STSE 2014 Question Paper
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Page 3
(3) SSTSE/14 – Phy.
1.
1 25
PHYSICS
( Question Nos. 1 to 25 )
1. 35 kmh – 1 12
The distance travelled by a car whose speed is 35 kmh – 1 in 12 minutes
will be
(1) 3·5 km (2) 7·0 km
(3) 14 km (4) 28 km.
2. 5s 18 kmh – 1 36 kmh – 1
ms – 2
The speed of a uniformly accelerated car changes from 18 kmh – 1 to
36 kmh – 1 in 5s. What is its acceleration in ms – 2 ?
(1) 1·0 (2) 1·5
(3) 2·0 (4) 3·0.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Phy. [ P.T.O.
1.
1 25
PHYSICS
( Question Nos. 1 to 25 )
1. 35 kmh – 1 12
The distance travelled by a car whose speed is 35 kmh – 1 in 12 minutes
will be
(1) 3·5 km (2) 7·0 km
(3) 14 km (4) 28 km.
2. 5s 18 kmh – 1 36 kmh – 1
ms – 2
The speed of a uniformly accelerated car changes from 18 kmh – 1 to
36 kmh – 1 in 5s. What is its acceleration in ms – 2 ?
(1) 1·0 (2) 1·5
(3) 2·0 (4) 3·0.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Phy. [ P.T.O.
Page 4
(4)
3.
The motion of an object is said to be uniform circular motion if the object
(1) / moves on a circular path with
constant speed.
(2) / moves on a circular path with
constant velocity.
(3) / moves on a circular path with
variable speed.
(4) / none of these.
4. 5 kg 10 g 150 ms – 1
A bullet of mass 10 g is horizontally fired with a velocity 150 ms – 1 from
a pistol of mass 5 kg. The recoil velocity of the pistol will be
(1) 0·5 ms – 1 (2) 0·4 ms – 1
(3) 0·3 ms – 1 (4) 0·2 ms – 1.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Phy.
3.
The motion of an object is said to be uniform circular motion if the object
(1) / moves on a circular path with
constant speed.
(2) / moves on a circular path with
constant velocity.
(3) / moves on a circular path with
variable speed.
(4) / none of these.
4. 5 kg 10 g 150 ms – 1
A bullet of mass 10 g is horizontally fired with a velocity 150 ms – 1 from
a pistol of mass 5 kg. The recoil velocity of the pistol will be
(1) 0·5 ms – 1 (2) 0·4 ms – 1
(3) 0·3 ms – 1 (4) 0·2 ms – 1.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Phy.
Page 5
(5)
5. A B 6 kg 34 kg
If A and B are two objects with masses 6 kg and 34 kg respectively then
(1) A B / A has more inertia than B
(2) B A / B has more inertia than A
(3) A B / A and B have the same inertia
(4) / none of the two has inertia.
6. 5 kg
The mass of an object is 5 kg. Its weight on the surface of the earth will
be
(1) 490 N (2) 0·49 N
(3) 4·9 N (4) 49 N.
7. SI
SI unit of pressure is
(1) / pascal (2) / newton
(3) / joule (4) /watt.
8. 10·8 1 gm cm – 3 SI
Relative density of silver is 10·8. The density of water is 1 gm cm – 3.
Density of silver in SI unit will be
(1) 10·8 10 – 3 kg m –3 (2) 10·8 kg m – 3
(3) 10 3 kg m – 3 (4) 10·8 10 3 kg m – 3.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Phy. [ P.T.O.
5. A B 6 kg 34 kg
If A and B are two objects with masses 6 kg and 34 kg respectively then
(1) A B / A has more inertia than B
(2) B A / B has more inertia than A
(3) A B / A and B have the same inertia
(4) / none of the two has inertia.
6. 5 kg
The mass of an object is 5 kg. Its weight on the surface of the earth will
be
(1) 490 N (2) 0·49 N
(3) 4·9 N (4) 49 N.
7. SI
SI unit of pressure is
(1) / pascal (2) / newton
(3) / joule (4) /watt.
8. 10·8 1 gm cm – 3 SI
Relative density of silver is 10·8. The density of water is 1 gm cm – 3.
Density of silver in SI unit will be
(1) 10·8 10 – 3 kg m –3 (2) 10·8 kg m – 3
(3) 10 3 kg m – 3 (4) 10·8 10 3 kg m – 3.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Phy. [ P.T.O.
Page 6
(6)
9. kWh
Which physical quantity has kWh as its unit ?
(1) / Force (2) / Momentum
(3) / Energy (4) / Power.
10. 12 N 60 cm
A force of 12 N displaces a body by 60 cm in its direction. The work
done on the body will be
(1) 720 J (2) 7·2 J
(3) 5J (4) 0·2 J.
11. 2 kg 2 ms – 1
An object of mass 2 kg is moving with a constant velocity 2 ms – 1. How
much work is needed to be done against the object in order to bring it to
rest ?
(1) 1J (2) 4J
(3) 8J (4) 10 J.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Phy.
9. kWh
Which physical quantity has kWh as its unit ?
(1) / Force (2) / Momentum
(3) / Energy (4) / Power.
10. 12 N 60 cm
A force of 12 N displaces a body by 60 cm in its direction. The work
done on the body will be
(1) 720 J (2) 7·2 J
(3) 5J (4) 0·2 J.
11. 2 kg 2 ms – 1
An object of mass 2 kg is moving with a constant velocity 2 ms – 1. How
much work is needed to be done against the object in order to bring it to
rest ?
(1) 1J (2) 4J
(3) 8J (4) 10 J.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Phy.
Page 7
(7)
12.
The minimum time interval needed between the original sound and the
reflected sound for hearing a distinct echo is
(1) 0·2 s (2) 2·0 s
(3) 0·1 s (4) 1·0 s.
13.
The audible range of sound for human beings is
(1) 2 Hz to 20 kHz (2) 2 Hz to 2 kHz
(3) 20 Hz to 200 kHz (4) 20 Hz to 20 kHz.
14. 0·2 s
300 ms – 1
A person claps his hands near a high tower and hears echo after
0·2 s. The speed of the sound is 300 ms – 1. The distance of the tower
from the person is
(1) 30 m (2) 15 m
(3) 6m (4) 3 m.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Phy. [ P.T.O.
12.
The minimum time interval needed between the original sound and the
reflected sound for hearing a distinct echo is
(1) 0·2 s (2) 2·0 s
(3) 0·1 s (4) 1·0 s.
13.
The audible range of sound for human beings is
(1) 2 Hz to 20 kHz (2) 2 Hz to 2 kHz
(3) 20 Hz to 200 kHz (4) 20 Hz to 20 kHz.
14. 0·2 s
300 ms – 1
A person claps his hands near a high tower and hears echo after
0·2 s. The speed of the sound is 300 ms – 1. The distance of the tower
from the person is
(1) 30 m (2) 15 m
(3) 6m (4) 3 m.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Phy. [ P.T.O.
Page 8
(8)
15.
The image formed by a concave mirror is of the same size, real and
inverted when the object is placed
(1) / at infinity
(2) P F / between P and F
(3) F / at F
(4) C / at C.
16. 50 cm
The focal length of a convex lens is 50 cm. Its power in dioptre is
(1) –2 (2) –1
(3) +2 (4) + 1.
17. 1·5 3 10 8 ms – 1
The refractive index of glass is 1·5. If the speed of light in air is
3 10 8 ms – 1 then its speed in glass will be
(1) 2 10 8 ms – 1 (2) 3 10 8 ms – 1
(3) 4·5 10 8 ms – 1 (4) 6 10 8 ms – 1.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Phy.
15.
The image formed by a concave mirror is of the same size, real and
inverted when the object is placed
(1) / at infinity
(2) P F / between P and F
(3) F / at F
(4) C / at C.
16. 50 cm
The focal length of a convex lens is 50 cm. Its power in dioptre is
(1) –2 (2) –1
(3) +2 (4) + 1.
17. 1·5 3 10 8 ms – 1
The refractive index of glass is 1·5. If the speed of light in air is
3 10 8 ms – 1 then its speed in glass will be
(1) 2 10 8 ms – 1 (2) 3 10 8 ms – 1
(3) 4·5 10 8 ms – 1 (4) 6 10 8 ms – 1.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Phy.
Page 9
(9)
18.
The process of splitting white light into its seven constituent colours is
called
(1) / Refraction (2) / Dispersion
(3) / Scattering (4) / Reflection.
19.
The danger indicators ( signal ) are red in colour because
(1) / scattering of red light is maximum
(2) / scattering of red light is minimum
(3) / the wavelength of red light
is minimum
(4) / none of these.
20. A B
Equivalent resistance between points A and B in the given circuit will be
10 10
A B
20
(1) 40 (2) 30
(3) 20 (4) 10 .
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Phy. [ P.T.O.
18.
The process of splitting white light into its seven constituent colours is
called
(1) / Refraction (2) / Dispersion
(3) / Scattering (4) / Reflection.
19.
The danger indicators ( signal ) are red in colour because
(1) / scattering of red light is maximum
(2) / scattering of red light is minimum
(3) / the wavelength of red light
is minimum
(4) / none of these.
20. A B
Equivalent resistance between points A and B in the given circuit will be
10 10
A B
20
(1) 40 (2) 30
(3) 20 (4) 10 .
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Phy. [ P.T.O.
Page 10
( 10 )
21.
Which of the following terms represents electrical power in a circuit ?
(1) I 2 Rt (2) VIt
V2
(3) I2R (4) t.
R
22. 4 100 J
The electrical energy dissipated per second in a resistance of 4 is
100 J. The current flowing through the resistance will be
(1) 25 A (2) 15 A
(3) 10 A (4) 5 A.
23. 50 Hz
The frequency of an alternating current is 50 Hz. In how much time does
it reverse its direction ?
1 1
(1) second (2) second
10 100
(3) 10 second (4) 100 second.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Phy.
21.
Which of the following terms represents electrical power in a circuit ?
(1) I 2 Rt (2) VIt
V2
(3) I2R (4) t.
R
22. 4 100 J
The electrical energy dissipated per second in a resistance of 4 is
100 J. The current flowing through the resistance will be
(1) 25 A (2) 15 A
(3) 10 A (4) 5 A.
23. 50 Hz
The frequency of an alternating current is 50 Hz. In how much time does
it reverse its direction ?
1 1
(1) second (2) second
10 100
(3) 10 second (4) 100 second.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Phy.
Page 11
( 11 )
24.
Which of the following statements is true on the basis of the given circuit
diagram ?
20
I2
_ + I1 10
I3
30
(1) I1 / I 1 is maximum
(2) I2 / I 2 is maximum
(3) I3 / I 3 is maximum
(4) I 1 + I 2 + I 3 = 0.
25.
The magnetic effect of current was discovered by
(1) / Faraday (2) / Millikan
(3) / Oersted (4) / Thomson.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Phy. [ P.T.O.
24.
Which of the following statements is true on the basis of the given circuit
diagram ?
20
I2
_ + I1 10
I3
30
(1) I1 / I 1 is maximum
(2) I2 / I 2 is maximum
(3) I3 / I 3 is maximum
(4) I 1 + I 2 + I 3 = 0.
25.
The magnetic effect of current was discovered by
(1) / Faraday (2) / Millikan
(3) / Oersted (4) / Thomson.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Phy. [ P.T.O.
Page 12
( 12 ) SSTSE/14 – Chem.
2.
1 25
CHEMISTRY
( Question Nos. 1 to 25 )
1.
The nuclei, which are not identical but have the same number of
nucleons, are called
(1) / isotopes (2) / isotones
(3) / isobars (4) / isoelectronic.
2.
Aqueous solution of which of the following compounds turns red litmus to
blue ?
(1) CO 2 (2) SO 2
(3) MgO (4) SO 3 .
3.
The colloidal solution in which both dispersed phase and dispersion
medium are liquids, is called
(1) / Gel (2) / Sol
(3) / Aerosol (4) / Emulsion.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Chem.
2.
1 25
CHEMISTRY
( Question Nos. 1 to 25 )
1.
The nuclei, which are not identical but have the same number of
nucleons, are called
(1) / isotopes (2) / isotones
(3) / isobars (4) / isoelectronic.
2.
Aqueous solution of which of the following compounds turns red litmus to
blue ?
(1) CO 2 (2) SO 2
(3) MgO (4) SO 3 .
3.
The colloidal solution in which both dispersed phase and dispersion
medium are liquids, is called
(1) / Gel (2) / Sol
(3) / Aerosol (4) / Emulsion.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Chem.
Page 13
( 13 )
4.
Aqueous solution of copper sulphate can be stored in .............. metal
vessel.
(1) Al (2) Zn
(3) Fe (4) Ag.
5.
Which group of modern periodic table contains gas, liquid and solid non-
metallic elements ?
(1) 12 (2) 13
(3) 17 (4) 18.
6.
Colloidal particles exhibit Tyndall effect due to
(1) / polarisation of light
(2) / scattering of light
(3) / reflection of light
(4) / refraction of light.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Chem. [ P.T.O.
4.
Aqueous solution of copper sulphate can be stored in .............. metal
vessel.
(1) Al (2) Zn
(3) Fe (4) Ag.
5.
Which group of modern periodic table contains gas, liquid and solid non-
metallic elements ?
(1) 12 (2) 13
(3) 17 (4) 18.
6.
Colloidal particles exhibit Tyndall effect due to
(1) / polarisation of light
(2) / scattering of light
(3) / reflection of light
(4) / refraction of light.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Chem. [ P.T.O.
Page 14
( 14 )
7.
Which is correct statement ?
(1) / Sodium is non-reactive metal
(2) / Non-metals react with acids to
give hydrogen
(3) / Copper and silver are malleable
and ductile
(4) / Non-metals do not show allotropy.
8.
Cinnabar is ................. ore.
(1) / Sulphide (2) / Carbonate
(3) / Oxide (4) / Sulphate.
9.
Ethanol is changed to ethanoic acid by
(1) / Oxidation reaction
(2) / Reduction reaction
(3) / Addition reaction
(4) / Substitution reaction.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Chem.
7.
Which is correct statement ?
(1) / Sodium is non-reactive metal
(2) / Non-metals react with acids to
give hydrogen
(3) / Copper and silver are malleable
and ductile
(4) / Non-metals do not show allotropy.
8.
Cinnabar is ................. ore.
(1) / Sulphide (2) / Carbonate
(3) / Oxide (4) / Sulphate.
9.
Ethanol is changed to ethanoic acid by
(1) / Oxidation reaction
(2) / Reduction reaction
(3) / Addition reaction
(4) / Substitution reaction.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Chem.
Page 15
( 15 )
10.
The action of soaps and detergents to remove the oily dirt by
emulsification is due to
(1) / presence of hydrophilic group
(2) / presence of hydrophobic group
(3) / presence of both hydrophilic
and hydrophobic groups
(4) / presence of hardness in water.
11.
Which functional group cannot be situated at terminal position ?
(1) / Carboxylic acid
(2) / Aldehyde
(3) / Alcohol
(4) / Ketone.
12.
Natural indicator is
(1) / Methyl orange
(2) / Phenolphthalein
(3) / Litmus
(4) / Methyl red.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Chem. [ P.T.O.
10.
The action of soaps and detergents to remove the oily dirt by
emulsification is due to
(1) / presence of hydrophilic group
(2) / presence of hydrophobic group
(3) / presence of both hydrophilic
and hydrophobic groups
(4) / presence of hardness in water.
11.
Which functional group cannot be situated at terminal position ?
(1) / Carboxylic acid
(2) / Aldehyde
(3) / Alcohol
(4) / Ketone.
12.
Natural indicator is
(1) / Methyl orange
(2) / Phenolphthalein
(3) / Litmus
(4) / Methyl red.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Chem. [ P.T.O.
Page 16
( 16 )
13. pH
pH of soda water is
(1) 7
(2) 7–9 / between 7 – 9
(3) 4–7 / between 4 – 7
(4) 14.
14. 40 He
Number of atoms in 40 grams of He is
(1) 6·022 10 22 (2) 6·022 10 23
(3) 6·022 10 24 (4) 6·022 10 25
15.
Which metal cannot be extracted from its ore by reduction using carbon ?
(1) Mg (2) Zn
(3) Cu (4) Fe.
16.
The substance that gives Bleaching powder on reaction with chlorine is
(1) CaO (2) CaCO 3
(3) Ca(OH) 2 (4) CaCl 2 .
17.
Number of covalent bonds in cyclohexane is
(1) 14 (2) 16
(3) 18 (4) 20.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Chem.
13. pH
pH of soda water is
(1) 7
(2) 7–9 / between 7 – 9
(3) 4–7 / between 4 – 7
(4) 14.
14. 40 He
Number of atoms in 40 grams of He is
(1) 6·022 10 22 (2) 6·022 10 23
(3) 6·022 10 24 (4) 6·022 10 25
15.
Which metal cannot be extracted from its ore by reduction using carbon ?
(1) Mg (2) Zn
(3) Cu (4) Fe.
16.
The substance that gives Bleaching powder on reaction with chlorine is
(1) CaO (2) CaCO 3
(3) Ca(OH) 2 (4) CaCl 2 .
17.
Number of covalent bonds in cyclohexane is
(1) 14 (2) 16
(3) 18 (4) 20.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Chem.
Page 17
( 17 )
18.
The substance made up of only one type of element is
(1) / Common salt (2) / Diamond
(3) / Water (4) / Air.
19.
A metalloid with lowest atomic number belongs to ............... group of
periodic table.
(1) 11 (2) 12
(3) 13 (4) 14.
20.
Elements present in same group of periodic table are similar with respect
to
(1) / valence electrons
(2) / atomic radius
(3) / number of shells
(4) / mass number.
21.
Organic compound is
(1) CO 2 (2) CaCO 3
(3) Ca ( HCO 3 ) 2 (4) ( NH 2 ) 2 CO.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Chem. [ P.T.O.
18.
The substance made up of only one type of element is
(1) / Common salt (2) / Diamond
(3) / Water (4) / Air.
19.
A metalloid with lowest atomic number belongs to ............... group of
periodic table.
(1) 11 (2) 12
(3) 13 (4) 14.
20.
Elements present in same group of periodic table are similar with respect
to
(1) / valence electrons
(2) / atomic radius
(3) / number of shells
(4) / mass number.
21.
Organic compound is
(1) CO 2 (2) CaCO 3
(3) Ca ( HCO 3 ) 2 (4) ( NH 2 ) 2 CO.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Chem. [ P.T.O.
Page 18
( 18 )
22.
Isotope of carbon that is isobar of stable isotope of nitrogen and isotone
of stable isotope of oxygen is
12 13
(1) 6 C (2) 6 C
(3)
14 12 +
6 C (4) 6 C .
23. H 2 SO 4
Which metal does not liberate hydrogen gas by reaction with H 2 SO 4 ?
(1) Cu (2) Zn
(3) Mg (4) Fe.
24.
................. ores are roasted to convert into oxides.
(1) / Sulphide (2) / Carbonate
(3) / Oxide (4) / Halide.
25.
The allotropic form of carbon that shows conductivity is
(1) / Coal (2) / Diamond
(3) / Graphite (4) / Fullerene.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Chem.
22.
Isotope of carbon that is isobar of stable isotope of nitrogen and isotone
of stable isotope of oxygen is
12 13
(1) 6 C (2) 6 C
(3)
14 12 +
6 C (4) 6 C .
23. H 2 SO 4
Which metal does not liberate hydrogen gas by reaction with H 2 SO 4 ?
(1) Cu (2) Zn
(3) Mg (4) Fe.
24.
................. ores are roasted to convert into oxides.
(1) / Sulphide (2) / Carbonate
(3) / Oxide (4) / Halide.
25.
The allotropic form of carbon that shows conductivity is
(1) / Coal (2) / Diamond
(3) / Graphite (4) / Fullerene.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Chem.
Page 19
( 19 ) SSTSE/14 – Bio.
3.
1 25
BIOLOGY
( Question Nos. 1 to 25 )
1.
The name of the scientist presenting cell theory is
(1) / Robert Brown
(2) / Leeuwenhoek
(3) / Virchow
(4) / Schleiden and Schwann.
2.
The growth in the girth of stem or root is due to which tissue ?
(1) / Lateral meristem
(2) / Apical meristem
(3) / Intercalary meristem
(4) / Parenchyma.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Bio. [ P.T.O.
3.
1 25
BIOLOGY
( Question Nos. 1 to 25 )
1.
The name of the scientist presenting cell theory is
(1) / Robert Brown
(2) / Leeuwenhoek
(3) / Virchow
(4) / Schleiden and Schwann.
2.
The growth in the girth of stem or root is due to which tissue ?
(1) / Lateral meristem
(2) / Apical meristem
(3) / Intercalary meristem
(4) / Parenchyma.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Bio. [ P.T.O.
Page 20
( 20 )
3.
Which tissue is responsible for movement in our body ?
(1) / Epithelial tissue
(2) / Connective tissue
(3) / Muscular tissue
(4) / Nervous tissue.
4.
The example of gymnosperm plant is
(1) / Marchantia (2) / Pinus
(3) / Marsilea (4) / Chara.
5.
Which animal has an open circulatory system and kidney like organ for
excretion ?
(1) / Palaemon (2) / Planaria
(3) / Ascaris (4) / Pila.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Bio.
3.
Which tissue is responsible for movement in our body ?
(1) / Epithelial tissue
(2) / Connective tissue
(3) / Muscular tissue
(4) / Nervous tissue.
4.
The example of gymnosperm plant is
(1) / Marchantia (2) / Pinus
(3) / Marsilea (4) / Chara.
5.
Which animal has an open circulatory system and kidney like organ for
excretion ?
(1) / Palaemon (2) / Planaria
(3) / Ascaris (4) / Pila.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Bio.
Page 21
( 21 )
6.
Animals of which class have hairs on the skin, sweat glands and oil
glands ?
(1) / Mammalia (2) / Aves
(3) / Amphibia (4) / Reptilia.
7.
Diseases caused by bacteria are
(1) / Influenza and dengue fever
(2) / AIDS and Cholera
(3) / Cholera and tuberculosis
(4) / Malaria and kala-azar.
8.
The gas responsible for depletion of the ozone layer is
(1) / Chlorofluorocarbon
(2) / Methane
(3) / Carbon dioxide
(4) / Sulphur dioxide.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Bio. [ P.T.O.
6.
Animals of which class have hairs on the skin, sweat glands and oil
glands ?
(1) / Mammalia (2) / Aves
(3) / Amphibia (4) / Reptilia.
7.
Diseases caused by bacteria are
(1) / Influenza and dengue fever
(2) / AIDS and Cholera
(3) / Cholera and tuberculosis
(4) / Malaria and kala-azar.
8.
The gas responsible for depletion of the ozone layer is
(1) / Chlorofluorocarbon
(2) / Methane
(3) / Carbon dioxide
(4) / Sulphur dioxide.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Bio. [ P.T.O.
Page 22
( 22 )
9.
Kharif crop is
(1) / Gram (2) / Wheat
(3) / Pea (4) / Maize.
10.
Which animal is used for preparing Vermicompost ?
(1) / Hydra (2) / Earthworm
(3) / Ascaris (4) / Frog.
11.
Which animal is cultivated for the production of pearl ?
(1) / Oysters (2) / Mussels
(3) / Prawn (4) / Mullets.
12.
The variety of honeybee used in the commercial production of honey is
(1) / Apis cerana indica
(2) / Apis dorsata
(3) / Apis florae
(4) / Apis mellifera.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Bio.
9.
Kharif crop is
(1) / Gram (2) / Wheat
(3) / Pea (4) / Maize.
10.
Which animal is used for preparing Vermicompost ?
(1) / Hydra (2) / Earthworm
(3) / Ascaris (4) / Frog.
11.
Which animal is cultivated for the production of pearl ?
(1) / Oysters (2) / Mussels
(3) / Prawn (4) / Mullets.
12.
The variety of honeybee used in the commercial production of honey is
(1) / Apis cerana indica
(2) / Apis dorsata
(3) / Apis florae
(4) / Apis mellifera.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Bio.
Page 23
( 23 )
13.
Pepsin acts as digestive enzyme in which organ ?
(1) / Intestine (2) / Stomach
(3) / Liver (4) / Mouth.
14.
Breaking down of pyruvate takes place in which cell organism ?
(1) / Ribosome (2) / Golgi bodies
(3) / Lysosome (4) / Mitochondria.
15.
The function of platelets is
(1) O2 / Transportation of O 2
(2) / Storage of food material
(3) / Controlling blood pressure
(4) / Clotting of blood.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Bio. [ P.T.O.
13.
Pepsin acts as digestive enzyme in which organ ?
(1) / Intestine (2) / Stomach
(3) / Liver (4) / Mouth.
14.
Breaking down of pyruvate takes place in which cell organism ?
(1) / Ribosome (2) / Golgi bodies
(3) / Lysosome (4) / Mitochondria.
15.
The function of platelets is
(1) O2 / Transportation of O 2
(2) / Storage of food material
(3) / Controlling blood pressure
(4) / Clotting of blood.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Bio. [ P.T.O.
Page 24
( 24 )
16.
The plant tissue responsible for movement of water and minerals
obtained from the soil is
(1) / Parenchyma (2) / Phloem
(3) / Xylem (4) / Collenchyma.
17.
The organ that removes nitrogenous waste product from blood is
(1) / Kidney (2) / Liver
(3) / Lungs (4) / Heart.
18.
The thinking part of the brain is
(1) / Mid-brain (2) / Hindbrain
(3) / Forebrain (4) / Spinal cord.
19.
'The growth of pollen tube towards ovules' shows which phenomenon ?
(1) / Geotropism (2) / Chemotropism
(3) / Phototropism (4) / Hydrotropism.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Bio.
16.
The plant tissue responsible for movement of water and minerals
obtained from the soil is
(1) / Parenchyma (2) / Phloem
(3) / Xylem (4) / Collenchyma.
17.
The organ that removes nitrogenous waste product from blood is
(1) / Kidney (2) / Liver
(3) / Lungs (4) / Heart.
18.
The thinking part of the brain is
(1) / Mid-brain (2) / Hindbrain
(3) / Forebrain (4) / Spinal cord.
19.
'The growth of pollen tube towards ovules' shows which phenomenon ?
(1) / Geotropism (2) / Chemotropism
(3) / Phototropism (4) / Hydrotropism.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Bio.
Page 25
( 25 )
20.
Presence of swollen neck is the symptom of which disease ?
(1) / Goitre (2) / Diabetes
(3) / Pellagra (4) / Albinism.
21.
Multiple fission type of reproduction is found in
(1) / Earthworm
(2) / Yeast
(3) / Hydra
(4) / Plasmodium.
22.
The example of unisexual flower is
(1) / Hibiscus (2) / Papaya
(3) / Mustard (4) / Pea.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Bio. [ P.T.O.
20.
Presence of swollen neck is the symptom of which disease ?
(1) / Goitre (2) / Diabetes
(3) / Pellagra (4) / Albinism.
21.
Multiple fission type of reproduction is found in
(1) / Earthworm
(2) / Yeast
(3) / Hydra
(4) / Plasmodium.
22.
The example of unisexual flower is
(1) / Hibiscus (2) / Papaya
(3) / Mustard (4) / Pea.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Bio. [ P.T.O.
Page 26
( 26 )
23.
The method of reproduction by which 'Leaf of Bryophyllum develops into
new plant' is called
(1) / Budding
(2) / Binary fission
(3) / Multiple fission
(4) / Vegetative reproduction.
24.
Genotypic ratio in monohybrid cross is
(1) 2:1:1 (2) 3:1
(3) 1:2:1 (4) 1 : 3.
25.
In evolution, the wings of birds and bats are evidences of
(1) / Homologous organ
(2) / Analogous organ
(3) / Fossils
(4) / Embryo.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Bio.
23.
The method of reproduction by which 'Leaf of Bryophyllum develops into
new plant' is called
(1) / Budding
(2) / Binary fission
(3) / Multiple fission
(4) / Vegetative reproduction.
24.
Genotypic ratio in monohybrid cross is
(1) 2:1:1 (2) 3:1
(3) 1:2:1 (4) 1 : 3.
25.
In evolution, the wings of birds and bats are evidences of
(1) / Homologous organ
(2) / Analogous organ
(3) / Fossils
(4) / Embryo.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Bio.
Page 27
( 27 ) SSTSE/14 – Math.
4.
1 25
MATHEMATICS
( Question Nos. 1 to 25 )
1.
Which one is the largest number among the following ?
(1) 0·37 5 (2) 0· 375
(3) 0·3 75 (4) 0·375.
93
2. x = 3 2 125 x
93
If x = 3 2 125 , then value of x is
1 1
(1) 1 (2) 2
5 5
2 2
(3) 1 (4) .
5 5
3. ax 3 + 3x 2 – 13 2x 3 – 5x + a ( x – 2 )
a
If the polynomials ax 3 + 3x 2 – 13 and 2x 3 – 5x + a are divided by
( x – 2 ) and leave the same remainder then the value of a is
(1) 1 (2) 2
1 1
(3) (4) .
2 7
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Math. [ P.T.O.
4.
1 25
MATHEMATICS
( Question Nos. 1 to 25 )
1.
Which one is the largest number among the following ?
(1) 0·37 5 (2) 0· 375
(3) 0·3 75 (4) 0·375.
93
2. x = 3 2 125 x
93
If x = 3 2 125 , then value of x is
1 1
(1) 1 (2) 2
5 5
2 2
(3) 1 (4) .
5 5
3. ax 3 + 3x 2 – 13 2x 3 – 5x + a ( x – 2 )
a
If the polynomials ax 3 + 3x 2 – 13 and 2x 3 – 5x + a are divided by
( x – 2 ) and leave the same remainder then the value of a is
(1) 1 (2) 2
1 1
(3) (4) .
2 7
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Math. [ P.T.O.
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4. k
The value of k for which the following pair of linear equations has no
solution, is
( k – 1 ) x + 4y – 1 = 0
4x + 9 ( k + 1 ) y + 2 = 0
4 5
(1) (2)
3 3
16 25
(3) (4) .
9 9
5. 7 5
A quadratic equation whose one root is 7 and the sum of roots is 5, is
(1) x 2 + 5x + 14 = 0 (2) x 2 – 5x – 14 = 0
(3) x 2 + 5x – 14 = 0 (4) x 2 – 5x + 14 = 0.
2 5
6. ,k k k
3 8
2 5
If , k and k are three consecutive terms of an arithmetic progression,
3 8
then the value of k is
16 7
(1) (2)
33 11
33 16
(3) (4) – .
16 33
7. n 3n + n 2
The sum of first n terms of an arithmetic progression is 3n + n 2 , then
common difference of this arithmetic progression is
(1) n+1 (2) n
(3) 2 (4) 2n + 1.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Math.
4. k
The value of k for which the following pair of linear equations has no
solution, is
( k – 1 ) x + 4y – 1 = 0
4x + 9 ( k + 1 ) y + 2 = 0
4 5
(1) (2)
3 3
16 25
(3) (4) .
9 9
5. 7 5
A quadratic equation whose one root is 7 and the sum of roots is 5, is
(1) x 2 + 5x + 14 = 0 (2) x 2 – 5x – 14 = 0
(3) x 2 + 5x – 14 = 0 (4) x 2 – 5x + 14 = 0.
2 5
6. ,k k k
3 8
2 5
If , k and k are three consecutive terms of an arithmetic progression,
3 8
then the value of k is
16 7
(1) (2)
33 11
33 16
(3) (4) – .
16 33
7. n 3n + n 2
The sum of first n terms of an arithmetic progression is 3n + n 2 , then
common difference of this arithmetic progression is
(1) n+1 (2) n
(3) 2 (4) 2n + 1.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Math.
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8. cos 2x = sin ( x – 39˚ ) 3x x
If cos 2x = sin ( x – 39˚ ) and 3x is acute angle then value of x is
(1) 40˚ (2) 29˚
(3) 43˚ (4) 90˚.
9. 5 sin A = 3 0 < A < 90˚ ( sec A + tan A ) ( 1 – sin A )
If 5 sin A = 3 and 0 < A < 90˚ then value of ( sec A + tan A ) ( 1 – sin A )
is
3 4
(1) (2)
4 5
3 2
(3) (4) .
5 5
10. 3
Length of shadow of a pole is 3 times the height of a pole. Angle of
elevation of sun is
(1) 30˚ (2) 60˚
(3) 45˚ (4) 75˚.
11. AB||CD ; BPQ = 120˚ CRQ = 30˚, x
In the following figure, AB||CD ; BPQ = 120˚ and CRQ = 30˚. The
value of x is
P
A B
120˚
Q x
30˚
C D
R
(1) 150˚ (2) 60˚
(3) 45˚ (4) 90˚ .
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Math. [ P.T.O.
8. cos 2x = sin ( x – 39˚ ) 3x x
If cos 2x = sin ( x – 39˚ ) and 3x is acute angle then value of x is
(1) 40˚ (2) 29˚
(3) 43˚ (4) 90˚.
9. 5 sin A = 3 0 < A < 90˚ ( sec A + tan A ) ( 1 – sin A )
If 5 sin A = 3 and 0 < A < 90˚ then value of ( sec A + tan A ) ( 1 – sin A )
is
3 4
(1) (2)
4 5
3 2
(3) (4) .
5 5
10. 3
Length of shadow of a pole is 3 times the height of a pole. Angle of
elevation of sun is
(1) 30˚ (2) 60˚
(3) 45˚ (4) 75˚.
11. AB||CD ; BPQ = 120˚ CRQ = 30˚, x
In the following figure, AB||CD ; BPQ = 120˚ and CRQ = 30˚. The
value of x is
P
A B
120˚
Q x
30˚
C D
R
(1) 150˚ (2) 60˚
(3) 45˚ (4) 90˚ .
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Math. [ P.T.O.
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12. ABC E AD
In triangle ABC, E is the mid-point of median AD. The correct statement
among the following is
1
(1) Area ( BED ) = Area ( ABC )
4
1
(2) Area ( BED ) = Area ( ABD )
4
3
(3) Area ( ABC ) = Area ( BED )
4
(4) Area ( ABC ) = 2 Area ( BED ).
13. TAS O OBA = 32˚ BAS
In the given figure, TAS is a tangent to a circle with centre O.
If OBA = 32˚ then value of BAS is
T
C
O
A
32˚ B
S
(1) 48˚ (2) 32˚
(3) 58˚ (4) 90˚ .
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Math.
12. ABC E AD
In triangle ABC, E is the mid-point of median AD. The correct statement
among the following is
1
(1) Area ( BED ) = Area ( ABC )
4
1
(2) Area ( BED ) = Area ( ABD )
4
3
(3) Area ( ABC ) = Area ( BED )
4
(4) Area ( ABC ) = 2 Area ( BED ).
13. TAS O OBA = 32˚ BAS
In the given figure, TAS is a tangent to a circle with centre O.
If OBA = 32˚ then value of BAS is
T
C
O
A
32˚ B
S
(1) 48˚ (2) 32˚
(3) 58˚ (4) 90˚ .
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Math.
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14. O P PA PB
Q CD PB = 10 cm
CQ = 2 cm PC
In the given figure, two tangents PA and PB are drawn to a circle with
centre O from an external point P. CD is the third tangent touching the
circle at Q. If PB = 10 cm and CQ = 2 cm, then length of PC is
P
C D
Q
A B
.
O
(1) 6 cm (2) 5 cm
(3) 2 cm (4) 8 cm.
15. DE||BC AD : DB = 2 : 3,
Area ( ADE ) : Area ( ABC )
In the given figure, DE||BC and AD : DB = 2 : 3, then
Area ( ADE ) : Area ( ABC ) is
A
D E
B C
(1) 4 : 25 (2) 4:9
(3) 9:4 (4) 25 : 4.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Math. [ P.T.O.
14. O P PA PB
Q CD PB = 10 cm
CQ = 2 cm PC
In the given figure, two tangents PA and PB are drawn to a circle with
centre O from an external point P. CD is the third tangent touching the
circle at Q. If PB = 10 cm and CQ = 2 cm, then length of PC is
P
C D
Q
A B
.
O
(1) 6 cm (2) 5 cm
(3) 2 cm (4) 8 cm.
15. DE||BC AD : DB = 2 : 3,
Area ( ADE ) : Area ( ABC )
In the given figure, DE||BC and AD : DB = 2 : 3, then
Area ( ADE ) : Area ( ABC ) is
A
D E
B C
(1) 4 : 25 (2) 4:9
(3) 9:4 (4) 25 : 4.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Math. [ P.T.O.
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16. XY P ( – 3, 4 ) P Y
A point P ( – 3, 4 ) lies in XY-plane. Perpendicular distance of the point P
from Y-axis is
(1) –3 (2) 4
(3) –4 (4) 3.
17. Y ( 6, 5 ) ( – 4, 3 )
The coordinate of the point on Y-axis which is equidistant from the points
( 6, 5 ) and ( – 4, 3 ) is
(1) ( 0, 0 ) (2) ( 0, 9 )
(3) ( 9, 0 ) (4) ( 1, 4 ).
18. 22 m 20 m
2m 3·5 cm
cm
Rain water from a roof of dimension 22 m 20 m drains into a cylindrical
vessel having diameter of base 2 m and height 3·5 cm. If the vessel is
just full, then the total rainfall in cm is
(1) 3·5 (2) 2·5
(3) 2 (4) 1·5.
19. 5·2 cm 16·4 cm
The perimeter of a sector of a circle of radius 5·2 cm is 16·4 cm. Then
area of the sector is
(1) 80 cm 2 (2) 21·6 cm
(3) 15·6 cm 2 (4) 156 cm 2 .
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Math.
16. XY P ( – 3, 4 ) P Y
A point P ( – 3, 4 ) lies in XY-plane. Perpendicular distance of the point P
from Y-axis is
(1) –3 (2) 4
(3) –4 (4) 3.
17. Y ( 6, 5 ) ( – 4, 3 )
The coordinate of the point on Y-axis which is equidistant from the points
( 6, 5 ) and ( – 4, 3 ) is
(1) ( 0, 0 ) (2) ( 0, 9 )
(3) ( 9, 0 ) (4) ( 1, 4 ).
18. 22 m 20 m
2m 3·5 cm
cm
Rain water from a roof of dimension 22 m 20 m drains into a cylindrical
vessel having diameter of base 2 m and height 3·5 cm. If the vessel is
just full, then the total rainfall in cm is
(1) 3·5 (2) 2·5
(3) 2 (4) 1·5.
19. 5·2 cm 16·4 cm
The perimeter of a sector of a circle of radius 5·2 cm is 16·4 cm. Then
area of the sector is
(1) 80 cm 2 (2) 21·6 cm
(3) 15·6 cm 2 (4) 156 cm 2 .
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Math.
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20. 3 cm, 4 cm 5 cm 6 cm
Three metallic spheres of radii 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm respectively are
melted to form a cone of radius 6 cm. Then the height of this cone is
(1) 24 cm (2) 42 cm
(3) 60 cm (4) 18 cm.
21. 5 cm 12 cm
6 cm
The slant height of a frustum of a cone is 5 cm and the circumferences of
its circular ends are 12 cm and 6 cm. Height of this frustum of cone is
(1) 3 cm (2) 4 cm
(3) 5 cm (4) 6 cm.
22. 3·2 x
The mean of the following data is 3·2. Then the value of x is
X 1–3 3–5 5–7 7–9 9 – 11
Frequency 7 8 x 2 1
(1) 6 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 4.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Math. [ P.T.O.
20. 3 cm, 4 cm 5 cm 6 cm
Three metallic spheres of radii 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm respectively are
melted to form a cone of radius 6 cm. Then the height of this cone is
(1) 24 cm (2) 42 cm
(3) 60 cm (4) 18 cm.
21. 5 cm 12 cm
6 cm
The slant height of a frustum of a cone is 5 cm and the circumferences of
its circular ends are 12 cm and 6 cm. Height of this frustum of cone is
(1) 3 cm (2) 4 cm
(3) 5 cm (4) 6 cm.
22. 3·2 x
The mean of the following data is 3·2. Then the value of x is
X 1–3 3–5 5–7 7–9 9 – 11
Frequency 7 8 x 2 1
(1) 6 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 4.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Math. [ P.T.O.
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23. 16 x
If the median of the following data written in ascending order is 16, then
value of x is
6, 7, x – 2, x, 17, 20
(1) 16 (2) 18
(3) 17 (4) 15.
24. 20 1 20
A box contains 20 cards which are numbered from 1 to 20. A card is
drawn at random from the box. Then the probability that it is a perfect
square number is
2 1
(1) (2)
5 20
1 4
(3) (4) .
5 5
25. 9
Two dice are thrown at the same time. The probability that the sum of
the numbers appearing on the top of the two dice is 9, is
9 1
(1) (2)
36 6
2 1
(3) (4) .
9 9
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Math.
23. 16 x
If the median of the following data written in ascending order is 16, then
value of x is
6, 7, x – 2, x, 17, 20
(1) 16 (2) 18
(3) 17 (4) 15.
24. 20 1 20
A box contains 20 cards which are numbered from 1 to 20. A card is
drawn at random from the box. Then the probability that it is a perfect
square number is
2 1
(1) (2)
5 20
1 4
(3) (4) .
5 5
25. 9
Two dice are thrown at the same time. The probability that the sum of
the numbers appearing on the top of the two dice is 9, is
9 1
(1) (2)
36 6
2 1
(3) (4) .
9 9
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – Math.
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( 35 ) SSTSE/14 – D to D
5.
1 25
DAY TO DAY SCIENCE
( Question Nos. 1 to 25 )
1.
In which of the following speed of sound is maximum ?
(1) / Steel (2) / Water
(3) / Hydrogen (4) / Air .
2.
Which is known as the 'Country of Winds' ?
(1) / Germany (2) / India
(3) / Denmark (4) / Nepal.
3.
The conventional unit for domestic electrical consumption is
(1) kWh (2) kWs
(3) Ws (4) J.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – D to D [ P.T.O.
5.
1 25
DAY TO DAY SCIENCE
( Question Nos. 1 to 25 )
1.
In which of the following speed of sound is maximum ?
(1) / Steel (2) / Water
(3) / Hydrogen (4) / Air .
2.
Which is known as the 'Country of Winds' ?
(1) / Germany (2) / India
(3) / Denmark (4) / Nepal.
3.
The conventional unit for domestic electrical consumption is
(1) kWh (2) kWs
(3) Ws (4) J.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – D to D [ P.T.O.
Page 36
( 36 )
4.
The speed of sound on increasing the temperature of the medium
(1) / decreases
(2) / increases
(3) / remains unchanged
(4) / none of these.
5.
The acceleration of a freely falling body is
(1) + 9·8 ms – 2 (2) – 9·8 ms – 2
(3) / not fixed (4) 0 ms – 2 .
6.
Thermosetting polymer is
(1) / terylene
(2) / PVC
(3) / Bakelite
(4) 6,6 / Nylon 6,6.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – D to D
4.
The speed of sound on increasing the temperature of the medium
(1) / decreases
(2) / increases
(3) / remains unchanged
(4) / none of these.
5.
The acceleration of a freely falling body is
(1) + 9·8 ms – 2 (2) – 9·8 ms – 2
(3) / not fixed (4) 0 ms – 2 .
6.
Thermosetting polymer is
(1) / terylene
(2) / PVC
(3) / Bakelite
(4) 6,6 / Nylon 6,6.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – D to D
Page 37
( 37 )
7.
Which medicine is not antacid ?
(1) / Sodium hydrogen carbonate
(2) / Aluminium hydroxide
(3) / Milk of magnesia
(4) / Aspirin.
8.
Natural rubber is
(1) / Polyisoprin (2) / Neoprin
(3) S / Buna-S (4) N / Buna-N.
9.
The factor responsible for acid rain is
(1) / vaporisation of polluted water
(2) / presence of freons in atmosphere
(3) C, N, S / presence of oxides of
C, N, S in atmosphere
(4) / greenhouse effect.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – D to D [ P.T.O.
7.
Which medicine is not antacid ?
(1) / Sodium hydrogen carbonate
(2) / Aluminium hydroxide
(3) / Milk of magnesia
(4) / Aspirin.
8.
Natural rubber is
(1) / Polyisoprin (2) / Neoprin
(3) S / Buna-S (4) N / Buna-N.
9.
The factor responsible for acid rain is
(1) / vaporisation of polluted water
(2) / presence of freons in atmosphere
(3) C, N, S / presence of oxides of
C, N, S in atmosphere
(4) / greenhouse effect.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – D to D [ P.T.O.
Page 38
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10.
The particles bombarded to cause nuclear fission are
(1) / Neutron (2) / Deuteron
(3) / Alpha particle (4) / Beta particle.
11.
Which is not a natural fibre ?
(1) / Cotton (2) / Silk
(3) / Wool (4) / Dacron.
12.
p p+2
Consider the following statements :
If p is a prime number such that p + 2 is also a prime number, then
I. p ( p + 2 ) + 1 / p ( p + 2 ) + 1 is a perfect
square number.
II. p + ( p + 2 ), 12 p > 3 / 12 is a divisor of
p + ( p + 2 ), if p > 3.
Which of the above statement(s) is / are correct ?
(1) I / Only I (2) II / Only II
(3) I II / Both I and II (4) I II / Neither I nor II.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – D to D
10.
The particles bombarded to cause nuclear fission are
(1) / Neutron (2) / Deuteron
(3) / Alpha particle (4) / Beta particle.
11.
Which is not a natural fibre ?
(1) / Cotton (2) / Silk
(3) / Wool (4) / Dacron.
12.
p p+2
Consider the following statements :
If p is a prime number such that p + 2 is also a prime number, then
I. p ( p + 2 ) + 1 / p ( p + 2 ) + 1 is a perfect
square number.
II. p + ( p + 2 ), 12 p > 3 / 12 is a divisor of
p + ( p + 2 ), if p > 3.
Which of the above statement(s) is / are correct ?
(1) I / Only I (2) II / Only II
(3) I II / Both I and II (4) I II / Neither I nor II.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – D to D
Page 39
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13. A B x:8 B C 12 : y A C 2 : 1
x y
The ratio of A to B is x : 8 and the ratio of B to C is 12 : y. If the ratio of
A to C is 2 : 1, then the ratio of x to y is
(1) 3:4 (2) 4:3
(3) 1:6 (4) 1 : 12.
14. 30 m 80 m
30 m
Amit walked 30 m towards east, took a right turn and walked 80 m, then
he took a left turn and walked 30 m. The shortest distance between his
starting position and present position is
(1) 30 m (2) 60 m
(3) 90 m (4) 100 m.
15. 1 2 3
2014
From your pocket money, you have to save Re 1 on first day, Rs. 2 on
second day, Rs. 3 on third day and so on. Total money that will be saved
in the month of October, 2014 is
(1) Rs. 496 (2) Rs. 500
(3) Rs. 992 (4) Rs. 31.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – D to D [ P.T.O.
13. A B x:8 B C 12 : y A C 2 : 1
x y
The ratio of A to B is x : 8 and the ratio of B to C is 12 : y. If the ratio of
A to C is 2 : 1, then the ratio of x to y is
(1) 3:4 (2) 4:3
(3) 1:6 (4) 1 : 12.
14. 30 m 80 m
30 m
Amit walked 30 m towards east, took a right turn and walked 80 m, then
he took a left turn and walked 30 m. The shortest distance between his
starting position and present position is
(1) 30 m (2) 60 m
(3) 90 m (4) 100 m.
15. 1 2 3
2014
From your pocket money, you have to save Re 1 on first day, Rs. 2 on
second day, Rs. 3 on third day and so on. Total money that will be saved
in the month of October, 2014 is
(1) Rs. 496 (2) Rs. 500
(3) Rs. 992 (4) Rs. 31.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – D to D [ P.T.O.
Page 40
( 40 )
16. A, B 14 A
A is twice as good a workman as B and together they finish a piece of
work in 14 days. In how many days can A alone finish the work ?
(1) 7 / 7 days (2) 18 / 18 days
(3) 21 / 21 days (4) 28 / 28 days.
17. 101101
In binary system number 101101 is written in decimal system as
(1) 35 (2) 45
(3) 40 (4) 50.
18.
The scientist who prepared sheep's clone was
(1) / Dr. Ian Wilmut
(2) / S. Cohen
(3) / H. Boyer
(4) / Watson and Crick.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – D to D
16. A, B 14 A
A is twice as good a workman as B and together they finish a piece of
work in 14 days. In how many days can A alone finish the work ?
(1) 7 / 7 days (2) 18 / 18 days
(3) 21 / 21 days (4) 28 / 28 days.
17. 101101
In binary system number 101101 is written in decimal system as
(1) 35 (2) 45
(3) 40 (4) 50.
18.
The scientist who prepared sheep's clone was
(1) / Dr. Ian Wilmut
(2) / S. Cohen
(3) / H. Boyer
(4) / Watson and Crick.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – D to D
Page 41
( 41 )
19.
In which marine algae maximum quantity of iodine is found ?
(1) / Dillisk (2) / Spirogyra
(3) / Kelp (4) / Ulothrix.
20.
Example of totipotent cells in a living being is
(1) / Nerve cells
(2) / Blastomeres
(3) / Epithelial cells
(4) / Muscle cells.
21.
Which bacteria is used to obtain human insulin ?
(1) / E. coli
(2) / Vibrio cholerae
(3) / Salmonella typhi
(4) / Mycobacterium leprae.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – D to D [ P.T.O.
19.
In which marine algae maximum quantity of iodine is found ?
(1) / Dillisk (2) / Spirogyra
(3) / Kelp (4) / Ulothrix.
20.
Example of totipotent cells in a living being is
(1) / Nerve cells
(2) / Blastomeres
(3) / Epithelial cells
(4) / Muscle cells.
21.
Which bacteria is used to obtain human insulin ?
(1) / E. coli
(2) / Vibrio cholerae
(3) / Salmonella typhi
(4) / Mycobacterium leprae.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – D to D [ P.T.O.
Page 42
( 42 )
22.
The technique used for removal of brain tumor is
(1) / Biotechnology (2) / Tissue culture
(3) / Laser rays (4) / Brachy therapy.
23.
Highest amount of which organic compound is found in Soyabean ?
(1) / Carbohydrate (2) / Protein
(3) / Fat (4) / Vitamin.
24. DNA
The structure that transfers DNA from one animal to another is known as
(1) / Cloning (2) / Explant
(3) / Interferon (4) / Vector.
25.
The technique applied for testing position and activities of different
structures in human body is
(1) / Chemotherapy
(2) / CT Scan
(3) / X-ray
(4) / Biopsy.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – D to D
22.
The technique used for removal of brain tumor is
(1) / Biotechnology (2) / Tissue culture
(3) / Laser rays (4) / Brachy therapy.
23.
Highest amount of which organic compound is found in Soyabean ?
(1) / Carbohydrate (2) / Protein
(3) / Fat (4) / Vitamin.
24. DNA
The structure that transfers DNA from one animal to another is known as
(1) / Cloning (2) / Explant
(3) / Interferon (4) / Vector.
25.
The technique applied for testing position and activities of different
structures in human body is
(1) / Chemotherapy
(2) / CT Scan
(3) / X-ray
(4) / Biopsy.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – D to D
Page 43
( 43 ) SSTSE/14 – GK
6.
1 25
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE REGARDING SCIENCE
( Question Nos. 1 to 25 )
1.
Weight of an object when we move it from pole to the equator
(1) / increases (2) / decreases
(3) / remains constant (4) / none of these.
2.
The orbit of each planet of the solar system is
(1) / circular (2) / parabolic
(3) / elliptical (4) / rectangular.
incident raynormal
3. reflected ray
30˚
The angle of reflection in the figure is
(1) 60˚ (2) 90˚
(3) 30˚ (4) / None of these.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – GK [ P.T.O.
6.
1 25
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE REGARDING SCIENCE
( Question Nos. 1 to 25 )
1.
Weight of an object when we move it from pole to the equator
(1) / increases (2) / decreases
(3) / remains constant (4) / none of these.
2.
The orbit of each planet of the solar system is
(1) / circular (2) / parabolic
(3) / elliptical (4) / rectangular.
incident raynormal
3. reflected ray
30˚
The angle of reflection in the figure is
(1) 60˚ (2) 90˚
(3) 30˚ (4) / None of these.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – GK [ P.T.O.
Page 44
( 44 )
4.
Which lens is used to remove near-sightedness ?
(1) / Convex (2) / Planoconvex
(3) / Planoconcave (4) / Concave.
5.
Household electrical appliances are connected in parallel so that
(1) / uniform current flows
(2) / uniform voltage is received
(3) / energy consumption is high
(4) / none of these.
6.
The process on which the energy produced in the sun is based, is
(1) / Nuclear fusion (2) / Nuclear fission
(3) / Pair production (4) / None of these.
7.
When an object is dipped in a liquid the force of buoyancy on the
object is
(1) / equal to the weight of the object
(2) / equal to the weight of the
displaced liquid
(3) / equal to the twice the
weight of the displaced liquid
(4) / none of these.
8.
Hydrocarbon having highest octane number is
(1) / Isohexane (2) n / n-hexane
(3) / Iso-octane (4) n / n-octane.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – GK
4.
Which lens is used to remove near-sightedness ?
(1) / Convex (2) / Planoconvex
(3) / Planoconcave (4) / Concave.
5.
Household electrical appliances are connected in parallel so that
(1) / uniform current flows
(2) / uniform voltage is received
(3) / energy consumption is high
(4) / none of these.
6.
The process on which the energy produced in the sun is based, is
(1) / Nuclear fusion (2) / Nuclear fission
(3) / Pair production (4) / None of these.
7.
When an object is dipped in a liquid the force of buoyancy on the
object is
(1) / equal to the weight of the object
(2) / equal to the weight of the
displaced liquid
(3) / equal to the twice the
weight of the displaced liquid
(4) / none of these.
8.
Hydrocarbon having highest octane number is
(1) / Isohexane (2) n / n-hexane
(3) / Iso-octane (4) n / n-octane.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – GK
Page 45
( 45 )
9.
The chemical formula related to soap is
(1) C 2 H 5 COONa
(2) CH 3 ( CH 2 ) 10 CH 2 OSO 3 Na
(3) CH 3 ( CH 2 ) 15 CH 2 COONa
(4) CH 3 ( CH 2 ) 11 – O – SO Na.
3
10.
The organic compound used as fire extinguisher is
(1) CO 2 (2) C 6 H 6
(3) COCl 2 (4) CCl 4 .
11.
The role of added gypsum during manufacture of cement is to
(1) / facilitate gel formation
(2) / decrease rate of setting
(3) / increase the weight of product
(4) / make the cement impervious.
12.
A fuel having highest thermal value is
(1) / Hydrogen (2) / Petrol
(3) / LPG (4) / CNG.
13.
The property not present in chlorofluorocarbon compounds is
(1) / Non-toxic (2) / Non-corrosive
(3) / Volatility (4) / Inflammatory.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – GK [ P.T.O.
9.
The chemical formula related to soap is
(1) C 2 H 5 COONa
(2) CH 3 ( CH 2 ) 10 CH 2 OSO 3 Na
(3) CH 3 ( CH 2 ) 15 CH 2 COONa
(4) CH 3 ( CH 2 ) 11 – O – SO Na.
3
10.
The organic compound used as fire extinguisher is
(1) CO 2 (2) C 6 H 6
(3) COCl 2 (4) CCl 4 .
11.
The role of added gypsum during manufacture of cement is to
(1) / facilitate gel formation
(2) / decrease rate of setting
(3) / increase the weight of product
(4) / make the cement impervious.
12.
A fuel having highest thermal value is
(1) / Hydrogen (2) / Petrol
(3) / LPG (4) / CNG.
13.
The property not present in chlorofluorocarbon compounds is
(1) / Non-toxic (2) / Non-corrosive
(3) / Volatility (4) / Inflammatory.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – GK [ P.T.O.
Page 46
( 46 )
14. 1 1 2014
A child was born on Friday, 1st October in a certain year. His age on
Wednesday, 1st October, 2014 was
(1) 2 / 2 years (2) 5 / 5 years
(3) 4 / 4 years (4) 6 / 6 years
15. 30
1
4
If the bacteria of a laboratory jar doubles everyday and the whole jar is
1
filled with bacteria in 30 days, then number of days required to fill th of
4
the jar is
(1) 14 / 14 days (2) 28 / 28 days
(3) 30 / 30 days (4) 20 / 20 days.
16. 6
5
2 km/hr
A motor boat goes upstream on a river and covers the distance between
two towns on the river bank in 6 hours. It covers this distance
downstream in 5 hours. If the speed of the stream is 2 km/hour, then
the speed of motor boat in still water will be
(1) 20 km/hour (2) 22 km/hour
(3) 29 km/hour (4) 25 km/hour.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – GK
14. 1 1 2014
A child was born on Friday, 1st October in a certain year. His age on
Wednesday, 1st October, 2014 was
(1) 2 / 2 years (2) 5 / 5 years
(3) 4 / 4 years (4) 6 / 6 years
15. 30
1
4
If the bacteria of a laboratory jar doubles everyday and the whole jar is
1
filled with bacteria in 30 days, then number of days required to fill th of
4
the jar is
(1) 14 / 14 days (2) 28 / 28 days
(3) 30 / 30 days (4) 20 / 20 days.
16. 6
5
2 km/hr
A motor boat goes upstream on a river and covers the distance between
two towns on the river bank in 6 hours. It covers this distance
downstream in 5 hours. If the speed of the stream is 2 km/hour, then
the speed of motor boat in still water will be
(1) 20 km/hour (2) 22 km/hour
(3) 29 km/hour (4) 25 km/hour.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – GK
Page 47
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17. Y S ( – 3, 2 )
If in the given figure Y-axis works as a plane mirror then the image of
point S ( – 3, 2 ) is
Y
( – 1, 2 ) ( 1, 2 )
S P A D ( 3, 2 )
( – 3, 2 )
( – 3, 0 ) ( – 1, 0 )
l X
X R Q O B ( 1, 0 ) C ( 3, 0 )
Yl
(1) A ( 1, 2 ) (2) B ( 1, 0 )
(3) D ( 3, 2 ) (4) C ( 3, 0 ).
18.
Producers in food chain are
(1) / Human (2) / Plant
(3) / Frog (4) / Insect.
19.
Mutation borne disease is
(1) / Cancer (2) / Haemophilia
(3) / AIDS (4) / Colour blindness.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – GK [ P.T.O.
17. Y S ( – 3, 2 )
If in the given figure Y-axis works as a plane mirror then the image of
point S ( – 3, 2 ) is
Y
( – 1, 2 ) ( 1, 2 )
S P A D ( 3, 2 )
( – 3, 2 )
( – 3, 0 ) ( – 1, 0 )
l X
X R Q O B ( 1, 0 ) C ( 3, 0 )
Yl
(1) A ( 1, 2 ) (2) B ( 1, 0 )
(3) D ( 3, 2 ) (4) C ( 3, 0 ).
18.
Producers in food chain are
(1) / Human (2) / Plant
(3) / Frog (4) / Insect.
19.
Mutation borne disease is
(1) / Cancer (2) / Haemophilia
(3) / AIDS (4) / Colour blindness.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – GK [ P.T.O.
Page 48
( 48 )
20.
Disease caused by the deficiency of protein is
(1) / Beri-beri (2) / Scurvy
(3) / Kwashiorkor (4) / Rickets.
21.
World AIDS Day is celebrated on
(1) 7 / 7th July (2) 1 / 1st December
(3) 7 / 7th April (4) 5 / 5th May.
22.
The method used for preservation of liquid foodstuff is
(1) / canning (2) / dehydration
(3) / pasteurization (4) / salt solution.
23.
'Grey revolution' is related to which production area ?
(1) / Fertilizer (2) / Milk
(3) / Potato (4) / Fish.
24.
The field related with Amrita Devi Bishnoi National Award is
(1) / Human conservation
(2) / Energy conservation
(3) / Water conservation
(4) / Forest and wildlife conservation.
25.
In India the largest wind energy farm is established at
(1) / Mumbai (2) / Bengaluru
(3) / Kanyakumari (4) / Ahmedabad.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – GK
20.
Disease caused by the deficiency of protein is
(1) / Beri-beri (2) / Scurvy
(3) / Kwashiorkor (4) / Rickets.
21.
World AIDS Day is celebrated on
(1) 7 / 7th July (2) 1 / 1st December
(3) 7 / 7th April (4) 5 / 5th May.
22.
The method used for preservation of liquid foodstuff is
(1) / canning (2) / dehydration
(3) / pasteurization (4) / salt solution.
23.
'Grey revolution' is related to which production area ?
(1) / Fertilizer (2) / Milk
(3) / Potato (4) / Fish.
24.
The field related with Amrita Devi Bishnoi National Award is
(1) / Human conservation
(2) / Energy conservation
(3) / Water conservation
(4) / Forest and wildlife conservation.
25.
In India the largest wind energy farm is established at
(1) / Mumbai (2) / Bengaluru
(3) / Kanyakumari (4) / Ahmedabad.
S.S.T.S.E. /14 – GK
Document Details
| Board / Org | Rajasthan Board |
| Exam | STSE |
| Type | Question Paper |
| Pages | 48 |
| Updated | 09 Jun 2026 |