Page 1
SAT-3 Code : SS STSE/15
Æ˙…V™… |… i…¶…… J……‰V… {…Æ˙“I…… 2015
STATE TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION 2015
Roll No. Æ˙…‰±… x…®§…Æ˙
EÚI……-XII E‰Ú ¥…t…Ãl…™……Â E‰Ú ±…B
FOR STUDENTS OF CLASS XII
Booklet Number {…÷Œ∫i…EÚ… ∫…ΔJ™……
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST ∂…Ë I…EÚ ™……‰M™…i…… {…Æ˙“I……
( For Students of Class XII ) ( EÚI…… XII E‰Ú ¥…t…Ãl…™……Â E‰Ú ±…B )
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 90 ∫…®…™… : 90 ®…x…]ı {…⁄h……»EÚ : 90
( For Blind Candidates Time : 2 Hours ) ( o˘Œπ]ıΩ˛“x… +¶™…Ãl…™…… E‰Ú ±…B ∫…®…™… : 2 P…Δ]‰ı )
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES {…Æ˙“I……Ãl…™…… E‰Ú ±…B x…nÊ˘∂…
Read the following instructions carefully
before you open the question booklet.
|…∂x… {…÷Œ∫i…EÚ… J……‰±…x…‰ ∫…‰ {…Ω˛±…‰ x…®x… x…nÊ˘∂…… EÚ…‰ v™……x… ∫…‰
1. Answers are to be given on a separate {… g¯B*
answer sheet (OMR sheet). 1. =k…Æ˙ BEÚ +±…M… =k…Æ˙ {…j…EÚ (+…‰0 B®…0 +…Æ˙0 ∂…“]ı)
2. Write your Roll Number as allotted to you in ®… n‰˘x…‰ ΩÈ˛*
the admission card very clearly on the test-
booklet and darken the appropriate circles 2. EfiÚ{…™…… +{…x…… Æ˙…‰±… x…®§…Æ˙ V…Ë∫…… EÚ +…{…E‰Ú |…¥…‰∂… {…j… {…Æ˙
on the answer sheet as per instructions n˘™…… M…™…… Ω˲, x…nÊ˘∂……x…÷∫……Æ ˙]‰ı∫]ı {…÷Œ∫i…EÚ… {…Æ˙ §…Ω÷˛i… ∫{…π]ı
given. ±… J…™…‰ +…ËÆ˙ =k…Æ˙-{…j…EÚ {…Æ˙ n˘™…‰ M…™…‰ M……‰±…… EÚ…‰ EÚ…±……
3. There are 90 questions in this test. All are EÚÆÂ˙*
compulsory. The question numbers 1 to 3. <∫… {…Æ˙“I…… ®… 90 |…∂x… ΩÈ˛* ∫…¶…“ |…∂x… + x…¥……™…« ΩÈ˛* |…∂x…
30 belong to Physics, 31 to 60 to Chemistry,
61 to 90 are either on Biology or on Math ∫…ΔJ™…… 1 ∫…‰ 30 ¶……Ë i…EÚ ¥…Y……x…, 31 ∫…‰ 60 Æ˙∫……™…x… ¥…Y……x…,
subjects. The candidate has to attempt 61 ∫…‰ 90 V…“¥… ¥…Y……x… ™…… M… h…i… ¥…π…™…… {…Æ˙ +…v…… Æ˙i… ΩÈ˛*
only one subject i.e. in Biology or in ¥…t…l…‘ EÚ…‰ V…“¥… ¥…Y……x… B¥…Δ M… h…i… ®…Â ∫…‰ EÚ∫…“ BEÚ
Maths. ¥…π…™… EÚ…‰ Ω˛±… EÚÆ˙x…… Ω˲*
4. Please follow the instructions given on the 4. EfiÚ{…™…… =k…Æ˙ S…Ì»i… EÚÆ˙x…‰ E‰Ú ±…B =k…Æ˙-{…j…EÚ {…Æ˙ n˘™…‰ M…™…‰
answer sheet for marking the answers.
5. If you do not know the answer to any x…nÊ˘∂…… EÚ…‰ v™……x… ∫…‰ ∫…®…Z… EÚÆ˙ =x…EÚ“ +x…÷{……±…x…… EÚ“ V…B*
question, do not waste time on it and pass 5. ™… n˘ +…{… EÚ∫…“ |…∂x… EÚ… =k…Æ˙ x…Ω˛” V……x…i…‰ ΩÈ˛ i……‰ =∫… {…Æ˙
on to the next one. Time permitting, you can §…Ω÷˛i… ∫…®…™… x… M…Δ¥……<™…‰ +…ËÆ˙ +M…±…‰ |…∂x… {…Æ˙ §…g¯ V……<™…‰*
come back to the questions, which you have ™… n˘ §……n˘ ®… ∫…®…™… ®…±…‰ i……‰ V…x… |…∂x…… EÚ…‰ +…{…x…‰ {…Ω˛±…‰
left in the first instance and attempt them.
6. Since the time allotted for this question
UÙ…‰c˜ n˘™…… l……, =x… {…Æ˙ ¥……{…∫… +…EÚÆ˙ =x…E‰Ú =k…Æ˙ n˘“ V…B*
paper is very limited, you should make the 6. C™…… EÚ <∫… |…∂x… {…j… E‰Ú ±…B x…v……« Æ˙i… ∫…®…™… §…Ω÷˛i… ∫…“ ®…i…
best use of it by not spending too much time Ω˲, <∫… ±…B <∫…EÚ… + v…EÚi…®… ={…™……‰M… EÚ“ V…™…‰ +…ËÆ˙ EÚ∫…“
on any one question. |…∂x… {…Æ˙ §…Ω÷˛i… ∫…®…™… x… ±…M……<™…‰*
7. Rough work can be done on the given 7. Æ˙°Ú EÚ…™…« {…÷Œ∫i…EÚ… E‰Ú +Δi… ®… n˘B M…B Æ˙HÚ {…fiπ`ˆ… {…Æ˙
Blank Pages at the end of the booklet but
not on the answer sheet/loose paper.
EÚ™…… V…… ∫…EÚi…… Ω˲ EÚxi…÷ =k…Æ˙-{…j…EÚ/+±…M… EÚ…M…V…
8. Every correct answer will be awarded one {…Æ˙ x…Ω˛”*
mark. There will be no negative marking. 8. |…i™…‰EÚ ∫…Ω˛“ =k…Æ˙ EÚ… BEÚ +ΔEÚ |…n˘…x… EÚ™…… V……BM……* <∫…®…Â
9. Please return the Answer sheet (OMR @Òh……i®…EÚ +ΔEÚx… x…Ω˛” Ω˛…‰M……*
Sheet) only to the invigilator after the 9. EfiÚ{…™…… {…Æ˙“I…… E‰Ú §……n˘ E‰Ú¥…±… =k…Æ˙-{…j…EÚ (+…‰0 B®…0
test.
10. Hindi version of the question paper will be +…Æ˙0 ∂…“]ı) Ω˛“ x…Æ˙“I…EÚ EÚ…‰ ±……Ë]ı…<B*
considered as final in case of any dispute 10. +x…÷¥…… n˘i… ¥…¥…Æ˙h… ®… +xi…Æ˙ ∫…‰ =`‰ˆ EÚ∫…“ ¶…“ ¥…¥……n˘ EÚ“
arising out of variation in translated version. Œ∫l… i… ®… |…∂x…-{…j… E‰Ú Ω˛xn˘“ ¥…¥…Æ˙h… EÚ…‰ x…h……«™…EÚ ®……x……
PLEASE TURN OVER THE PAGE AND START V……BM……*
YOUR WORK. EfiÚ{…™…… {…fiπ`ˆ {…±… ]ı™…‰ +…ËÆ˙ +{…x…… EÚ…™…« +…Æ˙®¶… EÚ“ V…B*
BSER 2015
The copyright of the contents of this booklet rests with the BSER and no part of it should be used by
anybody in any manner whatsoever without the prior permission of the BSER. The items are prepared
on best effort basis. In case of any dispute the opinion of the experts appointed by BSER will be final.
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203
Page 2
SAT-3 (2)
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203
Page 3
(3) SAT-3
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST
90
THERE ARE 90 QUESTIONS IN THIS PAPER.
EACH QUESTION CARRIES ONE MARK.
1
1.
273 16
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
1
th part of thermodynamical temperature of triple point of water is called
273 16
(1) mole (2) second
(3) kelvin (4) celsius.
2. N-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Which of following is majority charge carrier particle in the N-type extrinsic
semiconductor ?
(1) Electron (2) Proton
(3) Neutron (4) Hole.
3.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Under which of following forces is mechanical energy not conserved ?
(1) Gravitational force (2) Friction force
(3) Restoring force (4) Electrostatic force.
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203 [ P.T.O.
Page 4
SAT-3 (4)
4.
(1) 1394 K (2) 631 K
(3) 893 K (4) 1043 K.
Curie temperature of iron is
(1) 1394 K (2) 631 K
(3) 893 K (4) 1043 K.
5.
(1) 20 % (2) 15 %
(3) 10 % (4) 5 %.
Percentage error for colour coded resistor in the following figure is
(1) 20 % (2) 15 %
(3) 10 % (4) 5 %.
Cp
6. 14
C
v
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Cp
If the ratio of two specific heats of any gas is 14 then that gas will be
Cv
(1) monatomic (2) diatomic
(3) triatomic (4) none of these.
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203
Page 5
(5) SAT-3
7. FM
(1) 540 – 1600 kHz (2) 88 – 108 MHz
(3) 54 – 72 MHz (4) 840 – 935 MHz.
Communication frequency band range for FM broadcast is
(1) 540 – 1600 kHz (2) 88 – 108 MHz
(3) 54 – 72 MHz (4) 840 – 935 MHz.
8. T
3125 %
(1) 2T (2) 3T
(3) 4T (4) 5T
A radioactive isotope has a half-life of T years. How long will it take to reduce the
activity to 3125 % of its original value ?
(1) 2 T years (2) 3 T years
(3) 4 T years (4) 5 T years.
9.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Which of the following physical quantities remains conserverd in the continuity
equation for incompressed liquid flow ?
(1) Mass (2) Energy
(3) Moment (4) Charge.
10. –136 eV
(1) – 136 eV (2) + 136 eV
(3) – 272 eV (4) + 272 eV.
The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is – 136 eV. The kinetic energy of the
electron in this state is
(1) – 136 eV (2) + 136 eV
(3) – 272 eV (4) + 272 eV.
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203 [ P.T.O.
Page 6
SAT-3 (6)
11. 4 2
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 8 (4) 12.
If the magnification powers of two thin lenses are 4 and 2 respectively then the
magnification power of the combined lens formed by these lenses is
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 8 (4) 12.
12. i =100 sin (120 t + )
3
(1) 50 Hz (2) 60 Hz
(3) 70 Hz (4) 80 Hz.
Frequency of electric current of alternating current i =100 sin (120 t + ) will be
3
(1) 50 Hz (2) 60 Hz
(3) 70 Hz (4) 80 Hz.
13. r E
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
The curve between distance r from sheet and electric field E due to a uniformly
charged infinite plane sheet is
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203
Page 7
(7) SAT-3
14. 700 nm 400 nm
(1) (2)
(3) X- (4)
Among the following which electromagnetic wave have the wavelength range of
700 nm to 400 nm ?
(1) Light waves (2) Microwaves
(3) X-Rays (4) Radio waves.
15. 400 m/s 25 m
5 10-4 T 30
(1) 10 V (2) 15 V
(3) 20 V (4) 25 V.
A jet plane is travelling towards west at a speed of 400 m/s while the earth's
magnetic field at the location has a magnitude of 5 10-4 T and the dip angle is
30. The voltage difference developed between the ends of the wings of the plane
having a span of 25 m long is
(1) 10 V (2) 15 V
(3) 20 V (4) 25 V.
16.
(1) NOT-gate (2) AND-gate
(3) OR-gate (4)
Which fundamental logic gate is equivalent to the following circuit ?
(1) NOT-gate (2) AND-gate
(3) OR-gate (4) none of these.
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203 [ P.T.O.
Page 8
SAT-3 (8)
17. 100
(1) 0123 nm (2) 0312 nm
(3) 0231 nm (4) 0132 nm.
The de-Broglie wavelength associated with an electron accelerated by 100 volt
will be
(1) 0123 nm (2) 0312 nm
(3) 0231 nm (4) 0132 nm.
18.
(1) (2) 98 m/s2
(3) 49 m/s2 (4) 196 m/s2.
The value of gravitational acceleration at the centre of earth is
(1) zero (2) 98 m/s2
(3) 49 m/s2 (4) 196 m/s2.
19. (P ), (F ) (v )
F P
(1) P (2) F
v v
v F
(3) P (4) v .
F P
Relation between power (P ), force (F ) and instantaneous velocity (v ) is
F P
(1) P (2) F
v v
v F
(3) P (4) v .
F P
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203
Page 9
(9) SAT-3
20. A B
(1) 1 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s2
(3) 3 m/s2 (4)
The acceleration of the object in the given graph between the point A to point B is
(1) 1 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s2
(3) 3 m/s2 (4) zero.
21. A B UA UB UA UB
(1) UA < UB
(2) UA = UB
(3) UA > UB
(4)
If UA and UB are surface energies of the molecules A and B of the liquids
respectively in given figure then relation between UA and UB is
(1) UA < UB
(2) UA = UB
(3) UA > UB
(4) None of these.
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203 [ P.T.O.
Page 10
SAT-3 ( 10 )
235
22. 92 U
(1) 500 MeV (2) 400 MeV
(3) 300 MeV (4) 200 MeV.
The approximate nuclear energy released due to nuclear fission of one atom of
235
92 U is
(1) 500 MeV (2) 400 MeV
(3) 300 MeV (4) 200 MeV.
23.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Energy of photons depends on
(1) frequency of photons
(2) intensity of photons
(3) both frequency and intensity of photons
(4) none of these.
24. (emf)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
The unit of electromotive force (emf) is
(1) newton (2) volt
(3) joule (4) coulomb.
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203
Page 11
( 11 ) SAT-3
25. t
1
(1) t 2 (2) t2
3
(3) t (4) t 2.
An object is moving in one direction with constant power under the influence of a
source. At any time t, the displacement is proportional to
1
(1) t2 (2) t2
3
(3) t (4) t2 .
26. 80 m
(1) 40 m (2) 80 m
(3) 120 m (4) 160 m.
A player can throw a ball up to a maximum horizontal distance of 80 m. The
same player can throw the ball up to which maximum vertical height ?
(1) 40 m (2) 80 m
(3) 120 m (4) 160 m.
27. 072 m 50 10–3 kg 60 N
(1) 63 m/s (2) 73 m/s
(3) 93 m/s (4) 39 m/s.
If the mass of 072 m long steel wire is 50 10–3 kg then the speed of produced
transverse waves on the wire under 60 N tension in the wire is
(1) 63 m/s (2) 73 m/s
(3) 93 m/s (4) 39 m/s.
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203 [ P.T.O.
Page 12
SAT-3 ( 12 )
28. S.H.M. A
A
(1) A (2)
2
A
(3) (4) 2 A.
2
If the amplitude of S.H.M. is A and potential energy and kinetic energy are equal
then displacement will be
A
(1) A (2)
2
A
(3) (4) 2 A.
2
4
29. f n
3
(1) 3f (2) f
3
(3) (4) 4 f.
f
4
The focal length of a concave mirror in air is f. If it is immersed in water n
3
then the focal length will be
(1) 3f (2) f
3
(3) (4) 4 f.
f
30. X Y
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 1 .
The value of equivalent resistance between the points X and Y in the given circuit
is
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 1 .
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203
Page 13
( 13 ) SAT-3
31. sp 3
(1) C2H2 (2) C2H4
(3) C6H6 (4) C3H8 .
Molecule having only sp 3 hybrid carbon atoms is
(1) C2H2 (2) C2H4
(3) C6H6 (4) C3H8 .
32.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Compound having highest oxidation state of halogen is
(1) Hypochlorous acid (2) Chlorous acid
(3) Chloric acid (4) Perchloric acid.
33.
(1) X2C CY2 (2) X2C CXY
(3) YXC CXY (4) YXC CY2 .
Which compound shows stereoisomerism ?
(1) X2C CY2 (2) X2C CXY
(3) YXC CXY (4) YXC CY2 .
34.
(1) Na 2CO3 (2) CaCO3
(3) Al2 (CO3 )3 (4) MgCO3 .
Highest heat resistant compound is
(1) Na 2CO3 (2) CaCO3
(3) Al2 (CO3 )3 (4) MgCO3 .
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203 [ P.T.O.
Page 14
SAT-3 ( 14 )
35. 13 Al Tl +1
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
In the 13th group from Al to Tl, the stability of +1 oxidation state increases due to
(1) irregular increase in size (2) decrease in ionization enthalpy
(3) inert pair effect (4) decrease in ionic nature of compounds.
36.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
In the refining of Nickel, technique used is
(1) Zone refining (2) Liquation refining
(3) Vapour phase refining (4) Chromatography.
37.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Liquid in liquid colloid is
(1) Gel (2) Emulsion
(3) Sol (4) Foam.
38. ns 2np 4
(1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 16 (4) 18.
ns 2np 4 configuration represents the group
(1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 16 (4) 18.
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203
Page 15
( 15 ) SAT-3
39.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
In the alkali metal group, the stability of peroxides and superoxides of metal ions
increases
(1) due to same size (2) due to increase in ionisation enthalpy
(3) due to increase in size (4) due to decrease in size.
40.
(1) Li, Mg (2) Na, Ca
(3) K, Sr (4) Rb, Ba.
Which of the following pairs of elements forms covalent nitride by the direct
combination with nitrogen ?
(1) Li, Mg (2) Na, Ca
(3) K, Sr (4) Rb, Ba.
41.
(1) CO2 (2) SiO2
(3) CaF2 (4) SO2.
Covalent solid is
(1) CO2 (2) SiO2
(3) CaF2 (4) SO2.
42.
(1) NO2 (2) N2 O
(3) N2O3 (4) N2O5.
.................. contains odd number of valence electrons.
(1) NO2 (2) N2 O
(3) N2O3 (4) N2O5.
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203 [ P.T.O.
Page 16
SAT-3 ( 16 )
43. 6, 6
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Nylon-6, 6 is
(1) Addition polymer (2) Condensation polymer
(3) Thermoplastic polymer (4) Thermosetting polymer.
44. Zn
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Propene reacts with ozone to give addition product. This on hydrolysis in the
presence of Zn gives
(1) Formaldehyde (2) Acetaldehyde
(3) Acetone (4) Formaldehyde and Acetaldehyde.
45.
(1) Br (2) Cl
(3) F (4) I.
Which of the following elements does not exhibit positive oxidation state ?
(1) Br (2) Cl
(3) F (4) I.
46.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Zincite ore is
(1) oxide (2) chloride
(3) sulphate (4) carbonate.
47.
(1) Cr (2) Co
(3) Fe (4) Mn.
In first row transition series the metal which exhibits the maximum oxidation
state is
(1) Cr (2) Co
(3) Fe (4) Mn.
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203
Page 17
( 17 ) SAT-3
48.
(1) NH3 (2) Cl2
(3) N2 (4) NO2.
By treating an aqueous solution of ammonium chloride with sodium nitrite,
gaseous product obtained is
(1) NH3 (2) Cl2
(3) N2 (4) NO2.
49.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ranitidine drug is
(1) Tranquilizer (2) Antihistamine
(3) Antacid (4) Antibiotic.
50.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
In which reaction is aldehyde obtained from acyl chloride ?
(1) Rosenmund reduction (2) Stephen reaction
(3) Clemmensen reduction (4) Finkelstein reaction.
51.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Amino acids obtained by the hydrolysis of proteins are
(1) -amino acids (2) -amino acids
(3) -amino acids (4) all of these.
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203 [ P.T.O.
Page 18
SAT-3 ( 18 )
52.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Radioactive decay takes place by ............. kinetics.
(1) zero order (2) first order
(3) second order (4) pseudo first order.
53. CH3MgI
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Which of the following reagents on reaction with CH3MgI gives primary alcohol ?
(1) Formaldehyde (2) Acetaldehyde
(3) Acetone (4) Water.
54.
(1) (2)
(3) (4) Ni-Cd
Most successful and pollution free cell is
(1) Dry cell (2) Mercury cell
(3) Fuel cell (4) Ni-Cd cell.
55. O1 M NaOH
(1) 1 250 mL (2) 2 250 mL
(3) 4 250 mL (4) 8 250 mL.
The concentration of 01 M NaOH solution is
(1) 1 g/250 mL (2) 2 g/250 mL
(3) 4 g/250 mL (4) 8 g/250 mL.
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203
Page 19
( 19 ) SAT-3
56.
(1) CH3COONa (2) NH4Cl
(3) CH3COONH4 (4) NaCl.
Which of the following salts does not hydrolise ?
(1) CH3COONa (2) NH4Cl
(3) CH3COONH4 (4) NaCl.
57.
(1) F– (2) NH3
(3) HO – (4) BCl3.
Which of the following is Lewis acid ?
(1) F– (2) NH3
(3) HO – (4) BCl3.
58.
(1) S8 (2) S2
(3) S8 (4) S6 .
Paramagnetic behaviour is represented by
(1) S8 monoclinic (2) S2
(3) S8 rhombic (4) S6 .
59.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Nucleophilic addition reactions are shown by
(1) Carboxylic acids (2) Haloalkanes
(3) Carbonyl compounds (4) Amines.
60.
(1) 00015 (2) 115000
(3) 50045 (4) 1002.
In which of the following, is the number of significant figures maximum ?
(1) 00015 (2) 115000
(3) 50045 (4) 1002.
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203 [ P.T.O.
Page 20
SAT-3 ( 20 )
( Biology )
61.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
The writer of the book "Systema Naturae" is
(1) Linnaeus (2) Darwin
(3) de Candolle (4) Bentham and Hooker.
62. 10 11
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
The organs found in 10th and 11th segments of earthworm are
(1) Hearts (2) Pharyngeal nephridia
(3) Testes (4) Ovaries.
63.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
The example of living fossil of phylum Arthropoda is
(1) Laccifera (2) Locust
(3) Prawn (4) Limulus.
64.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
The pair of pyrimidine type nitrogen bases is
(1) Adenine, Guanine (2) Guanine, Cytosine
(3) Adenine, Thymine (4) Thymine, Uracil.
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203
Page 21
( 21 ) SAT-3
65.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Photosynthetic part in opuntia is
(1) Root (2) Stem
(3) Leaf (4) Bract.
66.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Which hormone is known as stress hormone in plants ?
(1) Auxin (2) Cytokinin
(3) Ethylene (4) Abscisic acid.
67. 34
(1) 34 (2) 51
(3) 68 (4) 102.
The number of chromosomes in meiocyte of apple is 34. The number of
chromosomes in its endosperm will be
(1) 34 (2) 51
(3) 68 (4) 102.
68.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Which hormone is responsible for lactation after parturition ?
(1) Oxytocin (2) Vasopressin
(3) Estrogen (4) Progesterone.
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203 [ P.T.O.
Page 22
SAT-3 ( 22 )
69.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Excretory organ of cockroach is
(1) Kidney (2) Nephridia
(3) Malpighian tubules (4) Gonapophysis.
70.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Correct pair of sexually transmitted diseases in human is
(1) Gonorrhoea, Haemophilia (2) Syphilis, Colour blindness
(3) AIDS, T.B. (4) Hepatitis-B, Chlamydiasis.
71.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Enzyme converting inactive trypsinogen into active trypsin is
(1) Enterokinin (2) Enterokinase
(3) Chymotrypsin (4) Ptyalin.
72.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Crocodile heart has
(1) one auricle, one ventricle (2) two auricles, one ventricle
(3) one auricle, two ventricles (4) two auricles, two ventricles.
73.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Which instrument is used to measure blood pressure ?
(1) Stethoscope (2) Sphygmomanometer
(3) Haemocytometer (4) Haemoglobinometer.
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203
Page 23
( 23 ) SAT-3
74.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
The organ related with haemodialysis is
(1) heart (2) kidney
(3) liver (4) brain.
75.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Temporary endocrine gland which is formed after ovulation from Graafian follicle
is
(1) Corpus albicans (2) Corpus luteum
(3) adrenal gland (4) pineal gland.
76.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
By which of the following reproductive processes is a new breed of sheep
"Hisardale" developed ?
(1) Inbreeding (2) Crossbreeding
(3) Outbreeding (4) Interspecific hybridisation.
77.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
The compound which stains separated DNA fragments is
(1) Agarose gel (2) Ethidium bromide
(3) Ultraviolet light (4) Eosin.
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203 [ P.T.O.
Page 24
SAT-3 ( 24 )
78. C4
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
The correct pair of C4 plants is
(1) Castor, Bajra (2) Apple, Orange
(3) Maize, Sorghum (4) Wheat, Coriander.
79.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with vector is done by
(1) DNA ligase (2) DNA polymerase
(3) Exonuclease (4) Endonuclease.
80. 1
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Which of the following diseases is treated by using human protein
-1 antitrypsin ?
(1) Cancer (2) Cystic fibrosis
(3) Emphysema (4) Phenyl ketonuria.
81.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
The component element of ring structure of chlorophyll is
(1) Sodium (2) Potassium
(3) Calcium (4) Magnesium.
82.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Resistant variety of Brassica against white rust disease is
(1) Pusa Shubhra (2) Pusa Swarnim
(3) Pusa Komal (4) Pusa Sadabahar.
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203
Page 25
( 25 ) SAT-3
83.
(1) K 2 2 C X 4 A2 4 G (2) (2) K 2 2 CX 4 A2 4 G (2)
(3) K 2 2 C X 4 A4 2 G (2) (4) K 2 2 CX 4 A4 2 G (2) .
The correct floral formula of Brassicaceae family is
(1) K 2 2 C X 4 A2 4 G (2) (2) K 2 2 CX 4 A2 4 G (2)
(3) K 2 2 C X 4 A4 2 G (2) (4) K 2 2 CX 4 A4 2 G (2) .
84.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
The process of producing seeds without fertilization is known as
(1) sexual reproduction (2) parthenocarpy
(3) apomixis (4) polyembryony.
85.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Which of the following can be used as industrial pollution indicator ?
(1) Algae (2) Fungi
(3) Lichen (4) Bacteria.
86.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
The group of microbes which serves an important role as biofertilizer in paddy
fields is
(1) Anabaena, Azotobacter (2) Rhizobium, Azola
(3) Azotobacter, Azospirillum (4) Nostoc, Oscillatoria.
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203 [ P.T.O.
Page 26
SAT-3 ( 26 )
87.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Growing of orchid as an epiphyte on a mango branch falls under which type of
interaction ?
(1) Predation (2) Amensalism
(3) Commensalism (4) Mutualism.
88. F2
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
The equal genotypic and phenotypic ratio of inheritance of snapdragon flower in
F2 generation shows
(1) dominance (2) incomplete dominance
(3) co-dominance (4) independent assortment.
89. R. Q.
C6 H12 O6 2 C2 H5 OH 2 CO2 +
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) .
Respiratory quotient (R. Q.) of respiratory substrate in the following equation will
be
C6 H12 O6 Zymase 2 C2 H5 OH 2 CO2 + Energy.
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) .
90.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Coralloid root of cycas exhibits association with
(1) Algae (2) Fungi
(3) Bacteria (4) Cyanobacteria.
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203
Page 27
( 27 ) SAT-3
( Mathematics )
61. P ( A ), A
(1) {A}P(A) (2) AP(A)
(3) {A}P(A) (4)
If P ( A ) is power set of A, then which one of the following is true ?
(1) {A}P(A) (2) AP(A)
(3) {A}P(A) (4) None of these.
62. f(x)=|x–2|–2|x–3| 2<x<3 f(x)
(1) x–4 (2) 4–x
(3) 8 – 3x (4) 3x – 8
If function f ( x ) = | x – 2 | – 2 | x – 3 | then for 2 < x < 3, f ( x ) is equal to
(1) x–4 (2) 4–x
(3) 8 – 3x (4) 3x – 8.
63. f:RR f ( x ) = |x| f(x)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
If f : R R and f ( x ) = |x| then f ( x ) will be
(1) one-one onto (2) one-one into
(3) many-one onto (4) many-one into.
23
64. cot
12
(1) 2– 3 (2) 2+ 3
(3) – (2 – 3) (4) – (2 + 3)
23
Value of cot is
12
(1) 2– 3 (2) 2+ 3
(3) – (2 – 3) (4) – (2 + 3 ).
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203 [ P.T.O.
Page 28
SAT-3 ( 28 )
65. 2 cos x + 1 = 0 [ 0, 3 ]
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4)
Number of solutions of 2 cos x + 1 = 0 in interval [ 0, 3 ] is
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) infinite.
66. ( iz )
(1) + z (2) – + z
2 2
(3) – z (4) – – z
2 2
Amplitude ( iz ) is equal to
(1) + amp z (2) – + amp z
2 2
(3) – amp z (4) – – amp z.
2 2
67. 2, 4, 6, 8, 9 5
(1) 120 (2) 24
(3) 12 (4) 96
How many even numbers of 5 digits can be made from digits 2, 4, 6, 8, 9 ?
(1) 120 (2) 24
(3) 12 (4) 96.
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203
Page 29
( 29 ) SAT-3
68. 20
(1) 100 (2) 190
(3) 200 (4) 380
There are 20 persons in a party and every person shakes hand to each other.
Then total number of handshakes will be
(1) 100 (2) 190
(3) 200 (4) 380.
69. n 3n + 5
(1) 1 (2) 3
(3) 5 (4) 8
If nth term of an A.P. is 3n + 5, then its common difference is
(1) 1 (2) 3
(3) 5 (4) 8.
10
2 1
70. 3x
2x
(1) 6 (2) 5
(3) 10 (4) 11
10
1
Middle term of, in the expansion of 3x 2 will be
2x
(1) 6th (2) 5th
(3) 10th (4) 11th.
71. ( p, q ) ( q, p )
(1) ( p q )2 (2) p2 q 2
(3) p2 q 2 (4) ( p q )2
Area of the square whose vertices of diagonals are ( p, q ) and ( q, p ), will be
(1) ( p q )2 (2) p2 q 2
(3) p2 q 2 (4) ( p q )2 .
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203 [ P.T.O.
Page 30
SAT-3 ( 30 )
72.
(1) e=0 (2) e=1
(3) e<1 (4) e>1
Eccentricity of the parabola is
(1) e=0 (2) e=1
(3) e<1 (4) e > 1.
f (x ) 3
73. f ( 9 ) = 9, f l ( 9 ) = 4 lt
x 9 x 3
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
f (x ) 3
If f ( 9 ) = 9, f l ( 9 ) = 4, then the value of lt is
x 9 x 3
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4.
l
74. f ( x ) = log x ( loge x ) x=e f (x)=
(1) 0 (2) 1
1
(3) (4) e
e
l
If f ( x ) = log x ( loge x ) then at x = e, f ( x ) =
(1) 0 (2) 1
1
(3) (4) e.
e
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203
Page 31
( 31 ) SAT-3
75. f ( x ) = 2x 2x 1 2x 2 ....... 2x 9 f l( 2 )
(1) 2 x loge 2 (2) 1023 loge 2
(3) 1023 loge 16 (4) 1023 loge 4
If f ( x ) = 2x 2x 1 2x 2 ....... 2x 9 then the value of f l ( 2 ) will be
(1) 2 x loge 2 (2) 1023 loge 2
(3) 1023 loge 16 (4) 1023 loge 4.
76. A 33 | adj A |
(1) |A| (2) |A| 2
(3) |A| 3 (4) 3|A|
If A is non-zero square matrix whose order is 3 3 then | adj A | is equal to
(1) |A| (2) |A| 2
(3) |A| 3 (4) 3|A|.
77. A, 3 4 B AT B AB T
B
(1) 43 (2) 33
(3) 34 (4) 44
Matrix A is of order 3 4 and B is such a type of matrix that A T B and AB T are
both defined. The order of matrix B will be
(1) 43 (2) 33
(3) 34 (4) 4 4.
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203 [ P.T.O.
Page 32
SAT-3 ( 32 )
78.
o p q
p o r
q r o
(1) pqr (2) – 2pqr
(3) p2 q 2 r 2 (4) 0
o p q
The value of the following determinant p o r will be
q r o
(1) pqr (2) – 2pqr
2 2 2
(3) p q r (4) 0.
3 4
79. cos 1 sin 1 cos 1 x x
5 5
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3
3 4
If cos 1 sin 1 cos 1 x then value of x is
5 5
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3.
80. x
(1) x2 (2) x2 – 1
(3) x3 (4) x4
Increasing function for all real values of x is
(1) x2 (2) x2 – 1
(3) x3 (4) x4.
2
81. y = 4x 3 1
3
(1) ( 2, 3 ) (2) ( 3, 2 )
(3) ( 4, 3 ) (4) ( 3, 4 )
2
The point where slope of curve y = 4x 3 1 is , is
3
(1) ( 2, 3 ) (2) ( 3, 2 )
(3) ( 4, 3 ) (4) ( 3, 4 ).
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203
Page 33
( 33 ) SAT-3
82.
2 1 sin x dx = – 4 cos ( ax + b ) + c ( a, b )
1 1
(1) , (2) ,
2 2 2 4
1 1
(3) , (4) ,
4 2 4 4
If
2 1 sin x dx = – 4 cos ( ax + b ) + c, then the value of ( a, b ) is
1 1
(1) , (2) ,
2 2 2 4
1 1
(3) , (4) , .
4 2 4 4
x ( 1 loge x ) dx
x
83.
(1) xx (2) x 2x
(3) x x loge x (4)
1
2
1 loge x 2
x ( 1 loge x ) dx is
x
The value of
(1) xx (2) x 2x
(3) x x loge x (4)
1
2
1 loge x 2 .
1
x ( 1 x ) dx
n
84.
0
1 1
(1) (2)
n 1 n 2
1 1 1 1
(3) – (4) +
n 1 n 2 n 1 n 2
1
x ( 1 x ) dx is
n
The value of
0
1 1
(1) (2)
n 1 n 2
1 1 1 1
(3) – (4) + .
n 1 n 2 n 1 n 2
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203 [ P.T.O.
Page 34
SAT-3 ( 34 )
85. y2 x y = |x|
2
(1) (2) 1
3
1 1
(3) (4)
6 3
Area enclosed between the curve y 2 x and y = |x| is
2
(1) (2) 1
3
1 1
(3) (4) .
6 3
86. | a | = 3, | b | = 4 |a + b | = 5 |a – b | =
(1) 5 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 3
If | a | = 3, | b | = 4 and | a + b | = 5 then | a – b | =
(1) 5 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 3.
x x1 y y1 z z1
87. ax + by + cz + d = 0
l m n
(1) al + bm + cn = 0 (2) a+b+c=0
a b c
(3) l+m+n=1 (4)
l m n
x x1 y y1 z z1
If line and the plane ax + by + cz + d = 0 is parallel
l m n
then
(1) al + bm + cn = 0 (2) a+b+c=0
a b c
(3) l+m+n=1 (4) .
l m n
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203
Page 35
( 35 ) SAT-3
88. 6 5
4 5
15 15
(1) (2)
26 26
5 2 4
5 1 5
(3) (4)
6 6 6
The probability of getting 5 exactly twice in 6 throws of a dice is
4 5
15 15
(1) (2)
26 26
5 2 4
5 1 5
(3) (4) .
6 6 6
89. x 2 y 2 4x 6y 11 0 ( 3, 4 )
(1) ( 0, 0 ) (2) ( 1, 1 )
(3) ( 1, 2 ) (4) ( 2, 1 )
If the one end of diameter of the circle x 2 y 2 4x 6y 11 0 is ( 3, 4 ) then
other end will be
(1) ( 0, 0 ) (2) ( 1, 1 )
(3) ( 1, 2 ) (4) ( 2, 1 ).
90. xi 2 100 , n = 5 xi 20 =
(1) 16 (2) 4
(3) 8 (4) 2
If xi 2 100 , n = 5 and xi 20 then variance =
(1) 16 (2) 4
(3) 8 (4) 2.
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203 [ P.T.O.
Page 36
SAT-3 ( 36 )
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203
Page 37
( 37 ) SAT-3
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203 [ P.T.O.
Page 38
SAT-3 ( 38 )
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203
Page 39
( 39 ) SAT-3
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /
STSE/15 – SAT–1203 1203 [ P.T.O.