NBSE Class 10 Question Paper 2025 All Subjects

Total number of printed pages: 7 NB-T/E/1

2025
ENGLISH
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 18 questions, divided into four sections A, B, C & D.
iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct question
number in your answer sheet to indicate the option(s) being attempted.
iv) Alternate question for the visually impaired has been provided in question no.13.ONLY
the visually impaired are to attempt this alternate question.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left
side.
SECTION-A (Literature)
Answer the following questions:
1. Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given: 1x3=3
(a) The rumours were confirmed when Morusa’s relatives came to ask for her hand
and they were readily accepted. What are the ‘rumours’ mentioned in this line?
A. Mehouviü accepted all marriage proposals.
B. Mehouviü will be feasting her friends.
C. Morusa could possibly become her suitor.
D. Morusa was a famous warrior.
i. Only A ii. Only C
iii.Both A and C iv. Both A and D
(b) Gandhiji’s friend was worried that with all the readings on vegetarianism,
Gandhiji might become a _________.
i. crank ii. vegetarian
iii. gentleman iv. wealthy person
(c) The poem,__________ was a source of inspiration to Nelson Mandela during
his years in prison.
i. Daffodils ii. Ode to Liberty
iii. O Captain! My Captain! iv. Invictus

2. Explain what is meant by ‘balancing black aspiration with white fears’. (Invictus) 3

3. How did Morusa realize that he had unknowingly killed his own beloved?
Or 3
What is the ‘infatuation’ that Gandhiji says lasted for about three months?
4. A trophy is a prized possession and makes its owner proud. Would you consider the
possession of a head, a trophy? Why? Why not? Give reasons. (Mehouviü and
Morusa)
Or 5
Macbeth visited the witches a second time after the death of Duncan. What did they
tell him? How did he feel after he heard the prophecies?

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5. Answer either 5(i) or 5 (ii) or 5 (iii) 5
(i) Read the lines and answer the questions that follow:
No head from the leaf-fringed sill
Leaned over and looked into his grey eyes
Where he stood perplexed and still.
But only a host of phantom listeners
That dwelt in the lone house then
Stood listening in the quiet of the moonlight
To that voice from the world of men:
Stood thronging the faint moonbeams on the dark stair,
That goes down to the empty hall,
Hearkening in an air stirred and shaken
By the lonely Traveller’s call.
(a) Why are the eyes of the traveller described as grey? (1)
(b) ‘voice from the world of men’. Whose voice is it? How is it significant? (2)
(c) Why was he perplexed and still? (2)

(ii) Give the summary of the poem, ‘Jina and Etiben’. (5)

(iii) (a) What is the main theme of the poem, ‘Death the Leveller’ by James Shirley?
Or (5)
(b) Describe the setting of the poem, ‘The Windhover’.
6. ‘I won’t stop him’ says he, ‘but let you not be afraid. Herself does be saying prayers
half through the night, and the Almighty God won’t leave her destitute’ says he, ‘with
no son living’.
(i) Who is ‘he’ referred to here? 1
(ii) Why did ‘he’ refuse to stop Bartley from going to the Galway fair? 2
7. Was it possible that Michael pushed Bartley off the rocks? Support your answer with
logical reasoning.
Or 3
How does Maurya know that they would soon have bad news?
SECTION - B (Reading)
8. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
(1)Once upon a time, in a quaint little village nestled in a picturesque valley, there
lived a young girl named Lily. She was known for her adventurous spirit and her
deep curiosity. One sunny afternoon, while exploring the woods that bordered the
village, Lily stumbled upon a hidden clearing. In the center of this secret meadow,
she found an old oak tree with a peculiar nook. In that nook, half-buried in the earth,
was a mysterious locket, ornate and gleaming with intricate designs. Lily carefully
unearthed it, and as she held it in her hand, she felt a strange connection to this
forgotten piece of jewellery.
(2)Back in her cottage, Lily examined the locket more closely. It was made of silver
with a hint of gold, and its surface was adorned with delicate engravings of leaves
and flowers. On the front, there was an image of a crescent moon, and on the back,

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an engraving read, “To the one who seeks the truth.” The locket was sealed tightly,
and Lily couldn’t open it no matter how hard she tried.
(3)Determined to solve the mystery, Lily embarked on a quest to find someone who
could open the locket. She asked the village blacksmith, the wise old couple who
lived on the hill, and even the town’s mayor, but none of them could unlock its
secrets. Feeling a bit discouraged, Lily spent her days reading about ancient relics
and searching for clues in the library.
(4)One day, while immersed in an old book about mystical lockets, Lily came across
a passage that mentioned the existence of a “key of the heart.” It said that this key
could open the most stubborn of locks, but it was hidden within each person, waiting
to be discovered. This newfound knowledge gave Lily a renewed sense of hope and
determination.
(5)The next morning, Lily decided to visit the village’s recluse, an elderly woman
rumoured to have deep knowledge of the heart. The recluse lived in a remote cottage
surrounded by a lush garden. Lily knocked on the door and explained her quest. The
old woman listened attentively and finally agreed to help. She told Lily that the key
to opening the locket was hidden within her heart and that she needed to meditate on
her truest desires and intentions.
(6)Lily followed the recluse’s advice, sitting beneath the ancient oak tree where she
had found the locket. She closed her eyes, focused on her heart’s deepest desires,
and as she did, she felt the locket warming in her hand. When she opened her eyes,
she found the locket had sprung open, revealing a tiny, folded parchment inside.
With trembling hands, she carefully unfolded it and read the message: “The truth
lies in the journey, not the destination”. The mystery of the locket was solved, but
Lily realized that the real treasure was the journey of self-discovery she had
undertaken. She understood that her quest had led her to understand her heart’s
desires and the power of her own determination.
(i) Answer the following questions:
(a) What did Lily find in the nook? 1
(b) Whom did Lily approach in order to open to locket? 2
(c) What is the treasure of the locket? 2
(ii) Answer the questions given below as directed: 1x3=3
(a) When she opened her eyes, she found the locket had sprung open,
revealing a tiny, folded parchment inside. Which of the following is a
synonym of the underlined word in the given context? (Para-6)
i. intricate designs ii. a stiff written material
iii. parcel iv.carving on a flat rock
(b) What was engraved on the locket? (Para-2)
i. Leaves and flowers ii. Image of a crescent moon
iii.To the one who seeks the truth iv. all of the above
(c) The _________ finally helped Lily to open the locket. (Para -5)
A. village blacksmith B. Mayor
C. recluse D. old couple
Select the correct option.
i.Only A ii. Only B
iii.Only C iv. Only A and D

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9. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
(1)Arundhati Roy was born on 24 November 1961 at Shillong, Meghalaya, India. She
was educated at an informal school, Corpus Christi set up by her mother. Later, she
spent a few years in a Boarding School in Kerala. She moved to Delhi at sixteen
and started living a bohemian life. She lived in a hut in a slum in Ferozshah Kotla
for some time and made a living by selling empty beer bottles and by teaching
aerobics. She studied architecture in the Delhi School of Architecture but did not
complete a degree.
(2)Arundhati Roy achieved international fame in 1997 with her debut novel, ‘The
God of small things’, which not only garnered large advances from publishers but
also earned her the prestigious Booker Prize. ‘The God of small things’ is based on
Roy’s childhood experiences in Kerala, where major religions such as Christianity,
Hinduism, Islam and Judaism coexist with ideologies such as Marxism. The
inspiration for the novel was an image that came to her and that became the central
scene of the novel: ‘the image of this sky blue plymouth stuck at the railroad
crossing with the twins (Rahel and Estha) inside and this Marxist procession raging
around it’.
(3)She has also been an architect, a scriptwriter, an actress, and a journalist and is now
well known as an essayist, a forceful speaker, a social activist and a feminist. Her
writings are published worldwide, and her speeches at international forums on
important issues such as the war in Afghanistan and in Iraq, the environment, big
dams, religious fanaticism, and nuclear weapons have made her an influential
spokesperson for the world outside Europe and America.
(4)Arundhati Roy believes that there is no essential difference between fiction and
non-fiction, as far as she is concerned, they are two ways of telling stories. The
thoroughness of her research, the clarity of her expression, the precision of her
language , the conviction with which she articulates her views, and above all, the
courage of her convictions are remarkable. Adding to her many accolades, Roy was
awarded the PEN Pinter Prize in 2024 for her continuous effort in voicing out her
thoughts and telling ‘urgent stories of injustice with wit and beauty’.
(i) Answer the following questions:
(a) How did Arundhati Roy survive as a teenager living in Delhi? 1
(b) What was the award winning novel, ‘The God of small things’ about? 2
(c) What are some of the issues Roy talks about as an influential
spokesperson? 2
(ii) Answer the questions given below as directed: 1x3=3
(a) Roy, besides being known as a writer and speaker had also worked as
___________. (Paragraph- 3)
A. Actress B. Journalist
C. Anchor D. Developer
i. Only A ii. Only B
iii. Both A and B iv. Both C and D
(b) The conviction with which she articulates her views. Which of the
following is the correct antonym of the word, ‘articulate’? (Paragraph 4)
i. ineloquent ii. coherent
iii. communicative iv. intelligible

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(c) Roy was recently awarded with the ___________.(Paragraph 4)
i. Booker Prize ii. Sahitya Akademi Award
iii. Sydney Peace Prize iv. PEN Pinter Prize

10. Read the poem carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Wandering Singers
Where the voice of the wind calls our wandering feet,
Through echoing forest and echoing street,
With lutes in our hands ever-singing we roam,
All men are our kindred, the world is our home.
Our lays are of cities whose lustre is shed,
The laughter and beauty of women long dead;
The sword of old battles, the crown of old kings,
And happy and simple and sorrowful things.
What hope shall we gather, what dreams shall we sow?
Where the wind calls our wandering footsteps we go.
No love bids us tarry, no joy bids us wait:
The voice of the wind is the voice of our fate. (Sarojini Naidu)

(i) Choose the correct rhyme scheme of the poem. 1
a. abbc b. aabb
c. abcc d. abab

(ii) Fill in the blanks to complete the summary of the poem: ½x6=3
The poem is about the band of folk singers who _______ from town to town and from
village to village to spread the message of love through their _______. They roam
around various places with _______ in their hands. To them, all men are their relatives
and the world is their _______. They sing about the beauty and laughter of women,
the ancient kings and battles, which are now dead. They also sing about happy, simple
and ______ things. No love can make them go slow or no joy can make them to wait.
The voice of the_______is the voice of their life and also their destiny.
SECTION -C (Writing)
11. Answer any one of the following in about 60-80 words: 4
a. You are Grace, the Secretary of the Music and Dance Club of Green Valley School,
Tuensang. Write a notice for the school notice board to inform students about the
upcoming Musical Night to be held at your school. Give all necessary details.
Or
b. You received an email from your mother who is worried about your health as you
have been away at boarding school for almost two months and have not
communicated with them. Write down the email that you received.

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12. Write a paragraph in about 60-80 words on , ‘Effects of climate change’ using the
inputs given: 4

Changes in timing of seasonal event and weather-glaciers retreat- changes in
agricultural production- forestry- change in quality of air- food –water-decrease in
water resources- change in eco system-ecological imbalance

13. Based on the visual input given below, write on “Internet addiction ” in about 100-
150 words: 5

Alternate question only for the visually impaired students: ONLY the visually
impaired are to attempt this alternate question. (5)
Based on the inputs given below, write on ‘Value of time’ in about 100-150 words.

Time is precious-cannot be reversed-waits for no one-should not waste-spend it
doing something useful-important for everyone-set a time limit-disciplined life-
pursue dreams and achieve our goals

14. Answer any one of the following in about 200 words: 7
a. You are Senti, the school captain of Star High School, Mokokchung. Write a letter
to the Principal of your school on behalf of the Class X students seeking
permission to visit the newly opened Art Exhibition Museum in Kohima, as part of
your school’s co-curricular activities.
Or
b. Write an article in about 200 words on the topic, ‘The importance of Tourism to
boost the economy in Nagaland.’

SECTION- D (Grammar)

15. Rewrite the given sentences as directed in the brackets: 1x5=5
(a) I found this pen in the library. Is this ________?
(Fill in the blank with the correct possessive pronoun)
(b) I play the Cello.
(State whether the underlined word is a transitive or an intransitive verb)
(c) The child is sleeping soundly on the sofa.
(Underline the phrase in the sentence)
(d) I ________ cookies yesterday.
(Complete the sentence with a finite verb)
(e) We must leave early _________.
(Complete the sentence by inserting a suitable clause.)

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16. Rewrite the dialogue as reported speech: 1x4=4
(a) Kiran: Don’t play football in the park!
(b) Piyush: My parents will celebrate their 25th Wedding Anniversary next month.
(c) Teacher: Don’t forget to complete your project work!
(d) Aman(to you): What are you reading?

17. Change the voice: 1x3=3
(a) I am looked after by my grandmother.
(b) The victims of the landslide were rescued by the army.
(c) We buy and sell properties here.

18. Rewrite the following sentences using zero conditional clauses: 1x3=3
(a) Ram/go out in rain /get wet
(b) Mix salt in water /it/dissolve
(c) Children play regularly/remain healthy

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Total number of printed pages : 7 NB-T/SS/1
2025
SOCIAL SCIENCES
Full marks : 80 Time : 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 19 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
v) Alternate questions for the visually impaired has been provided in question nos.
1c and 15. ONLY the visually impaired are to attempt this alternate questions.
vi) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option
being attempted.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.

1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives :

(a) Socially and politically dominant class in Europe during the mid-eighteenth
century was 1
(i) the nobility (ii) the landed aristocracy
(iii) the church (iv) the absolute monarchs

(b) Arrange the following events in chronological order 1
I. The Geneva Conference
II. The Scholars Revolt
III. Proclamation of the Socialist Republic of Vietnam
IV. Bombing of Hiroshima and Nagasaki

Options:
(i) I, IV, III, II (ii) IV, II, I, III
(iii) II, IV, I, III (iv) III, II, IV, I

(c) This Movement was initiated as a protest against the salt tax imposed by
the British Government. Identify the event 1

(i) Ahmedabad Satyagraha (ii) Champaran Satyagraha
(iii) Kheda Campaign (iv) Dandi March

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Note : This question is in lieu of Q 1.(c) for visually impaired candidates only
(c) The leader of the peasants in the Gudem Hills of Andhra Pradesh was (1)
(i) Baba Ramchandra (ii) Venkata Raju
(iii) Alluri Sitaram Raju (iv) Motilal Nehru

(d) Under the Bretton Woods, which of the following systems were established
to regulate the International Monetary System? 1
I. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
II. Multinational Corporations (MNCs)
III. The United Nations
IV. International Monetary Fund (IMF)

Options:
(i) I and IV (ii) II and III
(iii) I and III (iv) II and IV

(e) Easter asked Sunday to guess the name of the crop: She provided the following
Geographical conditions. 1
 it grows in well-drained old alluvial soil
 temperature between 210 C to 270C
 140 frost-free days
(i) maize (ii) rice
(iii) millets (iv) gram

(f) A rough drawing of an area based on memory and field observations not
based on scale is called a 1
(i) plan (ii) atlas
(iii) sketch (iv) map

(g) Under which list does the subjects Trade Unions and Adulteration fall? 1
(i) State List (ii) Central List
(iii) Concurrent List (iv) Union List

(h) What kind of equality is found in all democracies? 1
(i) Social equality (ii) Economic equality
(iii) Political equality (iv) Gender equality

(i) A village is improving access to clean water, education, and healthcare
while promoting organic farming and biodiversity conservation. What
type of development approach is the village adopting? 1
(i) Short-term development (ii) Isolated development
(iii) Traditional development (iv) Sustainable development

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(j) The circulation of the entire currency ( notes + coins) is the responsibility
of 1
(i) CBI (ii) RBI
(iii) SBI (iv) UBI

(k) Services of teachers, doctors, lawyers etc. are included in the 1
(i) primary sector (ii) secondary sector
(iii) tertiary sector (iv) all of these

(l) Which of the following is not an activity of organized sector? 1
(i) Teacher taking a class in Kendriya Vidyalaya
(ii) A nurse working in a government hospital
(iii) A clerk working in the post office
(iv) A farmer irrigating his field

(m) When was the Consumer welfare Fund created in India? 1
(i) 1992 (ii) 1986
(iii) 1955 (iv) 1937

(n) The process in which the quality of a food substance is lowered through
the addition of another substance is called 1
(i) mixing two substances (ii) adulteration
(iii) sub-standard quality (iv) duplicate articles

(o) The first missionary to the Nagas was 1
(i) Rev. Nathan Brown (ii) Rev. O. T. Cutter
(iii) Rev. E.W. Clark (iv) Rev. Miles Bronson

(p) Which crop of Nagaland hold the distinction of being the first to be
awarded the GI registration? 1
(i) Naga tree tomato
(ii) Naga cucumber
(iii) Naga king chilli or Naga mircha
(iv) Naga cabbage

Answer the questions in about 20-30 words :

2. Mention any two measures taken by the French to help in developing
the economy of its colony in Indochina. 2

3. List any two features of Multinational Corporations (MNCs). 2

4.a. State two benefits of rainwater harvesting.
Or 2
b. Write two advantages of airways.

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5.a. What is the meaning of patriarchal society?
Or 2
b. Mention two major objectives of a federal government.
6. Differentiate between a ruling party and an opposition party. 2
7. Give two reasons why democracy is considered a better form of
government. 2
8.a. State two ways in which good health contributes to economic
development. 2
Or
b. What is ‘Consumers International’? When did the United Nations adopted the
UN Guidelines for Consumer Protection? (1+1=2)
9. Mention any two branches of horticulture in Nagaland. 2
Answer the questions in about 50-70 words:
10.a. What is commercial farming? Mention three characteristics of commercial
farming. 1+3=4
Or
b. Why is the development of manufacturing industries considered a measure
for assessing the economic strength of a country? (4)
11.a. Describe the influence of politics on caste system.
Or 4
b. Describe any four measures taken to decentralize power in India.

12.a. What are the characteristics of a political party?
Or 4
b. Explain the factors that sustain democracy in India.

13. Read the source/passage given below and answer the following questions
that follows:
Influence of Culture on Nationalism
Culture plays a pivotal role in shaping nationalism. Cultural symbols,
rituals, and traditions serve as powerful tools for cultivating nationalism. For
instance, national holidays, such as Independence Day or Republic Day, are
occasions where communities come together to celebrate their shared heritage
and commemorate significant historical events. These rituals not only reinforce
a sense of belonging but also instill pride and unity among citizens. Moreover,
cultural narratives and myths contribute significantly to the construction of
national identity. Historical narratives, folklore, and legends often portray a
glorified version of the nation’s past, emphasizing heroic deeds and sacrifices
made by ancestors. These narratives not only evoke a sense of pride but also
create a collective memory that binds individuals together as part of a shared

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historical continuum. However, while culture can be a unifying force, it can
also be a source of division and conflict within nations. Cultural diversity
within a nation can sometimes lead to tensions between different ethnic,
linguistic, or religious groups vying for recognition and representation. In such
instances, competing cultural identities may challenge the notion of a singular
national identity, leading to conflicts over power, resources and representation.
In conclusion, culture exerts a profound influence on nationalism by providing
the foundation upon which national identities are constructed and sustained.

Questions:
i) Mention one occasion where communities come together to
commemorate significant historical events. 1
ii) What do historical narratives, folklore, and legends often portray? 1
iii) How can culture be a source of division and conflict within nations? 2

14. Read the source/passage given below and answer the following questions
that follows:
Consumer Awareness
Consumer awareness is a fundamental aspect of modern societies,
crucial for safeguarding the rights and interests of individuals in the market
place. It refers to the level of understanding and knowledge that consumers
possess regarding their rights, responsibilities, and choices as buyers of goods
and services. In today’s complex and dynamic global economy, where
consumers are bombarded with a myriad of products and advertisements, being
informed and vigilant is more important than ever. At its core, consumer
awareness empowers individuals to make informed decisions about the
products and services they purchase. This includes understanding factors such
as product quality, safety, pricing, and the credibility of the companies they
engage with. By being aware of their rights, consumers can demand
transparency and accountability from businesses, thereby fostering fair
competition and driving improvements in product standards and customer
service. One of the key components of consumer awareness is knowledge about
consumer rights and legal protections. Laws and regulations exist in most
countries to protect consumers from deceptive practices, fraud, and
exploitation. These include laws governing product labeling, advertising
standards, warranties, and consumer contracts. Awareness of these rights
enables consumers to assert their legal protections when necessary and seek
recourse in cases of unfair or unlawful treatment. Education and information
dissemination are key strategies for promoting consumer awareness.
Government, consumer advocacy groups and non-profit organizations plays
important roles in providing resources, conducting consumer education
campaigns and advocating for policies that protect consumer rights.
Questions:
i) How does consumer awareness empower individuals to make
informed decisions? 2

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ii) What are the key strategies for promoting consumer rights? 1
iii) Give examples of laws to protect consumers from deceptive
practices, fraud and exploitation. 1

15. On the given political map of India, four features A, B, C, D have been
indicated. Identify these features with the help of the information mentioned
below and write their correct names against the given letters. 4
Red and Yellow soil
Mumbai High Oil field
Major wheat producing area
Paradip sea port

Note : The following questions are for visually impaired candidates only in lieu
of Q 15.
i) What is a dam? (1)
ii) What is a natural gas? (1)
iii) Name two rabi crops. (1)
iv) Where is the deepest land locked port in India? (1)

Answer the questions in about 80-100 words:

16.a. The period between 1830-1848 is termed as the ‘Age of Revolutions’. Elucidate.
Or 6
b. Describe the main features of the Cabinet Mission Plan.

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17.a. Describe the importance of coal as a source of energy.
Or 6
b. State six reasons why road transport is more useful than rail transport
in India.

18.a. Describe the evolution of money as a medium of exchange.
Or 6
b. Explain how public sector contributes in the economic development of
a country.

19.a. Mention any six strategies for conservation of biodiversity in Nagaland.
Or 6
b. Briefly explain any three indigenous games of Nagaland.

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Total number of printed pages: 7 NB-T/SC/1
2025
SCIENCE
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise
the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 23 questions in 4 Sections. Marks allocated to
every question are indicated against it.
iii) All questions are compulsory in 1 and 2 marks questions (Section A and B).
iv) Internal choice is given in 3 and 5 marks questions (Section C and D). A
student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
v) General choice is given in 5 marks questions. A student has to attempt only 4
questions from this Section-D.
vi) Alternate questions for the visually impaired students are provided in some
questions. Only the visually impaired students have to attempt such alternate
questions.
vii) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option
being attempted.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left
side.

SECTION – A
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives:
(i) With the increase in OH− ion concentration, the pH value will 1
(a) increase (b) decrease
(c) remain constant (d) fluctuate
(ii) The most ductile metal is 1
(a) gold (b) silver
(c) copper (d) mercury
(iii) Which of the following is the correct arrangement of the given four metals in
the decreasing order of their reactivity? 1
(a) Al>Zn>Mg>Fe (b) Mg>Al>Zn>Fe
(c) Fe>Zn>Al>Mg (d) Zn>Fe>Al>Mg
(iv) Which of the following is a saturated hydrocarbon? 1
(a) Ethane (b) Ethene
(c) Pentene (d) Pentyne
(v) The number of covalent bonds in C3H8 is 1
(a) 6 (b) 8
(c) 10 (d) 12
(vi) Cramps in our muscles during sudden activity is due to the conversion of 1
(a) pyruvate to ethanol (b) pyruvate to ATP
(c) pyruvate to lactic acid (d) glucose to pyruvate

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(vii) Growth in all organs is stimulated by the growth hormone secreted by the 1
(a) pituitary gland (b) adrenal gland
(c) pineal gland (d) hypothalamus
(viii) The plant that was used by Mendel for his experiments is 1
(a) gram (b) mustard
(c) hibiscus (d) garden pea
(ix) Which of the following can be inherited from parents to offspring? 1
(a) Driving skill (b) Knowledge
(c) Free earlobes (d) Scar
(x) An object is placed between F1and 2F1 of a convex lens, the image will be
formed 1
(a) at F2 (b) at 2F2
(c) beyond 2F2 (d) between F2 and 2F2
(xi) The function of iris in the human eye is to 1
(a) control the size of the pupil
(b) adjust the focal length of the eye lens
(c) control the amount of light entering the eye
(d) detect and convert light into electrical signal
(xii) The V-I graph for a nichrome wire which correctly depicts Ohm’s Law is 1

Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
According to Ohm’s law, the potential difference across the ends of a given
metallic wire in an electric circuit is (1)
(a) directly proportional to the time of flow of current
(b) directly proportional to the current flowing through it
(c) inversely proportional to the time of flow of current
(d) inversely proportional to the current flowing through it
(xiii) If the current flows from North to South in a straight conductor, the direction
of the magnetic field line will be 1
(a) clock wise (b) anti-clock wise
(c) south to north (d) north to south

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(xiv) In 1987, an agreement was formulated by the United Nations Environmental
Programme (UNEP) to freeze the population of ‘X’ to prevent depletion of ‘Y’.
The ‘X’ and ‘Y’ referred here are respectively 1
(a) ozone and CFC’s (b) CFC’s and UV rays
(c) CFC’s and ozone (d) UV rays and CFC’s
(xv) The phenomenon in which non-biodegradable pesticide get accumulated
progressively at each tropic level is known as 1
(a) pollution (b) biogenesis
(c) biological magnification (d) biodegradation

SECTION - B
Answer the following questions in about 20-30 words:
2. What is a skeletal chemical equation? Why is it necessary to balance
chemical equations? 2

3. Write two advantages of using detergents as cleansing agents over soaps. 2

4. What are the ways in which water is transported in plants? 2

5. Give two limitations of electrical impulse in transmission of information
in animal body. 2

6. What happens to the lining of uterus:
(i) after fertilization, before receiving the growing embryo?
(ii) if no fertilization occurs? 2

7. State Fleming’s left hand rule. 2

SECTION - C
Answer the following questions in about 40-60 words:
8. a. In the experimental set up shown below, white silver chloride is taken in a china
dish and kept in sunlight for some time.

-4- NB-T/SC/1
Answer the following questions based on the experiment above:
(i) What colour change is observed in the silver chloride?
(ii) What is the type of reaction that has taken place? Give reason. 1+2=3
Or
b. In the given experimental set up, when brown copper powder is heated, the
surface of the copper powder becomes black.

Answer the following questions based on the experiment above:
(i) Identify the type of reaction. Give reason.
(ii) When hydrogen gas is passed over the black copper powder, what will be
observed? (2+1=3)

Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
What is meant by rancidity? Mention two techniques to prevent rancidity.
(1+2=3)

9. a. A white solid mass is seen fixed on the fractured bone by doctors.
(i) What is the name of the white solid mass?
(ii) Write its chemical formula.
(iii) Give one more use of the white solid mass. 1×3=3
Or
b. Write the chemical equation to show how bleaching powder is produced. Give
two uses of bleaching powder. (1+2=3)

10. a. What is a homologous series? Write any two characteristic features of
homologous series.
Or 1+2=3
b. What is esterification reaction? Give two uses of esters.

-5- NB-T/SC/1
11. Label the indicated parts of the human brain. 6×½=3

Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
Write any one function each of the fore-brain, mid-brain and hind-brain.
(1×3=3)

12. Explain how the sex of a child is determined in human beings. 3

13. Bokato went on a hunting trip to his village during his summer vacation.
He tried to make fire on a hot day by using a lens on a paper.
(i) Name the type of lens he used and why?
(ii) Give one more application of this type of lens used in our daily life.
2+1=3

14. a. An object 5cm in length is placed at 20cm in front of a convex mirror of radius
of curvature 30cm. Find the position of the image, its nature and size.
Or 3
b. A concave lens has focal length of 15cm. At what distance should the object be
placed so that it forms an image at 10cm from the lens? Also, find the
magnification produced by the lens.

Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
Define reflection of light. State the two laws of reflection of light. (1+2=3)

15. Explain the following:
(i) Why is tungsten used almost exclusively for filament of electric lamps?
(ii) Why are the conductors of electric heating devices, such as bread-toasters
and electric irons, made of an alloy rather than a pure metal?
(iii) Why are copper and aluminium wires usually employed for electricity
transmission? 1×3=3

-6- NB-T/SC/1
16. a. In Lithrongla’s grandmother’s house, two lamps, one rated 100W at 220V and
the other 60W at 220V are connected in parallel to the electric main supply.
What current is drawn from the line if voltage is 220V?
Or 3
b. The electric refrigerator in Asen’s house, rated 400W operates for 8 hours/day.
What is the cost of the energy to operate it for 30 days at ₹5.60 per kWh?

Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
According to Joule’s law of heating, what are the three factors on which the
heat produced in a resistor depends? (3)

17. What is earth wire? Why is it necessary to earth metallic appliances? 1+2=3

18. Hornbill Festival of Nagaland is a major event which attracts not only domestic
tourists but also international tourists. Throngs of people flood the state during
this festival time. Reports have shown that it has raised the economy of the
state, at the same time it has contributed to environmental problems.
What three suggestions would you make to the Government of Nagaland to
solve the environmental problems? 1×3=3

SECTION - D
Answer any 4 questions from the following questions (19 to 23) in about 70-100
words:

19. With the help of a neat and labelled diagram, explain the electrolytic refining of
copper. 2+3=5

Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
What are ionic compounds? Give four properties of ionic compounds. (1+4=5)

20. a. Draw a labelled diagram of the human alimentary canal and explain ingestion
of food in mouth and digestion in stomach in human beings.
Or 2+3=5
b. Draw a labelled structure of the human heart and explain the flow of blood
through the heart.

Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
Explain the process of nutrition in human beings. (5)

21. Explain any five modes of reproduction by single organisms. 1×5=5

-7- NB-T/SC/1
22. John is studying in class X. One day, the science teacher took John’s class to
see the State Museum in Kohima. The students saw three mirrors which gave
different images of their body-
 Mirror A gave an enlarged size of the body.
 Mirror B gave the same size of the body.
 Mirror C gave a diminished size of the body.
Based on the above observations, answer the following:
(i) What type of mirror is Mirror A?
(ii) What type of mirror is Mirror B?
(iii) What type of mirror is Mirror C?
(iv) Which among the three mirrors is also used as a rear view mirror for
drivers in vehicles?
(v) Which among the three mirrors is also used by dentists? 1×5=5

23. a. Explain dispersion of white light by a glass prism with the help of a diagram.
3+2=5
Or
b. Given below is the ray diagram of a defect of vision in human beings.

(i) Identify the type of defect of vision in the above figure.
(ii) Write two causes of this defect of vision.
(iii) What type of lens is used for correction of this defect?
(iv) Draw a ray diagram to show how this defect is corrected by using the
suitable type of lens. (1+2+1+1=5)

Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
Write one cause of presbyopia. What are its two defects and how can it be
corrected? (1+2+2=5)

*******************************

Total number of printed pages : 5 NB-T/T/1

2025
TENYIDIE
Total marks: 80 Time: 3 hours

General Instructions :
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 24 main questions.
iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
iv) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option being
attempted.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.

SECTION – A (Kesi Mhaphrü)
1. Thedze phrülie di ketsokecü hako kelashülie:
We u kelhou nu keshürho ha se morosuo phre. Themiae shükeiraka,
kishükinyi kekra se lhou ketheguo balie vi derei puoe keshürho süko se khrülieya
mo. Darubabumia ki keshürho chathako kekhruohilie vi derei keshürho ha
mhanyamhara kemhie zo di ketsükezalie lho tsiu khrükelie vie mo. Mia puoe puo
shürho rüguo mu se menuo bakelie geinu shürho balietuo.
Keshürho ha kepenuopfü khapie u ketsü puo. U shürho ha u chü u mo mu u
kele kemedoko pete bopfü ba. U shürho bu puotou balieketuoe, we kecüca cükecü-
umo la se morokesuo kecücako, u chü u mo kezakecü,kemesa pie u zho chükecü,
rülei mu ze menuokelie. We suokelie ki kechüki nu vo u meho di kishükinyi
pepakewa ze nu u shürho ha u kinyi zo ükecü silieya. Mesakecüe u shürho la mha
kemeyietho puo zo. Teisonhie dzürülukecü, mhacümhakriekecü mhodzü u dzie
meteikecü, khunhie va kenie uhu kezhükecü, teisonhie u pfhenei valikecü hako se u
zho chülie morosuo.
Kishükinyi kekra kenguse ba shierei kechükenyü kere silie lho keprei u ki
kevor nhie süko mhatho kemo chütaya. Themiae shürho ba ro puo nei baya, shürho
di u kele puotoukecü nunu mha kevi rhü mu chüketuo sie mha kevi chüshülie vi.
Nyi mu rüü di lhou u theguo chü zo mo rei thiethie va tsopfhü mo di shürho keba
sie kedithede thenou rüü mu ketheguo shi! Themia kekra keshürho ca kemeyie silie
mo di u ca u krie nu keyiekewa nyi tsiu ketheguolie mu ketheguo sa nyünyü, nyilie
mu nyi sa nyünyü idi kemehoukemengu-u bu u kelhou pevokewa nyi phite. We u
thuo u la kevi le di keshürhoe themianuo la puoma rethor ücü si di u shürho se
menuolie morosuo kekreilamonyü keshürhoe u kinyi zo. Khunhie theruokesuo
hieshiehieruo puo u ki kevor ze mhale meheimelozhü rei u shürho tuo mota tse
mhapuorei chülie suotatuo mu mha pete le u dzükezei chü vortalie vi.
Diecako donu puotou-u kedapie thushülie:
a. U kelhou nu kedipuo se morosuo phre ga? 1
(i) Keshürho (iii) Kishükinyi

-2- NB-T/T/1
(ii) Shükeiraka (iv) Kechükenyü
b. Suomia ki keshürho chatha kekhruohilie vi ga? 1
(i) Kepethamia (iii) Phichümia
(ii) U krü (iv) Darubabumia
c. Keshürho-e u _____ zo. 1
(i) Kenei (iii) Kevi
(ii) Kinyi (iv) Theguo
d. U shürho-e hau sa pu ba. 1
(i) U ki u lie (iii) U kele kemedo
(ii) U mhanyamhara (iv) U pfhe u nei
e. _____ kelie geinu shürho balieya. 1
(i) Mhanyi (iii) Mhajü
(ii) Mesakelie (iv) Mhasi
f. Dzükezei kepetsou thushülie. 1
(i) Ketheguo (iii) Shürho
(ii) Ziekecü (iv) Dzükezie
g. Thedze nu cayieu thushülie. U shürho tuo mota tse kimhie votatuo üsi ga? 1+1=2
h. Themia kekra kimhie di u kelhou pevowaya ga? 1+1=2
SECTION – B (Thedze Kezo)
2. Hanie puo (1) kedapie dieca krie puo nunu krie di hiepengou (100 – 150) mese nu
thushülie.
a. Noe n rüna nu leshükephrünuoko krotho nu rüzhütsatie keseu mu süla n rüna
rüzhünya tsopfhükeba la sorkari kitsa rüzhütsatie kezhau ki rüzhü nya huo kesepie
kephrünuoko khruohishünukecü kecha dzeyie puo thushülie. 6

Moro

b. N leshüki nu Tenyidie chükehieketuo la kehou puo kesekeshü mhathochie puo
pebalie. Süla kimhie di pebalie shiü rükhruo mhathu thushülie.

3. Hanie puo (1) kedapie dieca hiepengou (50) mese nunu thushülie.
a. Noe Nagamia kephrünuoko krotho-u nu kehoukrüta (President) chü ba. Krotho
pesiekelie teicie hiepengou (50) tseilieketa nyiu nu kephrünuoko bu vor kepekro
phreshü nu kethezhokecü phreikiepuo thupie kezashülie. 4
Moro
b. Khrietho kenie tsie teiu nu mobile fon puo kevi mu puo kesuo dze kerüchü keba
rüchü die puo thushülie.

SECTION – C (Diezho mu Thuyie)
4. Die puotou-u kedapie thushülie: 1x5=5
(a) Vor ketuo dze pesikeshü-
(i) puya (iii) puzhie
(ii) putuo (iv) puwa

-3- NB-T/T/1
(b) Tenyidie nu dietho kepe kitsuo ba ga?
(i) 3 (iii) 5
(ii) 4 (iv) 6

(c) Mhapuo sedeketuo thashüyakezhau liro-
(i) tsa (iii) nu
(ii) ra (iv) vü

(d) No mia vie rügu laluo _____?
(i) memu (iii) shi
(ii) ya (iv) ro

(e) Puo vor di tuote. Dielou kiu diekhe nu ba ga?
(i) Vor (iii) Di
(ii) Tuote (iv) Puo

5. Dieca ‘we’ hau se puoca kenyi diecha mu diemei diecha puopuo chüshülie.
1+1=2
6. Zatsekhu ⅓ hau dieca nu thushülie. 1

7. Dieca puokru tou-u pie rhiephi (-) kesedo thashülie. 1
_________ nha liecü tuo.

8. Diesou hako puoca thushülie.
a. Pepupelou 1
b. U so u mia 1
c. Süsüyoyo 1

9. Diekhu mu dierozu kekrü kebako thu kemezhüshülie.
a. U melu kesuomia u se mhodzü va kekrasiaya. 1
b. Kijüthou ko zievi se ba. 1
c. Mha kesuo kramiemiata zhie. 1

10. Diecha hako thuyie chüpie Tenyidie nu khashülie. 1x5=5
a. Shut the front door please.
b. Whose book is this?
c. She did not cheat on the exam as it was the wrong thing to do.
d. Stop biting your fingernails.
e. Be quiet now!
SECTION – D (Diemvü)
11. Diecako donu puotou-u kedapie thushülie: 1x5=5

(a) Kediu mu Tsathouyo unie keze tase chatuo kitsuo nu vota ga?
(i) Thenie (iii) Kerekenie
(ii) Hiethenie (iv) Serekenie

-4- NB-T/T/1
(b) Chüterhü kenyi ki themiako suomia ketuo chatsa tuo nyüya ga?
(i) Kethepfumia (iii) Kenyimia
(ii) Kekuomia (iv) Terhü miavimia

(c) Martin Luther King kiciepuo Noble Prize ngulie ga?
(i) 1964 (iii) 1934
(ii) 1974 (iv) 1944

(d) Pu hu lholie n kezie ratsa _____ vi kesokezie.
(i) yharhayayhu (iii) yharayhayhu
(ii) yharayhayu (iv) yharhayhayhu

(e) Kemo chalie hara tuo thienyü.
(i) Kesuo we jü lhou rü huwo-o
(ii) Nha mezü rho cha meluo nu kha
(iii) Zo zhütuo mu hatsa tsurüluo
(iv) Kezha ki we kenienuo pie chü

Ketsokecü hako donu sorou (6) kedapie dieca 20 – 25 mese nunu kelashülie : 2x6=12

12. Kedipuo la kijüthou kerükrieu za pie kedieutsükerü chüwata ga?
13. Vihienuo puo zuo va nu ketuo ki kimhie tuoya üsi ga?
14. Dunant mhatho therietho-u kedipuo ga?
15. Dr. Martin Luther King themia kimhiecü puo ga? Puo kedipuo se chüta ga?
16. Kezise puo nuonuo mia kitsuo nyi ga? Supuo mezeirü khou doupie chü ga?
17. Nie pie penuo geizo nu kedipuo la puo nuo-u pie teiziepfü ze kemejüshü ga?
18. Rütsolhouü puo thuo puo pie kedipuo ze kemejüshü ga?

Ketsokecü hako donu kenie (2) kedapie dieca 40 – 50 mese nunu kelashülie : 4x2=8

19. “Tsathou, no rüna kerekenie nunu vor mu kerekenie die rei kesiu, no whi ketuo ki
thenu kezivi a kemhie huo ngu me?”
i. Kedipfü kimhie di par tsathouyo ki die hau ketsoya ga? (2)
ii. Tsathouyo thela nu kedipuo se kedipfü die kelashü ga? (2)

20. Kiüdi keziu tshü tsia ngu re seta ga? Supuoe tshü tsia khapie puo tsü ga? Kezise-e tshü
krie kitsuo thelie üsi ga? (2+1+1=4)

21. Niaki ha supuo mhatho üdi pu ga? Mu puo-e kedipuo chü sei zhü rei puo nyietaya
kemo pushü ga? Niaki geizo-u nu ükezopfüe ‘Niaki’ üse puo rhi kimhie üdi pushü ga?
(2+2=4)

-5- NB-T/T/1
Ketsokecü hako dieca 60 – 90 mese nunu kelashülie:

22. a. Thuophi di kedipuo silieya ga? Krase dzeu nunu thiedzü phichümia kelhou teiu ca
kenie se tsiedo kelhouzho kenie ze kemejüshülie. 1+4=5

Moro

b. ‘Puo kediu ze keselie moketa la lata mo, derei puo mha kezha se chü morokesuo
puo mhodzütsatie kezhü ngulie di thechü sünu ba di kechüko thekevü.’
i. Dieca hanu ‘Puo’ icüu supuo pu ba ga? (1)
ii. Puo kedipuo la kediu ze kesetuoü vor ga? (2)
iii. Puo mhatho kezha chü morosuoketa hau kedipuo pu ba shi thushülie. (2)

23. “Thevünuo puo mia sieshükewa.
Puo krü jü di mecu niaki krü
Kebayo we a kelhou mhielie.”
i. Diecha hako geizo kiu nunu se par ga? 1
ii. ‘A kelhou’ hau supuo kelhou puba ga? 1
iii. Diecha hako kedipuo ca puba shiü thushülie. 3

24. a. Nie pie penuo geizo hau thedze rhi nunu thushülie. 5
Moro
b. “Ruopfü teiso vajokewa sie
Sümia keka pu hukelie jü
Kijü hau mha üya liro
Phou hau ki la vo teigei we.”
i. Ruopfü teiso hau kedipuo pu ba ga? (1)
ii. Sümia keka icü hau suomia keka dze pu ba ga? (1)
iii. Diecha hako geizo kiu nunu se par ga? (1)
iv. Geizo diecha hako puoca vatshashülie. (2)

****************************

Total number of printed pages: 6 NB-T/A/1

2025
AO
Total marks: 80 Time : 3 hours

General Instructions :
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 22 main questions.
iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
iv) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option
being attempted.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left
side.
SHILEM – A (Rajem Latang)
1. Teküpoklen agüja alibaji junga züngang aser tasüngdangbatemji langzüang:
Moatsü tetezü Temoatsü meshiba Lijaba Tsüngrem dang temoatsü
meshia külemba benjung. Aor asoshi Moatsü mongya tematiba ka ama
metsüngareta, anembonga Lijaba dang süngjanglijang tajung jenti moajang ta
obula nunger mapang benjung monga aru. Moatsümong ya küm shia alu nung
metsüjang tabensa peroka renema yur meyitsüngküm mapang tetenzüklen monga
liasü. Iba benjung atema mapang matongdang jilia nashi-ak kibong balala nung
Arju nungertemi metsüa yua liasü aser benjong anasa süng o Tzü apok peria
bendena anogo teroknü tashi benjung yimya balala nung obula nungeri Moatsü
among.
Moatsümong mezüngnü Arju nungertemi Arju Kima süng, tzü, marok,
taki, Tzüshi aser aam teperi lepa benjung nung nüngdakba osettsüset ajak bendena
liasü. Arju kima sabang nashi-ak tepseta awazütsü yanglu. Ano Moatsü tongshi
aou tulu talang telen ajak merükmerüka nok agi jakdoker Arju kima aser tema yua
liasü.
Tanübuba nung nashi-ak bendena temetsür kidangi shi pangnem den yi
tajungtiba agüja, shir kibongi tajungba anepaluteter toktepa Arju nungertem
peladakja benjung longsotepa Arju kima shi aontemji amshia liasü. Moatsü
benjung ya Arju nungertemi telutiba shilem agia takok ngudakja liasü.
Tasemnübuba ya benjung tendi nü. Iba anogo nung Arju nunger
asangurtemi aoulaki toktepa tuteptsü. Mezüng kangteptsü aser Ar atsüteptsü. Iba
sülen zünga zünga akang tembar nokleptsü peii yanglutetba sempet agütsüteptsü
aser pei züngatsür nüknürar nem mokopong tajungtiba yanglua agütsütepa liasü.
Iba sülen pei züngatsür den kimen kidang benjung chiyong achitsü. Nikongtsütsü
yar tsüngsanga tamburtemi ken den yimdong nung longsotepa tangazüktsü aika
lanurtem dang sayua liasü.

-2- NB-T/A/1

Pezünübuba nung tamburtem pei ataba süoshi agir yimdong süa Moatsü
ken tena tsüngsanga jajatsü aser kibong palalai kimak ken dena süoshi agiba jagi
takar, sensaker aser nokinketer balala jenjang ajiteta liasü. Arju nunger yar
tsüngsanga yimdong asemdang pei züngatsüri yi tajung agüja jaja.
Pongünübuba nung zünga balalai shi aser yi anungalu Arju kidang
bendena idak nungjaki züngaren balala anepalua awazür nem agitetasa agutsü.
Teroknübuba nikongdang Arju kima mi tulu apur Moatsü ken tentepa
tebur ajak senteper yi talubosa jemtepa kazüa liasü. Iba mapang kibong tasen
akümertemi yiji anepalua agütsütsü. Ibaji temer putirtemi an tepong ka bener yim
süngkümi ao Lijaba Tsüngrem külema benjungmongji tembanga aru.
Itemi langzüang:
(a) _____ ya Moatsü benjung tendi nü ta jembir. 1
i. Mezüngnü ii. Tanünübuba
iii. Tasemnübuba iv. Teroknübuba
(b) Moatsümong ya Lijaba Tsüngrem dang kechi temoatsü meshir ? 1
i. Metsü ii. Sungjanglijang
iii. Tsük iv. Chiyongtsü
(c) Tanu putu nung Moatsü benjung _____ amonger. 1
i. ananü ii. asemnü
iii. pezünü iv. pungonü
(d) Aori takar aser sensaker _____ ajanga jenjang ajiteta liasü. 1
i. tsükjen ii. kinülumang
iii. süoshi iv. sü achiba
(e) Tebur ajak senteper Moatsü ken tentepdang _____ yiji anepalua agütsütsü. 1
i. süngpo zungai ii. kibongtasen akumertemi
iii. zungatsüri iv. Arju nungertemi
(f) Moatsümung _____ ita nung küm shia amonger. 1
i. Rongchi ii. Tsüklai
iii. Aami iv. Monupii
(g) Tanu putu aser alemli putu nung Moatsü amongba yimya koma tepila ali oren
ana nung züluang. 2
(h) Koba anogo nung Moatsü mong tembanger aser koma tatsü agi shiang. 2

SHILEM – B (Olem)
2. Agüja aliba onük aser arrla amshia ojang 100 – 150 shi nung shiti ka
züluang:
a. Na Merenla/ Merenba. Na school ka nung English Teacher inyaktsü asoshi
mapa meshia Principal dangi shiti ka züluang. 6
Mesüra
b. Ner kaket riju nung, “Sobaliba anogomong” ka ayongzüka liasü. Iba
anogomong indang ner kaket riju osang kaket nung adoktsü atema osang
agütsüba ka züluang.

-3- NB-T/A/1

3. Agüja aliba onük aser arrla amshia ana rongnung ka ojang 50 shi nung
züluang:
a. Ner kenten teloki kentenba sentong ka ayongzüka lir. Anungji iba
sentong nung adentsü asoshi ner medemertem dangi jaokba (invitation)
ka züluang. 4
Mesüra
b. Agüja aliba onük amshia sensaksem ka züluang:
Nebu nena Tsüngta nai jangraba nükjidong kechi lir iba indang
sensaksem (dialogue) ka züluang.
SHILEM – C (Orrlem)
4. Agüja alibatem nungi shitak telangzüba agüjang: 1x5=5
(a) O Jembiren koba nung _____ olen alir iba dang Timsü oyim ta ajar.
(i) Imoshi (ii) Septsü
(iii) Amukyu (iv) Tentsü
(b) Tesadang _____ aser tesadang oti agi adokba olen dang mungra ta ajar.
(i) otisem (ii) meyongja
(iii) nüngja (iv) pukhümna
(c) Tajangzük angutsü ajaki meranga inyaker.
(i) Kezi mungra (ii) Ayimlok mungra
(iii) Atentep oren (iv) Mapang mungra

(d) Taküm aliba mesüra maliba kobai maparen ka tenzüker iba dangji _____
ta ajar.
(i) salur (ii) tongnir
(iii) nendong (iv) jilok nendong

(e) Mungra telemsa kwi lir?
(i) Ana (ii) Asem
(iii) Pezü (iv) trok

5. Item kobala mapanglem nungsa dena ali anteta züluang: 1x2=2
(a) Parnoki alu mapa ajunga renemogo.
(b) Telok tuluka asenok jakdang arudagi.

6. Tongnir, salur, nendong lemdanga sayuang: 1x2=2
(a) Tiala tetsü Kohima-i teti aor.
(b) Sanenbai arem nung pongzü ka ajuru.

7. Itemi kezi mungra aser Mapang Mungra radanga züluang. 1x2=2
(a) Telok nung ojembidang kümdangtsüla.
(b) Tayoktsü süoshi aika bener arua lir.

-4- NB-T/A/1

8. Itemi rarem leplashi leni meyipang: 1x2=2
(a) Nübur ajungai na meteta lir.
(b) Teyazü osang agi alima makmakshishidaktsür.

9. Kezi oren aser Atentep oren rasaa shiang? 1+1=2

10. Ao oshi agi meyipang: 1x5=5
(a) Shut the front door please.
(b) Whose book is this?
(c) She did not cheat on the exam, as it was the wrong thing to do.
(d) Stop biting your fingernails.
(e) Be quiet now!

SHILEM - D (Otsü aser Sangro)
11. Agüja aliba nungi shitak telangzüba shimtetang: 1x5=5
(a) Nisung nem terenlok mesüra tajangzük magütsüba sobaliba dang kechi
ajar?
(i) Osettsü setren sobaliba (ii) Osettsüset masübaren
(iii) Sobaliba tamajung (iv) Sobaliba tasü

(b) _____ tetezü ki anasa mesüra ki jakdang aliba tesem dang ajar.
(i) Yimdong (ii) Kima
(iii) Yim (iv) Kiyong

(c) Aori aluyimba mapa nung koba mezüng inyaker?
(i) Azüba (ii) Alulepden
(iii) Alu achiba (iv) Alu arungba

(d) Lisem manung züluba _____ agi punger ao.
(i) Tzüsem (ii) Mopung
(iii) Tzü (iv) Aoyi

(e) ‘Achi amen’ tetezü kechi?
(i) Shishilembar
(ii) Tebu tedi
(iii) Arür amaktsü renemer atsüka ataba
(iv) kimen

Item tasüngdangbatem ojang 20 – 25 tashi nung langzüang: 2x6=12
12. Aor sobaliba kechiba tangari junger ta ashir kuli ana agi rajemjang?
13. Adianu o adianu tsüngta amshitsü awashi tapu ana züluang.
14. a. ‘Puok’ kechi dang ajar? Puokji shirnoki alemer?

-5- NB-T/A/1

Mesüra
b. Arem lushi kümzüka yutettsü atema yimden teinyaktsü tongtipang ana shiang?
15. Aenlen jajar nisung asen limai arudang koma anepalutsü tim?
16. Kechi nüngtem nung ‘Ayatai’ Sungro ya zülu?
17 a. “Aor lipok yimli putipuyang akaba kin,” iba tekong ya koba sangro nungi aser
shibai zülu?
Mesüra
b. Kechiba sangro züluri, ‘Ni Chuba Korang Asemtsü Menüngtaker’ ta ashir?
Item tasüngdangbatem ojang 40 – 50 tashi nung langzüang: 4x2=8
18. Moatsü lenpi aser tsükma lenpi koma Sentaktepa lir? Aori lenpidang chiyungtsü
koma lemsatepa achir? (2+2=4)
19 a. Shiruru aser ozüsangnu tapu balala koma wazüka ayutsü tim terasa kar
züluang?
Mesüra
b. “Chungliyimti kü Soyim,” sangro nungi merütet züluang?

Item tasüngdangbatem ojang 60 – 90 tashi nung langzüang: 3x5=15
20.a. Arem lushi wazüka yutettsü atema yimden teinyaktsü kar shiang? Arem lushi
melira kechi ataloktsü? (3+2=5)
Mesüra
b. Puti tetezü kechi? Naga nungeri Tzümar den koma libalirutsü tim? (1+4=5)

21. ‘Kika süchirtem dang taoba
Impartirtemi tushia
Konang nüngsang tali agütsür
Imrong tudendang washiteper.’
i) Iba takong kechi sangro nungi? (1)
ii) Sangro zülur tenüng shiang. (1)
iii) Agüja aliba tekong rasaa züluang. (3)

22 a. “Angji ni tiala sang
Nüngjang petidang tema
Akang Süngküm lapoker
Kü tayang molung süneptsür.”
i) Iba tekong ya koba sangro nungi? (1)
ii) Iba sangro shibai mejem? (1)
iii) Agüja aliba tekong rasaa züluang. (3)
Mesüra

-6- NB-T/A/1

b. “Ken o ajak songtepa angatetteper
Mashii ain madoker, teka mesangshir
Terr nung shinga mesamar.”
i) Koba sangro nungi? (1)
ii) Shibai zülu? (1)
iii) Ya shir indang jembir aser kechiba rateta züluang. (3)

*********************************

Total number of printed pages : 5 NB-T/S/1
2025
SÜMI (SÜTSAH)
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 22 main questions.
iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
iv) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option being
attempted.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
KOKÜPPHA – A (Ghili Kiyye)
1. Yepua keu phiju no inijü akeqo khochile tsülo:
Khaghi aniza nqo liliti küma ashou shiche pi. Ike ghulo lakhi küma asü gheu kelono
liliti no asü kügha nechepe aniza kive vekidevetsü kelo no aniza ye liliti no püthaspütsa no
küghashi ighono amulo shimo veno axuide amükhü lunike ghenguno Ayeghilo kiche
lhoxüqo hekütsü niye wuve. Ikehu liliti ghi kungu lo kichi lhoxü qo ghakütsü niye wuve.
Eno tishi vekethiu kungu lo kiche lhoxü eno Ayeghi lo kiche lhoxü aghü shinike ghenguno,
atsala lakhi kihithape qhive. Ayeghilo kiche lhoxu no ayithu eno apighi ala kümano akijeu
shino ighi, eno kungu lo kiche lhoxü no awotsa ngo alhuqu kumano akijeu shino ighie pi.
Ike, Alhuqu no awotsa vilo, ‘No no akijeu ke ghenguno nono ayithu sasü aghüshi lo,’
ipi kemu awotsa no ishi khochile alhuqu vilo pive. Ni ye ayithu no paje keke, ayithu sasü
aghü shimoe pive.
Ti ghengu no alhuqu no awotsa vilo ishi pi, tishi aye no ye iqino apighi ala sasü aghü
shino ti peikughi lo ipi. Ikemu, Awotsa no, itaghi ishi khochile, ni ye apighi ala no paje keke
sasü aghü shimo pive, Tishi aye ino iqini ipi pu apighi ala sasü aghüshi. Ike kughono alhuqu
no apighi ala shoqape aye kungu lo kiche lhoxü qono alokivishi igha, eno apighi ala no
alhuqu shoqape aye ayeghi lo kiche lhoxü qono alokivishi igha eno kungu lo kiche lhoxü
qono amlo ime ishi ae. Ashekha lo alhuqu no apighi ala yipe ikughive. Ike kungu lo kiche
lhoxüqo aphighi ala shi phuae. Agha no athithi bolo ilo ihi ke ghenguno, agha ye tsübüive.
Eno tsülichepu no ajibo lo ihike ghenguno pa ye huchuhui ve ipi. Ashekha lo ashi piyi kije
khave kethiu no ijiu ighie pi, ike aji kitila aghike tipau pe pa mükhü lo nutsü ke ghenguno
ijiu ye amükhu huchuhui ipi picheni.
Achipiu tsathi pe kimichi tsulo:
a. Khuu ngo khuu küma ashou shiche kea? 1
(i) Akha ngo Achuwo (iii) Ayothu ngo Alhuqu
(ii) Aniza ngo liliti (iv) Lhoxü ngo Awotsa
b. Khuu no khuu kive kishi kelono vekideve tsükea? 1
(i) Liliti no asü Kügha nechepe Aniza kive nekidevetsu
(ii) Aniza no liliti kive vekedeve tsu
(iii) Ayeghilo kiche lhoxü gono
(iv) Ayithu akijeu no vekidevetsu
c. Kungu lo kiche eno ayeghilo kiche lhoxü kuu shini ke a tsala kihithave kea? 1
(i) Külakishi tsala (iii) Aghü shinekeu tsala
(ii) Kimiyikini tsala (iv) Küputsa nikeu tsala

-2- NB-T/S/1

d. Kungu lo kiche lhoxü gholo kuu küma no akijeu shi ighi kea? 1
(i) Awotsa ngo Alhuqu küma (iii) Aghawu ngo Alache küma
(ii) Liliti ngo Aniza küma (iv) Ayithu ngo lhoxüqo
e. Ayeghi lo kiche gholo kuu lhoxü küma no akijeu shi ighi kea? 1
(i) Tsülichepu aphighi (iii) Awotsa ngo Alhuqu
(ii) Akaha ngo Angushuu (iv) Ayithu ngo apighi
f. Alhuqu ye atüghishi kishi awotsa vilo pikea? 1
(i) Nono akijeu ke ghenguno iqi ayithu sasü aghü shilo pi
(ii) Nono aküka kutomo ani ke ghenguno
(iii) Alhuqu no kungu lhoxü kiche ke ghenguno
(iv) Ayithu no amuqükini ke ghenguno
g. Alhuqu no kuu sasü aghü shikea? Ashekha lo khuu no aghüshi keu toluve kea? 2
h. Agha ye kushi ke ghenguno tsübui kea? Khuno ashekhau shi ighi kea? 2

KOKÜPPHA – B (Iqqikulu)
2. Atsathi 100-150 dolono yelo:
a. Noye Toka/ Vili, Sumi Literature Board lo alakhu mpeu shi akeu vilo sutsa kiphi
kaku akivishi jukide tsu peni ke. Yekili lakhi yelo. 6
Momü
b. Owu yeghikilu puhave keu ghenguno kilekughu shitsu penike zakhemi vilo pikeu
shi kiyephi lo yesulo.

3. Atsathi 50 dolono lakhi likhi yelo:
a. Okusau nokujo alu kichi mekua tsa kuputsa keu shilo. 4
Momü
b. Kukusu yelo, nono yekala (chighi) 10 lo tokulu shilu keu ghenguno okusami kusu
keu yelo. A-a, atsala eno ado kishekulu yesulo.
KOKÜPPHA – C (Tsayeh)
4. Akiyethi akilhe kili ve keu kimichi tsülo: 1x5=5
(a) Inothi pesu ______ shiva.
(i) thivekemi (ii) akithiu
(iii) akithi (iv) kithimi

(b) Ishina pesu _________ shiva.
(i) isuna (ii) inaghe
(iii) isuuna (iv) ishiuna

(c) Niye alitche _________ cheni.
(i) shiwu (ii) shiu
(iii) lowu (iv) mewu

(d) Ipu ye aghilesu lo asü ________niye wuvea.
(i) miche (ii) shepu
(iii) thaqhi (iv) gheniye

-3- NB-T/S/1

(e) Akuto ye ________ chighi lo phiani.
(i) class (ii) hekusa
(iii) kikihi (iv) yekala
5. Sutsa kutho akiqi pitsülo:
(a) Kasho papu igha ighiva. 1
(b) Anhezu no oqo ani. 1
6. Tsashi pe aje lo süvelo.
(a) kime 1
(b) pishe 1
7. Suchou pe pidelau süvelo:
(a) Aqhokigheu. 1
(b) Kikhikighi. 1
8. Ye küqü pua keu achipiu lono yevelo:
(a) Ilhou 1
(b) Mula 1

9. Atsa tuna pe atsajo mlalo:
(a) Tughachuyi 1
(b) Yetsuni tsughu 1
10. Sütsah lo pekili süve lo. 1x5=5
a. Shut the front door please.
b. Whose book is this?
c. She did not cheat on the exam as it was the wrong thing to do.
d. Stop biting your fingernails.
e. Be quiet now!

KOKÜPPHA- D (Kichitssathoh eno Apuh Assü Leshe)
11. Achipiu tsathi pe kimeve tsülo: 1x5=5
(a) ______ ye pa ampi no asho mih ipeghive ipi cheghi.
(i) Viniho Asumi (ii) Chetovi
(iii) Sakuto (iv) Kiyezu

(b) Carey nu akiniu _____ thive.
(i) John (ii) Peter
(v) Thomas (iv) George

(c) Timi ye _____ povine pi kumsuje.
(i) niqomi (ii) ni lojimi
(iii) ni lagha (iv) ninguqo
(d) O timi ______ thotsu vesulu aye.
(i) Alokughono (ii) Kusakusho
(iii) Alokivi (iv) Amlokusa

-4- NB-T/S/1

(e) Federal Government of Nagaland ye _________ lono shuphelu.
(i) Mozaqhi 22, 1950 (ii) Anighi 22, 1957
(iii) Saghiqhi 22, 1956 (iv) Lusaqhi 22, 1956

Atsathi 20 – 25 dolono khochilelo: 2x6=12
12. Kiu ghenguno timi no ilho keu ye ‘Angushuu’ pi ku cheni kea?
13. ‘Timiye nilojimi paviniepi kumsuye,
Kucho iposhuu ikujono tsha lu muthaye.
Lojimi ningu alu avelu moni che aye.’
Leshe hipau kiqi hepho tsulo.
14. ‘Kulawu ye ni thiuno kupunumi,
Ile jukimiyeni thono kutami phulu kighilu kuami hu,
Nixeu shimula kupu shenila.’
Leshe kiqi hepho tsulo.
15. Naga National Council ye kugho no hu kuthu eno tile Sumi sakiphemi khunoqono
atughümi shi kuloji kea?
16. Topuna shoxe ghile yelo.
17. a. ‘Ino putho zuhu Gholumo ikujo vehu kishito,
Launo cheju puha aye inhezu ikighi anishi saye.’
Leshe hipau akiqi hepho tsulo.
Momü
b. Tusholi ye ajoji ghawu ithulu ke thiu ye kishi wuve kea?

Atsathi 40-50 dolono khochilelo: 4x2=8
18. a. ‘Ino thoghiu no aghami sasu hughinike ke tishi ngo aghive lo.’Atsajo hipau ye
khiu no khiu vilo pi ani kea? Kiu ghenguuno pi ani keno kishekulu shi yelo.
(2+2=4)
Momü
b. Shoko totimi lakhi nuliqo je tsulo. Eno aza thive kethiu panongu ye kishive keno
yelo.
19. “Ikino showo tsukinho lazu,
She ikuwo tsukinhe inakukhu
Kiye opuno lhokha she
Akusa hi isala shitsuye.”
Leshe kiqi hepho tsulo.

Atsathi 60 - 90 dolono khochilelo :
20. a. William Carey kuxu pasu ghili akivishi yelo. 5
Momü
b. Apu asu no pikibe ighikeu lo timi ghungu ajeli khijeli ani kea? Aghungu lakhi khiwu
ghili hepho tsulo.

-5- NB-T/S/1

21. a ‘Ishe shotomi paina no iqi
Kivikhu noghami ghutu shole aye
Shole mula aye ilegho kichilo
Ratshamu nano tungu sayewo
Cheileqho shole aye shole luve ala.’
i. Shotomi paina ye kiu pi ani kea? 1
ii. Khuuno ghami ghutu shole kea? 1
iii. Kiu ghengungo chieleqho che kea? 1
iv. Tungu kiqi ye kiu kea? 1
v. Kiu gheguno shole luve kea? 1
Momü
b. Muthugha eno putupuno gha ghili yelo. (5)

22. “O ishe! Ishi lomo huye
Ghoyino asu ghilo iku igha kua hu
Tiye nino anachumi kughutsa hu toi,
Ti ini ilosuqhiyi atsukuzu khelho ghi hu ani.”
i. Khuno lomo hu kea? 1
ii. Asughilo kiqi ye kiu kea? 1
iii. Anachumi kughutsa ye kiu pi ani kea? 1
iv. Kiu ini keu tsa pi ani kea? 1
v. Kiu leshe lo ani kea? 1

****************************

Total number of printed pages : 5 NB-T/L/1
2025
LOTHA
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours

General Instructions :
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 22 main questions.
iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
iv) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option being
attempted.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.

SECTION - A ( Ekhao)
1. Motsü shi khae zesi oküpoe engao jiang janlana:
Benkadeni na potsow na emhoktsüngo ekümrümo elümoto liyingcho. Hojiang
yulo Tragopan woro jo limha lo opyonori mmhontso ekümrüm olan motsünga. Limha nken
topvü lo woro olan olan vanra. Liphong akvü lo woro echümporo vanala osi hoji woro ji
onte liphong woro to ejanala. Tita jo ezehüngthav woro motsünga osi woro shi jo India na
ete liphong woro to ejanala. Ete Naga meta lo ha woro thanpo jiang lona echümporo tssoa
woro motsünga Tragopan to tsa vana. Tragopan shijo ete Nagaland yasaron na ete meta
(State) woro tssotokala.
Ete metae ha woro elümoto vana, tokhatola Tragopan shijo thanpo woro jiang
lona elümoto opyon ori mmhonkata. Woro shi ete Naga meta Jolowoe Manipur tona Burma
to erü shiang lo tai na hungala. Tragopan shi jo ete Naga meta esüa elüm ha nlümkhüng
etssük ha tsükshia ntssük khüng to tvü meta lo vanala. Tragopan hanpong jo emen, kvüri
tojo rakia, osi omhyik jo ehüm na nkonzhücho. Osi evüngi ohüm jiang jo opyon elümoto
mmhona. Tragopan hankyu jo hanpong jiang esüa tata opyonori nmhon. Thanpo woro tita,
mongshiro osi Rüjüng shiang esüa jo meta topvü lo vanra, tokhatola Tragopan woro shi jo
meta topvü lo nhungala. Onte etsoyu jo tssüngthilonpen, oraori osi lomosüvo to shiang
tsoala. Rotssoroni ha thanpo woro jiang lona elümoto matarokata rotssoroniala. Onte na
nzyua lo oro motsünga tona eni to tai tssoala. Oro jiang kümchev ha elümoto khünga, hoji
tsükona woro shi jo ntsena. Limha lo ovüngoto tssoa Nagaland meta lona Tragopan woro
shi ji vüngpheni na rotssoroni dentokcho. Shi woro shi vüngpheni na rotssoronitoko ji
tsükona limhatsü na e thüngala. Woro shi na nyazüngi na phanthi e ngahüngthav khüala.
Ombo na vonlan mezhü yuta echümpo echümpo lo khüala. Nzazüngi onte na ovon elumoto
ntssana ekhüo ji tsükona ekümrümo enhyano yipta evamo jiang nthechiala. Onte na elani
elümoto sülana yipala. Shi yichak jo woro ji thojürhyumhena osi nchümri eli osi otsükoso
mmhom woro to zechetala. Woro shi na onte tsüko ohüm opyon mmhomo shi ji elümoto
ntangshonala. Ete na Tragopan shi esüa woro thanpo opyonori mmhom nhüngala.
Tragopan woro shi vüngpheni na rotssoronitokvü tsükona, rotssoroniphen UK
yansasa, Nagaland yansasa tona limhatsü pheasant Association to nzotssoe June 1983 lona
London lo rotssoroniphen nsüngrüthaka.

-2- NB-T/L/1

Engao shiang janlana:
a. Woro shi jo nzyua lo oro kvüta tssoala? 1
(i) Eni ethüm (iii) Motsünga, ethüm
(ii) Ethüm mezhü (iv) Motsünga, eni
b. Yitongran shilo yitsüng ‘ndangshonala’ shi esütao yitsüng ji jo; 1
(i) Ntssana (iii) Matarokatala
(ii) Nkümnfüala (iv) Nthechiala
c. Tragopan woro shi na vonlan kvüta yuta echümpo echümpo lo khüala? 1
(i) Eni (iii) Mezhü
(ii) Ethüm (iv) Mongo
d. India na _____ ji liphong woro to ejanala. 1
(i) Tragopan (iii) Rüjüng
(ii) Tita (iv) Kyashak
e. Tragopan woro shi vüngpheni na rotssoronitoko ji tsükona limhatsü na _____ meta
thüngala. 1
(i) Mizoram (iii) Nagaland
(ii) Manipur (iv) Kerela
f. Tragopan woro jo opyon olan kvüta vana? 1
(i) 3 (iii) 5
(ii) 4 (iv) 6
g. Nagaland yansaron na Tragopan woro shi rotssoronitokvü tsükona ntio madang
khitaka? 2
h. Yitsüng shiang nkhümao kümthoka: 1+1=2
(i) Rakzhüa (ii) Hanpong

SECTION – B (Eramo)
2. Oküpoe pi elio shiang oni lo motsünga ethüngi, yitsüng 100 -150 harüma na erana:
a. Ni na vana evamo yantsüro (Town) jilo zotoro yakchia olani tssatssorükhü (Meyansüyan)
elumoto kyongkata lia evamo ji tanglanchi/tangthechiv tsükona Deputy Commissioner
thüngi yiyenta kako erana.
Mekana 6
b. Nino khaphenki motsünga lo ekhae ekhüng jilo esopvü tssocho. Ni na Joren 10 (class
10) ekhae nonghori jiang sosi meta zeta yentsata wotasi eyio ji kvüto wotasi yitacho
sana nte khaphenki yithenkako ji lo yirüa (report) erani theta.

3. Oküpoe pi elio shiang oni lo motsünga ethüngi, yitsüng 50 harüma na erana :
a. Nte khaphenki ji benkasi nzyu tinyan bena evamo ji tsükona shona jubilee khitavsa
evamo ji tsükona nte pvüopoang thüngi etsa kako erana.
Mekana 4
b. Ekhiranta:
Ni tona ni shom to yutalo ezhüethük (environment) nmena evamo ji kvütoli
mmhonkatokvü sana ekhiranta janta phyotao ji erana.

-3- NB-T/L/1

SECTION - C (Yinsanlan)
4. Janlan pi elio jiang lona elamo ji erana : 1x5=5
(a) Ni nzanchi _____ enghikatala. Mhachüngyi elamo ji khi pyingtoka;
(i) poni (ii) thüngi
(iii) nandang (iv) pono
(b) A khonzana O, opvüi, shi jo,
(i) Etovo Eyieton (ii) Raka Eyieton
(iii) Etsyuka Eyieton (iv) Nungka Eyieton
(c) Tsüngon _____ lo Tsüngtikha motsünga tssoala.
(i) Tiying (ii) Thümro
(iii) Taroeni (iv) Tiza
(d) ‘Ekaroa’ shi esütao yitsüng ji jo;
(i) Teria (ii) Hungria
(iii) Siphoa (iv) Beleta

(e) Oki ji onte na panroe sicho. Shilo tssoyio yi ji jo;
(i) panroe (ii) ji
(iii) onte (iv) sicho

5. Ejüngi elio shiang Tepfüyi khi pyingthoka . 1x2=2
a. Woro jiang jo _____ na pyala.
b. Ompvü na oyi _____ nsanala.

6. Yitsüng ‘Zhüa’ shi na yichak eni pia yiren nsüngrüa. 1x2=2

7. Shiang Erhüyi kümtoka. 1x2=2
a. Ombo na phyocho, ‘A na elhi shi ekhyo tssov.’
b. Ompvü na phyocho, “Shirojü eyen ji na shirojü njüm e pia vanala.”

8. Yiren pi elio shiang yitsünga tae na janlana 1x2=2
a. Sanrhyu lo thyutasanta elio yi jiang.
b. Eloe eranküm yanpithang.

9. Yiren shiang etsyuchi ephani na janlana 1x2=2
a. A na kako motsünga eramü (Present Perfect Tense kümtoka)
b. Ombo shilo vanala. (Simple Future Tense yiren kümtoka)

10. Shiang Lotha yi na Khophia. 1x5=5
a. Shut the front door please.
b. Whose book is this?
c. She did not cheat on the exam, as it was the wrong thing to do.
d. Stop biting your fingernails.
e. Be quiet now!

-4- NB-T/L/1

SECTION – D (Eranntolan)
11. Engao shiang akvülo elamo ji ethüngi janlana: 1x5=5
a. Onjeni lo eramo (ota) ji na ntio yuthitong ejoe vacho la?
(i) Liyutong (ii) Sheyutong
(iii) Yurüptong (iv) Yukhümtong

b. Orhong ehae jiang jo elhi etssoeden okho kvüwoe la?
(i) Nsüngrüiden (ii) Jicheiden
(iii) Nzanchipvüiden (iv) Hanpihanriden

c. Rithak Tokhvü yutalo pvüti na otssok khyathüng poni li jondemo jiang jo _____
lona etüki theyicho
(i) Tssokhan khyak (ii) Hanjung
(iii) Eno Khyak (iv) Lekhüm

d. “Obenro” ji yichak jo;
(i) Nzantsoro (ii) Okharo
(iii) Ngaro (iv) Eboeroro

e. Pofü zhükhü shi jo _____ na süngpencho.
(i) Saramati phonglan yenjoe (ii) Tiyi phonglan yenroe
(iii) Japfü phonglan yenjoe (iv) Longkhüm mponi

Oküpoe engao shiang yitsüng 20 – 25 harüma na janlana: 2x6=12
12. Eboe (onyuro) ji na potsow loroe ji engalo woathüng opo na otsolov jiang kvütolyui
vantokcho la?
13. Pikhüchak Tokhvü phyocho sülo Sarisapvüta rotao jiang eni erana.
14. Etsüi jiang na Wokha meta lo ntio jiang hüngi epitacho la?
15. ‘Phencho vara rocho’ shi jo ntio ntio thera jiang lo ejyukacho la?
16. Elhi etssoe olan mongoto jiang jo ochoang ochoang la?
17. a. Ranphan jo oyan kvülo vanathüng Mmhorü ji lüngthacho la? Osi ombo khüp jijo oyan
kvülo licho la? (1+1=2)
Mekana
b. Nkolo jo arakarita jiang nlansüngtav tsükona ntio elhi tssotacho la?

Oküpoe engao shiang yitsüng 40 – 50 harüma na janlana: 4x2=8
18. a. Zükhümki yan ji jo kvütolyui pyoncho la?
Mekana
b. Elhi etssoe olan ethümoto jiang jo ochoang la? Onte na ete tsükona ntio elhi tssoa la?
Ntio tsükona onte na elhi etssoe ovüngo eni jiang nthev jo onte elhi ntssocheta la?

19. a. Chungiyi “Pofü” to ephyo jilo.

-5- NB-T/L/1

i) Eranpvüo ji jo ocho la? (1)
ii) Mizhü wondang ji jo kvülo na tsüngyacho la? (1)
iii) Zhükhüro olan olan na Pofü lo eryua evamo jiang erana. (2)
Mekana
b. “Yankhyingroe jophae yentsao, nti ntana yentsa vana ato? Nti von ha zozo na yentsa
ato? Ete oren shilo jo, nti ntani na, sümro ezhü ntav roe khi.”
i) Ocho na osümi yentsalo wocho la? (1)
ii) Khenzhü shi jo ocho na phyocho la? (1)
iii) ‘Nti ntani’ ji yichak jo ntio la? (1)
iv) Ntio tsükona khenzhü shi phyocho la? (1)

Oküpoe engao shiang yitsüng 60 – 90 harüma na janlana: 5x3=15
20. a. Nkolo ntsinranche tona enhunga ntsinranche to etsita erana. Nkolo ntsinranche jiang jo
ochoang na roe sicho la? (1+4=5)
Mekana
b. Mvüthanratssen jo kvütothüng khiala? Mvüthanratssen lo wokoro füli, otssü tona hono
hanrüshüm to chekav jiang erana. (1+4=5)

21. Chungiyi “Oshomo Merangcho” yintssen ji erana.

22. a. “Etsüoben mayangro ashavo na,
Yantaro limha nchanjamü tsaila,
Echüli vandamvü, Apisanglao,
Senthan opong khi okhe rümicho kila,
Müktsü opvü na okhe rümicho kila,
Nina khisi Mongjemojü longrojü yutokle”
Khenzhü shi etsyukata eroroa erana.
Mekana
b. “Nti ntani etsüoben vüjao na,
Korü sosi romhon tansoa roe khi,
Evonphen hanpvü benrümsi chanta le;
Tiyi Noro meria chanche khi,
Ji eyan romhon tansoa chiro,
Mongjemojü jüying, yantaro thera hüngi khi epi.”
Khenzhü shi etsyukata eroroa erana.

*********************************

Total number of printed pages : 7 NB - T /H /1
2025
HINDI
Total Marks :80 Time : 3 hours
General Instructions :
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 16 main questions.
iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
iv) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option being
attempted.
N. B : Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.
SECTION-A ( उप ठत बोध)
1. न न ल खत ग यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए न के उ र ल खए :
महा मा गाँधी अपने काम अपने हाथ से करने पर बल दे ते थे | वह येक आ मवासी से
आशा करते थे क वह अपने शर र से संबं धत येक काय सफाई तक वयं करे गा | उनका
कहना था क जो म नह ं करता है , वह पाप करता है और आपका अ न खाता है | ऋ ष
मु नय ने कहा - बना म कए जो भोजन करता है , वह व तत
ु : चोर है | महा मा - गाँधी
का सम त जीवन - दशन म सापे था | उनका सम त अथ - शा यह बताता था क
येक उपभो ता को उ पादनकता होना चा हए | उनक नी तय क उपे ा करने के
प रणाम हम आज भी भोग रहे ह | न गर बी कम होने म आती है , न बेरोजगार पर
नय ण हो पा रहा है और न अपराध क बढावा हमारे वश क बात रह है | दा ण
को रयावा सय ने मदान करके ऐसे े ठ भवन का नमाण कया है , िजनसे कसी को भी
ई या हो सकता है | म क अव ा के प रणाम का सबसे वलंत उदाहरण है हमारे दे श म
या त श त वग क बेकार | हमारा श त युवा वग शार रक मपरक काय करने से
परहे ज करता है , वह यह नह ं सोचता है क शार रक म प रणामतः कतना सुखदायी है |
a. गाँधी जी येक आ मवासी से आशा करते थे क वह - 1
(i) आ म नभर बने
(ii) प र मी बने
(iii) अपने शर र से संबं धत येक काय वयं कर
(iv) आ म के काम म योगदान दे |

2 NB - T /H /1

b. तुत ग यांश म चोर यि त कसे कहा गया है ? 1
(i) जो चोर करता है (ii) जो म नह ं करता है
(iii) जो बना म कए भोजन करता है (iv) जो पाप करता है |

c. महा मा गाँधी का अथशा या बताता है ? 1
(i) येक यि त को केवल व तओ
ु ं का उपभोग करना चा हए |
(ii) येक यि त को मदान करना चा हए |
(iii) येक यि त को उ पादनकता होना चा हए |
(iv) येक यि त को म क अव ा करनी चा हए |

d. द ण को रयावा सय ने मदान करके ऐसा या कया क कसी को भी ई या हो सकती
है ? 1
(i) दे श से गर बी दरू हुई |
(ii) े ठ भवन का नमाण कया |
(iii) े ठ कला का दशन कया |
(iv) दे श वा सय क बेरोजगार दरू हो गई|

e. म क अव ा से भारत पर या भाव पड़ा ? 1
(i) श त वग म बेकार बड़ी | (ii) श त वग म रोजगार बडे |
(iii) श त वग खश
ु हाल हो गया | (iv) इनम से कोई नह ं

f. 'शर र' श द का पयायवाची श द ल खए | 1
(i) कान (ii) दे ह (iii) बल (iv) नाक

g. महा मा गाँधी जी कस बात पर बल दे ते थे ? वे या आशा करते थे ? 2
h. म क अव ा के या प रणाम हो सकते है ? श त वग कस बात से परहे ज करता
है ? 2
SECTION-B ( लेखन)
2. न न ल खत म से कसी एक न- का उ र 100-150 श द म ल खए : 6
a. लाि टक क थै लय से हो रह हा न के बारे म कसी समाचार प के स पादक को प
लखकर अपने सुझाव द िजए |

3 NB - T /H /1

(अथवा)
b. आप ABC व यालय के स चव राम/ माया ह | आप के व यालय म व ान दशनी मनाया
गया | इस स दभ म एक सं त तवेदन ल खए |

3. न न ल खत म से कसी एक न का उ र 50-100 श द म ल खए : 4
a. म को अपने माता – पता के शाद क साल गरह शुभ – अवसर पर आमं ण करते हुए
एक प ल खए |
(अथवा)
b. दो छा ाएँ अपने जीवन के ल य के बारे म बात चीत कर रहे ह दोन के बीच होने वाले संवाद
को ल खए |
SECTION-C( याकरण)
4. न न ल खत वक प म से सह उ र चुनकर ल खए : 1x5=5
a. 'नम कार' कस सं ध का उदाहरण है ?
(i) वर सं ध (ii) यंजन सं ध (iii) वसग सं ध (iv) इनम से कोई नह ं

b. 'राजपु ' कौन सा समास है ?
(i) त पु ष (ii) बहु ी ह (iii) कम (iv) धम

c. वा य के कतने भेद होते है ?
(i) तीन (ii) चार (iii) पाँच (iv) छह
d.'आमने – सामने 'म कौन – सी पुन ि त है ?
(i) अपूण (ii) पूण पुन ि त
(iii) अनुकरण वाचक पुन ि त (iv) कोई नह ं |

e. "सरला व यालय जायेगी" कस काल का वा य है ?
(i) भत
ू काल (ii) वतमान (iii) भ व य (iv) इनम से कोई नह ं

5. न न ल खत श द के दो-दो पयायवाची श द ल खए : 1+1=2
(a) उजाला (b) अि न

4 NB - T /H /1

6. न न ल खत श द के वलोम श द ल खए : ½×4=2
(a) म (b) बहादरु (c) आशा (d) सौभा य

7. न न ल खत श द के लंग बद लए: ½×4=2
(a) युवा (b) जेठ (c) वधवा (d) मग
ृ

8. न न मह
ु ावर के अथ लखकर वा य म योग क िजय | 1+1=2
(a) आसमानी बात करना (b) खून पसीना एक करना

9. को ठक म द गयी या के सह प से वा य के खाल थान भ रये - 1x2=2
(a) उसने आज सवेरे छह बजे जोभोसे को................... (जागना)
(b) नोकदे न नोकर से चाय.................. रहा है | (बनाना)

10. न न ल खत वा य का हंद म अनव
ु ाद क िजए : 1x5=5
(a) Shut the front door please.
(b) Whose book is this ?
(c) She did not cheat on the exam, as it was the wrong thing to do.
(d) Stop biting your fingernails.
(e) Be quite now!

SECTION-D(सा ह य)
11. न न ल खत वक प म से सह उ र चूनकर ल खए: 1x5=5

(a) सोमा बुआ के प रवार म कोई ऐसा सद य नह ं था जो उनके .............. को दरू करता |
(i) सम या (ii) अकेलेपन
(iii) प रवार (iv) दद
(b) सेवा दे ने क चीज है ,................. क नह ं |
(i) लेने (ii) लये
(iii) द (iv) यागने
(c) पंचायत म कस वग को वजय ा त हुई ?
(i) भे ड़या (ii) बूढ़ा सयार
(iii) भेड़ (iv) धम गु

5 NB - T /H /1

(d) “गीता ज ल” कस क व क रचना है ?
(i) ह रवंश राय' ब चन' (ii) अ दरु ह म खान
(iii) रवी नाथ ठाकुर (iv) कोई नह ं
(e) पवत को काटकर या बना दे ते है ?
(i) पथ (ii) खेत
(iii) सड़के (iv) झरने

12. न न ल खत न के उ र 20-25 श द म ल खए :- 2x6=12
(a) नगर भर म मुल वाले के आने का समाचार य फैल गया ?
(b) गाँव के सभी युवक अरमा से य जलते थे ?
(c) चुनाव क नकटता भेड़ो के लए हष और भे ड़य के लए संकत का कारण य बन रह थी?
(d) गजाधर बाबू के आने से पहले अमर ने अलग होने क बात य नह ं सोची ?
(e) छपकल , कानी कु तया और चूह क हालत खराब य थी ?
(f) तेरा दे वता वह ं चला गया है पंि त से क व का या अ भ ाय है ?

13. न न ल खत न के उ र 40-50 श द म ल खए : 4×2=8
(a) " यवहार – कुशलता" पाठ के लेखक कौन है ? उनका ज म कब और कहाँ हुआ था ?
लोगो को हमर सहनभ
ु ू त क सबसे अ धक आव यकता कब और होती है ?
(अथवा)
समधी के यहाँ ववाह म भाग लेने के लए सोमा बुआ ने या – या तैया रयां क ?

(b) संग त का असर कस कार पड़ता है | यह बात रह म ने कैसे समझायी है ?

14. न न ल खत प यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए न के उ र ल खए :
गीत मेरे, दे हर के द प - सा बन |
एक द ु नया है दय म मानता हूँ
वह घर तम से , इसे भी जानता हूँ
छा रहा है कंतु बाहर भी त मर -घन ;
गीत मेरे दे हर के द प - सा बन |
ाण क लौ से तझ
ु े िजस काल बा

6 NB - T /H /1

और अपने क ठ पर तुझको सवा ँ
कह उठे संसार, आया यो त का ण;
गीत मेरे दे हर के द प - सा बन |
i) क व के दय क द ु नया कससे घर हुई है ? 1
ii) क व कसे दे हर के द प जैसे बनने को कह रहा है ? 1
iii) बाहर क द ु नया म या छाया हुआ है ? 1
iv) क व कसको अपने क ठ पर सँवारना चाहता है ? 1
v) आया यो त का ण कौन कह उठे गा ? 1

15. न न ल खत गघांश को पढ़कर पूछे गये न के उ र ल खए :
(a) गजाधर बाबू खुश थे, बहुत खुश! पैतीस साल क ल बी नौकर के बाद रटायर होकर घर जा
रहे थे| इन वष म अ धकांश समय उ ह ने अकेले रहकर काटा था | उन अकेले ण म
उ ह ने उसी समय क क पना क थी जब वे अपने प रवार के साथ रह सकगे | इसी आशा
के सहारे वे अपने अभाव का बोझ ढो रहे थे | सांसा रक ि ट से उनका जीवन सफल कहा
जा सकता था | उ ह ने शहर म मकान बनवा लया था| बड़े लड़के अमर और लड़क
ां त क शा दयाँ कर द , दो ब चे ऊँची क ाओं म पढ़ रहे थे |
(i) गजाधर बाबू कतने वष के बाद रटायर होकर आ रह थे ? 1
(ii) सांसा रक ि ट से कनका जीवन सफल कहा जा सकता है ? 1
(iii) गजाधर बाबू के कतने ब चे थे ? 1
(iv) गजाधर बाबू कस आशा के सहारे अपने अकेलेपन का बोझ दो रहे थे ? 1
(v) "सफल" का वलोम श द ल खए | 1
(अथवा)
(b) क वता के मम और र सक वयं क व से अ धक महान होते है | संगीत के पागल सुनने
वाले ह वयं संगीतकार से अ धक संगीत का रसा वादन करते ह | यहाँ पू य नह ं पुजार
ह े ठ है | यहाँ स मान पानेवाले नह ं स मान दे नेवाले महान है | वयं पु प म कुछ नह ं
है पु प का सौ दय उसे दे खने वाले क ि ट म है | द ु नया म कुछ नह ं है | जो कुछ भी है
हमारे चाह म, हमारे ि ट म ह है | यह अ भुत भारतीय या या अजीब - सी लग सकती
है , पर हमारे पव
ू ज सदा इसी पथ के या ी रहे है | |

7 NB - T /H /1

(i) क व से अ धक महान कौन होते ह ? (1)
(ii) संगीत का रसा वादन कौन करते ह ? (1)
(iii) कसे े ठ बताया गया है ? (1)
(iv) " पु प" का दो पयायवाची श द ल खए | (1)
(v) "सौ दय" का वलोम श द ल खए | (1)

16. न न ल खत म से कसी एक प य खंड क संदभ तथा सँग स हत या या क िजए: 5
( a) संग त दोषु, लगौ सबनु, कहे ते साँचे बैन |
कु टल-बंक ुव संग भए, कु टल बंक ग त नैन ||
(अथवा)
(b) लोग जब ऐसे, समय पाकर जनम लगे कभी |
दे श क ओ जा त क होगी भलाई भी तभी ||

*************************************

NB-T/B/1

Total number of printed pages - 6

2025
BENGALI
Total Marks : 80 Time : 3 hours
General Instructions :
(i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
Answers.
(ii) The question paper consists of 23 main questions.
(iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
(iv) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option
being attempted.
N.B. : Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated
on the top left side.
বিভাগ – ‘ক’
পাঠ (Reading)
1. বিচের পাঠটি মচিাচ াগ বিচে পড়:
২৫ জু ি, ২০২৪: ১১:০২ :র োগী রেখো তোাঁ রেশো ছিল, রেশো ছিল, কোজে ফোাঁজক ছগটো গলোয় ঝু ছলজয়
গোাঁ গোওয়ো; ছিশুজক, হোছিখু ছশ ছিছকৎিজক েেছিয়তো ছিল রেটোগছ কজে িজযে। রিোজখ ‘জিোজটছটিং
গ্লোি’ িু খ রেজক খু জল গলোয় রঝোলোজেো িোস্ক, হোজত ছগটো আ গোজে িু জ িছতবোে। ছিছকৎিকজে
রেশো রেছতবোিক ছেক ছেজয় গোওয়ো েছিজকতো িু একই র জখ শুযু শব্দ বেজল গোে রগজয়ছিজলে
িু ছশিেোবোে রিছিকেোল কজলজে ছিছকৎিক অছেবিোণ েত্ত। রকোছিি অছতিোছ িিজয় ছিছকৎিকজে
অবেোে ছেজয় তোাঁ গোওয়ো গোে রিই িিয় িিোেিোযেজি িোই োল হজয়ছিল। রিই ছিছকৎিজক মৃ ত্যুর
হল িোত্র ৩৭ বি বয়জি। িঙ্গলবো দুেু জ হৃেজ োজগ আক্রোন্ত হে ছতছে। ছিছকৎিজক অকোলিৃ তুেজত
রশোকস্তব্ধ ছিছকৎিক িহল।

িু ছশিেোবোে িোগ ছেছি বোছিন্দো ছিজলে ছিছকৎিক অছেবিোণ। োিকৃষ্ণ ছিশে ছবেেোিছন্দ রেজক
েড়োজশোেো ে িোক্তোছ েড়জত যোে উত্ত বঙ্গ রিছিকেোল কজলজে। তো ে োিকৃষ্ণ ছিশে রিবো
িছতষ্ঠোে হোিেোতোল রেজক কজ ছিজলে এি ছি ছে ছে টি েেোজেোলছে। িিোজে ছিছকৎিকজে অবেোজে
েোশোেোছশ, বু ছিেীবীজে েী বতো ও স্বোস্থ্ে কোজিি বোজেট ব োদ্দ ছেজয় িশ্ন তুজলছিজলে িু ছশিেোবোে
রিছিকেোল কজলজে ছিছকৎিক অছেবিোণ। োজেে েতুে িেজে ছিছকৎিকজে িজযে েেছিয় ছিজলে
ছতছে। র োগী রেখো তোাঁ রেশো ছিল, রেশো ছিল কোজে ফোাঁজক ছগটো ঝু ছলজয় গোে গোওয়ো। ছিশুজক,
হোছিখু ছশ ছিছকৎিজক আলোেো কজ েছ ছিছত ছিল রেটোগছ কজে িজযে। তোাঁ িৃ তুে খব িোই োল হজয়
ছগজয়জি িিোেিোযেজি।

[2]
NB-T/B/1
২০১৮ িোল রেজক িু ছশিেোবোে রিছিকেোল কজলজে িজঙ্গ যু ক্ত ছিজলে অছেবিোণ। রকোছিিকোজল গোে
রবাঁজয আক্রোন্তজে লড়োইজয় িজেোবল েু ছগজয়জিে ছতছে। রিই িিজয় ছিছকৎিজক ো রকোেোও আক্রোন্ত
হজল িছতবোে কজ জিে োস্তোয় রেজিও। ছকন্তু অকোজলই রেজি রগল রিই িছতবোেী কণ্ঠস্ব । িঙ্গলবো
বহ িেু জ ই ছিছকৎিজক রশষকৃতে িম্পন্ন হজয়জি।
বিচিেশ অিু সাচর বিচের প্রশ্নগুবির উত্তর িাও :
(ক) িু ছশিেোবোে রিছিকেোল কজলজে ছিছকৎিজক কী েোি ছিল? 1
(i) অছেবিোণ েত্ত (ii) অছেবিোণ েোি
(iii) অছেবিোণ ক (iv) অছেবিোণ োয়

(খ) কত বি বয়জি ছিছকৎিজক মৃ ত্যু হজয়জি? 1
(i) ৩০ বি (ii) ৩৫ বি
(iii) ৩৭ বি (iv) ৪০ বি

(গ) রকোে র োজগ আক্রোন্ত হজয় ছিছকৎিজক মৃ ত্যু হজয়জি? 1
(i) কেোন্সো (ii) হৃেজ োগ
(iii) কজ োেো (iv) েছিি

(ি) রকোে িিয় অছেবিোজণ গোে িোই োল হজয়ছিল? রকোে বোেেযজে িোহোজযে ছতছে
গোে গোইজতে? 1+1 =2

(ঙ) িোগ ছেছি রকোে রেলোয়? 1
(i) বোাঁকুড়ো (ii) েু রুছলয়ো
(iii) রিছেেীেু (iv) িু ছশিেোবোে

(ি) রকোে িোল রেজক ছতছে িু ছশিেোবোে রিছিকেোল কজলজে িজঙ্গ যু ক্ত ছিজলে? 1
(i) ২০১৬ (ii) ২০১৮
(iii) ২০২০ (iv) ২০২২

(ি) ‘অকোল িৃ তুে’ বেোিবোকে হজব – 1
(i) অকোজল মৃ ত্যু (ii) অকোল ও মৃ ত্যু
(iii) অকোজল মৃ ত্যু হজয়জি যো (iv) অকোল অেি মৃ ত্যু

[3]
NB-T/B/1
(ে) অছেবিোণ রকোেো রেজক িেি েড়োজশোেো কজ ে? ছতছে রকোে রিছিকেোল রেজক
িোক্তোছ েজড়ছিজলে? 1+ 1=2
বিভাগ – ‘খ’
রেিা ও বিবমে বি (Writing and Composition)
2. বিচের য যকািও একটি বিষে যিচে বিচে ১০০ – ১৫০ টি শচের মচযে উত্তর িাও :
(ক) িজে কজ ো, তুছি িুিু কছেিো টি. রক. কিজেজে বোছিন্দো েতোি েত্ত। রতোিোজে আবোিজে
েল ছেকোছশ ব্ুব্স্থা রবহোল েশো েেে অল্প বৃ ছিজতই ছবস্তীণি এলোকো েলিগ্ন হজয় েজড়। এই
ছবষজয় রতোিোজে আবোিজে িম্পোেজক দৃছি আকষিণ কজ এ িু োহো রিজয় একটি
আজবেেেত্র রলজখো। 6
অথিা
(খ) তুছি রিোে ছলটল হোটি স্কুজল েশি রেছণ ছশক্ষোেী রেহোছশি/ রেহোছিতো, িম্প্রছত রতোিোজে
শহজ লোয়ন্স ক্লোব আজয়োছেত িছতবছি ছশক্ষোেীজে েজেে েেো োছলছম্পক (Paralympic)
রেখজত গিয়েগিয়ে। রযখোজে অি ছশক্ষোেী ো কীিোজব ছেজেজে িছতবিকতো েয় কজ কুছস্ত,
হোই েোম্প, লিং েোম্প – এ অিংশগ্রহণ ক জি রেজখ িেিু গ্ধ হজয়ি, রিই অছিজ্ঞতো বণিেো ছেজয়
ছবেেোলজয় িোিছয়ক েজত্র েজেে একটি িছতজবেজে খিড়ো রলজখো।

3. িয েিাবযক ৪০ যথচক ৫০ টি শচে বিচের য যকািও একটি প্রচশ্নর উত্তর িাও :
(ক) তুছি ৩৯, উযি েু কজলোছে, ছশিলো বোছিন্দো িম্রোট/ িম্রোজ্ঞী িেু িেো । রতোিো ঠোকু েো-
ঠোকুিো ছবজয় িু বণিেয়ন্তী বষি (Golden Jubilee) উদযাপন উেলজক্ষ আগোছি ১৫ই এছিল
িজিেজবলোয় একটি িীছতজিোজে আজয়োেে কজ জিো, রিই ছবষজয় উজেখ কজ একটি
আিেেেজত্র খিড়ো িেো কজ ো। 4
অথিা
(খ) রিিো িলিোজষ (Mobile) েতজক রফোে কজ আগোছি বোিংলো েববষি উেলজক্ষ বিু জে ছেজয়
একটি িছিলেী (Get-together) েছ কল্পেো ক জি, এই ছবষজয় দু’েজে িজযে কোল্পছেক
িিংলোে ছলছেবি কজ ো।
বিভাগ – ‘গ’
িোকরণ ও অিু িাি (Grammar and Translation)
4. বিচের বিকল্পগুবি যথচক সঠিক উত্তরটি যিচে িাও :
(ক) তৎেু রুষ িিোজি রকোে েজে িোযোেে িছতছষ্ঠত হয়? 1
(i) েূ বি েে (ii) উত্ত েে
(iii) উভে েে (iv) অেেেে
(খ) রযখোজে কিিকো ক কতি ো স্থ্োে অছযকো কজ ছক্রয়োজক েছ িোছলত কজ এবিং কতি ো
অিযোে আিে েোয়, তোজক বজল – 1
(i) কতৃিবোিে (ii) কিিবোিে
(iii) িোববোিে (iv) কিিকতৃিবোিে

[4]
NB-T/B/1

(গ) হঠোৎ ছবেে এজি েড়ো রবোঝোজত বলো হয় – 1
(i) ছবেো রিজি বজ্রেোত (ii) ছবেো রিজি েল
(iii) রবোঝো ওে শোজক আাঁটি (iv) বোড়োিোজত িোই
(ি) ‘দুযিোেো’ – এই িিস্তেেটি বেোিবোকে হজব – 1
(i) দুধ ও িোেো (ii) দুজয িোেো
(iii) দুজয িত িোেো (iv) দুয অেি িোেো
(ঙ) রয শৃ ঙ্খলো িোজে েো তোজক এককেোয় বজল – 1
(i) রবেজ োয়ো (ii) রবেছে
(iii) রবলোগোি (iv) উচ্ছৃ ঙ্খল
5. িােে বিণে ে কচরা :
(i) আকোজশ িু ছড় উড়জি। 1
(ii) কী ছবেজেই েড়ো রগল! 1
(iii) গীতোঞ্জছল আিো েড়ো আজি। 1
6. এককথাে প্রকাশ কচরা :
(i) রয িু িোজচ্ছ 1
(ii) কখেও হজব েো যো 1
7. িোসিাকে সহ সমাস বিণে ে কচরা :
(i) স্কুলেোলোজেো 1
(ii) েশোেে 1
(iii) নব্রত্ন 1
8. সাথে ক িাচকে প্রচোগ কচরা :
(i) রেোয়োবোজ ো 1
(ii) িোিোতো আিল 1
9. িাাংিাে অিু িাি কচরা :
(i) Shut the front door, please. 1
(ii) Whose book is this? 1
(iii) She did not cheat on the exam, as it was the wrong thing to do. 1
(iv) Stop biting your fingernails. 1
(v) Be quiet now! 1

বিভাগ – ‘ঘ’
সাবহিে – গদ্যাংশ ও পিোাংশ (Literature)
10. বিচের বিকল্পগুবির যথচক সঠিক উত্তরটি যিচে িাও :
(ক) ‘বঙ্গেশিজে’ িেি িকোশকোল হল – 1
(i) ১৮৭০ (ii) ১৮৭২

[5]
NB-T/B/1
(iii) ১৮৭৭ (iv) ১৮৮৩
(খ) ‘উত্ত রগোষ্ঠ’ কছবতোয় শ্রীকৃজষ্ণ রকোে লীলো কেো জয়জি? 1
(i) ব্ােুেীো (ii) রগোষ্ঠলীলো
(iii) বৃ ন্দোবেলীলো (iv) োিলীলো
(গ) ব্োইরয় বোবো বলোইজক িেজি রকোেোয় ছেজয় ছগজয়ছিজলে? 1
(i) কাগি (ii) হছ দ্বো
(iii) ছশিলো (iv) িু ম্বোই
(ি) ‘েগেীশিন্দ্র’ কছবতোয় ‘তরু’ শজব্দ অেি – 1
(i) েল (ii) গোি
(iii) ফু ল (iv) েোে
(ঙ) ‘অিোগী স্বগি’ গজল্প রক অিোগী েোিক ণ কজ ে? 1
(i) অিোগী বোবো (ii) ছবছন্দ ছেছি
(iii) অিোগী িো (iv) ঠোকু েোি িু খুজে

২০-২৫ টি শচে বিচের য যকািও ে’টি প্রচশ্নর উত্তর িাও :
11. উছেশ শতজক কলকোতো বোবু ো কীিোজব তোাঁজে েেছেে েোলে ক জতে? 2
12. “মমাচগিো মিাোঁফ দুটা ব্াগিয়েন ঘায়ি।” — কার কথা ব্ো হয়েয়ি? ত্ার মিাোঁফ ব্াোঁধার
কারণ কী? 1+1 =2
13. ‘েে ’ ও ‘খোেিোিো’ কী য জণ শব্দ? এই শব্দ দুটি অেি কী? 1+1 =2
14. “িে বোজে ছশঙ্গো রবণু ’ – রকোে কছবতো অিংশ? ছশঙ্গো কী? (1+1 =2)
15. রকোে েোজঠ োন্নোেু জেো কেো আজি? এই েু জেো ছেয়ি কী? 1+1 =2
16. েীবেোেন্দ েোশ কো কোি রেজক কোবেজি ণো লোি কজ ছিজলে? েীবেোেন্দ ছিত িেি
কোবেগ্রন্থ রকোেটি? 1+1 =2
17. “জেখজিে িট্িোযিশোয়, িব বেোটো োই এখে বোিু ে-কোজয়ত হজত িোয়।” – রকোে েোজঠ
অিংশ? রক এই কেোগুজলো বজলজিে? 1+1 =2

কম-চিবশ ৪০-৫০ টি শচে বিচের য যকািও দু’টি প্রচশ্নর উত্তর িাও :
18. “তো ো বোগোজে রশৌছখে গোি েয়, তোজে েোছলশ রশোেবো রকউ রেই।” –
(i) রকোে েোজঠ অিংশ? 1
(ii) কোজে িম্পজকি এই কেো বলো হজয়জি? 1
(iii) রকোে িিজঙ্গ এই কেো বলো হজয়জি? 2

19. “এই রতো েোেু রেজত বজিছি পগিয়ম
আে বিজন্ত শূ েে হোত —”

[6]
NB-T/B/1

(i) রকোে কছবতো অিংশ? 1
(ii) কছব েোি কী? 1
(iii) রক এই আজক্ষে কজ জিে? 1
(iv) তোাঁ এই আজক্ষজে কো ণ কী? 1

20. “ই বোজে রকউ ি জব েো?” –
(i) রকোে েোজঠ অিংশ? (1)
(ii) রক এই কেো বজলজি? (1)
(iii) কোজক উজদ্দশ কজ বজলজি? (1)
(iv) এখোজে ‘বোে’ বলজত রকোে বোজে কেো বলো হজয়জি? (1)

প্রাে ৬০-৯০ টি শচে বিচের প্রশ্নগুবির উত্তর িাও :
21. (ক) ‘কোলজকতু রিোেে’ কছবতোটি েোিক জণ িোেিকতো ছবিো কজ ো। 5
অথিা
(খ) ‘অদ্ভুত আাঁযো এক’ কছবতোয় দু’টি রেছণ িোেু জষ উজেখ ক ো হজয়জি, তোজে
েছ িয় েোও এবিং িছ ত্র ছবজেষণ কজ ো। (2+3 =5)

22. (ক) “আে িক্কড় িহজল মপাহাব্ায়রা!” –
(i) রকোে েোজঠ অিংশ? 1
(ii) রলখজক েোি কী? 1
(iii) িক্কড় কী? 1
(iv) িক্কড় িহজল ‘জেোয়োবোজ ো’ রকে? 2
অথিা
(খ) অিোগী েীবজে েছ িিোছি কীিোজব িজটছিল, বণিেো কজ ো। (5)

23. “জহ তেস্বী, তুছি একিেো
ছেিঃশজব্দজ বোকে ছেজল,” –
(i) রকোে কছবতো অিংশ? 1
(ii) কছব েোি কী? 1
(iii) এখোজে ‘তেস্বী’ কোজক বলো হজয়জি? 1
(iv) ‘ছেিঃশজব্দজ বোকে ছেজল’ কেোটি অেি েছ স্ফুট কজ ো। 2

********************

Total number of printed pages: 6 NB-T/AE/1
2025
ALTERNATIVE ENGLISH
Total marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers
ii) The question paper consists of 21questions.
iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
iv) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option
being attempted.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left
side.
Unit – I (Reading)
1. Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:
Gangadhar’s father gives him a shining silver rupee. He is unable to decide what
to do with it. His mother asks him to save the money for later. Find out how Gangadhar
finally uses his silver rupee.
‘Here’s something for you, son,’ said my father. I put out my hand. That
something was heavy on the palm of my hand. I slowly opened my palm and could not
believe my eyes, it was one big, shining, silver rupee! In those days, when my father
earned twenty rupees a month, parents did not believe in spoiling their children by
giving them pocket money.
My father was a little different. He used to give me an ‘anna’ every day to buy
sweets during lunch-break at school. But even he had never given me a whole rupee.
A rupee was big money in those days. When my mother went shopping with a
rupee tucked in the fold of her sari, she could buy a bag of groceries and some sweets
for us and still have a few paisa left! No wonder I was so surprised.
‘Father, you’ve given me a whole rupee!’ I said.
‘Is that so?’ he said and laughed out loud. I knew that my father had really meant to
give me a rupee. I was so happy I ran all over the house, shouting in joy. However, that
was a great mistake. Soon Mother got to know that Father had given a rupee.
‘Give it to me. I’ll keep it safe in the steel almirah,’ she said. I knew that whenever I
gave any money to my mother to keep for me, I never saw it again. So I shook my
head.
‘No! I won’t. You won’t give it back to me when I ask for it,’ I said.
‘Your money is all there sitting safely in my box. When you’ve saved enough, I’ll buy
you a gold ring,’ she replied.
I did want to wear a gold ring on my finger during weddings but wanted to hold on to
my rupee too. So, I pushed away her hand and said, ‘I don’t want a gold ring.’
‘Then I’ll buy you a silver tumbler. You can drink your milk from it.’ But I did not
want to give up my rupee, so I said, ‘I don’t want gold and I don’t want silver.’
‘What do you plan to do with a whole rupee?’ my mother asked.

-2- NB-T/AE/1

‘Oh! I’ll buy some laddus, eat bhelpuri or buy those chocolates that the white sahibs
eat.’
‘A whole rupee of bhelpuri and sweets! Your stomach will burst!’ yelled my mother.
‘I’ll stick it together with gum,’ I replied and ran out of the house.
On the basis of your reading of the passage, answer the following questions:
a. Explain how Gangadhar’s father used to spoil his children while he was earning
twenty rupees a month. 2
Choose the correct option from the alternatives given: 1x3=3
b. How much was the pocket money for Gangadhar?
i. Anna iii. Fifty paisa
ii. Silver rupee iv. Two rupees
c. What is the meaning of ‘white sahibs’ mentioned in the above passage?
i. Gangadhar’s father iii. The British gentlemen
ii. The foreign friends iv. Gangadhar’s future father-in-law
d. What did the mother want to keep the rupee for?
i. Sweets iii. Sari
ii. Chocolates iv. Gold ring

2. Read the poem and answer the questions that follow:
Turn off the TV!
My father gets quite mad at me;
My mother gets upset-
When they catch me watching
Our new television set.

My father yells, ‘Turn that thing off!’
Mom says, ‘It’s time to study.’
I’d rather watch my favorite TV show
With my best buddy.

I sneak down after homework
And turn the set on low.
But when she sees me watching it,
My mother yells out, ‘No!’

Dad says, ‘If you don’t turn it off,
I’ll hang it from a tree!’
I rather doubt he’ll do it,
‘cause he watches more than me.
On the basis of your reading of the poem, choose the correct answer: 1x3=3
a. Who is the speaker in the poem?
i. Father iii. Child
ii. Mother iv. Grandfather

-3- NB-T/AE/1

b. Why do the parents get angry?
i. Because the child keeps watching Television
ii. Because the child keeps playing games
iii. Because the child does not sleep on time
iv. Because the child throws his things around
c. What does the poet do after his homework?
i. Sleep iii. Sneak down to watch television
ii. Studies again iv. Plays video game
Write true or false: ½x4=2
d. The poet’s television set is new.
e. Mother never scolds the poet whenever she finds him watching television.
f. Father watches television more than the poet.
g. The poet doesn’t believe it when his father says he will hang the television on the
tree.
Unit– II (Writing and Applied Grammar)
3. a. Write a report in about 150-200 words on the First Aid Training Camp that was
organized by the Red Cross Society in your school. 6
Or
b. You spent your winter vacation in your native village and it was a jaw dropping
experience for you. Start a dialogue in about 100-150 words with your sister
narrating about your experience after you came back home.

4. a. Complete the story in about 150-200 words. Give a suitable title to it, follow the
starter line given below:
Lanutoshi was hurrying back home from school on a rainy day, he saw a little boy
crying on the street alone and… 6
Or
b. The usage of tobacco by young people especially school going students, has become
alarming and life threatening. Write an article in about 150-200 words on the topic,
‘The Harmful Effects of Tobacco.’
5. Complete the second sentence with the right form of the underlined word in the
first sentence: 1x2=2
a. Kenei is a tall boy. He is _____ than Bovika.
b. The momo in this place is good, but don’t you think our school canteen’s momo
is the _____?
6. Fill in the blanks with suitable conjunctions: 1x2=2
a. Limhathung is not only famous _____ very humble.
b. We can’t succeed _____ we work hard.
7. Rewrite the sentences as directed: 1x2=2
a. She always goes for a walk _____ the evening. (Use an appropriate Preposition
to complete the sentence)
b. The girl who was injured is in hospital. (Underline the Adjective Clause)

-4- NB-T/AE/1

8. Change the following sentences into Passive voice: 1x2=2
a. I ate the strawberry pie.
b. Greg is cleaning the compound.

Unit – III (Literature)
9. Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given: 1x10=10
i. What happened ‘once in a blue moon’? (The Fragrance of the Gods)
a. A motorcycle would pass the village.
b. A vehicle would pass the village.
c. A train would pass the village.
d. There would be a feast in the village.

ii. When Pasteur was a child, the only way to try to stop the infection from a rabid
animal was to _____ the wound.
a. catherterise b. authorize
c. cauterize d. pasteurize

iii. What is the full form of ECO? (Speech by Severn Suzuki)
a. Environmental Counsel Organisation
b. Environmental Children’s Organisation
c. Environmental Community Organisation
d. Environmental Civilization Organisation

iv. Who was suffering with a malignant tumour of the bone. (In Celebration of Being
Alive)
a. The trolley’s driver b. The mechanic
c. Dr. Barnard d. Dr. Barnard’s brother

v. ‘The romantic pass of the Notch is a great artery through which the life blood of
internal commerce is continually throbbing between Maine, on the one side and the
Green Mountains and the shores of St. Lawrence, on the other hand.’
What does the metaphor mean?
a. The river flowing through the mountain pass of the Notch provides sustenance to
the people on either side of the mountain.
b. People living on either side of the mountain through the pass frequently meet and
converse with the family.
c. The mountain pass is an important route for trading
d. The mountain pass is a very scenic route the couples take during their travel.

vi. Wordsworth personifies _____, addressing it as the mother of fresh thoughts and good
health.
a. Sheep b. Stealth
c. Night d. Sleep

-5- NB-T/AE/1

vii. Which line from the poem indicate that old folks are not self-conscious? (Old Folks
Laugh)
a. Saliva glistens in the corners of their mouths.
b. When old folks laugh, they free the world.
c. The hollers rise up and spill over any way they want.
d. Their heads wobble on brittle necks.

viii. What is the poet experiencing in the poem, ‘Closed Path’?
a. The end of a journey. b. Writer’s block.
c. Mid-life crisis. d. Doubts about his faith.

ix. Who brought potatoes to the Annex?
a. Mr. Koopius b. Mr. Kraler
c. Mr. Vossen d. Mr. Van Hoeven

x. What did Mr. Dussel do with his birthday presents?
a. He hid all his presents b. He sold off his presents
c. He displayed his presents d. He shared his presents with Peter

Answer the following questions in about 20-25 words: 2x5=10
10. What was Severn referring to when she exclaimed, ‘I wonder if they will even exist
for my children to see.’
11. What is the poet’s idea of hell? (Prayer of the Meek)
12. To what does the poet compare his new found ability to sing? (Closed Path)
13. What are the things that Anne got for her birthday before going into the Annex and
which was the ‘nicest’ present?
14. What is the difference between Anne’s mother and father, according to Anne Frank?

Answer the following questions in about 40-45 words: 4x5=20
15.a. ‘Pasteur had never been able to forget the horror of that moment’ (Man against
Virus)
i. What had horrified Pasteur? (2)
ii. What did witnessing this moment make Pasteur resolve in the future? (2)
Or
b. ‘Grant that none should again taste
The pain thou hast allowed to come our way.
Let no more blood be shed
Be it friend or foe,’ (Prayer of the Meek)
i. What was the pain that God had allowed to come? (1)
ii. Why does the poet pray for bloodshed to stop? (3)
16. a. ‘Every time I write to you, something special has happened, usually it is unpleasant,
but this time however, something wonderful is going on.. There is bad news as
well.’ (Diary of a Young Girl)

-6- NB-T/AE/1

i. What wonderful things were going on? (2)
ii. What was the bad news about Mr. Koopius? (2)
Or
b. Who was the eighth person in the Secret Annex? Describe him. (1+3=4)
17. How does the writer contrast the young man with the eldest daughter of the family?
(The Ambitious Guest) (4)
18. ‘Even thus last night, and two nights more I lay,
And could not win thee, Sleep! By any stealth’’ (To Sleep)
i. How has he spent the two previous nights? (1)
ii. In what context is the word ‘stealth’ used here? (1)
iii. What is the poet longing for? (2)
19. ‘Suddenly, I realized that these two children had given me a profound lesson in getting
on with the business of living.’ (In Celebration of Being Alive)
i. What is the ‘business of living’? (2)
ii. What was Dr. Barnard’s thought on suffering? (2)

Read the lines and answer the questions that follow:
20.a. ‘They were driven by giant ape-like men with red faces.’ (Fragrance of the Gods)
i. Who were the men Toshi is talking about? 1
ii. Why were they driving through Toshi’s village? 2
iii. Why do you think their faces were red? 2
Or
b. ‘They have spent their
content of simpering,
holding their lips this
and that way, winding
the lines between their
brows.’
i. Who is ‘they’ here? (1)
ii. How have the old folks spent their lives when they were young? (3)
iii. Are the old folks still living a pretentious life? (1)

21. What are the anti-Jewish laws imposed by the Nazis? How do you think it affected the
lives of the Jewish people? 2+3=5

******************************

Total number of printed pages : 3 NB-T/FIT/1
2025
FOUNDATION OF INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY

Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours

General Instructions :
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 32 questions.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
v) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left
side.

Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives:
1. Which term identifies a specific computer on the web and the main page of the
entire site? 1
(a) URL (b) Website address
(c) Hyperlink (d) Domain name

2. Any two computers connected through a telephone line should be connected
with ________ on both sides. 1
(a) printer (b) scanner
(c) MODEM (d) wifi

3. What is the maximum number of characters in a password? 1
(a) 14 (b) 64
(c) 65 (d) 255

4. Reports can be prepared from _______. 1
(a) tables (b) queries
(c) both tables and queries (d) form

5. One can assemble data through a ________. 1
(a) table (b) report
(c) query (d) form

6. Which of the following tags is not an empty tag? 1
(a) <p> (b) <br>
(c) <hr> (d) <li>

7. Which of the following tags is used for italicizing the text? 1
(a) <br> (b) <strong>
(c) <em> (d) <li>

-2- NB-T/FIT/1

8. One can set the size of the table based of ______. 1
(a) pixels (b) percentage
(c) number (d) both pixels and percentage

9. Bulleted list is known by another name which is _______. 1
(a) Unordered list ` (b) Numbered list
(c) Ordered list (d) None of these

10. ______ short for malicious software, is a software designed to infiltrate a
computer system without the owner’s informed consent. 1
(a) Blog (b) Attachments
(c) Spam (d) Malware

Answer the following questions in about 10-20 words:
11. How can one find people on the internet? 2
12. What are CC and BCC in E-mail? 2
13. Define Animation. 2
14. Define Database. 2
15. What is a foreign key? 2
16. What is the purpose of using HTML? 2
17. What is a subscript? 2
18. What is the difference between <p> tag and <br> tag? 2
19. What is mailto? 2
20. How can one insert HTML text file in HTML file? 2
21. What is meant by IMG and SRC? 2
Answer the following questions in about 20-30 words:
22. a. What are the basic elements of search engine?
Or 3
b. What are the benefits of video conferencing?
23. Explain any three field properties in database. 3
24. a. What are the different ways provided by MS-Access to restrict input?
Or 3
b. What is a Validation Rule? Explain the two types of validation rules.
25. What is HTML tag? Explain the two types of tags in HTML. 3
26. How can one create a checkbox in HTML files? Explain with examples. 3

-3- NB-T/FIT/1

27. a. Distinguish between cell spacing and cell padding.
Or 3
b. Explain any three basic elements needed to create a table in HTML.
Answer the following questions in about 50-70 words:
28. a. What is a URL? What are its components?
Or 4
b. What is the difference between wired and wireless networking technology?
29. What is table in MS-Access? What are the different elements of a table in MS-
Access? 4
30. What is <hr> tag in HTML? Explain its attributes. 4
31. a. What is <input> tag? Explain any three attributes of <input> tag.
Or 4
b. What is meant by HTML forms? Explain its attributes.
32. a. What is a spam? How do spammers get e-mail address?
Or 4
b. Discuss any four security requirements under E-commerce.

********************************

Total number of printed pages : 6 NB-T/MS/1

2025
MUSIC
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 14 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise
the answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 32 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
v) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the
option being attempted.

N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the
top left side.

SECTION - A : (Ethnic Music)

1. The instruments that Nagas use in their folk music are quite: 1
a) normal in nature b) cultural in nature
c) elementary in nature d) religious in nature

2. Naga folk songs narrate stories of famous: 1
a) ancestors and warriors b) ancestors and heroes
c) ancestors and incidents d) ancestors and lovers

3. Which instrument is mainly played inside the dormitory ‘zuki’ ? 1
a) bamboo flute b) bamboo sounding box
c) bamboo mouth organ d) tati

4. What is leaf music? 2

5. Write short notes on any two of the following: 2½+2½ =5
a) trumpet b) cup violin
c) bamboo sounding box d) log drum

SECTION - B : (Western Music)
6. On which degree of the scale is the tonic triad built? 1
a) 3rd degree b) 5th degree c) 1st degree d) 4 degree
th

(2) NB-T/MS/1

7. Identify the given interval: 1

a) minor third b) major third
c) minor second d) perfect fourth

8. Which minor key has two flats in its key signature? 1
a) G minor b) D minor c) A minor d) E minor

9. One quaver triplet is equivalent to a : 1

a) dotted crotchet b) crotchet
c) minim d) dotted quaver

10. Name the rest used for a whole bar of silence. 1
a) crotchet rest b) quaver rest
c) semibreve rest d) minim rest

11. Name the given note: 1

a) G b) A c) F d) D

12. How many semiquavers are required to make a crotchet? 1
a) 5 b) 8 c) 4 d) 2

13. Write two more repeats of the given bar to make ostinato that move
in contrary motion: 2

14. Label the triads with roman numerals and chord symbols to show the
chord progression: 2

(3) NB-T/MS/1

15. Draw brackets to show the sequence. Then label it real or tonal: 2

16. Work out the keys of the given tunes: 1+1=2

a)

b)

17. Label the following: 1+1=2

a)

b)

18. Write the key signature and the tonic triad in the root, first inversion
and second inversion in the key of Bm in the bass stave. 2

19. Write some quaver triplets to agree with each time signature. 1+1=2
a)

b)

20. a) Write the tonic in the last bar to agree with the anacrusis. 1+1=2

b) Write a rest in the last bar to agree with the anacrusis.

(4) NB-T/MS/1

21. Write a tune for the bassoon using the first five degrees of the scale of
Dm to the given rhythm. Use key signature and finish on the tonic. 2

22. Write the correct time signature: 1+1=2

a)

b)

23. The following music contains mistakes in the grouping of rests and
notes. Write it out correctly: 2

24. Identify the cadences and label them with correct roman numerals.
Name the key. 1½+1½=3
a) b)

25. Transpose the following tunes as directed. 3
a) Up an octave.

b) Down an octave.

(5) NB-T/MS/1

26. Using crotchets, write a four-part chord (SATB) in the key of Em.
Double the root and use key signature. 3

27. a) Use the root of each triad shown by the roman numerals to write
a bass line. 3

b) Use notes from the tonic or dominant triads shown by the
roman numerals to write a tune above the stave.

28. Write triads on the tonic and dominant degrees of the G harmonic minor
scale descending, using semibreves in the bass stave. Label the triads
with chord symbols and roman numerals. Use key signature. 3

29. Draw the following intervals up from the given notes as directed. 3

perfect 5th major 6th minor 2nd

(6) NB-T/MS/1

30. a) Using quavers, write a broken chord using Dm tonic triad,
going up. Use patterns of three notes each time. Finish on
the first ‘A’ above the stave . 1½+1½=3

b) Using quaver triplets, write a broken chord using Em tonic
triad, going down. Use patterns of three notes each time. Finish
on the first ‘B’ below the stave .

31. Using semibreves, draw the following scales in the bass stave as
directed. 5x1=5
a) G natural minor scale, going up.
b) D melodic minor scale, going up.
c) F major scale, going up.
d) B harmonic minor scale, going down.
e) E harmonic minor scale, going down.

32. Look at the following music and answer the questions that follow. 5x1=5

a) Identify the key the piece is in.
b) Name the type of cadence that ends this piece.
c) What is the interval between the two notes marked with
asterisks (*) in bars 5-6?
d) Is this piece in simple or compound time?
e) What is the total number of counts for the notes in the last bar?

Total number of printed pages : 3 NB-T/HS/1

2025
HOME SCIENCE
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours

General instructions :
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 32 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.

Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives:

1. A child has ___ number of milk teeth which are temporary. 1
(a) 15 (c) 25
(b) 20 (d) 30

2. Which of the following is an example of indoor play material? 1
(a) Tricycle (c) Clay and sand
(b) Colouring books (d) Football

3. According to Valentine, play is a kind of ____ in work. 1
(a) amusement (c) art
(b) creativity (d) skills

4. Lack of iodine in the body leads to 1
(a) Anaemia (c) Goitre
(b) Ricket (d) Scurvy

5. Which of the following is not a body-building food? 1
(a) Milk and milk products (c) Pulses and beans
(b) Fruits and vegetables (d) Meat and eggs

6. Oil, honey are examples of _______ food. 1
(a) Perishable (c) Degradable
(b) Semi-perishable (d) Non- perishable

7. Which of the following is considered as human resources? 1
(a) Time (c) Money
(b) Property (d) Public parks

-2- NB-T/HS/1

8. ISI mark is found in which food product? 1
(a) Baby milk powder (c) Fruit juice
(b) Jam and jelly (d) Eggs

9. Soaps which contain resin and produce more lather are 1
(a) Toilet soap (c) Medicated soap
(b) Mild soap (d) Hard soap

10. Stains like ink and rust are removed by 1
(a) petrol (c) ammonia
(b) oxalic acid (d) chalk

Answer the following questions in 20-30 words :

11. Define language development. At what age is a child able to comprehend and
understand command? 2

12. Give two advantages of play. 2
13. State two negative influence of television on children. 2
14. Why do people living on sea-shore have a low possibility of the deficiency of
iodine? 2
15. What is fortification? Give one example. 2
16. List down two factors that affects meal planning. 2
17. Expand RDA and ICMR. 2
18. What are semi-perishable foods? Give examples. 2
19. Give two importance of proper storage of food. 2
20. What are resources? Name the two types. 2
21. Enumerate two factors that affect wise use of resources. 2
22. Distinguish between real direct and real indirect income. 2
Answer the following questions in 40-60 words :
23. Discuss the social development of a child from 1-2 years. 3
24. (a) Write three factors that affects the emotional development of a child.
Or 3
(b) Write three significance of language development.
25. Write three ways of supplementing family income. 3

-3- NB-T/HS/1

26. Enumerate any three problems faced by the consumer while purchasing
commodities from the shop. 3
27. (a) ‘Misleading advertisements lure the customer easily’. Justify the statement.
Or 3
(b) Mention any six rights of a consumer.
28. Explain the various steps of flower arrangements. 3
29. (a) What is stain? State two precautionary measures while using a stain
remover. Or 3
(b) How is soap prepared by hot method? Explain the process.

Answer the following questions in 80-100 words :
30. (a) Write two functions of vitamin C and two effects of its deficiency. Name
two sources of vitamin C.
Or 5
(b) Write two functions of protein in our body. Which age group is more
vulnerable to the deficiency of protein? Name two diseases caused by
deficiency of protein.
31. (a) Describe briefly the various elements of art.
Or 5
(b) Enumerate the various principle of arts.
32. (a) Give five points of differences between detergent and soap.
Or 5
(b) What aspects of quality check of apparel will you consider while
purchasing ready-made garments?

*******************************

Total number of printed pages : 4 NB-T/BK/1

2025
BOOK-KEEPING & ACCOUNTANCY

Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours.

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 28 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B:Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.

Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives:
1. The opening stock of M/s Tata as on 31st December 2021 stood at `16,600 and
direct expenses were `2,400 whereas the sales for the period were `25,000.
The gross profit will be 1
(a) `19,000 (b) `6,000
(c) `44,000 (d) `8,400

2. The statement of assets and liabilities is a 1
(a) balance sheet (b) trial balance
(c) trading account (d) profit & loss account

3. This book is also known as deposit slip. 1
(a) pass book (b) cheque book
(c) pay-in-slip book (d) cash memo

4. The word ‘overdraft’ indicates 1
(a) minus balance (b) plus balance
(c) credit balance as per pass book (d) debit balance as per cash book

5. Debit balance as per cash book is a/an 1
(a) minus balance (b) plus balance
(c) overdraft as per cash book (d) overdraft as per pass book

6. A bill of exchange is 1
(a) a promise to pay (b) a request to pay
(c) an order to pay (d) a favour to pay

-2- NB-T/BK/1

7. Mr. A draws a bill on Mr. B. Mr. A endorsed the bill to Mr. C. Who is the
payee in this situation? 1
(a) Mr. C (b) Mr. B
(c) Mr. A (d) both Mr. A and Mr. C

8. Wages paid to the firm’s own workman for making certain additions to
machinery were posted to wages account. It is an error of 1
(a) omission (b) commission
(c) principle (d) compensating

9. Depreciation is calculated on 1
(a) wasting assets (b) current assets
(c) fictitious assets (d) fixed assets

10. Depreciation on original cost is also referred to as 1
I) straight line method
II) fixed installment method
(a) only I is true (b) only II is true
(c) both I and II are true (d) both I and II are false

Answer the questions in about 20-30 words:
11. What is the purpose of preparing a balance sheet? 2

12. Ms. Asen is a salaried employee and receives a salary of `10,000 per month.
She plans to save `2,000 every month which she wants to invest after two years
in gold. Suggest the best saving option for her. Justify your reason. 2

13. What is e-banking? 2

14. What is meant by transposing figure? 2

15. What are compensating errors? 2

16. Mention any two special features of depreciation. 2

Answer the questions in about 30-50 words:
17. Explain three differences between profit and loss account and balance sheet. 3

18. Mention and explain any three characteristics of balance sheet. 3

19. Write any three different types of payments made by the bank on our behalf. 3

20. Explain three advantages of bills of exchange. 3

-3- NB-T/BK/1

21. Ato purchased a computer on January 1 for `50,000 which have an estimated
life of 10 years and its estimated scrap value is `5,000. Calculate the
depreciation for a year and also find the rate of depreciation. 1½+1½=3

22. Explain any three limitations of straight line method of depreciation. 3

Answer the questions in about 70-100 words:
23. a. Explain any five points to be considered while preparing final accounts.
Or 5
b. Prepare trading, profit and loss account and balance sheet from the following
trial balance of Kohima Tyres Pvt. Ltd. as on 31st March, 2023.

Particulars Debit Credit
Balances ` Balances `
Capital 70,000
Buildings 60,000
Purchases and Sales 17,000 46,000
Carriage 350
Wages 5,000
Creditors 4,000
Salaries 4,000
Bad debts 650
Cash at bank 25,000
Stock 8,000
1,20,000 1,20,000

Closing stock was valued at `900.

24. a. Explain the different types of account that can be opened in the bank.
Or 5
b. Explain the new services being provided by banks through computerized
equipments.

25. a. Explain the different steps for creation of bank reconciliation statement.
Or 5
b. Prepare a bank reconciliation statement from the following information.
i) Bank overdraft as per cash book on August 30, 2024 was `2,000
ii) Cheque issued but not presented for payment `1,250
iii) The bank charged `25 on account of bank charges not entered in the
cash book
iv) Interest charged by the bank but not entered into the cash book `25
v) Interest on investment collected by the bank and credited in the pass
book `1,000.

-4- NB-T/BK/1

26. a. Differentiate between bill of exchange and promissory note.
Or 5
b. On September 30, 2023, Atso draws a bill of `1,500 on Nise. Nise accepts this
bill immediately and returns it to Atso. This bill is due after 3 months after
date.
Prepare journal entries in the books of both the parties.

27. a. Explain the errors of commission.
Or 5
b. Rectify the following errors assuming that a suspense account was opened.
i) Credit sales to Lasu of `7,000 were posted to the credit of his account
ii) Credit purchases from Abenle of `9,000 were posted to the debit of
her account for `6,000
iii) Goods returned to Hadibe of `4,000 were posted to the credit of his
account
iv) Goods returned to Hilo of `1,000 were posted to the debit of his
account as `2,000
v) Cash sales of `2,000 were posted to the debit of sales account as `5,000.

28. a. Explain any five needs and importance of charging depreciation.
Or 5
b. Verato and Bros. purchased a machine for extracting fruit juice at `35,000 on
January 1, 2018 and spent `2,000 on its installation. The estimated life of the
machine is 8 years after which its breakup value will be only `5,000.
Using the straight line method prepare machinery account for the first 3
years assuming that the accounts are closed on December 31 every year.

*********************************

Total number of printed pages: 3 NB-T/EE/1

2025
ENVIRONMENTAL EDUCATION
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 32 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) General option questions are provided in 5 and 6 marks questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
v) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option
being attempted.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.

1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
(i). Planting ornamental and fruit trees in urban areas on public and vacant land is
(a) Agro forestry (b) Urban forestry
(c) Commercial forestry (d) Forestry
(ii). Water logging leads to
(a) Soil pollution (b) Air pollution
(c) Drought (d) Deforestation
(iii). Citrus growers in China place nests of predacious ants to protect
(a) Mango trees (b) Banana trees
(c) Orange trees (d) Apple trees
(iv). The most essential requirement for the survival of man is
(a) Hot air (b) Moist air
(c) Warm air (d) Clean air
(v). Release of unwanted sound in the atmosphere is called
(a) Noise pollution (b) Radiation pollution
(c) Nuclear pollution (d) Soil pollution
(vi). Fuel from recently lifeless or living biological material is
(a) Biofuel (b) Fossil fuel
(c) Natural gas (d) Petrol
(vii). Which of the following is not a cause of natural disaster?
(a) Cyclone (b) Earthquake
(c) Floods (d) Leakage from chemical industries

-2- NB-T/EE/1

(viii). While purchasing pulses, flour, edible oil, ghee, rice etc. consumers should look
for
(a) Wool mark (b) Hallmark
(c) ISI mark (d) Agmark
(ix). WWF stand for
(a) World Wide Fund (b) World Wide Fun
(c) Wide World Fund (d) Wild World Fund
(x). Water harvesting is the activity of direct collection of
(a) Sea water (b) Rain water
(c) Ground water (d) River water
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence not exceeding
15 words:
2. Write one advantage of rainwater harvesting. 1
3. What is electronic waste (E-waste)? 1
4. Name any two sources of energy available to us. 1
5. Who is a consumer? 1
6. Name any two factors responsible for degradation and loss of wildlife. 1
7. Write one step to stop cruelty to animals. 1

Answer the following questions in about 20 - 30 words:
8. Write two advantages of afforestation. 2
9. Differentiate between poaching and hunting. 2
10. Name any two sources of soil pollution. 2
11. Define energy crisis. 2
12. Write two effects of ozone depletion. 2
13. State any two damages caused by floods. 2
14. Mention any two effects of earthquakes. 2
15. Write any two disadvantages of using fossil fuel. 2

Answer the following questions in about 30 - 50 words:
16. Write any three examples of tribal knowledge supporting conservation of
nature. 3

17. Write three benefits of aquaculture. 3

-3- NB-T/EE/1

18. Mention three effects of thermal pollutants. 3
19. Write three effects of air pollution on human beings. 3
20. List three strategies to combat acute shortage of energy. 3
21. Write any three reasons behind the depletion of forest cover. 3
22. State any three uses of compressed natural gas (CNG). 3

Answer any three from the following questions in about 50-60 words:

23. Mention any five importance of coral reefs. 5
24. Mention any five consequences of deforestation. 5
25. Write any five major effects of drought. 5
26. Mention five man-made factors of landslides. 5
27. List any five ways through which food article is adulterated. 5
28. Mention any five consumer’s duties for making correct choices while buying
different items. 5
Answer any two of the following questions in about 70-100 words:
29. What is soil erosion? Write five methods of controlling soil erosion. 1+5= 6
30. Write six objectives of Biosphere Reserve Programme (BRP). 6
31. What is oil spill? Write five causes of oil spill. 1+5=6
32. Mention any six measures to control noise pollution. 6

*************************

Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-T/IT(V)/1
2025
Information Technology ES (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time: 2 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Communicating our emotions through touch such as formal handshake is known as
(a) Haptics (b) Paralinguistics
(c) Chronemics (d) Chromatics
ii. The act of performing something without expecting any external rewards is known
as
(a) Self-awareness (b) Self-regulation
(c) Intrinsic motivation (d) Extrinsic motivation
iii. Which of the following is an artificial intelligence (AI) based computer tool?
(a) Task view (b) Cortana
(c) Power Mode (d) Launch Bar
iv. Managerial functions of an entrepreneur includes
(a) Production (b) Marketing
(c) Accounting (d) Staffing
v. Which of the following is not an objective of sustainable development goals?
(a) Poverty (b) Policies
(c) Prosperity (d) Peace
vi. The feature in writer, which enables one to move quickly through a document and
find specific items is called
(a) Side bar (b) Tool bar
(c) Navigator (d) Status bar
vii. In spreadsheet, by default, number and data date is aligned to
(a) Center in calc (b) Justified
(c) Left in calc (d) Right in calc
viii. The singular form of data is called
(a) Bytes (b) Bits
(c) Integer (d) Datum
ix. A search within the database is called
(a) Table (b) Form
(c) Queries (d) Report

-2- NB-T/IT(V)/1

x. Carbon dioxide fire extinguishers are usually ineffective on
(a) Class A fires (b) Class B fires
(c) Class C fires (d) Class D fires

Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is survival stress? 1
3. What is the short cut key for ‘Find and Replace’? 1
4. What is title bar? 1
5. What is active cell? 1
6. What are functions? 1
7. What is data redundancy? 1
8. What are fields in database? 1
9. Define an accident at workplace. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. What is visual communication? Give any two examples. 1+1=2
11. What is antivirus software? Name one antivirus software. 1+1=2
12. Write the two steps to add an image to a document using drag and drop method.
2
13. Differentiate between absolute and mixed cell reference. 2
14. Write two uses of hyperlinks in calc. 2
15. State one use of relational database management system? Name one popular
RDBMS. 2
16. What is workplace emergency? Give an example. 1+1=2
17. State two reasons for muscle strains in a workplace. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. Define a template. Write the three steps to create a template category. 1+3=4
19. a. Explain briefly the four selection mode available in calc. 4
Or
b. Write two steps each for changing the default name and color of a sheet tab in
calc. (2+2=4)
20. a. What are forms? Write three steps for modifying forms in calc.
Or 1+3=4
b. What is a database? Write the steps for sorting of data.
21. List any four steps to be followed on hearing the fire alarm. 4

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Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-T/T&H(V)/1
2025
Tourism & Hospitality (Vocational)
Total marks : 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory. The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iii) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
iv) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option being
attempted.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. One of the social factors which influences customer choice and preference is
(a) Social class system (b) Family
(c) Beliefs (d) Lifestyle
ii. The formal standards of proper or polite behaviour in society, among members of a
specific profession, or in a particular field of activity is known as
(a) Conduct (b) Mannerism
(c) Behavior (d) Etiquette
iii. The Maternity Benefits Acts of 2017 provides maternity leave of
(a) 12 weeks (b) 15 weeks
(c) 26 weeks (d) 36 weeks
iv. The intangible creations are known as
(a) Intellectual property (b) Copyright protection
(c) Industrial designs (d) Trade secret
v. Which of the following is a cultural method of pest control employed in food and
beverage sector?
(a) Sticky boards (b) Fly papers
(c) Mulching (d) Traps
vi. It is a detailed guide on how to perform work safely.
(a) Hazard analysis (b) Safety precautions
(c) Safety information (d) Safe work procedure
vii. A list of items that may be ordered together for certain price.
(a) Main course (b) Set menu
(c) Buffet (d) Menu
viii. Our emotional, mental, physical and social response to any perceived threats or
demands is known as
(a) Stress (b) Stressor
(c) Eustress (d) Distress
ix. It is the first screen that appears after booting of the computer system.
(a) Wallpaper (b) Taskbar
(c) Icons (d) Desktop

-2- NB-T/T&H(V)/1

x. Which of the following contradicts the principle of sustainable development?
(a) Environmental protection (b) Unrestrained development
(c) Social inclusion (d) Cultural diversity
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. Define customer-centricity. 1
3. What is POSH? 1
4. Mention any two services available for senior citizens in a hotel. 1
5. What is trade secret? 1
6. What is meant by food standard? 1
7. Why is self-regulation important in life? 1
8. Name any two Antivirus software. 1
9. List any two global development goals as stated in the Agenda 2030. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. What is hospitality sector? Give any two examples. 1+1=2
11. What is telephone etiquette? Write any two telephone etiquettes to be
followed in food and beverage areas. 1+1=2
12. Write any two gender neutral behavior to be followed in a work place. 2
13. What is HACCP? Write one principle of HACCP. 1+1=2
14. Suggest two ways to improve communication among colleagues in
hospitality sector. 2
15. Write any two approaches to resolve complaints from guest. 2
16. Differentiate between specific and non-specific feedback. 2
17. Briefly explain two entrepreneurial functions of an entrepreneur. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. a. Define customer satisfaction. Write three benefits of measuring
customer satisfaction.
Or 1+3=4
b. Define hospitable conduct. Write three Do’s and Don’ts to be followed
while dealing with guest.
19. a. Briefly explain four ways to motivate women and utilize their skills
in the workplace.
Or 4
b. Explain briefly any four types of intellectual property.
20. What is cross-contamination? State any three ways to avoid
cross-contamination. 1+3=4
21. Explain four standard safety procedures for floor safety. 4

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Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-T/R(V)/1
2025
Retail (Vocational)
Total marks : 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
v) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option being
attempted.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left
side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Which of the following is a factor that affects effective communication?
a) Completeness b) Clarity
c) Context d) Correctness
ii. The act of performing something without expecting any apparent external rewards is
known as
a) Extrinsic motivation b) Intrinsic motivation
c) Self-motivation d) Self-regulation
iii. It is a new AI based tool for computer search and also can be used for voice
commands.
a) Cortana b) Icons
c) Taskbar d) Operating System
iv. Why is it important to adopt sustainable development?
a) For economic prosperity b) For peaceful coexistence
c) To save poor nations d) To save ecology and environment
v. Who is considered as a ‘king’ in today’s fast-paced world?
a) Consumers b) Retailers
c) Wholesalers d) Distributors
vi. One of the most crucial aspects of retail space design is
a) signage b) shelving
c) lighting d) storing
vii. It is a step in delivery that can significantly impact the experience of the customers.
a) Packaging b) Services
c) Shipping d) Transportation
viii. Which of the following is not a cause of emergency in retail stores?
a) Insect bites b) Explosion
c) Electrocution d) Racking

-2- NB-T/R(V)/1

ix. The general duty of the employer is to take every reasonable precaution for the
protection of
a) Customers b) Workers
c) Partners d) Managers
x. It helps the team to connect, perform better and become stronger as professionals.
a) Share work b) Realistic commitments
c) Proper planning d) Value system
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. Define haptics. 1
3. State any two factors that are considered to be causes of stress in modern times. 1
4. What is computer software? 1
5. Write one objective of Sustainable Development Goals. 1
6. Define retail operations. 1
7. What is direct store delivery? 1
8. What does Occupational Safety and Health (OSH) focus on? 1
9. State one example of discrimination in retailing. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Briefly explain two advantages of choosing entrepreneurship as a career. 2
11. Write any two guidelines to be followed for safe handling of products
while shelving. 2
12. Mention any two core competencies required for store operation assistants. 2
13. Briefly explain two common modes of retail transportation. 2
14. What is online shopping? Name any two prominent delivery services available
in Nagaland. 1+1=2
15. Suggests two ways to maintain hygiene in a retail store. 2
16. Differentiate between health and hygiene. 2
17. Suggests four ways on how to work effectively in a team. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. Explain any four retail categories based on ownership structure. 4
19. a. State any two objectives of retail transportation. Explain the solutions to
overcome problems in retail transport. (1+3=4)
Or
b. Explain any four factors to be kept in mind during delivery of products. 4
20. Explain four guidelines and instructions to be followed for lifting and
handling equipment in retail store. 4
21. a. Explain any four rights of employees in an organisation.
Or 4
b. Discuss the various skills required for achieving goals.

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Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-T/B&W(V)/1
2025
Beauty & Wellness (Vocational)
Total marks : 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
v) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option
being attempted.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 1x10=10
i. It refers to our sense of smell:
a) Chromatics b) Chronemics
c) Olfactics d) Haptics
ii. Window 10 is an operating system by
a) Microsoft b) Sony
c) Apple d) Samsung
iii. Keratin is a _______
a) fat b) tissue
c) protein d) cell
iv. Which of the following is applied after threading?
a) Oil based moisturizer b) Body oil
c) Gel based cream d) Cold cream
v. ____ is an ornament which is very important in showing a positive attitude.
a) Anger b) Laughter
c) Smile d) Frown
vi. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an entrepreneur?
a) Leadership b) Motivator
c) Risk-taking d) Self-doubting
vii. Which type of wax can be easily prepared at home?
a) Soft wax b) Chocolate wax
c) Fruit wax d) Sugar wax
viii. ______ is used as base for eye makeup.
a) Concealer b) Eyeliner
c) Foundation d) Primer
ix. For which type of skin is fruit wax recommended?
a) Normal skin b) Sensitive skin
c) Oily skin d) Combination skin

-2- NB-T/B&W(V)/1

x. What is used for skin exfoliation?
a) Toner b) Cleanser
c) Mask d) Scrub

Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. Define self motivation. 1
3. Why should we plan our messages before sending them? 1
4. Write one primary goals of sustainable development. 1
5. Which skin care product help in maintaining the pH level of our skin? 1
6. What is melanin? 1
7. Which product is used to conceal darker areas of the skin? 1
8. Mention one benefit of using correct etiquettes. 1
9. Which muscle causes goose bumps? 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Write two points on how to maintain cultural diversity. 2
11. What is the difference between a file and a folder? 2
12. What is sebaceous gland? Write its two important functions. 1+1=2
13. Mention any four types of skin bleaches available in the market. ½ x4=2
14. Enlist the various types of makeup. 2
15. How do sunscreens help in skin protection? 2
16. What is the importance of grooming in beauty industry? 2
17. Mention the different types of eyebrow shape. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. a. Enumerate any four qualities of Assistant Beauty Therapist.
Or 4
b. Explain any four ways to maintain salon equipments for long term.
19. a. Suggest four ways on how nude makeup preparation is done. 4
Or
b. What is editorial makeup? Explain its planning and preparation. (1+3=4)
20. Write any four safety tips to be followed in waxing. 4
21. Describe any four functions of the skin. 4

******************************************

Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-T/E(V)/1
2025
Electronics (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time: 2 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. In Flemming’s left-hand rule, the thumb represents the direction of
(a) Force (b) Current
(c) Magnetic field (d) Electric field
ii. Which of these would you install in your house to protect your house wiring and
appliances from abnormal or fault current?
(a) Generator (b) Circuit breaker
(c) Transformer (d) Motor
iii. What type of juicer is also known as cold press juicer?
(a) Reamers (b) Centrifugal
(c) Juicing press (d) Masticating juicer
iv. Which of the following serves as a basic principle of working for many home
appliances in house hold applications?
(a) Heating effect of current (b) Electromagnetism
(c) Photo electric effect (d) Conductor
v. Ram’s house caught fire, upon inspection; the source of fire was due to short circuit.
Which type of fire is it?
(a) Type A (b) Type B
(c) Type C (d) Type D
vi. Avinuo is congratulating Senti on her success by giving her a handshake and patting
on her shoulder. Which type of non-verbal communication are they displaying?
(a) Paralanguistics (b) Kinesics
(c) Olfatics (d) Haptics
vii. Under the primary goals of sustainable development, using eco-friendly materials
falls under
(a) Economic growth (b) Cultural diversity
(c) Environmental protection (d) Social inclusion
viii. Emotional, mental, physical and social response to any perceived threats and
demands are called
(a) Self-belief (b) Stress
(c) Strategy (d) Meditation

-2- NB-T/E(V)/1

ix. Which of the following is not a commercial function of an entrepreneur?
(a) Production (b) Finance
(c) Policy making (d) Accounting
x. One of the main reasons why a microwave does not heat is due to its failure in
(a) Magnetron (b) Wave guide
(c) Relay (d) Diode
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. Define RPM of amotor. 1
3. Name the two types of relays. 1
4. What is a juicer? 1
5. Write any two examples of e-waste. 1
6. Bokivi, a class X student is working hard in his studies in hopes that he would
become a state topper. What kind of motivation is he predominantly exhibiting? 1
7. Who is an entrepreneur? 1
8. Why is feedback important in communication? 1
9. What is sustainable development? 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Write any two damages caused by virus in a computer system. 2
11. Write any two reasons to quit fighting a fire and to evacuate immediately. 2
12. Write any two housekeeping practices that is required for safety from chemical
hazards. 2
13. State the function of the following feature of microwave:
(i) Smart display (ii) Child lock . 1+1=2
14. What is a mixer? State the two types of mixers. 1+1=2
15. Differentiate between Brushed motors (BDC) and Brushless motors (BLDC). 2
16. What is meant by Normally Open (NO) and Normally Closed (NC) relays? 2
17. Write the steps to clean a mixer using alcohol. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18.a. What is a fuse? Explain briefly the two types of fuses.
Or 1+3=4
b. What is a circuit breaker?Explain briefly the working principle of circuit
breaker.
19. Explain any four commonly occurring faults in mixer grinder. 4
20. Explain briefly how does a microwave oven turns electricity into heat. 4
21. a. Explain the various electric shock treatments.
Or 4
b. List and explain any four electrical hazards.
.
******************************************

Total number of printed pages: 2 NB-T/MSFC(V)/1
2025
Multi Skill Foundation Course (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time: 2 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
v) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option
being attempted.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. In gas welding, an ingredient used to strengthen metal joints is called
(a) Copper (b) Filler metal
(c) Iron (d) Gas gun
ii. This tool is designed by a combination of T-square, Set square and Protractor.
(a) Compass (b) Divider
(c) French curve (d) Mini drafter
iii. Which part of the diesel engine regulate the in and out paths of the gas?
(a) Valve (b) Piston
(c) Fly wheel (d) Crank shaft
iv. Which of the following is not used in making rain gauge?
(a) Funnel (b) Scissor
(c) Protractor (d) Marker pen
v. The process of handling of young seedlings until they are ready for permanent
planting is known as
(a) Propagation (b) Nursery
(c) Grafting (d) Tissue culture
vi. Which of the following is a branched free floating aquatic fern?
(a) Azolla (b) Silage
(c) Hydroponic (d) Aerobic
vii. Blood is red due to the presence of
(a) Protein (b) Antigen
(c) Haemoglobin (d) Corpuscles
viii. Public signs and visual symbols are a part of
(a) Verbal communication (b) Non-verbal communication
(c) Oral communication (d) Visual communication
ix. The act of performing something without expecting any apparent external
rewards is known as
(a) Extrinsic motivation (b) Intrinsic motivation
(c) Self-motivation (d) Self-regulation

-2- NB-T/MSFC(V)/1

x. Windows 10 is an operating system developed by
(a) Microsoft (b) Apple
(c) Dell (d) Lenovo
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. List any two components of verbal communication. 1
3. What is the other name of positive stress? 1
4. What is computer virus? 1
5. What is a die used for in plumbing? 1
6. State two examples of semiconductor material. 1
7. Why is soil testing important? 1
8. Through one gram of protein, how many kilocalories (kcal) of energy
can be obtained? 1
9. What is silage? 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Briefly explain two qualities of successful entrepreneurs. 2
11. Write two problems related to sustainable development. 2
12. What is ferro-cement? Write one benefit of ferro-cement. 1+1=2
13. State four advantages of solar energy. 2
14. What is a nursery? Mention two integrative components of nursery. 1+1=2
15. Briefly describe pot irrigation. 2
16. What is rain water harvesting? Write two advantages of saving
rain water. 1+1=2
17. Write four factors that affects personal health. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. a. Explain any four from the “5 S” of engineering workshop. 4
Or
b. What is plaster? Write three advantages of plastering. (1+3=4)
19 Explain the following in brief: 2+2=4
i. Electric current
ii. Voltage
20. Explain layering in gardening. Name the two types of layering. 3+1=4
21. a. Name two different components of blood. Which blood groups are
known as universal blood groups and why? 1+1+2=4
Or
b. Describe four major sources of water pollution. (4)

*************************************

Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-T/AG(V)/1
2025
Agriculture (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time: 2 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Trickle irrigation is also known as
(a) Drip irrigation (b) Sprinkler irrigation
(c) Flood irrigation (d) Subsurface irrigation
ii. Which of the following is an example of annual weed?
(a) Daucus carota (b) Boerhavia erecta
(c) Cyperus rotundus (d) Sonchus arvensis
iii. Which of the following is an artificial intelligence (AI) based tool?
(a) Power mode (b) Launch bar
(c) Cortana (d) Task bar
iv. Communication without the use of words, using gestures, sign language is
(a) Visual communication (b) Non-verbal communication
(c) Verbal communication (d) Graphic communication
v. Which of the following is a technique to manage stress?
(a) Fatigue (b) Frustration
(c) Apprehension (d) Physical exercise
vi. Which of the following is a managerial function of an entrepreneur?
(a) Production (b) Personnel
(c) Planning (d) Marketing
vii. Sustainable development requires judicious use of
(a) Human resources (b) Natural resources
(c) Man made resources (d) Physical resources
viii. Phomopsis blight is a disease related to which solanaceous vegetable?
(a) Brinjal (b) Chilli
(c) Tomato (d) Potato
ix. The process of removing suspended solid particles from a waste stream is
(a) Flotation (b) Sedimentation
(c) Screening (d) Filtration
x. While packaging of crops, nets are suitable for
(a) Peppers (b) Orange
(c) Cucumber (d) Coconut

-2- NB-T/AG(V)/1

Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What are sprinklers? 1
3. What are botanical insecticides? 1
4. List any two tools for harvesting. 1
5. What is self-motivation? . 1
6. What should be the pH range of water used for irrigation of crops? 1
7. What is transplanting? 1
8. List any two measures of physical maturity in solanaceous crops. 1
9. What is mechanical hazard? 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Differentiate between maturity and ripening. 2
11. What is antivirus software? Give an example. 1+1=2
12. Write two myths and realities about entrepreneurs. 2
13. Name any two crops and its critical period for irrigation. 2
14. Differentiate between pre-emergence and post-emergence herbicides. 2
15. Write any two control measures of leaf curl disease in chillies. 2
16. What are post-harvest operations? Why is pre-cooling important in post-
harvest management. 1+1=2
17. Write two first aid steps for bruises. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. Write four advantages and disadvantages of irrigation system. 4
19. a. List any four characteristics of weeds.
Or 4
b. Differentiate between monocot and dicot weeds stating any two features.
20. a. Write any four advantages of natural enemies in vegetable crops.
Or 4
b. Explain any four precautions taken during harvesting.
21. Explain briefly any four procedures for providing First Aid in case of medical
emergency. 4

******************************************

Total number of printed pages: 2 NB-T/Auto(V)/1
2025
Automotive (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time: 2 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Which part of the wheel is used to inflate and deflate the tyres?
(a) Lug hole (b) Valve system
(c) Wheel hub (d) Wheel rim
ii. The function of the lubrication system is to
(a) Remove additional heat (b) Lower temperature
(c) Increase air flow (d) Reduce friction
iii. Which of the following tool is used in automobile workshop to check the vehicle
status through the ECU of the vehicle?
(a) Diagnostic tool (b) Battery hydrometers
(c) Bottle jack (d) Nut splitters
iv. A wrench that has one open end and one box end of the same size is called
(a) Adjustable wrench (b) Socket wrench
(c) Combination wrench (d) Allen wrench
v. This filter is also called as primary oil filter
(a) Cartridge oil filter (b) Fuel-flow oil filter
(c) Spin-on oil filter (d) Spinner oil filter
vi. Which of the following is not a good quality of good customer service in automotive
workshop?
(a) Empathy (b) Being impatient
(c) Active listening (d) Having positive attitude
vii. It enables secure communication between vehicles as well as vehicle and traffic
infrastructure
(a) Internet of things (b) Global positioning system
(c) Computer vision (d) Engine control unit
viii. Communication which enables us to share our thoughts with each other by using
words are
(a) Non-verbal communication (b) Verbal communication
(c) Visual communication (d) Graphic communication
ix. The act of performing something without expecting any apparent external rewards is
known as
(a) Self-awareness (b) Self-regulation
(c) Extrinsic motivation (d) Intrinsic motivation

-2- NB-T/Auto(V)/1

x. Which of the following entrepreneurial function involves hiring people for various
positions in the organization structure?
(a) Directing (b) Staffing
(c) Controlling (d) Coordination

Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is a chassis? 1
3. List any two uses of feeler gauge in automobile workshop. 1
4. Why is wax applied over the vehicle surface? 1
5. What is empathy in customer service? 1
6. State one use of GPS trackers in car navigation system. 1
7. What is non-verbal communication? 1
8. What is self-awareness? 1
9. List any two qualities of a successful entrepreneur. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. What are tyres? Name the two types of tyres. 1+1=2
11. Write the steps to use scissor jack. 2
12. What is engine oil? Name the two main elements of engine oil. 1+1=2
13. Write two causes of coolant loss. . 2
14. Who is an automobile salesperson? Mention one skill an automobile salesperson
should possess. 1+1=2
15. What is hybrid vehicle? Name any two popular cars that offer hybrid vehicle
technology. 1+1=2
16. What is antivirus software? Name one antivirus software. 1+1=2
17. Write any two main principles of sustainable development. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18.a. Explain briefly the working of four stroke IC engine.
Or 4
b..Explain briefly any four common hand tools used to perform automotive
service technician jobs.
19.a. Explain four types of engine oil.
Or 4
b. Explain briefly four signs to identify if the air filter needs to be replaced or not.

20. Mention any four best practices to be followed by a good automobile salesperson.
4
21. Explain the working system of keyless entry and start system in vehicles. 4

******************************************

Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-T/PL(V)/1
2025
Plumbing (Vocational)
Total marks : 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
v) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option being
attempted.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. The process of using a die is called
(a) Tapping (b) Threading
(c) Fauceting (d) Tubing
ii. The fixture for the toilets used to carry out human excreta is called
(a) Urinal (b) Flushing cistern
(c) Water closets (d) Flush tank
iii. Mortar is used for
(a) Binding construction work (b) Making bricks
(c) Making cement (d) Binding pipes
iv. How many gears are placed in rotary pumps?
(a) 6 (b) 4
(c) 3 (d) 2
v. Bibcock is commonly referred to as
(a) Screwdriver (b) Tap or Faucet
(c) Valve (d) Cistern
vi. What type of hazard is health problem caused by exposure to sewage?
(a) Biological (b) Chemical
(c) Manual handling (d) Ergonomics
vii. If someone is affectionately hugged or angrily slapped, what type of non-verbal
communication is it?
(a) Kinesics (b) Proxemics
(c) Haptics (d) Paralinguistics
viii. Positive stress is also known as
(a) Survival stress (b) Stressor
(c) Distress (d) Eustress
ix. The small pictures on the desktop are called
(a) Wallpaper (b) Taskbar
(c) Cortana (d) Icons

-2- NB-T/PL(V)/1

x. Which of the following is not a basic element of entrepreneur according to
Howard W. Johnson?
(a) Awareness (b) Invention
(c) Innovation (d) Adaptation
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. Name any two common tools used for cutting pipes. 1
3. What is a washbasin? 1
4. What is water meter used for? 1
5. Write two safety equipment that should be used while working. 1
6. What are communication barriers? 1
7. State the two types of self-motivation. 1
8. What is an operating system in computer? 1
9. List two advantages of considering entrepreneurship as a career. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. What is the purpose of threading? How is threading done? 1+1=2
11. Differentiate between wall-mounted and pedestal washbasin. 2
12. Write any two basic masonry tools and write their uses. 1+1=2
13. State two advantages of Centrifugal pump. 2
14. What is ‘dry’ repair in plumbing system? 2
15. Write two factors that causes odour in a plumbing system. 2
16. Why is it important to maintain good personal hygiene? State any two
reasons. 2
17. Mention any two principles of sustainable development. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. Describe briefly any four processes of threading a pipe. 4
19. a. Write any four precautions to be followed while using a drill. (4)
Or
b. What is a tap or faucet? Briefly explain any three varieties of taps. 1+3=4
20. a. Write two advantages and two disadvantages of installing water meter.
Or 4
b. Describe the factors that causes noise in the plumbing system.
21. Explain any four hazards found in plumbing industry. 4

******************************************

Total number of printed pages : 6 NB-T/M-A/1

2025
MATHEMATICS - A
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours

General Instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 23 questions.
iii) All questions are compulsory.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
v) Marks allocated to each question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.

Section – A
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives.
Y
(a) The number of zeroes of the polynomial y = p(x) in
the adjoining graph is 0 X 1
X
(i) 0 (ii) 2
(iii) 3 (iv) 4
Y
(b) The pair of linear equations 2x  3y = 5 and  6y + 4x  10 = 0 have 1
(i) many solutions. (ii) two solutions.
(iii) one solution. (iv) no solutions.

(c) If the equation x2 + 4x + k = 0 has real and distinct roots, then 1
(i) k < 4 (ii) k  4 (iii) k > 4 (iv) k  4

(d) What is the common difference of an A.P. in which a8 – a6 = 8? 1
(i) 8 (ii) 6 (iii) 4 (iv) 2

(e) If sin = , then cos θ is equal to 1
√
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
√ √
Y
P 6
(f) In the adjacent figure, the point D on the
4
y-axis divides the line segment PQ in the D
ratio 2 1
(i) 2 : 9 (ii) 1 : 4 X
X 6 4 2 0 2 4 6
(iii) 1: 3 (iv) 1 : 2 2
Q
4
6

Y

-2- NB-T/M-A/1
A
P Q
(g) In the adjoining figure, PQ || BC if PB = 6 cm, AP = 4 cm and
AQ = 8 cm. The length of AC is equal to B C 1
(i) 6 cm (ii) 12 cm
(iii) 14 cm (iv) 20 cm

(h) In the adjoining figure, a circle touches the sides AB, BC A
and AC of ABC at P, Q and R respectively. If AP = 4 cm,
BP = 6 cm, AC = 12 cm, then BC is equal to P O R 1
(i) 12 cm (ii) 14 cm
(iii) 15 cm (iv) 16 cm B Q C

(i) If tangents PA and PB from a point P to a circle with centre O are inclined to
each other at angle of 60, then POA is equal to 1
(i) 120 (ii) 80 (iii) 70 (iv) 60

(j) Area of a sector of angle P (in degrees) of a circle with radius R is 1
P P P P
(i) ×2 (ii) × (iii) ×2 (iv) ×2
° ° ° °

(k) The perimeter of quadrant of a circle whose radius is cm is 1
(i) 3.5 cm (ii) 5.5 cm (iii) 7.5 cm (iv) 12.5 cm

(l) If the ends of a cylinder are covered by two hemispherical shaped lid of
equal shape, then the total curved surface area of the new object will be 1
(i) 4rh + 2r2 (ii) 4rh  2r2 (iii) 2rh + 4r2 (iv) 2rh + 4r

(m) The total surface area of a hemispherical solid having radius 7 cm is 1
(i) 154 cm2 (ii) 294cm2 (iii) 462 cm2 (iv) 588 cm2

(n) In a competitive examination, 85 boys and 35 girls appeared. The mean
marks of boys was found to be 40%, whereas the mean marks of girls was
60%. The average marks percentage of these students is 1
(i) 45.00 (ii) 45.83 (iii) 54.00 (iv) 54.38

(o) If P(E) denotes the probability of an event E, then 1
(i) P(E) <0 (ii) P(E) >1 (iii) 0  P(E)  1 (iv) 1  P(E)  1

Section – B
2. Find the HCF of 96 and 404 by prime factorisation method and find their LCM. 2

3. For what value of k does the quadratic equation kx (x – 2) + 6 = 0; k 0 have two
equal roots? 2

-3- NB-T/M-A/1

Y
7
4. If in a right triangle, sec θ = , calculate cot θ and cosec θ. 6 2
5 A
4
5. In the given figure, find the distance between A and B. 3 2
2 B
6. E and F are points on the sides PQ and PR respectively of a 1
PQR. PQ = 1.28 cm, PR = 2.56 cm, PE = 0.18 cm and 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 X
PF = 0.36 cm. Check, whether EF || QR or not. 2

7. To build a wind turbine for generating energy in a Science
project, Kavili of Class X is asked to cut six sectors of equal
areas from a circular metal sheet of diameter 14 cm. She then
removes alternate three sectors such that, the remaining three
sectors form a wind turbine (as shown in the figure). Find the
area of metal sheet removed. 2

8. A lot consists of 144 ball pens of which 20 are defective and the others are
good. Nuri will buy a pen if it is good, but will not buy if it is defective. The
shopkeeper draws one pen at random and gives it to her. What is the
probability that (i) she will buy it? (ii) she will not buy it? 2

Section – C

9. Find the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 6x2 – 3 – 7x and verify the
relationship between the zeroes and the coefficients. 3

10.(a) Solve the pair of linear equations by elimination method: 3x – 5y – 4 = 0
and 9x = 2y + 7
Or 3
(b) Solve the equation √2x + 7x + 5√2 = 0 by using quadratic formula.
2

11. (a) The sum of the 4th and 8th terms of an A.P. is 24 and the sum of the 6th and
10th terms is 44. Find the first three terms of the A.P.
Or 3
(b) The first term and last term of an A.P. are 17 and 350 respectively. If the
common difference is 9, how many terms are there and what is their sum?

12. If sin (A – B) = , cos (A + B) = , 0< A + B  90, A > B, find A and B. 3

13. Prove that : = sec A + tan A, where angle A is acute. 3

-4- NB-T/M-A/1

14. a. Two poles of equal heights are standing opposite each other on either side
of the road, which is 80 m wide. From a point between them on the road,
the angles of elevation of the top of the poles are 60 and 30 respectively.
Find the height of the poles and the distances of the point from the poles.
Or 3
b. The shadow of a tower standing on a level ground is found to be 40m
longer when the sun’s altitude is 30 than when it is 60. Find the height
of the tower.

15. Find the area of a rhombus if its vertices are (3, 0), (4, 5), (1, 4) and (2, 1)
taken in order. 3
C
16. In the adjoining figure, altitudes AD and CE of ABC D
intersect each other at the point P. Show that: P
(i) AEP CDP (ii) ABD CBE 3
A E B
17. a. Prove that the lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle
are equal.
Or 3
b. Prove that the parallelogram circumscribing a circle is a rhombus.

18. In a circle of radius 21 cm, an arc subtends an angle of 60 at the centre. Find:
(i) the length of the arc, (ii) area of the sector formed by the arc. 3

19. a. A tent is in the shape of a cylinder surmounted by a conical top. The height
and diameter of the cylindrical part are 2.1 m and 4 m respectively, and the
slant height of the top is 2.8 m. Find the area of the canvas used for making
the tent and the cost of the canvas of the tent at the rate of `500 per m2.
Or 3
b. A solid iron pole consists of a cylinder of height 220 cm and base diameter
24 cm, which is surmounted by another cylinder of height 60 cm and radius
8 cm. Find the mass of the pole, given that 1 cm3 of iron has approximately
8 g mass (Use  = 3.14)
20. The distance traveled before a tyre needs to be replaced was recorded by the tyre
manufacturer. The outcomes of 1000 instances are displayed in the table below.
Distance (in km) Less than 4000 4000 to 9000 9001 to 14000 More than 14000
No. of tyres 20 210 325 445
What is the probability that, if a tyre is purchased from this company:
(i) it has to be replaced before 4000 km is covered?
(ii) it will last more than 9000 km? 3

-5- NB-T/M-A/1

Section – D
21. Answer any one from the following questions (a) to (c): 5
a. Draw the graphs of the equations x – y + 1 = 0 and 3x + 2y – 12 = 0.
Determine the coordinate of the vertices of the triangle formed by these lines
and the x-axis and shade the triangular region.
Or
b. A lending library has a fixed charge for the first three days and an additional
charge for each day thereafter. Saritha paid `27 for a book kept for seven days,
while Susy paid `21 for a book she kept for five days. Find the fixed charge
and the daily charge for each extra day.
Or
c. Is it possible to construct a 400 m2 rectangular park with an 80 m perimeter?
Using discriminant, determine whether or not the above situation is possible.
If at all possible, use the quadratic formula to determine its length and breadth.

22. Answer any one from the following questions (a) to (c): 5
a. Akaho is standing at point O, which is positioned between two
parallel mountains that differ in height. The line joining their tops to the
point O are equally inclined to the level ground. The smaller mountain is
300 meters high. At point P, a pine tree stands on the slope of the bigger
mountain. Akaho observes that the foot of the tree just touches the line of
sight to the top of the bigger mountain. Using similarity of triangles, answer
the following:

(i) What is the height of the bigger mountain?
(ii) What is the difference in height between PQ and CD?
Or
b. Lanu draws a logo design of a circle of radius 2 cm, whose center O
inscribed in ABC, is circumscribed by another circle with the same center.

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Determine the radius OB, if the ratio of the
radius OP to the radius OB is 1:2. Show that
ABC is equilateral as well.
Or
c. Landscape designer, Pangmong creates a circular fountain
circumscribed by a quadrilateral shaped walkway. Show
that the opposite sides of the walkway subtend
supplementary angles at the fountain's center.

23. Answer any one from the following questions (a) to (c): 5
a. The median of the following data is 525. Find the values of x and y, if the
total frequency is 100.
0- 100- 200- 300- 400- 500- 600- 700- 800- 900-
Class intervals 100 200 300 400 500 600 700 800 900 1000
Frequency 2 5 x 12 17 20 y 9 7 4

Or
b. In a retail market, fruit vendors were selling mangoes kept in packing
boxes. These boxes contained varying number of mangoes. The following
was the distribution of mangoes according to the number of boxes.
No. of mangoes 50-52 53-55 56-58 59-61 62-64
No. of boxes 15 110 135 115 25
Find the mean number of mangoes kept in a packing box using Assumed
Mean method.
Or
c. The lengths of 40 leaves of a plant are measured correct to the nearest
millimeter, and the data obtained is represented in the following table:

Length (in mm) 118-126 127-135 136-144 145-153 154-162 163-171 172-180
No. of leaves 3 5 9 12 5 4 2
Find the median length of the leaves.

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Total number of printed pages : 6 NB-T/M-B/1

2025
MATHEMATICS - B
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours

General Instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 23 questions.
iii) All questions are compulsory.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
v) Marks allocated to each question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.

Section – A
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives.
(a) The degree of the polynomial 5x4 + 4x3 + 3x2 + 2 is 1
(i) 5 (ii) 4 (iii) 3 (iv) 2

(b) A pair of linear equations a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 and a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 is said to be
inconsistent if 1
(i) ≠ (ii) = ≠
(iii) = = (iv) ≠

(c) The roots of the equation 3x22√6x+2 = 0 are 1
(i) − ,− (ii) , (iii) √2, √2 (iv) −√2, −√2

(d) In the given A.P., 5, 1, 3, 7, ... the common difference is 1
(i) –4 (ii) 0 (iii) 4 (iv) 8

(e) If tan θ = 1, then the value of θ is 1
(i) 0 (ii) 30 (iii) 45 (iv) 90

(f) The distance of the point P(2, 3) from the x-axis is 1
(i) 1 (ii) 2 (iii) 3 (iv) 5

(g) Which of the following are not similar figures? 1
(i) Circles (ii) Squares
(iii) Equilateral triangles (iv) Isosceles triangles

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(h) A tangent intersects the circle at 1
(i) one point. (ii) two distinct points.
(iii) at the circle. (iv) none of these.

(i) From a point Q, the length of the tangent to a circle is 8 cm and the distance of
Q from the centre is 10 cm. The radius of the circles is 1
(i) 5 cm (ii) 6 cm (iii) 9 cm (iv) 12 cm

(j) What will be the area of a sector of a circle with radius 6 cm, if the angle of the
sector is 60 1
122 132 142 152
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(k) The perimeter of quadrant of a circle whose radius is cm is 1
(i) 3.5 cm (ii) 5.5 cm (iii) 7.5 cm (iv) 12.5 cm

(l) If r is the radius of the sphere, then the surface area of the sphere is 1
(i) 4r2 (ii) 2r2 (iii) r2 (iv) r2

(m) The volume of a cone whose radius is 7 cm and height 12 cm is 1
(i) 524 cm3 (ii) 585cm3 (iii) 604 cm3 (iv) 616 cm3

(n) The class mark of the interval 35-45 is 1
(i) 10 (ii) 35 (iii) 40 (iv) 45

(o) A bag contains 4 red and 6 black balls. A ball is taken out of the bag at
random. The probability of getting a black ball is 1
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 1

Section – B
2. Find the LCM and HCF of 12, 15 and 21 by prime factorisation method. 2

3. For what value of k does the quadratic equation 2x2 + kx + 3 = 0 have two equal
roots? 2
4. Evaluate: sin 60 cos 30 + sin 30 cos 60 2

5. Find the distance between the points (2, 3) and (4, 1) 2

6. E and F are points on the sides PQ and PR respectively of a PQR. If
PE = 4cm, QE = 4.5 cm, PF = 8 cm and RF = 9 cm then show that EF || QR. 2

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7. The diameter of a ferris wheel is 50 meters. The
ferris wheel's circular section is divided into equal
sectors, with a central angle of 60°. Calculate the
area of each sector of the circular part.
[Use  = ] 2

8. If P(E) = 0.05, what is the probability of ‘not E’? 2

Section – C

9. Find the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x2 – 2x – 8 and verify the relationship
between the zeroes and the coefficients. 3

10.(a) Solve the pair of linear equations by elimination method:
x + y = 14 and x – y = 4
Or 3
(b) Find the roots of the quadratic equation 100x2 – 20x + 1 = 0 by factorization
method.

11. (a) The 17th term of an A.P. excels its 10th terms by 7. Find the common
difference.
Or 3
(b) Find the sum of the first 15 multiples of 8.

12. In ABC right-angled at B, if tan A = , find the value of
√
sin A cos C + cos A sin C 3

13. Prove that:(cosec A  sin A)(sec A  cos A) = , where angle A is acute. 3
A A

14. a. A tree breaks due to storm and the broken part bends so that the top of the
tree touches the ground making an angle 30 with it. The distance between
the foot of the tree to the point where the top touches the ground is 8 m.
Find the height of the tree.
Or 3
b. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the ground
which is 30 m away from the foot of the tower is 30. Find the height of
the tower.

15. Find the coordinates of a point A where AB is the diameter of a circle whose
centre is (2, –3) and B is (1, 4). 3

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P
D
E F
16. In the adjoining figure, if DE || OQ and DF || OR, show
that EF || QR. O 3
Q R
17. a. Prove that the lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle
are equal.
Or 3
b. Two concentric circles are of radii 5 cm and 3 cm. Find the length of the
chord of the larger circle which touches the smaller circle.

18. An umbrella has 8 ribs which are equally spaced. Assuming
umbrella to be a flat circle of radius 45 cm, find the area
between the two consecutive ribs of the umbrella. 3

19. a. A toy is in the form of a cone of radius 3.5 cm mounted on a hemisphere of
same radius. The total height of the toy is 15.5 cm. Find the total surface area
of the toy. (Use  = )
Or 3
b. A solid is in the shape of a cone standing on a hemisphere with both their
radii being equal to 1 cm and the height of the cone is equal to its radius.
Find the volume of the solid in terms of . (Use  = )

20. This summer, Ketho made the decision to read a few books. To get a book, he
visits the library. 25 books are stacked on a shelf. There are 7 Biographies,
8 Fantasy Novels and 10 Science Fiction books. What is the probability that:
(i) he choose a Biography book? (ii) he choose a Science Fiction book?
(iii) he choose both fictional books on Fantasy and Science? 3

Section – D

21. Answer any one from the following questions (a) to (c): 5
a. Draw the graphs of the equations x – y + 1 = 0 and 3x + 2y – 12 = 0.
Determine the coordinate of the vertices of the triangle formed by these lines
and the x-axis and shade the triangular region.
Or
b. A fraction becomes if 2 is added to both the numerator and the
denominator. If 3 is added to both the numerator and the denominator, it
becomes . Find the fraction.
Or

-5- NB-T/M-B/1

c. Is it possible to construct a rectangular mango groove whose length is twice its
breadth and the area is 800 m2? Using discriminant, check whether the above
situation is possible or not. If possible, find its length and breadth using the
quadratic formula.

22. Answer any one from the following questions (a) to (c): 5
a. Tia is standing at a water-fountain which is located
at the center of a 50-meter-radius circular park. He
sees his two buddies, Avika and Bobby, standing at
locations A and B respectively, on the park's edge. A
pine tree is located perpendicular to the centre O at
position P, creating two triangles OAP and OBP.
(i) Prove that OAP OBP.
(ii) If the pine tree is 30 m away from Bobby, what is the distance
between Avika and Bobby?
Or
b. Rawat is a photographer who wants to capture a
picture of a building’s height. At a particular
instance, the length of the building’s shadow and
the length of Rawat’s shadow are 24 m and 4 m
respectively. Using the given information:
(i) Prove that ABC  PQR
(ii) If Rawat is PQ = 1.6 m tall, find the height of the building AB.
Or
c. A courtyard is in the shape of a triangle with
right angle at B, BC = 6 cm and AB = 8 cm.
Within the courtyard, a pit was excavated so
that it touches the walls AC, BC and AB at
P, Q and R respectively. Find the radius of the
pit.

23. Answer any one from the following questions (a) to (c): 5
a. The following distribution shows the daily pocket allowance of children of
a locality. The mean pocket allowance is `18. Find the missing frequency f.

Daily pocket
11-13 13-15 15-17 17-19 19-21 21-23 23-25
allowance (in `)
No. of children 7 6 9 13 f 5 4

Or

-6- NB-T/M-B/1

b. A student noted the number of cars passing through a spot on a road for 100
periods each of 3 minutes and summarized it in the table given below. Find
the mode of the data:
No. of cars 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70 70-80
Frequency 7 14 13 12 20 11 15 8
Or
c. The following table gives the distribution of the life time of 400 neon
lamps:
Life time 1500- 2000- 2500- 3000- 3500- 4000- 4500-
(in hours) 2000 2500 3000 3500 4000 4500 5000
No. of lamps 14 56 60 86 74 62 48
Find the median life of a lamp.

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