iv D) i, ii and iv C) i, iii iv D) i, ii iv

62. A suitable example for ‘Role 62.
Consciousness’ is given below :
A) Class teacher suggests A)
medicines to disease.
B) Nurse gives medicines and looks B)
after the patient.
C) Doctor questions about school C)
lessons.
D) Lawyer suggests treatment to a D)
patient.
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63. The word ‘‘Colere’’ that means 63.
‘cultivate’ is derived from this
language : A) B)
A) Greek B) Sanskrit
C) Latin D) Germany C) D)
64.
two words and choose the option
which relates to the third one.

Mining : _________
__________
A) Distribution Activity
A)
B) Consumption Activity B)
C) Production Activity C)
D) Non-economic Activity D)
65.

A) A.C. Pigou B) Kautilya A) B)
C) Adam Smith D) Marshal C) D)
66. ‘Service providers’ among these : 66.
A) Agricultural workers A)
B) Owners of factories B)
C) Hunters C)
D) Telephone Companies D)
67. Read the following statement and 67.
select the correct option.
Assertion (A) : The sole objective ±ÜÅ£±Ý¨Ü®æ (A)
of business is earning reasonable
(R)
Reason (R) : Business creates
consumers. A) ‘A’ ‘R’
A) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘A’ Wæ ‘R’
‘R’ is the correct reason of ‘A’
B) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ B) ‘A’ ‘R’
is not the correct reason of ‘A’ ‘A’Wæ ‘R’
C) ‘A’ is true and ‘R’ is false C) ‘A’ ‘R’
D) ‘A’ is false and ‘R’ is true D) ‘A’ ‘R’
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aka collects and stores 68. ˮݿáPÜ®Üá E

A) Peddler
A)
B) Market seller
B)
C) Wholesale trader C)
D) Footpath trader D)

69. Choose the right statements related 69.
to sole trading concerns.

i. It is the one of the oldest. i.
ii. There are no legal constraints to ii.
start or close.
iii. Directly came into contact with
iii.
the consumers.
iv. Wide administrative skills.
iv.
A) Only i, ii, iii are correct A) i, ii, iii
B) Only ii, iii, iv are correct B) ii, iii, iv
C) Only iii, iv, i are correct C) iii, iv, i
D) Only iv, i, ii are correct D) iv, i, ii

70. The partners who neither contribute 70.
capital nor take active participation

A) Active partners A)
B) Sleeping partners B)
C) Nominal partners C)
D) Minor partners D)
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MATHEMATICS

71. Simplest (irreducible) form of 71.
is :
A) B) A) B)

C) D) C) D)

72. n
an

A) n – 1 B) n + 1
A) n – 1 B) n + 1
C) n D) n2 C) n D) n2

73. A linear equation with x = 2 as 73. x = 2
solution is :

A) B) A) B)

C) D) C) D)

74. m = 2 ®Ü
is :
A) 2 B) 12 A) 2 B) 12
C) 6 D) 18 C) 6 D) 18

75. Rational number without reciprocal 75.
is :
A) B) 1 A) B) 1

C) 0 D) C) 0 D)
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76. ‘n’Wæ n3
number of integers between (n + 1)3
n3 and (n + 1)3 is :
A) 3n(n + 1) B) 6n(n + 1) A) 3n(n + 1) B) 6n(n + 1)
C) 6n(n – 1) D) 3n(n – 1) C) 6n(n – 1) D) 3n(n – 1)

77. The number to be multiplied with 77. 16 –1 (–8) –1®Üá°
(–8)–1 to get the product 16–1 is :

A) B) A) B)

C) D) C) D)

78. Value of ‘m’ for which two 4-digit 78. 8m92
numbers 8m92 and m180 are m180 WÜÙÜá 11
‘m’
A) B) A) B)
C) D) C) D)

79. lies between the following two 79.
rational numbers : ®ÜvÜáÊæ C¨æ :
A) and B) and A) B)

C) and D) and C) D)

80. Distance between Bidar to 80.
Bengaluru is 692 km. Distance 692 km 1 cm = 40 km
between these two places in a

A) 17.5 cm B) 17.6 cm A) 17.5 cm B) 17.6 cm
C) 17.3 cm D) 17.4 cm C) 17.3 cm D) 17.4 cm
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81.
and is added to the resulting

.
The rational number is :

A) B) A) B)

C) D) C) D)

2 coins as 82. 5
six times the number of 5 coins 2
he has. If the total value of all these 357 2
coins is :
2 coins is :
A) 21 B) 252 A) 21 B) 252
C) 63 D) 126 C) 63 D) 126

83. 11a(3a – 5b + 7c)¿á®Üá° 7a(5a + 3b – 2c)
11a(3a – 5b + 7c) from
7a(5a + 3b – 2c) is : A) 2a2 – 7ab + 91ac
A) 2a2 – 7ab + 91ac
B) 2a2 + 76ab – 91ac
B) 2a2 + 76ab – 91ac
C) –2a2 –76ab + 91ac C) –2a2 –76ab + 91ac
D) 2a2 + 76ab + 91ac D) 2a2 + 76ab + 91ac

84.

A) B) A) B)

C) D) C) D)

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85. Value of is : 85.

A) B) A) B)

C) D) C) D)

86.

of a school. The part of students
using car as mode of transport
among total number of students in
that school is :

600 600
Number of students

500 500
400 400
300 300
200 200
100 100
0 0
Auto

ŸÓÜáÕ
Car
Bus

Mode of transport

A) B) A) B)

C) D) C) D)

87. abc
the remainder got on dividing abc + bca + cab¿á®Üá° 37

A) abc B) A) abc B)

C) abc – abc D) abc + abc C) abc – abc D) abc + abc
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88. 88. (4p + 3q)2 – (4p – 3q)2
(4p + 3q)2 – (4p – 3q)2 is :
A) 48 pq A) 48 pq
B) 0 B) 0
C) 8p2 – 6q2 C) 8p2 – 6q2
D) 14 D) 14

89. In a kite : 89.

A) Opposite sides are equal A)

B) Opposite angles are equal B)
C) Longer diagonal bisects shorter C)
diagonal perpendicularly
D) Line segment joining the D)
vertices of unequal angles is the
perpendicular bisector of the
line segment joining the other
two vertices

90. If the area of a square shaped 90.
2 1.002001 km2
then its perimeter is :
A) 1.001 km A) 1.001 km
B) 4.004 km B) 4.004 km
C) 4.04 km C) 4.04 km
D) 4.001 km D) 4.001 km

30

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Rough Work / PÜaÝc PÝ¿áì

31

Page 32

Rough Work / PÜaÝc PÝ¿áì

32

Document Details

Board / OrgKarnataka Board
ExamKarnataka National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship
TypeQuestion Paper
Pages32
Languageenglish
Updated24 Sep 2026