NBSE Class 10 Question Paper 2023 All Subjects

Nagaland Board
Question Paper
2023

Total number of printed pages: 6 NB-T/E/1

2023
ENGLISH
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory. Internal option/ general option is given in some
questions.
iii) The question paper consists of 18 questions, divided into Units I, II, III and IV.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
v) Alternate question for the visually impaired has been provided in question
no.13.ONLY the visually impaired are to attempt this alternate question.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.

UNIT – I (Literature)

Answer the following questions:

1. Why was Morusa grief stricken? (Mehouviü and Morusa) 3
2. Why did Gandhiji eventually give up the ambition of becoming an English
gentleman? 3
3. Why did Macbeth seek out the witches again? 3
Or
Why was it almost impossible to defeat the New Zealand team? (Invictus)
4. Banquo and Macbeth both receive exciting prophecies from the witches, but
they react in very different ways. How do their reactions reflect their different
personalities and ambition? How do they act towards each other after the
prophecies? 2+3=5
Or
Gandhiji took up various activities to make himself an accomplished
gentleman. What were these activities? (5)

5. Answer either 5(i) or 5 (ii) or 5 (iii) 5
(i) a. Read the lines and answer the questions that follow:
For he suddenly smote on the door, even
Louder, and lifted his head:
“Tell them I came, and no one answered,

That I kept my word”, he said.

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(i) Who do you think ‘them’ refers to in Line 3? (1)
(ii) What was the word that the traveller has kept? (2)
(iii)Is there a suggestion of impatience on the part of the traveller? What
gives you this impression? (2)
Or
b. Describe how Jina and Etiben spent their happy days when they fell in
love. (5)
(ii) Give the summary of the poem, ‘The Windhover’. (5)
(iii) Do you agree with the poet’s view that it is futile to take pride in one’s birth
and state? Why/ Why not? (Death the Leveller) (5)

6. “I seen the fearfulest thing”
(i) Who is the speaker here? 1
(ii) What is the fearfulest thing referred to here? 2

7. Give a character sketch on Maurya.
Or 3
Why was the mother unable to bless her son, Bartley?

UNIT – II (Reading)

8. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

Keep your watch accurate. For some people, moving up the time on
their watch will help them get up earlier. For others, they will
remember that the time on the watch is wrong and will disregard it
altogether. It may be helpful to set your watch just two minutes ahead
instead of five or ten. Keep a clock, phone, computer or anything that displays
time in each room of your house. One of the easiest ways to run late is simply
by not realizing that the time is passing as quickly as it is.
Set all your clocks and watches to the same time. Don't be an optimist.
Things usually take longer than what you'd expect, even without
major delays. If you have a dinner appointment at 7.30 p.m., don’t
think you can work till 7 p.m., then take a bath, dress and reach on
time. Realistically, calculate the time you will take at each step and
then add 10 minutes more to allow for unexpected delays, or you
cannot get to your job in time.
Wake up when you are supposed to wake up. Don't hit the snooze
button, keep on lying in bed, and watch TV at the very start of your
day. Maybe try even setting your clock 10 minutes earlier than you

need. If you have difficulty with this, move your alarm clock to
somewhere away from your bed, that way, you have to get up to turn
it off. Commit yourself to being 15 minutes early for everything. If you

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have to reach your place of work at 8:00, don't even tell yourself this.
Just tell yourself (and everyone else who listens - but don't annoy
them or make them think that they are late or early!) "I have to be at
work at 7:45". If you do this, you will be on time even with little
unforeseen delays. You will be on time even with a traffic jam.

(i) Answer the following questions:
a. What is one of the easiest ways to run late? 1
b. How can we get to our job on time? 2
c. Mention any two ways to set a wake up alarm. 2

(ii) Find words in the passage that has the same meaning as: 3x1=3
a. exact and correct ,without mistakes
b. one who sees the positive side of things
c. not expected

9. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

People who smoke are being hounded out of all public places -
offices, restaurants, educational institutions, buses, trains etc. Away from home
now it is becoming nearly impossible to find a place to smoke. Growing
restrictions and the fear of various diseases caused by tobacco are prompting
many smokers to stop smoking. 19 states in the U.S. have made laws against
smoking. Taxes on tobacco products are being raised. Smoking is banned at
several places. Still the number of smokers is rising in India. More than 25
crore people in India are addicted to tobacco. Also, according to a WHO report
around half of them will die of tobacco related diseases. Unfortunately most
people in India still need a strict warning based on a test report before they
decide to give up smoking. Patients too seek medical help only after they show
serious symptoms of an illness. Some hospitals have set up centres to identify
risk factors among the young so that they can take preventive measures like
giving up smoking early in life.
Tobacco is the second biggest cause of death in the world. It is
responsible for the death of five crore people each year all over the world. Half
of the people who are addicted to tobacco will ultimately be killed by this
addiction. Many people get rid of this habit on their own and those who are
willing to, but can’t, go to de-addiction centres. These centres use counselling,
nicotine replacement therapy and prescriptive drugs to deal with withdrawal
problems. Quitting cold turkey – stopping the use of tobacco at once – works
well but only for those who have control and determination to quit.

(i) Answer the following questions:
a. What prompts smokers to stop smoking? 1

b. Mention two steps taken to discourage smoking. 2
c. How do people get rid of their smoking habit? 2

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(ii) Complete the following sentences: 6x½=3
People who smoke are being hounded out of all public places and it is
becoming ________ to find a place to smoke. 19 states in the US have
made _______ against smoking and ________ on tobacco products are
being raised. More than 25 crore people in India are ________ to tobacco.
Most people in India need a strict ________ based on a test report before
they decide to give up smoking. Tobacco is the _______ biggest cause of
death in the world.

10. Read the poem carefully and fill in the blanks:

Sympathy

I lay in sorrow deep distressed:
My grief a proud man heard,
His looks were cold. He gave me gold
But not a kindly word.
My sorrow passed I paid him back
The gold he gave me.
Then stood erect and spoke my thanks
And blessed his charity.
I lay in want and grief, and pain
A poor man passed my way
He bound my head, he gave me bread :
He watched me night and day
How shall I pay him back him again
For all he did to me?
Oh, gold is great, but greater far is heavenly sympathy.
(Charles Mackay)

Fill in the blanks to complete the summary of the poem: 8x½=4
The poet was once in deep distress. A rich man who ________ about his
sorrow helped him with gold but uttered no _________ word. When the poet
recovered he repaid the gold of the rich man with ________ for his ________.
Again, he fell into sorrow. Now, he met a poor man who ________ over him
day and night and gave him ________ and nursed his wounds. When the poet
recovered he could not think of how he could ________ him back. Money can
be repaid but _______ is a heavenly quality which can never be paid back.

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UNIT – III (Writing)
11. Answer any one of the following questions in about 60 words: 4

a. You are Joseph, the President of the Cultural Club of Springfield School,
Tuensang. Write a notice to the students of Class X regarding your Annual
picnic programme giving all details of time, date, place etc.

b. You have a three bedroom flat in Dimapur which you want to rent out.
Draft an advertisement in not more than 60 words to be published in
‘Nagaland Page’ under the classified column.

c. You had spent your summer vacation in your uncle’s private estate in
Shillong. You had an adventurous time there with your cousins. Write an
Email to your uncle thanking him for his hospitality and the opportunity for
a memorable experience.

12. Write a paragraph in about 80-100 words on, ‘How to keep healthy’ using the
inputs given: 4

Good health-necessary for success and happiness-rules of healthy living-
proper diet-exercise-fresh air-work-sound sleep-avoidance of bad habits-
peace of mind

13. Based on the visual input given below, write on “ Road Safety” in about 120-
150 words: 5

Alternate question only for the visually impaired students: ONLY the
visually impaired students should attempt this question.
Based on the inputs given below, write on ‘Benefits of regular exercise’ in
about 120-150 words. (5)
keeps the body healthy –improves concentration and focus-strengthens
muscles-stamina- boosts immunity- weight management-increases

energy level- mental stability

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14. Answer any one of the following in about 200 words: 7
a. You are Amit/Rita, the President of the Social Service Club of your school.
Write a letter to the Director of ‘Home of Hope’-an old age home, 56, RD
Road , Mon Town, enquiring how students can contribute for the care of the
old.
b. Social Media has taken the public by storm. If there are advantages of Social
Media, there is a dark side to it as well. Write an article expressing your
views on this for your school magazine.
c. You are John, the school student leader of Hills View School, Phek. Write a
report of the recent golden jubilee celebrations of your school to be
published in the school magazine.

UNIT – IV (Grammar)
15. Rewrite the given sentences as directed in the brackets: 5x1=5
(a) ________ people know as much about computers as Jacob does.
(Fill in the blank with an appropriate quantifier)
(b) Reading increases knowledge.
(State whether the underlined verb is gerund, participle or infinitive)
(c) My friend said__________.
(Complete the sentence with a Noun Clause)
(d) Mars is known as the red planet.
(Underline the phrase in the sentence)
(e) Mona loves mangoes.
(Identify the verb and state whether it is transitive or intransitive)
16. Change the narration: 4x1=4
(a) Dave said to me, “Where did you go last weekend?”
(b) Marc told me that he had finished his homework.
(c) The teacher ordered me not to talk to my neighbour.
(d) Chuba said, “What a wonderful painting it is!”
17. Change the voice: 3x1=3
(a) The terrorists blew up the vehicle.
(b) They have planted some trees.
(c) Coins are being collected by my friend.
18. State whether the underlined clauses are Adjective Clause or Adverb
Clause: 3x1=3
(a) That man, who is singing on the stage, is my brother.
(b) Memory is deceptive because it is coloured by today’s events.

(c) My mother wore the dress which I had given her.

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Total number of printed pages: 5 NB-T/SC/1
2023
SCIENCE
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers. The question paper consists of 35 questions in 5 categories.
ii) All questions are compulsory in 1 and 2 marks questions. General choice has
been given in 3 and 5 marks questions.
iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt
only one of the alternatives in such questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
v) Alternate questions for the visually impaired students are provided in some
questions. Only the visually impaired students have to attempt such alternate
questions.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left
side.

1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives:

(a) Which is the reducing agent in the following reaction?
CuO (s) + H2 (g) → Cu (s) + H2O (l) 1
(i) CuO (s) (ii) H2 (g)
(iii) Cu (s) (iv) H2O (l)

(b) Oranges and lemons are good sources of 1
(i) nitric acid (ii) tartaric acid
(iii) citric acid (iv) acetic acid
(c) Which of the following non-metal is lustrous? 1
(i) Chlorine (ii) Flourine
(iii) Bromine (iv) Iodine
(d) Alkenes are represented by the general formula 1
(i) CnH2n+2 (ii) CnH2n
(iii) CnH2n−2 (iv) CnH2n+1OH

(e) The gap between two neurons is called 1
(i) dendrite (ii) synapse
(iii) axon (iv) impulse
(f) In Rhizopus, tubular thread like structures bearing sporangia at their
tips are called 1
(i) filaments (ii) hyphae

(iii) rhizoids (iv) roots

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(g) The centre of the reflecting surface of a spherical mirror is called its 1
(i) focus (ii) curvature
(iii) aperture (iv) pole
(h) A human eye can focus objects at different distances by adjusting the
focal length of the eye lens. This is due to 1
(i) near sightedness (ii) far sightedness
(iii) accomodation (iv) persistance of vision
(i) Which of the following is NOT a fossil fuel? 1
(i) Coal (ii) Petroleum
(iii) Biogas (iv) Wood
(j) The flow of energy in a food chain is 1
(i) unidirectional (ii) bidirectional
(iii) multidirectional (iv) both (i) and (ii)

Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. Define pH scale. 1
3. What are alloys? Give one example. 1
4. Write any two uses of ester. 1
5. Which receptor in animals is responsible for detecting taste? 1
6. Define 1 dioptre of power of a lens. 1
Answer the following questions in about 20-30 words:
7. Mention two properties of carbon which lead to the large number of carbon
compounds. 2

8. Write one function each of xylem and phloem. 2

9. What are dominant and recessive traits? 2

10. A student has difficulty reading the board while sitting in the last row in a
classroom. What could be the defect the child is suffering from? How can it be
corrected? 1+1=2

11. Define electric potential difference. State its S.I unit. 1+1=2

Answer any 10 questions from the following questions (12 to 26) in about 40-60
words:
12. Balance the following chemical equations:
(i) FeSO4 → Fe2O3 + SO2 + SO3

(ii) Na2SO4 + BaCl2 → BaSO4 + NaCl
(iii) MnO2 + HCl → MnCl2 + H2O + Cl2 3×1=3

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Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
What are exothermic and endothermic reactions? Give one example each.
(1½+1½=3)

13. What are acid-base indicators? Give two examples each for synthetic and
olfactory indicators. 1+2= 3

14. (i) What is the chemical name of baking soda?
(ii) Write the chemical equation for its preparation.
(iii) Write one use of baking soda. 3×1=3

15. a. Write three differences between soaps and detergents. 3×1=3
Or
b. What is a homologous series? Write two characteristics of homologous series.
(1+2=3)

16. How does the human body respond when adrenaline is secreted into the blood?
3

17. Explain sex determination in human beings. 3

18. a. A concave lens has a focal length of 15 cm. At what distance should the object
be placed from the lens, so that it forms an image at 10 cm from the lens? Also
find the magnification produced by the lens.
Or 3
b. An object 5 cm in length is held 25 cm away from a converging lens of focal
length 10cm. Find the position, size and nature of the image formed.

Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
State the laws of refraction of light. (1½+1½=3)

19. Write any three uses of concave mirrors. 3

20. a. Several electric bulbs designed to be used on a 220V electric supply line are
rated 10W. How many bulbs can be connected in parallel with each other
across the two wires of 220V line if the maximum allowable current is 5A?
Or 3
b. How many 176Ω resistors (in parallel) are required to carry 5A on a 220V line?

Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
(i) Why are alloys commonly used in electrical heating devices?
(ii) Why is the series arrangement not used for domestic circuits? (1½+1½=3)

21. Explain on what factors does the resistance of a conductor depend? 3×1=3

22. What is a magnetic field? Write two properties of a magnetic field. 1+2=3

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23. Mention any three qualities of a good source of energy. 3×1=3

24. Write any three advantages of using biogas as fuel. 3×1=3

25. List any three roles of decomposers in an ecosystem. 3×1=3

26. What is a food chain? Why are food chains limited to only three or four steps?
Give one example of a food chain. 1+1+1=3

Answer any 5 questions from the following questions (27 to 35) in about 70-100
words:
27. Differentiate giving five points between metals and non-metals on the basis of
their chemical properties. 5

28. What are ionic compounds? Explain any four properties of ionic compounds.
1+4=5

29. Explain the process of blood circulation in the human heart with a labelled
diagram. 3+2=5

Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
(i) Define excretion.
(ii) Name the components of the excretory system in human beings.
(iii) Name the nitrogenous waste present in the urine of human beings.
(iv) What is the basic filtration unit in the kidneys? (1+2+1+1=5)

30. Explain the process of digestion, absorption and assimilation of the human
alimentary canal with a labelled diagram. 3+2=5

Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
Describe double circulation of blood in human beings. Why is it necessary?
(4+1=5)

31. a. Explain any two methods of asexual reproduction with diagrams.

Or 3+2=5
b. Explain the process of germination of pollen on stigma with a labelled diagram.

Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
Mention any two sexually transmitted diseases. Write three preventive
measures for sexually transmitted diseases. (2+3=5)

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32. a. Explain the functioning of the human eye with a labelled diagram. 3+2=5

Or
b. What is dispersion of light? Explain the dispersion of light by a glass prism
with a diagram. (1+2+2=5)

Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
(i) What is presbyopia?
(ii) What is the cause of presbyopia?
(iii) What kind of lens will be required to see clearly the nearby as well as
distant objects? Give reasons. (1+1+3=5)

33. Explain the following phenomena:
(i) Twinkling of stars
(ii) Blue colour of clear sky. 2½+2½=5

34. a. Explain the underlying principle and working of an electric generator with a
labelled diagram.
Or 3+2=5
b. State the factors on which magnetic field produced by a current carrying
solenoid depend. With the help of a diagram, show field lines of the magnetic
field through and around a current carrying solenoid.

Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
(i) What is electromagnetic induction?
(ii) State Fleming’s Right Hand Rule.
(iii) Write two points of difference between Alternating current (AC) and
Direct current (DC). (1+2+2=5)

35. What is ozone? How is ozone formed in the upper atmosphere? Give two
reasons why the damage of ozone layer is a cause of concern for all.
1+2+2=5

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Total number of printed pages : 5 NB-T/T/1

2023
TENYIDIE
Total marks: 80 Time: 3 hours

General Instructions :
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 24 main questions.
iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.

SECTION – A (Kesi Mhaphrü)
1. Thedzeu phrülie di ketsokeshü hako kelashülie: 10x1=10
U krü u pfutsanuokoe kekhruohi nyü phi di keze mia puo ki chüwawa di
lhou kevor dze si. Puo ki chüketuou puo thuo pedzüperie kinyieko pfhü kengu phre
pie bawaya. Kinyie kese se ba morokesuoko liro: co, phitou, kithe, terhu, kirie,
zoga, soza la mela, ciena, kero, keprü hakemhieko. Kinyie hako pete teiso teiki
biewaya. Kekreilamonyü teirükhrie vorketa sie nu bie liro puokhu puo cütayakezha
la. Kinyie kebie thekhrü liro Ziephie, Rüde, Doshü mu Kezei hako donu biewa bei
morosuoya. Ki niepuu kinyieko biepie zhüta liro puo siezedzürie, puo siezanuomia
mu puo khriethokhriechümiakoe süko pete pie vor puo tsüshüya. Süsie zoga du
peso piezhü di khuduü puo khriethomia, puo siezanuomiako tsu pfü vorshüya. Süla
ki niepuu rei kecükekrie kese pevi se ba di sünhie gapie he hieya. Kinyieko pfhü
kengu phrelieta liro kiu chüketuo la teisozha chieshü di sünhie themiako vor kiu chü
mhai pie niepuu tsüwaya.
U tsiepfumia ki petekhre rei ki boulha se chüya. Süko liro kinutshe bou,
miphu bou mu kiluo bou. Kinutshe bou kecüthoya mu miphu bou zhaya,
kekreilamonyü miphu bou nu thezhü, tieligali, mekhou tehieko mu teikhrie baya.
Kiluo bou nu liro ciekhe, telha, thevo, mithu hakemhieko pete baya.
Ki niepuu krapie kezhüu medzi di zoga vakecü chüya. Süko huomia ki liro
fümie, huomia ki liro fübou, huo liro füge mu huo liro füphrie idi chüya. Kiu chü
tseikelie sie kitho he hietuo. Thevo cha di kithomuo chü pevi seya. Kitho he hanu
zha puo kithomia muo krei mu zha kenie kithomia muo krei iya. Hakemhie di
thiedzü u Tenyimia ki chüya mu huoniehuo khruohi di mia puo bu rei kemezhie
lotsowa mo mu kemenga di lhou vor mo.

(a) Thedze nu cayieu pfhüshülie.
(b) Ki chüketuo-u kinyie kimhiecüko pfhü phre pie bawaya ga?
(c) Kedipuo la kinyieko teiso teiu nu biewa morosuoya ga?

(d) Thekhrü kiko nu kinyieko biewaya ga?
(e) Suomia tsu kinyieko pie vor ki niepuu tsüshüya ga?

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(f) Kedikechükipuo gapie he hieya ga?
(g) U tsiepfumia ki bou lha kimhiecü kro puo chüya ga?
(h) Kedipuo la u tsiepfumia miphou bou zhaya ga?
(i) Ki niepuu krapie kezhüu medzi di zoga vakecü ki kimhiecü kro puo chüya
ga?
(j) Kimhie di kitho he hieya ga?

SECTION – B (Thedze Kezo)
2. Hanie puo (1) kedapie dieca krie puo nunu krie di hiepengou (100 – 150) mese nu
thushülie.
a. Ura Secondary School, Kewhira leshükiu nu Tenyidie kepetha lietho ba puo methuo
ba. Hau pemvü di kethezhokecü dzeyieleshü puo thupie leshüki chathau tsüshü di
puo bu lietho hau pie n tsüshünu chashülie. 6

Moro

b. Noe n leshüki sou chü di u die chü kehie morokesuo pederüchü puo nu vo kehou. No
pederüchü nu kevo dze rükhruo mhathu puo thushülie.

3. Hanie puo (1) kedapie dieca hiepengou (50) mese nunu thushülie.
a. Aneiu mu Aneinuo nie-e kemesa kiya chütuo üzhie. Phreikie leshü puo thupie
kezashülie.
Moro 4
b. Kephrünuomia yopuo puotei medzilieyakemo la kepethau unie kerüchükecü rüchüdie
thushülie.

SECTION – C (Diezho mu Thuyie)
4. Die puotou-u kedapie thushülie: 5x1=5
(a) Thenu hapfü zivi se. Diecha hau nu Dietso-u kiu ga?
(i) Thenu (ii) se
(iii) hapfü (iv) zivi

(b) Supuo a ki vor _____?
(i) tele (ii) shi
(iii) me (iv) diemu

(c) Morokesuo puo nu chükewa dze pesikeshü üse
(i) wa (ii) ta
(iii) wate (iv) wata

(d) Dieca kiu Dietho kepe mo ga?
(i) ba (ii) tha

(iii) vo (iv) ro

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(e) Thechü puo thashüyakezha üse
(i) tsa (ii) vü
(iii) mia (iv) ra

5. Dieca ‘we’ hau se puoca kenyi diecha mu diemei dieca puo chüshülie. 1+1=2

6. Zatsekhu ½ hau dieca nu kimhie di thuya ga? 1

7. Dieca puokru tou-u pie rhiephi (-) kesedo thashülie. 1
_________ chü rüü mo.

8. Diesou hako puoca thushü di se diecha chüshülie.
a. Mesümede 1
b. Peziepeme 1
c. Lhacülhale 1

9. Diekhu mu dierozu kekrü kebako thu kemezhüshülie.
a. Geizo ko nu die kezievi kekra ngulieya. 1
b. We u dia rhu moro suo. 1
c. Ania telha cie kevithou pelhouya. 1

10. Hako thuyie chüpie Tenyidie nu khashülie. 5x1=5
a. How beautiful this city is!
b. Can I help you?
c. Health is wealth.
d. I can run faster than him.
e. Kohima is the capital of Nagaland.
SECTION – D (Diemvü)
11. Diecako donu puotou-u kedapie thushülie: 5x1=5

(a) Krase kirapuo tsu di jüta ga?
(i) Japfüro (ii) Kedieutsükerü
(iii) Chathetsatie (iv) Senyiemia kitsatie

(b) Kedikechüki puo Kezise penuolie ga?
(i) Tsiacie ki (ii) Thekeliede zhü
(iii) Khoutho ki (iv) Tshü thekelie zhü

(c) Martin Luther King puo kelhouzha cie kitsuo ki Nobel Prize ngulie ga?
(i) Mepfü (ii) Mepfüepengou
(iii) Ser (iv) Serepengou

(d) Nie pie penuo teiziepfü tuoi ‘Nie pie’ puoca liro

(i) Nie nuo (ii) Nie krü
(iii) Nie kethau (iv) U nuo phichütho-u

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(e) “Chümetsie” puoca kedipuo ga?
(i) Thehethehie (ii) Sha, zha chü, leishü
(iii) Terhü (iv) Hako puorei mo

Ketsokecü hako donu sorou kedapie dieca 20 – 25 mese nunu kelashülie : 6x2=12

12. Enoli Ideü vor Krase ngu di kedipuo pu ga?
13. Kedipuo la terhümia Vihienuo ngushü ro michie di tataya mu kengu zorei ngu
preiya üsi ga?
14. Miaümia bagei puo ta terhü rüyachü nu kevor-u supuo ga? Puo kedipuo la vor ga?
15. Kezise puo nuonuo mia kitsuo nyi ga? Supuo Mezeirü khou doupie chü ga?
16. Kedipuo la kekramiapfü puoe dziezhü shüpie Martin Luther King vü ga? Hateiki
puo kelhouzha teicie kitsuota ga?
17. ‘Nie Pie Penuo’ geizo nu thepfu-u kedipuo chü tuo di suomia bu puo geiwa ga?
18. ‘Ketho mu Kevi’ geizo-u supuo zoshü ga? Ketho mu Kevi sü kedipuo ga?

Ketsokecü hako donu kenie kedapie dieca 40 – 50 mese nunu kelashülie : 2x4=8
19. Kedipuo la themiako Vihienuo ki kirapuo nhalie cietuo shi ketsoya üsi ga? Thepfula
sü kedipuo ga?

20. “A nieko bu ngumvümia khriekecü a medo. Nko thie chü kethau puotou zo.
Ukepenuopfü bu japie nko tsüshükelieu chüliecie.”
i. Diecha hau supuo se suomia ki pu ga? (2)
ii. Puotei kimhiecü puo nu puoe die hau pushü ga? (2)

21. Rütsolhouü kedipuo mhie di puo nhicu teiki dze le puo nou mezhiekecü pu ga?
Rütsolhouü khrükelieu puo ze kirapuo vo ga? (2+2=4)

Ketsokecü hako dieca 60 – 90 mese nunu kelashülie:

22. a. Kimhie di Nizhe rüna nu khriesako tsathou mevita ga? Tsathou gei kirapuo themia
chü tuo di ngulie ga? Tsathouyoe rüna kitsuo die si ga? 2+2+1=5

Moro

b. Kirapuo nu Red Cross kehou kerietho-u kehou ga? Dunant-e kimhie di puo keleko
se mhachü sedevü ga? (1+4=5)

23. “A kesuoü sie vo thenupfü
Sou chülie mu liemou a se nu

Ketsu nhie we teinuo kesisie,
Mehü thesü loziko pfhe he”

-5- NB-T/T/1
i. A kesuoüpfü kedipuo chükelie sie liemou tuo üsi ga? 2
ii. Puo tsuketuo nhie puoteiu kimhie ba üsi ga? 2
iii. Puoe kedipuo si ga? 1

24. a. ‘Nie Pie Penuo’ geizo nu thepfu-u pie kedipuo ze kemejüshü ga? Suomia bu puo
geiwa ga? Puo kimiapfü puo nou kesuopfü kedipuo pushü ga? 1+1+3=5
Moro
b. Niaki geizo-u nu Niaki kezie üse kimhie üdi pu ga? Kedipuoe niaki kezie thepu se
baya ga? Supuoe ‘Niaki’ geizo-u zoshü ga? Ükezopfüe kedipuo mengu üdi pu ga?
(1+1+1+2=5)

****************************

Total number of printed pages: 5 NB-T/A/1

2023
AO
Total marks: 80 Time : 3 hours

General Instructions :
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 22 main questions.
iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left
side.

SHILEM – A (Rajem Latang)
1. Teküboklen agüja alibaji junga züngang aser tasüngdangbatemji langzüang:
Küm ka tsüngda nung tsüngküm mongpu balala akaba ajanga meimchir
nem tajangzük agütsür. Tsüngküm mongpu shia pei pei tsüngsang mopung apir
mapa balala inyaker. Alima tesesm aika nung meimchir meliteter mesüra talitsü
jenjang talira asak, aser tesem kar mi agi arunger ama atsükba agi melitettsüsa
akümer. Tali atsükba agi taküm aika wangseter. Ano karbo kanga temokong agi
meliteter aser tasüa asür.
Küm ka tsüngda nung mongpu pezü lir, ita teranaji mongpu shia ita
asemsem lir. Item mongpu pezüji metsü mapang, mei mapang, mangkonang
aser tsüngküm lir. Metsü mapang March ita nungi May ita tashi lir. Iba mapang
nung tsünüsempongtsü tapu balala proker mesüra aremer. Iba mongpu ya ajaki
jangraba mongpu ka lir. Kechiaser iba mapang nung tzünglu marur saka
mopung tanep aoner; ozü sangnu balalai tsüngküm mongpu osang bena ken
atener; süngo lanu adokba mapang; süngbenlipen tapu balala punga naro sanem
agi meta ajak sünga menemer.
Metsü mapang süir külen mei mapang arur. Ibai June ita nungi August
tashi lir. Iba mongpu nung arem ajak melem melema tamak akümer. Tzünglu
sashia arur koba ajanga arem süngo aser tsünüsempongtsü ajak yiraa indaktsür.
Alima takong aliba ajak shiaarudakja ali temo renlokdaktsür. Alu aser atsü nung
aonsotsü aika tejang tajung tanga achir. Iba mongpu nung mopung talem aoner
aser anü sashia apur. Saka tzünglu peria aruba ajanga nüburtem mekangshii alu
mapa inyakteter.
Mei mapang süir külen Mangkonang mongpu arur. Ibai September nungi
November tashi alir. Aluyimertem küm piyong inyakba nungi tajangzük anguba
mapang. Aluyimertem alu rua tsük benteta yur ayonga aliba mapang, maparen
ajak temer asepana inyakba mapang iba mongpu ya lir. Tetsür tanurtem
süngben tzüta süa asükwa atema renemshir aser teburtem aayangtsüyangi

-2- NB-T/A/1

bendangleni aoba mapang. Akhi mapang iba dang mangkonang ta aja.
Mongkonang ajaba tetzü teburtem arishii oa mongko bener arua yimrong nung
mangkonangtenba agi Mangkonang ta aja.
Mangkonang sülenbo joko tsüngküm mongpu arur. Ibai December ita
nungi February ita tashi lir. Iba mapang nung tzünglu marur ibayongji alima
takong alir aser arem yatalen lemla lemla senzür. Iba mongpu nung süngküm
tongnü bendena kisüjensü mapa inyaker. Anogo tatsü süaka mopung temokong
aser tsüngsang tajung asünung mapa aika inyakteter aser anibelem kangabo
memeteter.
Tasüngdangba:
(a) Küm ka tsüngda nung mongpu kwi lir? 1
(b) Metsü mapang nung asenoki kechi inyaker? 1
(c) Süngo lanuji koba mongpu nung adoker? 1
(d) Metsü mapang süir koba tsüngküm mongpu arur? 1
(e) Koba mongpu nung tzünglu sashia arur? 1
(f) ‘Mangkonang’ tetezü kechi? 1
(g) December nungi February ita tashi koba mongpu alir? 1
(h) Kechiba tsüngküm nung mapa aika inyakteter? 1
(i) Itemi tetezü agüjang: 1+1=2
(i) Asepana (ii) Yimrong

SHILEM – B (Olem)
2. Agüja aliba onük aser arrla amshia ojang 100 – 150 shi nung shiti
ka züluang:
a. Nüburtem ajaki tesangwa (electricity) kümdanga aser apayua amshitsü
nüngdak aser akok tashi tesangwa amshitsü asoshi metetdakja ‘The
Morung Express’ osang kaket yim o zülur dangi shiti ka züluang. 6
Mesüra
b. Agüja aliba onük amshia osang agütsü zülu (report writing) ka züluang:
Ner school-i ayongzükba ‘Tetsü oshi anogo’ koda amung,iba indang na
Tongti tezülur ka ama ner kaket riju otsü kaket nung adoktsü asoshi zülu
ka züluang.

3. Agüja aliba onük aser arrla amshia ana rongnung ka ojang 50 shi nung
züluang:
a. Na kenten telok ka nung dena lira ser ner teloki kenten sentong ka
ayongzüka lir. Anungji iba sentong nung adentsü asoshi nüburtem dangi
tejaokba (invitation) ka züluang.
Mesüra 4
b. Agüja aliba onük amshia sensaksem ka züluang:
Na Merenba/Merenla. Ner tesayur nena tsüngda mapang shitak amshiba
aser mamshiba indang nung ajemdaker sensaksem (dialogue) ka züluang.

-3- NB-T/A/1

SHILEM – C (Orrlem)
4. Agüja alibatem nungi shitak telangzüba agüjang: 5x1=5
(a) Mungra ya lama ka nüngja aser lama ka _____ yayim nung aor.
(i) otisem (ii) pukhümna
(iii) meyongja (iv) oti

(b) Laru memelenshi nendong agi tongnir menden agia tongnirji nendong
kümer meyipa jembiba oyim dang?
(i) Rarem leplashi (ii) Ramok leplashi
(iii) Jilok tongta (iv) Müken tongta

(c) Tongnir ka aser salur ka dang aliba oren dang kechi ajar?
(i) Atentep oren (ii) Ayimlok oren
(iii) Kezi oren (iv) Jinutep oren

(d) Mapang telemsa kwi lir?
(i) Ka (ii) Ana
(iii) Asem (iv) Pezü

(e) Tongniri shiba mesüra koba dak inyaker iba dang _____ ta ajar.
(i) salur (ii) tongnir
(iii) oren (iv) nendong

5. Tongnir, Salur, Nendong lemdanga züluang: 2x1=2
(a) Onoki kaket ka pa nem agütsü.
(b) Tiabai per ka angu.

6. Timsü aser Rapasü oyim teratet züluang: 1+1=2

7. Mapang teratet shiang aser oren kaka sayuang. 1+1=2

8. Itemi jilok tongta leni meyipang : 2x1=2
(a) Onok aolen tesem indang Manenbai asüngdang.
(b) Teti ajemalua alitsü indang tetsüi jala ajungshi.

9. Ramok mesüra rarem leplashi nung meyipang: 2x1=2
(a) Limabai arem nung pongzü ka angu.
(b) Ayong nung ango jenti Senabai apu.

10. Ao oshi agi meyipang: 5x1=5
(a) Never try to overtake from the left side.
(b) How beautiful this flower is!

-4- NB-T/A/1

(c) What topic has been given to the main speaker?
(d) Obey your parents.
(e) Wisdom is better than strength.

SHILEM - D (Otsü aser Sangro)
11. Agüja aliba nungi shitak telangzüba shimteta langzüang: 5x1=5
(a) ______ nung kümshi Tzüpu merükteta ayur.
(i) Metsüremi aser Luchii (ii) Tsüklai aser Metsüremi
(iii) Metsüremi aser Rongchii (iv) Rongchii aser Luroi

(b) Osettsüset masübaren sobalibaji koba?
(i) Kiojen (ii) Yokyasonü
(iii) Yartsüngsang (iv) Süngkong

(c) Kechi nung Tamburtem meraketa adenshir yim anüker?
(i) Kima (ii) Yimdong
(iii) Mepu semtu (iv) Arju

(d) ‘Bar dir’ tetezü kechi?
(i) Tetsü tenu (ii) Tebu tenu
(iii) Tetsü tedi (iv) Tebu tedi

(e) Odang kepji parnok.
(i) Nok (ii) Noklangnok
(iii) Jong (iv) Jongkok

Item tasüngdangbatem ojang 20 – 25 tashi nung langzüang: 6x2=12

12. Anembongji kechi dang ajar?
13. a. Alu tetezü kechi dang ajar?
Mesüra
b. Kechiba Mokokchung yimti ya Ongkoroksong ta ajar?
14. Awashi metetba tebu kati awashi kechisa inyaktsüla?
15. ‘Jungliyimti kü soyim’ sangro nung shirnok kong koma lungjema aliba indang
ashir?
16. Kechiba süngjang tapu ajak wazüka ayutsüla?
17. ‘Ni meteta lir’ sangro nung Rongsen tulutibaji kechi?

Item tasüngdangbatem ojang 40 – 50 tashi nung langzüang: 2x4=8
18. Kima yimdong sadema ayuba tajangzük kechisa?

-5- NB-T/A/1

19.a ‘Anikilen tasüngtet ashiapong aser anempong akaba kin’
i. Ibai koba sangro nungi aser shibai zülu? (2)
ii. Aori anikilenji koma asüngteta ayu rasaa züluang? (2)
Mesüra
b. Adianu o adianu tsüngda nung komala awashi maparen inyaktsüla?
Item tasüngdangbatem ojang 60 – 90 tashi nung langzüang: 3x5=15

20.a. Arem lushi wazüka yutettsü atema yimden teinyaktsü kar shiang.
Mesüra
b. Aenlen jajar nisung asen limai arudang parnok koma anepalur yoktsü nüngdak?

21. ‘Ibaji ni aroka bilemdang
Taküm den medemdanga bilemdang’.
i) Koba sangro nungi agitet? (1)
ii) Shibai mejem? (1)
iii) Kechi indang bilemdangba aser medemdangba ashir rasaa shiang? (3)

22.a) “Par tapet tenüng nokinketer,
Par Jongki sarir nganginer,
Par noklangnok, mangkodangtsü nok
Odang kepji parnok jongkok
Oru tena shilanger.”
i) Iba sangro shibai mejem? (1)
ii) Agüja aliba tekong koba sangro nungi? (1)
iii) Orentemji ratetjang? (3)
Mesüra
b) “Kü tayang mulung süneptsü
Ao yim semer penzüa
Etiben mongchen semyonga
Par ken ani tenmala”.
i) Kechi sangro nungi? (1)
ii) Sangro zülur shiba? (1)
iii) Iba tekong ya tatsü agi ratetjang (3)

*********************************

Total number of printed pages : 5 NB-T/S/1
2023
SÜMI (SÜTSAH)
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 22 main questions.
iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.

KOKÜPPHA – A (Ghili Kiyye)
1. Yepua keu phiju no inijü akeqo khochile tsülo:
Akiqi küa Sümi kichimi khisa hipau kügha cheni. Inakha ye Achumi
eno Ghonili ye Asülimi. Pama akibo shive no kinikülü shi xü ache. Pama dolo anga
lakhi Visheli ache. Inakha ye aghutomi shi ache kehu ado ado kümtsü sasü aghülau
ache.
Ghulo lakhi Inakha no aghami sasü aghülau cheke lono sükomi ilimi
Chevili no alulo huaghi keu ithuluno lisasü küzüvü ghi ngo auveno ide wove. Athiu
ghi titoi shi awuve kelono aghamiqo ye pa gholo wutsümove. Chevili no amu noqo
vilo Inakha no kishi acheni keno pive. Ghulo lakhi ye Chevili alulo puhuve no amu
pama no miqe ighi keloye kucho Inakha no Chevili sasü alhealo ngo aghi. Pama no
hula hila khasü luveno Inakha yiveni keu shive. Inakha ye pokulupu laghi kühave
kehu, Ingu okujo ye kiu shi cheni kea? Ipi. Tileno küpütsa süwo Chevili luni keu
kükülaza shisüve no wove. Inakha no akilo ighi no Ghonili vilo ‘ni ye iküxü xalu ni
ye atsa pipimive no cheni’ ipi. Ghonili no ti vethaluve puzü ‘Inakha ghi kipitimi no
pathe paye ta thono kiu pi ania’ ipi. Inakha no Ghonili vilo ‘ni ye Chevili okujo
akichiu ayitiu shin-go penishi ani’ ipi. Ikemu Ghonili no, ‘Inakha ghi aküsa ngo
akühaghi ye kishe pelu chemoe, tighengu no ino ipeve tsüni’ ipive. Ghonili no akilo
asü azü kümtsü kutokughoi mlape qhive tsüno akilo akughupu nhemgha kümtsü
ikhithape azühü kughupo lo süpe qhi khave. Inakha no Chevili lusüsü ighi kelo
Ghonili no ‘anga kimiye keke ni ye kiumu lutsümoe, eno hino iki khacheni ke’ ipi no
azühu kughupo ikhipe ahu ipeche kemu Inakha no lakha luve alasheu ghi Inakha no
lakha luve tighengu no Ghonili ye aküsau no ipeve. (totimi ye aküsau ipe chini che)
Ghonili ye akiniu Sumixi kilo wove. Ampe lakhi lo Inakha no ngo
Ghonili panongu alu küghüngu ghi chiluno küputsa kilelu che, ghulo lakhi Ghonili
no Inakha no ye kiu toi xü anilaye miqe alhea lo alhe jukelo ye, alhe pumono huaghi.
Thoghiu ye Ghonili no ashi ana akivishi kuto no pe iku Inakha no lhea lo qhive tsü.
Inakha no ti ithulu no Ghonili kümla kena ipi ithive. Ghile loghi kümtsa atsala lakhi
lono hulu. Inakha no ye athi ayephu 9 tchi ipi no, athi lumo kehu alulo kuhumi
kümtsü akughou no wokhave. Inakha no ghuthu lakhi pulu süsü Ghonili no kilo ighi.

Thanau inaqhe Inakha ye avehu anipino itheno ashou ipeveno munu akilo ighi,
Ghonili no ye tipau tsala lo alojisa akehu, Sumixi ye itheno alulo huve keghili shi no
amqhalo iku miqea. Inakha no munu ighi ke Ghonili no pa khuna kutotsü kelo
Inakha no ‘alomka nono kitila chu no itsü kitila shono ije lo’ ipi ikemu Ghonili ye
lotsüloghui kemi kehu Sumixi no miqe aghi nani ipi ithia kehu, ‘nono yathapumu
timi ghi yathapu nono müghüpumu timi ghi mughüpu ani. Muzü aye pechuni thono,

-2- NB-T/S/1

tüghü aye akichhi pesholo’ ipive no ‘Ilomi Sumixi noye huvea ke’ ipi no aki qhive
tsü puzü alulo huve. Inakha no ‘ni ye kiu lono ilomi Ghonili pheve kepu shive kea?’
ipi kümsüa.
(a) Ghonili kimi atughiu je khuu kea? 1
(b) Inakha ye kiu ghengu no Chevili luve kea? 1
(c) Ghonili ye Inakha pama ixave kelo kiu pesü wuve kea? 1
(d) Ghonili ye kiu shiye ashi ana ghope Inakha no lhealo qhitsü kea? 1
(e) ‘Ni ye atsa pipimive no cheni’ kiu tsa pipimive kea? 1
(f) Ghonili ye kiu shiye aküsau no ipeve kea? 1
(g) Ghonili no ‘aküsa ngo akühaghi ye kishe pemlae’ ipi keu kiqi pitsülo. 2
(h) Müzü aye asa pechulo tüghü aye akichhi pesholo’ ipi keu kiqi hepho tsülo. 1
(i) Kiu shiye Inakha no ye athokha shi xü acheuve kea? 1

KOKÜPPHA – B (Iqqikulu)
2. Atsathi 100-150 dolono yelo:
a. Yekili lakhi ‘Sümi kiphi’ lau yeghi ishi dolo Sümi tsa iqi eno atsathi akitheqo
peitha akeu lo avehu izu momu kübangu akeulo kiu no akiviu shilu nani keno
okükümsü kusaje shi Sümi Literature Board qo lau yelo. 6
Momü
b. Noye kiphimi shou sakipheu. Ishi dolo mheshomheghi tsala ikhilu keulo khakiqhi
küpüghu kiu toi shilu keno kiyephi lo sükeu shi yelo.

3. Atsathi 50 dolono lakhi likhi yelo:
a. Kuküsü yelo, Nono ayeghiqhau- lotsüpu kukuxu lo atüghiu shilu keu ghenguno
alokivi shi oküsami kusü keu yelo. Atsala, A-a eno ado kishekulu yesulo. 4
Momü
b. Akusami kini dolo akiphiki theve akeu dolo kiu shini keno kuputsa akeu yelo.
KOKÜPPHA – C (Tsayeh)
4. Achipiu tsathi pe kimeve tsülo: 5x1=5
(a) Aza pelimi vilo ______ kucheni.
(i) amu (ii) angu
(iii) ani (iv) achi

(b) _________ kaku lakhi pe ighilo.
(i) wupu (ii) wupüzü
(iii) wope (iv) wupi

(c) Noye _________ kiu lhochu kea?
(i) ishina (ii) isüna
(iii) ishinna (iv) isünna

(d) Awuno athi ________ani.
(i) muno (ii) chu
(iii) mighi (iv) tsa

-3- NB-T/S/1

(e) Aloto ye ________ sükelo toluva.
(i) ghukuju (ii) thekuju
(iii) pekujü (iv) shikuju
5. Tsashi pe aje lo süvelo:
(a) Küla 1
(b) Tsütsüsü 1
6. Suchou tsathi pe pidelau süve lo.
(a) Kipela 1
(b) Lukümkha 1
7. Akiye ghola shikithe ve tsulo:
(a) Ampiu alhou no thowkha kümtsü shou ampiu. 1
(b) Noye kuhukupu lono ighi ani ohakusa. 1
8. Atsa tuna hipaqo pe atsajo mlalo:
(a) Akuhu-akuwo 1
(b) Akithe- akile 1
9. Sutsakutho hipaqo akiqi pitsülo :
(a) Khecheli kupo 1
(b) Ane no sho 1
10. Sütsah lo pekili süve lo. 5x1=5
(a) A man cannot serve two masters.
(b) Where is the Barber’s shop?
(c) Baichung plays football very well.
(d) Alas! We are defeated.
(e) I love to travel.

KOKÜPPHA- D (Kichitssathoh eno Apuh Assü Leshe)
11. Achipiu tsathi pe kimeve tsülo: 5x1=5
(a) Alhou no lhoküsu lhoxu dolo _______ akumghau.
(i) amishi (ii) timi
(iii) awo (iv) atsu

(b) Aghau hipau pesu __________ ipi cheni.
(i) Thochipa (ii) Thochiu
(iii) Tusholi (iv) Chishilimi

(c) Timi huye pa thikuzuu__________ sasu aluche kughungü ache.
(i) Angushuu (ii) Shixilho

(iii) Lhoxu (iv) Tüghami
(d) Axeu no ________ no le ini ani.
(i) noye (ii) Niye
(iii) paye (iv) ningu ye

-4- NB-T/S/1

(e) _________ kuxo shi ishi xo puwo cheni lai.
(i) Axathi (ii) Axamunu
(iii) Aboxi (iv) Hengu

Atsathi 20 – 25 dolono khochilelo: 6x2=12
12. William Carey no kutsu keu akhoto kiu kea?
13. Timi ye kiu kiu ilhove cheni pi ithi ani kea?
14. Sumi khuayelo kiu ghuloki lono ahepuu kusawo kughulhu cheni kea?
15. “Nono isasu kusho nishi aye lashola lo kulhobo kita lo wo ikhe aghilo.” Atsajo hipau
ye khuno khiu vilo pi ani kea?
16. Leshe hipau akiqi pitsulo
O ishe anga ozano kupunulo.
Ipolono pukiyeni aye aqhi chighi.
17. a. “Kighili kuami hu ni xeu
Shimulla küpü shenila.”. Kiu ghenguno küpü shenila ipi ani kea?
Momü
b. Ino putho zuhu gholumo ikujo vehu kishito, lau no tcheju puwu aye inhezu iqighi
anishi saye. Akiqi pitsulo.

Atsathi 40-50 dolono khochilelo: 4x2=8
18. a. Ame ye kishi kugha cheni kea? Hipaqo akiqi ye lo. Ahepuu, anisüu eno
Akhaukipeu.
Momü
b. Thochipa ye kishino ajoji ghawu mih ithulu kea?

19. Atsala no anheu no atsütsu ilokighi
Tiye aghuthemi no akutsu pe,
Ilokighi ngushi aghini mulai!
Atsajo hiye kiu leshe lo ani kea?
Leshe akiqi pitsulo.

Atsathi 60 - 90 dolono khochilelo :
20. a. William Carey ye kughono India lo ighi eno paye Kishino India lo ighilu keno
kishekulu apasushi yelo. 5
Momü
b. John Simon Commissioner ye kugho no Kohima lo ighi kea? Paye kiu ghenguno ighi
eno Nagami dolo. Khuu no kiu kishi pa khochile kea?

21. a “Anachumi ishi kumomi huno
Chehu ashe lono laju puha cheye
O ki tchelo kithila ju qa ye,
Timi ye ni lojimi pavinie pi kumsüye.”

i. Leshe hipau lo khuno akipiu kea? 1
ii. Khuu no ashe lo khu ju puha kea? 1
iii. Oki tcholo kithila ju qaye pi akeu ye kiu pi ani kea? 2
iv. Khuno lojimi pavini pi kumsu kea? 1
Momü
b. Yevihe no xeu aghili thwokha, agilo

-5- NB-T/S/1

kughujupu kishimi hu, Itsa igha süsü
aqhe ghili shi. Ozano piye püzü ato
inawoye, No kümsü ana.
i. Yevihe no xeu ye khu-u kea. 1
ii. Agilo kughujupu eno itsa igha aqhe ghili shi hiye kiu pi ani kea? 2
iii. Aza ye khu-u kea? 1
iv. Hiye kiu leshe lo ani kea? 1

22. “O itsü no hakiye ino kihi ato ino kihi ato ino
Kugho lono ashi thami no ilo pa thalu
Lhoaye hakiye wo wonizu ye wo
Pazano kupujuno alaju puha ala
Oishe itsuli wokulho no amukulo ani
Itsu sailewo ghilo, sailewo
Nighasa lo ghulo lakhi kivehu juana.”
Leshe hipau kiqi pitsulo (5)

****************************

Total number of printed pages : 5 NB-T/L/1
2023
LOTHA
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours

General Instructions :
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 22 main questions.
iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.

SECTION - A ( Ekhao)
1. Oküpoe erani elio shi khae zesi engao jiang janlana:
Nkolo oyan motsünga lo ntsinran elümoto thüngche kyon nchyua vancho.
Tsüngon motsünga lo ombo na lantsü sanphia yia vanathung olani mmyotsoe nchyua na
Olong tsüphov tvü shünga/eshüpa vancho ndokcho. Ntsinran jina ombo ndüngo sena owo,
eramo ni elhi shijo echen evüng na enno elhi saka ocho echi roa sana tokha etssatsso- moriv
ndang shona tssovkhato to ezocho.
Tole mmyotsoe jina shompo Nkyingsao long roaka to ezole, kako eranpvüi
ntsinran jina, ni zesi elüm a lümbüm joa yia je. Kyon ochina ha hetata teri kümi sangezüpi
eküm süphiv to jo elüm zani sithaka. Nina heto sangmoka vana khatola kyon ochina ha ni
ncheka ka, tolia a na nilo longtsüka lika, tsüngon motsünga lo jo oyim na ni chekao mekana
ni thüngta eyio tvü sükhying lo mpi vanchokchiv ka nra lüm theta elhi tssokhe to ezocho,
tole mmyotsoe jina tsüphoeyio, a tsükona jo elhi tsüpho tsütsa, thanthüng myingthüng lia
tvü jo nonghothüng na a nnjüpon; a na enhunga tssoa evamo shi na lia a tssochyua; elani
toha ekümo a ‘matha tso jijo a na ntio doa na hoji tssoi lüm emia, emathata, jüngra lia
noyinga evamvü ji a chokatsso to janlancho.
Janlan ji engasi, ntsinran jina nina ephyo ji elüm elantheta, tolia nri-nrona
sangmoka evamo ji thüngina jo sorikari elhi tssoi mekana thanpo elhilan mmhom tvü
rhümae benta-züta, pvülyu-pvüsha evamo ji mmhomo tssov la? Ndo to ezole, mmyotsoe
jina, tsüphoeyio otsotsoka. Tolia, a na oyi motsünga ni a enga hungala to phyoa Nino
ntsinran elani kako eranpvüi benta züta evan tsüphoe nchyua to a na ni chetheta. Tokha,
nina ni wopan jiang pono yuta shanlan motsünga tia khi vanlanyilan mmhonka tsükona
shümhyacho lili han? To enga le, ntsinran jina oh! A elhilan mori ji ephan küma, a na
wopan jiang ndüngo khokthei senchümtae motsü mono rüta evam jijo a tsükona yuta nnli to
phyoa kholani yi sicho.

Engao shiang janlana:
(a) Ntsinran jina kyon kvütvü ndokcho la? 1
(b) Ntsinran jina mmyotsoe ji ntio yi ezocho la? 1
(c) Ntsinran jina ocho zesi kvüto nchüma lümbüm joa yicho la? 1

(d) Mmyotsoe ji sükhying tsükona Ntsinran jina kvüto phyoa ezocho la? 1
(e) Ntio kvütvü ekümo evamvü ji ombo emathatso to mmyotsoe jina phyocho la?
1

-2- NB-T/L/1

(f) Ntsinran jina mmyotsoe ji ntio kvütvü ekümo evamo ji mmhomo tssov to
ezocho la? 1
(g) Mmyotsoe jijo ntio nnjüpon cho la? 1
(h) Ntsinran jina ntio kvüto phyoa kholani yi sicho la? 1
(i) Motsü shi lona yitsüng esütao tvü yani erana: 1+1=2
(i) Rümphia (ii) Eramoreni

SECTION – B (Eramo)
2. Oküpi pi elio shiang onilo motsünga ethüngi, yitsüng 100 -150 harüma na erana:
a. Ni no Myingthungo/ Myingthunglo, ni na vana eramo yantsüro (town) jilo kyon jiang na
onte ki etssov tsütsailan olan olan hansi oyi olani vatao ji yakchia zotoro jiang
sanphisanri lo ezüp ntoka evamo ji yansaron khi tangthechitokvü tsükona Nagaland Post
yithen kako jilo yithen etssüngchopvüi thüngi yiyenran/yiyenta erana.
Mekana 6

b. Nzyu 2022 jilo ni khaphen yanphen ki jilo na pungnoe tsüngon (Teacher’s Day) jilo
lankon eramo jüa khitacho. Osi hoji kvüto khitacho sana nte khaphen ki yithen kako
(School Magazine) ji lo theta yirüa (report) erana.

3. Oküpi pi elio shiang onilo motsünga ethüngi, yitsüng 50 harüma na erana :
a. Ni na kha evamo khaphen ki ji oki ethan tssoi, hoji nthocheta evamo ji tsükona nte
pvüopo jiang lhinsüng jilo oro ethev tsükona etsa kako erana.
Mekana 4
b. Ekhiranta:
Ni tona ni shom ji to nini yutalo joren taro (Class Ten) nkyakcho sülo Science khata
evamo ji mmhon osi nmhon tsükona ekhiranta oyi elonta erana.

SECTION - C (Yinsanlan)
4. Janlan pi elio jiang lona elamo ji erana : 5x1=5
(a) Nonkümrhüm (Lirirhüm) shi yuta ji jo:
(i) Emhü to chesü yuta ji tssoala (ii) Chopük to nri yuta ji tssoala
(iii) Nrüngtsü to chopük yuta ji tssoala (iv) Eden to jikanika yuta ji tssoala

(b) Njyu jo ete pungnoe ji jo kvülo sana yia vancho. Shilo yuta tepfüyi/tongphiyio yi ji jo.

(i) Kvülo (ii) Njyu
(iii) Yia (iv) Vancho

(c) Nzansi kako shi nkgho pungnoe ji hantoka. Shilo mhachungyi elamo ji khi sekata.
(i) Thüngi (ii) Lona
(iii) Tsükona (iv) Lo

(d) Ni shom ji ha ete ndüngo rocho. Shilo shenti lhitssoyi ji jo.
(i) Ndüngo (ii) Ni
(iii) Ete (iv) Rocho

-3- NB-T/L/1

(e) Yitsüng ‘Zana’ shi yichak esütao yitsüng ji jo;
(i) Elonga (ii) Mataroa
(iii) Khosha (iv) Hungria

5. Yiren pi elio shiang ntio eyieton sana etsyukae ejüa .
a. Nzansi, kako lümtheta kha. 1
b. Ana elhi tssocho salivo eli a kumthakvü 1

6. Yiren pi elio shiang etsyuchi pi elio jiang ephani na janlana.
a. A na kako erana vana. (Yiren shi simple past tense kumtoka) 1
b. Ombo na yentsa lo yia vanthakcho. (Present perfect continuous tense kumtoka) 1

7. Yiren shiang erhüyi kümtoka. 2x1=2
a. Ombo na phyocho, “Khaphen shi lo na ekhav ji a nchoka.”
b. Pungnoe ji na ekhae jiang ezocho, “Lotha yi jo ocho na nte pungnoa la?”

8. Yitsüng ‘yinga’ shi na yichak eni pia yiren nsüngrüa. 2x1=2

9. Yiren pi elio shiang yitsünga tae na janlana 2x1=2
a. Otsoe tsüka tae evamo ji.
b. Ntia methak nli na tssüka oyi nsamo ji.

10. Yiren shiang Lotha yi na Khophia. 5x1=5
a. The wind is blowing since morning
b. When did you complete the work?
c. Charity begins at home.
d. May God bless you good health!
e. This girl is very good in singing.

SECTION – D (Eranntolan)
11. Engao shiang akvülo elamo ji ethüngi janlana: 5x1=5
a. Onjeni motsü jilo mmhorü ji na ekümrüm rümi hamo jiang yulo ntio ekümrüm ji na
vüngkhong tssoa hancho la?
(i) Siano (ii) Nipong
(iii) Sepvü (iv) Shiali

b. Limhatsü ritsso ovüngo ji jo nzyü kvüta lona kvüta nandang tssotacho la?
(i) 1914 lona 1919 nandang tssotacho
(ii) 1914 lona 1918 nandang tssotacho
(iii) 1914 lona 1917 nandang tssotacho
(iv) 1939 lona 1945 nandang tssotacho

c. ‘Pungnoeten’ jiang jo elhi etssoeten olan kvütato jilo thechicho la?
(i) Elhi etssoeten olan mezhüto

-4- NB-T/L/1

(ii) Elhi etssoeten olan ethümoto jilo
(iii) Elhi etssoeten olan ovüngoto jilo
(iv) Elhi etssoeten olan mongoto jilo

d. Chungiyi ‘Wokha yantsüro’ jilo eranpvüo ji jo.
(i) K.R Murry (ii) Y.Y. Kikon
(iii) Lilanthung Kinghen (iv) Orhyuo Tungoe

e. “Obenro” yitsüng shi yichak jo;
(i) Nzantsoro (ii) Ngaroro
(iii) Okharo (iv) Nzantio

Oküpoe engao shiang yitsüng 20 – 25 harüma na janlana: 6x2=12
12. Mungtsülo opyavoang na kvütolyui onte oyilov Mungtsülo ji owo hungcho la?
13. ‘Nte na loroe ji soa a vantokvo, A na phechei nte piv khatolia.’
a. Yiren shi jo ocho na phyocho la?
b. Loroe ji jo ocho tssocho la?
14. Mojü khorüm ha jilo ntio ntio thei hansi Rhyuvenpheni woala?
15. Eranpvüo ji na pofü zhükhü jijo ntio esücho to phyocho la?
16. Etsüi jiang na Wokha meta jilo ntio ntio hüngi epitacho la?
17. a. Ntio tsükona eboe ji na eüng ji thungi ti nungra le to ezocho la?
Mekana
b. ‘Eng na shanro riathung khümcho nlhio to ti tsso’ shi yichak eroroa erana.

Oküpoe engao shiang yitsüng 40 – 50 harüma na janlana: 2x4=8
18. a. Hümchipili na kvütolyui yingkhi jilo rhowo vancho la?
Mekana
b. Elhi chiroi tssotao ji omaneli jiang erana.

19. ‘Nte mayangro obenro ashavo na,
Echüi tsi ntso hanila,
Echui soko nyu hanila,
Ochi yanben obenro sana tokha
Ashavo to joro soto yenjania’
a. Yiren shiang jo ocho na phyocho la? (1)
b. Ntio tsükona yiren shiang phyocho la? (1)
c. ‘Ashavo to joro soto yenjania’ shi eroroa erana. (2)

Oküpoe engao shiang yitsüng 60 – 90 harüma na janlana: 3x5=15
20. a. Rithak tokhü chekav jiang erana.
Mekana

-5- NB-T/L/1

b. Ranphan na Mmhorü ji kvütolyui owo lungthacho la?

21. Chungiyi ‘Oshomo Merangcho’ yintssen ji erana.

22. a. “Ni lo mizhü wondang etho jücho saküma Ajiran ezhü lona zenkhae jiang na milon
etho, Tssüngyae Naga lisha phonglan jiang süngzhüi khi, Ni mizhü etho na thera
kitsücho to wondangtokala.” Shi khenzhü etsyukata eroroa.
Mekana
b. ‘Ete oren shilo jo, nti ntani na
Sümro ezhü ntav vena roe khi,
Echü lia echü kilasi ena yio
Supen rhonkacho to chüa tsayila,
Ntüng kitsücho to chüa tsayila,
Rhüpen eki jacho to chüa tsayila,
Ete oren shilo jo yantaro azüm kila.”
a. Nti ntani ji yichak jo ntio la? (1)
b. Ntio tsükona eranpvüo ji na süpen, Ntüng tona Rhüpen thera shiang ejyukata
phyocho la? (1)
c. Khenzhü shi jo ntio chungiyi lona khichecho la? (1)
d. ‘Echü lia echü kilasi e na yio, süpen, rhonkacho ntüng kütsücho tona Rhüpen eki
jacho to chüa tsayila.’ Shi etsyukata eroroa erana. (2)

*********************************

3 NB-T/H/1

4 NB-T/H/1

NB-T/B/1

Total number of printed pages-7

2023
BENGALI
Total Marks: 80 Time : 3 hours
General Instructions:
(i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and
revise the answers.
(ii) The question paper consists of 23 main questions.
(iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
(iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.

N.B. : Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated
on the top left side.

বিভাগ – ‘ক’
পাঠ (Reading)

1. বিচের পাঠটি মচিাচ াগ বিচে পড়ঃ

আজকাল, শুক্রিার, ৭জািু োবর, ২০২২, কলকাতা, ২২:৪৩:: মু র্শিদাবাদ জেলার জ ামকল থানা এলাকা
বরাবরই রােননর্িক র্ িংসা, জবামা তির্র জথকক শুরু ককর র্বর্িন্ন জবআইর্ন কারেকলাকের েনয প্রায়ই
খবকরর র্শকরানাকম থাকক। িকব এবার জ ামকলকক খবকরর র্শকরানাকম র্নকয় একসকে জ ামককলর এক
অখযাি গ্রাম দাকসরচককর বার্সন্দা মাসাদুল জশখ। মাসাদুল এখন জেলার জসাশযাল র্মর্দয়ার নিুন জসনকসশন।
বাঙালির জেকল মাসাদুকলর মালায়ালাম িাষাকি গাওয়া গাকনর র্ির্ ও এখন জগাটা িারিকক মািাকে। িাাঁর
গাকনর র্ির্ ও ের্িকয় েকিকে র্বর্িন্ন জসাশযাল র্মর্ য়াকি।
দমককলর একটি স্কুল জথকক দ্বাদশ শ্রেলির ের্িন্ত েিাকশানা করার ের মাসাদুল মু র্শিদাবাকদর ইসলামেু র
ককলকে ির্িি কয়র্েকলন। র্কন্তু অকথির অিাকব জসখাকনই িাাঁর েিাকশানার ইর্ি ঘকট। সিংসার চালাকি
জেকটর দাকয় এরের র্ির্ন গ্রামের আরও দশেকনর সকে োর্ি জদন জকরালাকি ের্রর্ায়ী শ্রর্মককর কাে
করকি। প্রথাগি িার্লম না থাককলও গাকনর প্রর্ি বরাবরই িালবাসা র্েল মাসাদুকলর। িাই জকরালাকি
র্গকয়ও অবসর সমকয় গুনগুন ককর গান গাওার অিযাস োকিন র্ন মাসাদুল। িকব জকরালাকি র্গকয় িাাঁর
নিুন শখ োকগ মালায়ালাম িাষাকি গান গাওয়ার, আর জর্মন িাবা জিমন কাে।

মাসাদুল োর্নকয়কেন, “জকরালাকি কাে করার সময় সব জথকক আমাকক অসু র্বধার মকধয জেকল িাষার
সমসযা। িাই বের খাকনক আকগ মালায়ালাম িাষার বই র্ককন ওই িাষা র্শখকি শুরু কর্র। আর মালায়ালাম
িাষায় সিগি ওয়ার েনয স্থানীয় মালয়ার্ল বন্ধুকদর সকে অকদর িাষাকিই কথা বর্ল।”সম্প্রর্ি মালয়ালম

[2]
NB-T/B/1
িাষাকি র্নকের গাওয়া ককয়কটি গান একটি েনর্প্রয় সমােমাধযকম জোস্ট ককরর্েকলন, আর িাকিই কামাল
কয়কে। ইর্িমকধয জকরকলর চযাকনকল গান গাওয়া শুরু কয় জগকে জ ামককলর মাসাদুকলর। সম্প্রর্ি িাাঁর
াক েকির্েল জকরালার র্বখযাি র্বকনাদন চযাকনল ফ্লাওয়াসি টির্ির স্টুর্ ওকি।
জসখাকন দর্িকের র্িন র্বখযাি অর্িকনিা োকরু, প্রকোদ এবিং সােু র সামকন মালায়ার্ল এবিং বািংলাকি গান
জগকয় জশানান। ওই অনু ষ্ঠাকনর উেস্থার্েকা দর্িকের অের এক েনর্প্রয় নার্য়কা রচনা,মাসাদুকলর গান শুকন
মু গ্ধ কয় বার বার িাাঁর র্েঠ চােকি জদন। জসই র্ির্ ও এখন িাইরাল কয় জগকে।
মাসাদুল োর্নকয়কেন, ইর্িমকধয র্ির্ন ওই প্রর্িকর্ার্গিার র্দ্বিীয় রাউকে জে াঁকেকেন। এখন েরকদকম চলকে
িাাঁর গাকনর প্রস্তুর্ি। জ ামককলর র্বধায়ক োর্েকুল ইসলাম বকলন, “প্রর্িিাকক জকউ কখনও আটকক
রাখকি োকর না; মাসাদুল জ ামকল র্েকর একল িাাঁকক বি ককর সিংবধিনা জদওয়া কব এবিং িাাঁর একক
সেীিানু ষ্ঠাকনর আকয়ােন করা কব।”

প্রাে ৫ থেচক ১০ টি শচে বিচের প্রশ্নগুবলর উত্তর িাও :

(ক) জ ামকল ের্িমবকের জকান জেলায় অবর্স্থি? 1

(খ) মাসাদুল জশখ জকান জেলার বার্সন্দা? 1
(গ) মাসাদুল জসাশযাল র্মর্ য়ায় নিুন জসনকসশন জকন? 1

(ঘ) মাসাদুকলর র্শিাগি জর্াগযিা কিটুকু? 1
(ঙ) মাসাদুল জকরালাকি র্গকয় জকান িাষায় গান জগকয়র্েল? 1
(চ) মাসাদুকলর িাষাগি সমসযা র্কিাকব র্মকটর্েল? 1

(ে) জকরালার র্বখযাি র্বকনাদন চযাকনলটির নাম কী? 1
(ে) মাসাদুল কাকদর মালায়ার্ল ও বািংলা গান শুর্নকয়র্েল? 1
(ঝ) জ ামককলর র্বধায়ককর নাম কী? 1

(ঞ) বাচয র্নেিয় কর : জসই র্ির্ ও এখন িাইরাল কয় জগকে। 1
বিভাগ – ‘খ’
রেিা ও বিবমি বত (Writing and Composition)

2. বিচের থ থকািও একটি বিষে থিচে বিচে ১০০ থেচক ১৫০ টি শচের মচযে উত্তর িাও :
(ক) িুর্ম র্বনয়/ র্বর্নিা, সম্প্রর্ি স্থানীয় একটি ঐর্ি ার্সক স্থাকন (Historical place) জবিাকি

র্গকয় রিোকবিকের (maintenance) অিাকব জসই োয়গাটির ঐর্ি ার্সক স্মারকগুর্লর
(historical monument) িগ্নদশা জদকখ মনঃিুণ্ণ (disappointed) কয় স্থানীয় সিংবাদেকের
সম্পাদককক (editor) র্চঠি জলকখা। স্থানটির ঐর্ি ার্সক গুরুত্ব উকেখ ককর িারিীয় প্রত্নিার্ত্বক

[3]
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র্বিাগকক (archaeological survey of India) এই োয়গাটি অর্ধগ্র ে(acquisition) ককর
ঐর্ি যমর্েি জায়গা (Heritage place) লিমেমব জঘাষো করার অনু করাধ োনাও। 6
অেিা
(খ) িুর্ম জশখর/ িৃপ্তা, েু কনবু কটা (Zunheboto) এ র্ে োবর্লক স্কুকলর দশম জশ্রর্ের র্শিাথী। একটি
সািংস্কৃর্িক র্বর্নময় কমিসূর্চ (Cultural exchange program) র্ কসকব জকরালার দুটি স্কুকলর
অধযি (Principal) জিামাকদর স্কুল ের্রদশিন ককরকেন। র্বদযালকয়র র্শিাথীরা িাাঁকদর সম্মাকন
একটি সািংস্কৃর্িক অনু ষ্ঠাকনর (Cultural Program) আকয়ােন ককরর্েল। জিামাকদর স্কুকলর
সামর্য়ক ের্েকায়(magazine)এই র্বষকয় একটি প্রর্িকবদন (Report)জলকখা।

3. িয েিাবযক ৪০ থেচক ৫০ টি শচে বিচের থ থকািও একটি প্রচশ্নর উত্তর িাও :
(ক) জমসাসি ধনরাে র্েোই অযান্ড সন্স গীিাঞ্জর্ল এনকেি, দ্বারকা, র্দর্েকি ‘গযালার্ি নকিলটি’স
নাকম একটি র্বিার্েি িাোর (Departmental Store) খু লকি চকলকেন আগার্ম ১৪ই এর্প্রল
২০২৩, শুক্রবার সকাল ১১ টায় র্ার উকদ্বাধন কব। এই উেলকি একটি আনু ষ্ঠার্নক আমন্ত্রনেকের
খসিা জলকখা। 4
অথবা
(খ) মাধযর্মককর (HSLC exam) ের কলা, বার্েেয নার্ক র্বজ্ঞান (Arts, Commerce or
Science) জকান র্বষয় র্নকয় েিকব জসই র্বষকয় রােীব ও িনয়া দুই স োঠীর মকধয একটি
কাল্পর্নক সিংলাে র্লর্েবদ্ধ কর।
বিভাগ – ‘গ’
িোকরণ ও অিু িাি (Grammar & Translation)
4. বিচের বিকল্পগুবল থেচক সঠিক উত্তরটি থিচে িাও :
(ক) জর্খাকন র্ক্রয়ার অথিই প্রধানিাকব প্রিীয়মান য়, জসখাকন য় — 1
(i) কিৃিবাচয (ii) কমিবাচয
(iii) িাববাচয (iv) কমিকিৃিবাচয

(খ) সমস্তেদটি র্বকেষে ককর জর্ বাকযািংশ র্দকয় িাকক বযাখযা করা য়, িার নাম — 1
(i) সমসযমানেদ (ii) বযাসবাকয
(iii) েূ বিেদ (iv) উত্তরেদ

(গ) াকট াাঁর্ি িাো মাকন — 1
(i) কােিেয করা
(ii) অ ঙ্কার প্রকাশ করা
(iii) র্া খু র্শ িাই করা

(iv) জলাকসমকি জগােন বযাোর প্রকাশ করা

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(ঘ) র্র্র্ন কম কথা বকলন, িাকক এককথায় বকল — 1
(i) জবাবা (ii) র্মষ্টিাষী
(iii) র্মিিাষী (iv) চুেচাে

(ঙ) অম্লমধু র – এই সমস্তেদটির বযাসবাকয কব — 1
(i) অম্ল অথচ মধু র (ii) অম্ল ও মধু র
(iii) অকম্লর মধু র (iv) মধু র অম্ল

5. িােে বিণি ে কর :
(i) প্রধান র্শিক োিীয় েিাকা উকত্তালন ককরকেন। 1
(ii) আমার দ্বারা এ কাে কব না। 1
(iii) স্কুকল বই ার্রকয় জগকে। 1

6. সােি ক িাচকে প্রচোগ কর :
(i) মান্ধািার আমল 1
(ii) িরা ু র্ব 1

7. িোসিাকে সহ সমাস বিণি ে কর :
(i) র্মষ্টান্ন 1
(ii) দশানন 1
(iii) কাগেেে 1

8. এককোে প্রকাশ কর :
(i) সকরাবকর েকে র্া 1
(ii) র্র্র্ন দার ের্রগ্র ককরন র্ন 1

9. িাাংলাে অিু িাি কর :
(i) Your flight has been cancelled. 1
(ii) Are you good in Mathematics? 1
(iii) We should do more exercise. 1
(iv) It’s too expensive! 1
(v) An idle brain is the devil’s workshop. 1

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বিভাগ – ‘ঘ’
সাবহতে – গিোাংশ ও পিোাংশ (Literature)

10. বিচের বিকল্পগুবল থেচক সঠিক উত্তরটি থিচে িাও :

(ক) বাকরায়ার্র েু কোর চাাঁদা িুলকি জবর্রকয়র্েকলন — 1
(i) রায় বাবু (ii) োল বাবু
(iii) দত্ত বাবু (iv) জসন বাবু

(খ) কালককিু র্ককসর আসকন জখকি বকসর্েল? 1
(i) বাঘোল (ii) র্রকনর োল
(iii) কুশাসন (iv) কম্বকলর আসন

(গ) ‘বেদশিন’ র্েল — 1
(i) মার্সক পলিকা (ii) তেমার্সক পলিকায়
(iii) ষাণ্মার্সক পলিকা (iv) বার্ষিক পলিকায়

(ঘ) ‘েগদীশচন্দ্র’ কর্বিাটিকি ‘িেস্বী’ বকল সকম্বাধন করা কয়কে র্াকক — 1
(i) ঋর্ষ অরর্বন্দকক (ii) রবীন্দ্রনাথকক
(iii) েগদীশচন্দ্রকক (iv) স্বামী র্বকবকানন্দকক

(ঙ) ‘বলাই’ কী োিীয় জোটগল্প? 1
(i) জি র্িক (ii) প্রকৃর্ি র্বষয়ক
(iii) সামার্েক (iv) আধযার্িক

২০ থেচক ২৫ টি শচে বিচের থ থকািও ে’টি প্রচশ্নর উত্তর িাও : 6x2 =12

11. বাকরায়ার্র েু কো র্কিাকব সৃ র্ষ্ট য়? জস বের বাকরায়ার্র েু কোর অধযি জক কয়র্েকলন? (1+1=2)

12. ‘কেিকার্ন্ত অনু োম’ — ‘অনু োম’ শকের অথি কী? এখাকন জেিকার্ন্ত বলকি কাকক
জবাঝাকনা কয়কে? (1+1=2)
13. ের্মদার কমিচার্র েরাে মেলকক র্কিাকব ঠর্ককয়কে? ের্মদার কমিচার্রকদর অসিিার েকনয
দায়ী জক? (1+1=2)

14. “ই বাকন জকউ মরকব না?” — উর্িটি কার? এখাকন ‘বান’ বলকি জকান বাকনর কথা বলা

কয়কে? (1+1=2)

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15. “েৃ র্থবী অচল আে িাকদর সু েরামশি োিা।”— জকান কর্বিার অিংশ? ‘িাকদর’ বলকি
কাকদর কথা বলা কয়কে? (1+1=2)

16. “একবার িাকক জ কক আনকি োর্রস বাবা?” — জক এই অনু করাধ ককরকে? কাকক জ কক
আনার কথা বলা কয়কে? (1+1=2)

17. ‘োগাও শ করর প্রাকন্ত প্রান্তকর’ — জকান শ করর কথা বলা কয়কে? কী োগাকনার কথা
বলা কয়কে? (1+1=2)

কম – থিবশ ৪০ থেচক ৫০ টি শচে বিচের থ থকািও দুটি প্রচশ্নর উত্তর িাও : 2x4 =8

18. জেকলকবলা জথকক বলাইকয়র কী অিযাস র্েল? কখন জকমন ককর িার অন্তর-প্রকৃর্িকি
ঘন রিং লাগি? িখন বলাইকয়র কী ইকে ি? (1+2+1 =4)

19. “প্রাকনর প্রথম বােী এইমকিা োকগ চার্রর্িকি” —
(i) জকান কর্বিার অিংশ? (1)
(ii) কর্বর নাম কী? (1)
(iii) কার প্রাকের বােীর কথা বলা কয়কে? (1)
(iv) র্কিাকব িা জেকগ উকঠকে? (1)

20. “ককন এবার রান্নােূ ো করর্ল না রাক্কুসী?” —
(i) জকান োকঠর অিংশ? (1)
(ii) জক এই কথা বকলকে? (1)
(iii) জস কাকক ‘রাক্কুসী’ বকল সকম্বাধন ককরকে? (1)
(iv) ‘রান্নােু ো’ কী? (1)

প্রাে ৬০ থেচক ৯০ টি শচে বিচের প্রশ্নগুবলর উত্তর িাও :

21. (ক) “বযাকধর সিংসার অরেযোি সামগ্রীর ওের র্নিি রশীল।”— আকলাচনা কর। 5
অথবা
(খ) “শুর্নয়া কানু র জবেু ঊর্ধ্িমু কখ ধায় জধনু
েু ে জের্ল র্েকঠর উেকর।।”
(i) জকান োকঠর অিংশ? (1)
(ii) কর্বর নাম কী? (1)
(iii) কানু কার নাম? (1)

(iv) ‘জবেু ’ মাকন কী? (1)
(v) ওেকরর সার্র দুটির মাকন বু র্ঝকয় জলকখা। (1)

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22. (ক) “একসা জগা বাবু জোট আদালি!” —

(i) জকান োকঠর অিংশ? 1
(ii) জলখককর নাম কী? 1
(iii) কারা কখন এই কথা বকল র্চৎকার করি? 2
(iv) িারা কি টাকা িািা াাঁকর্েল? 1

অেিা

(খ) “কাঙালী আর প্রাথিনা কর্রল না।” —
(i) জকান োকঠর অিংশ? (1)
(ii) জলখককর নাম কী? (1)
(iii) কাঙালী কার কাকে কী প্রাথিনা ককরর্েল? (1)
(iv) কাঙালী আর প্রাথিনা না করার কারে কী? (2)

23. ‘অদ্ভুি আাঁধার এক’ কর্বিার নামকরকের সাথিকিা আকলাচনা কর। 5

************************

Total number of printed pages: 5 NB-T/AE/1
2023
ALTERNATIVE ENGLISH
Total marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers
ii) The question paper consists of 21questions.
iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left
side.
Unit – I (Reading)
1. Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:
Marie was born in 1867 in Warsaw, Poland, where her father was a
Professor of Physics. At an early age, she displayed a brilliant mind and a blithe
personality. Her great exuberance for learning prompted her to continue with her
studies after high school. She became disgruntled, however, whenever she learnt
that the university in Warsaw was closed to women. Determined to receive a higher
education, she defiantly left Poland and in 1892 entered the Sorbonne, a French
university, where she earned her master’s degree and doctorate in Physics.
Marie was fortunate to have studied at the Sorbonne with some of the
greatest scientists of her day, one of whom was Pierre Curie. Marie and Pierre were
married in 1895 and spent many productive years working together in the physics
laboratory. A short time after they discovered radium, Pierre was killed by a horse-
drawn wagon in 1906. Marie was stunned by this horrible misfortune and endured
heartbreaking anguish. Despondently she recalled their close relationship and the
joy that they had shared in scientific research. The fact that she had two young
daughters to raise by herself greatly increased her distress.
Curie’s feeling of desolation finally began to fade when she was asked to
succeed her husband as a physics professor at the Sorbonne. She was the first
woman to be given a professorship at the world-famous university. In 1911 she
received the Nobel Prize in chemistry for isolating radium. Although Marie Curie
eventually suffered a fatal illness from her long exposure to radium, she never
became disillusioned about her work. Regardless of the consequences, she had
dedicated herself to science and to revealing the mysteries of the physical world.
a. Why did Marie Curie not join the university at Warsaw? 1
b. What was Marie Curie’s contribution to science? 1
c. Where did Marie Curie do her master’s degree? 1
d. Why did Marie get sick? 1
e. What happened to Pierre Curie? 1

-2- NB-T/AE/1

2. Read the poem and answer the questions that follow:
The sun does arise,
And make happy the skies;
The merry bells ring
To welcome the spring;
The skylark and rush,
The birds of the bush.,
Sing louder around
To the bells’ cheerful sound;
While our sports shall be seen
On the Echoing Green.
Old John, with white hair,
Does laugh away care,
Sitting under the oak,
Among the old folk.
They laugh at our play,
And soon they all say,
‘Such, such were the joys-
When we all- girls and boys-
In our youth-time were seen
On the Echoing Green.’
Till the little ones, weary,
No more can be merry:
The sun does descend,
And our sports have an end:
Round the laps of their mothers
Many sisters and brothers,
Like birds in their nest,
Are ready for rest;
And sports no more seen,
On the darkening Green. (William Blake)

a. What makes the skies happy? 1
b. Name two birds mentioned in the poem. 1
c. Who sit and watch the children play? 1
Write true of false:
d. The children goes to the sisters’ laps when evening descends. 1
e. The old age is compared to morning and youth to evening. 1

UNIT– II (Writing and Applied Grammar)
3. a. Write a story about a family that won a lottery of 20 lakhs. But they refused to

claim the prize. (Mention in your story about who bought the ticket, why they
refused to take the prize money, what will happen to the money, whether any

-3- NB-T/AE/1

disagreement took place among the family members, the decision the family
took in the end) 6
Or
b. Write an article in about 150-200 words for the school magazine on “Ban on
single use plastics.”

4. Write a dialogue in about 100-150 words between two friends about their plans for
the future after they clear the HSLC exams. 6

5. Rewrite the sentences as directed in the brackets: 2x1=2
a. John kept writing until he ran out of paper. (Underline the Clause)
b. No other fruit is as sour as a lemon. (Underline the degree of comparison of the
adjectives)

6. Fill in the blanks with the correct prepositions: 2x1=2
a. The teacher stood _________ the students.
b. I will be back ___________ two hours.

7. Fill in the blanks with correct conjunctions: 2x1=2
a. Always look both ways _______you cross the road.
b. The robbers looted the traveller; _________ they beat him.

8. Change the voice: 2x1=2
a. The workers have called off the strike.
b. I read a poem.
Unit – III (Literature)
9. Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given: 10x1=10
i. What weighed down the “half pants” of Toshi and his friends as they run down the
short cut?
a. Fruits in their pockets
b. Creepers and vines
c. Slingshots of clay balls and other precious play possessions
d. Hands in their pockets

ii. What was the ‘daring idea’ that Pasteur and Roux got?
a. To crush the shriveled medulla
b. That rabies might not travel in the blood
c. To inject the virus directly into the brain
d. To test on animals

iii. Where was Severn Suzuki born?

a. Brazil b. Somalia
c. Canada d. India

-4- NB-T/AE/1

iv. How many children took part in the race? (In Celebration of Being Alive)
a. One b. Two
c. Three d. None of the above

v. Where was the ambitious guest going to?
a. Burlington b. White Mountains
c. Maine d. Bartlett

vi. Where does the poet want God’s kingdom to be established?
a. Minds and souls b. Hearts and homes
c. Hearts and minds d. Homes and souls

vii. Which of the saying reflects the message of the poem ‘Closed Path’?
a. “When one door closes another opens.”
b. “Every cloud has a silver lining”
c. “God works in mysterious ways”
d. “Be content with what you have”

viii. What makes the old people want to forgive life?
a. Their bodies are weak
b. They are tired of laughing
c. They have forgotten about their past
d. The promise of painless death

ix. Who brought a new skirt each for Margot and Anne?
a. Kraler b. Miep
c. Vossen d. Elli

x. Whose idea was it to build a bookcase in front of the entrance to the Secret Annex?
a. Otto Frank b. Mr. vanDaan
c. Mr. Koophius d. Mr. Kraler

Answer the following questions in about 20-25 words: 3x2=6
10. Why did Pasteur test the blood of mad animals? (Man against Virus)
11. Why did Dr. Barnard find suffering of children particularly heart breaking? (In
Celebration of Being Alive)
12. a. What is the code mentioned in the poem “Prayer of the Meek”?
Or
b. Why are ‘fresh thoughts’ important to Wordsworth as a poet? (To Sleep)

Answer the questions in about 20-25 words: 2x2=4

13. Why was Anne’s father angry? (The Diary of a Young Girl)
14. What made Anne decide to be a writer? (The Diary of a Young Girl)

-5- NB-T/AE/1

Answer the following questions in about 40-45 words: 4x4=16
15. ‘Back then Mokokchung was very, very far away but now it is only 40 km or so away
from my village’ (The Fragrance of the Gods)
a. Why was Mokokchung farther from Toshi’s village during childhood than when he
became an adult? (2)
b. How did Toshi’s perspective change as an adult? (2)
16. What reality does Severn Suzuki present about Canada and the northern countries?
17. ‘Soon the Small birds’ melodies must hear,
first uttered from my orchard tree.
And the first cuckoo’s melancholy cry’ (To Sleep)
i. Why does the poet utter the above words? (2)
ii. How is the poet sure about the birds’ cries? (2)
18. a. ‘When old words die out on the tongue,
New melodies break forth from the heart.’ (Closed Path)
i. What does the poet mean by ‘old words’? (1)
ii. What inspired the poet with ‘new melodies’? (1)
iii. What was the poet faced with before he found new inspiration? (2)
Or
b. What is the main idea portrayed in the poem ‘Old Folks Laugh’?

Answer the question in about 40-45 words: 1x4=4
19. What are the anti-Jewish laws imposed by the Germans? (The Diary of a Young Girl)

Read the lines and answer the questions that follow:
20. ‘If your grandparents don’t want you to, you shouldn’t go behind their backs.’ (The
Diary of a Young Girl)
i. Who said this and to whom? 2
ii. Why did the speaker say this? 3

21. ‘But I cannot die till I have achieved my destiny. Then, let death come! I shall have
built my monument.’ (The Ambitious Guest)
i. Who is the speaker? 1
ii. What ‘destiny’ was the speaker speaking about? 2
iii. Is the speaker’s wish fulfilled? Explain. 2

******************************

Total number of printed pages : 5 NB-T/SS/1
2023
SOCIAL SCIENCES
Full marks : 80 Time : 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 25 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
v) Alternate question for the visually impaired students are provided in question 23.
Only the visually impaired students have to attempt the alternate question.

N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.

1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives :

(a) Who was the author of the book ‘The History of the Loss of Vietnam’? 1
(i) Phan Boi Chau (ii) Ho Chi Minh
(iii) Liang Qichao (iv) Phan Chu Trinh

(b) Multinational Corporations(MNC’s) are 1
(i) Foreign companies that flourish in the developing countries
(ii) Large companies that operate in several countries at the same time
(iii) Large companies that try to exploit small companies
(iv) West European and Japanese companies which exploit the
developing countries

(c) On which of the following rivers is the Hirakud dam constructed? 1
(i) Satluj (ii) Beas
(iii) Mahanadi (iv) Narmada

(d) Oil India Limited (OIL) belongs to which of the following types of
industries 1
(i) Public sector (ii) Private sector
(iii) Joint sector (iv) Cooperative sector

(e) A map showing the distribution of industries is a 1
(i) physical map (ii) political map
(iii) thematic map (iv) road map

-2- NB-T/SS/1

(f) Which of the following countries is not an example of ‘holding together’
federation? 1
(i) Spain (ii) Belgium
(iii) India (iv) USA

(g) Who chooses the candidates for contesting elections in India? 1
(i) Members and supporters of the party
(ii) Top party leaders
(iii) The existing government
(iv) The opposition

(h) Identify the correct meaning of average income or per capita income. 1
(i) Total income of the country divided by the average population
of the country.
(ii) Total income of the country divided by the total population
of the country.
(iii) Average income of the country divided by the total population
of the country.
(iv) Total income of the country divided by the total area of the country.

(i) The sector that converts raw materials into goods is the 1
(i) primary sector (ii) secondary sector
(iii) tertiary sector (iv) organized sector

(j) Who was the first Speaker of Nagaland Legislative Assembly? 1
(i) T. N. Angami (ii) E.T. Ezung
(iii) Thenucho (iv) K. Shikhu

Answer the questions in one word/one sentence of not more than 15 words:

2. Who was the founder of the Hoa Hao Movement? 1

3. Name the person who pioneered mass production of cars. 1

4. What is a spillway or weir? 1

5. What are agro-based industries? 1

6. Define globe. 1

7. Mention one factor which influences the Indian politics. 1

8. Name the apex court of India. 1

-3- NB-T/SS/1

9. Define infant mortality rate. 1

10. Give the full form of UNDP. 1

11. In which district of Nagaland is the Mt. Saramati located? 1

Answer the questions in about 20-30 words :

12.a. Give two reasons why the French considered it necessary to colonize
Indochina. 2
Or
b. When and where were the French defeated in Vietnam? (1+1=2)

13.a. Define globalization.
Or 2
b. List the chief features of the Bretton Woods system.

14.a. Mention any two measures for conservation of minerals.
Or 2
b. Why is land a very important resource?

15. Differentiate between conventional and non-conventional sources
of energy. 2

16. Mention the two main objectives of a federal government. 2

17. Briefly explain any one cash crop of Nagaland. 2

Answer the questions in about 50-70 words:

18.a. How did Greece become a nation state?
Or 4
b. Mention any four causes of the tribal movement in Andhra Pradesh.

19.a. Mention four reasons why road transport is more useful than rail
transport in India.
Or 4
b. What are the advantages of waterways as a means of transport?

20.a. Explain the political expression of Communalism.
Or 4
b. ‘Democracy is the better form of government’. Give reasons in support
of the statement.

-4- NB-T/SS/1

21.a. State any two differences between informal and formal sources of credit.
Or 4
b. Mention the four main features of a commercial bank.

22.a. Explain any four rights of the consumers.
Or 4
b. Explain any four forms of consumer exploitation.

23. On the given political map of India, four features A, B, C, D have been
indicated. Identify these features with the help of the information mentioned
below and write their correct names against the given letters. 4

Major wheat producing area
Area of red and yellow soil
Srinagar Software Technology Park
Digboi Oil field

-5- NB-T/SS/1

Note : The following questions are for visually impaired candidates only in lieu
of Q 23.

i) What is soil erosion? (1)
ii) What is natural gas? (1)
iii) What is the most important occupation of the people of India? (1)
iv) When was the National Jute Policy introduced? (1)

24. Answer any three questions in about 80-100 words : 3x6=18
(a) Explain liberalism in political and economic fields prevailing in
Europe in the 19th century. (6)
(b) Describe the contribution of Subhash Chandra Bose in the freedom
struggle of India. (6)
(c) Mention any six institutional and technical reforms implemented
by the Indian Government in agriculture. (6)
(d) Explain any six factors that sustain democracy in India. (6)
(e) Explain how public sector contributes in the economic development
of a country. (6)
(f) How does the government protect the interests of the consumers? (6)

25. Answer any one question in about 80-100 words : 1x6=6
(a) Give an account on the terrace cultivation of Nagaland. (6)
(b) Give an account on the climate condition of Nagaland. (6)
(c) Explain any three cottage industries of Nagaland. (6)

********************************

Total number of printed pages : 6 NB-T/M/1

2023
MATHEMATICS
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours

General Instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 19 questions.
iii) All questions are compulsory.
iv) Internal & general choice have been provided in some questions.
v) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top
left side.

Section – A
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives.
(a) If the sum of squares of zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 3 x 2  5 x  k
2
is , then the value of k is 1
3
31 25 35 27
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
6 7 6 7
(b) The point of intersection of the lines y  3 x and x  3 y is 1
(i) 3 , 0  (ii) 0 , 3  (iii) 3 , 3 (iv) 0 , 0 

(c) If one root of quadratic equation 4x 2  2 x    4  0 be the reciprocal
of the other, then  is equal to 1
(i) 4 (ii) 8 (iii)  4 (iv)  8
(d) The sum of the first 20 odd natural number is 1
(i) 100 (ii) 210 (iii) 400 (iv) 420
(e) The distance between the two points A (2, –3) and B (2, 2) is 1
(i) 2 units (ii) 3 units (iii) 4 units (iv) 5 units
1
(f) In ABC, right angled at B, AB = 5 cm and sin C  , the length of
2
AC will be: 1
(i) 10 cm (ii) 2.5 cm (iii) 7.5 cm (iv) 6 cm

(g) From a point Q, the length of the tangent to a circle is 24 cm and the
distance of Q from the centre is 25 cm. The radius of the circle is 1
(i) 7 cm (ii) 12 cm (iii) 15 cm (iv) 24.5 cm

-2- NB-T/M/1

(h) The area of sector of central angle ‘x’ of a circle with radius ‘4r’ is 1
2 2
4 πxr 2 πxr πr x 2 πrx
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
360  45  360  360 

(i) A conical military tent having diameter of the base 24 m and slant height
of the tent is 13 m, then the curved surface area of the cone is[use π = 3.14] 1
(i) 409.28 m2 (ii) 489.8 m2 (iii) 415.28 m2 (iv) 495.5 m2

(j) If two coins are tossed simultaneously, the probability of getting at most
one tail is 1
1 1 3
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 1
4 2 4

Section – B
2. Find the LCM and HCF of 12, 15 and 21 by the prime factorization method. 2

3. Find the roots of the quadratic equation 3x 2  8 x  5 3  0 by factorization
method. 2

4. In the adjoining figure, if DE || BC, find AD. 2
A
1.8 cm
D E

7.2 cm 5.4 cm

B C

5. If (1, 2), (4, y), (x, 6) and (3, 5) are the vertices of a parallelogram taken in order,
find x and y. 2

6. In a circle of radius 21 cm, an arc subtends an angle of 60° at the centre. Find the
length of the arc. 2

Section – C
7. Answer any three from the following questions (a) to (e). 3 ×3 =9

(a) If 2 and  3 are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x 2  a  1x  b , then
find the value of a and b.

(b) Solve the following pair of linear equations by elimination method:

3 x  4 y  10 and 2 x  2 y  2 .

-3- NB-T/M/1

(c) Find the roots of the quadratic equation 2 x 2  7 x  3  0 by applying the
quadratic formula.
(d) Determine the AP whose third term is 16 and 7th term exceeds the 5th term
by 12.
(e) Find the sum of first 51 terms of an AP whose second and third terms are
14 and 18 respectively.

8. Answer any two from the following questions (a) to (d). 2×3 =6
1  tan 2 A
(a) If 3 cot A  4 , then prove that 2
 cos2 A  sin 2 A with the help of a
1  tan A
right triangle.

sin θ  2 sin 3 θ
(b) Prove that:  tan θ .
2 cos3 θ  cos θ
cos 45
(c) Evaluate:
sec 30  cos ec30
(d) The angles of elevation of the top of a tower from two points at a distance of
4 m and 9 m from the base of the tower and in the same straight line with it
are complementary. Prove that the height of the tower is 6 m.
9. Case Study based question: 3
Students of a colony undertake to work for the campaign “say no to plastics”.
They cover the region under the coordinates (2, 3), (10, 3), (x, 6) and (4, 6). The
coordinates of the region taken in the given order form a parallelogram, where the
units of distances are measured in kilometre. The shortest distance between the
longer parallel sides of the region is 3 km. Based on the above information, answer
the following questions (i) to (iii).
(i) The value of x is
(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 14
(ii) The area of the region covered is
(a)16 km2 (b) 24 km2 (c) 26 km2 (d) 28 km2
(iii) The distance between the first and the last coordinates of the region is
(a) 13 km (b) 14 km (c) 15 km (d) 16 km
10. a. Draw a triangle ABC with side BC = 6 cm, AB = 5 cm and ABC = 60°. Then
3
construct a triangle whose sides are times the corresponding sides of the
4
triangle ABC. (Traces of construction only is required)

Or 3

-4- NB-T/M/1

b. Draw a triangle ABC with side BC = 7 cm,  B = 45°,  A = 105°. Then,
4
construct a triangle whose sides are times the corresponding sides of
3
ABC. (Traces of construction only is required)

11. Answer any one from the following questions (a) to (c). 1×3 =3
(a) Find the area of the sector of a circle with radius 4 cm and angle 30°. Also,
find the area of the corresponding major sector (Use π = 3.14).

(b) A car has two wipers which do not overlap. Each wiper has a blade of
length 25 cm sweeping through an angle of 115°. Find the total area
cleaned at each sweep of the blades.
(c) A solid is in the shape of a cone standing on a hemisphere with both their
radii being equal to 1 cm and the height of the cone is equal to its radius.
Find the volume of the solid in terms of π.
12. a. Consider the following distribution of daily wages of 50 workers of a factory.

Daily wages
500-520 520-540 540-560 560-580 580-600
(in `)
Number of
12 14 8 6 10
workers

Find the mean daily wages of the workers of the factory by using Assumed
Mean Method.
Or 3
b. The following data gives the information on the observed lifetimes (in hours)
of 225 electrical components:
Lifetimes
0 – 20 20 – 40 40 – 60 60 – 80 80 – 100 100 - 120
(in hours)
Frequency 10 35 52 61 38 29
Determine the modal lifetimes of the components.

13. One card is drawn from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards. Find the probability of
getting: (i) a face card (ii) a spade (iii) a king of red colour 3

Section – D
14. a. A two digit number is 5 less than 5 times the sum of its digits. If 18 is
added to the number, the digits are reversed. Find the number.

Or 5

-5- NB-T/M/1

b. A person on tour has ` 3600 for his expenses. If he extends his tour for
4 days, he has to cut his daily expenses by ` 30. Find the original duration
of the tour and expenditure per day.

15. a. State and prove Basic Proportionality Theorem (Thales Theorem).

Or 5
P

b. In the adjoining figure, DE || OQ and D
DF || OR. Show that EF || QR. E F

Q O R

16. a. Two poles of equal heights are standing opposite to each other on either side
of the road, which is 80 m wide. From a point between them on the road, the
angle of elevation of the top of the poles are 60° and 30° respectively. Find
the height of the poles and distances of the point from the poles.

Or 5

b. A TV tower stands vertically on a bank
of a canal. From a point on the other
bank directly opposite to the tower, the
angle of elevation of the top of the tower
is 60°. From another point 20 m away
from this point on the line joining this
point to the foot of the tower, the angle
of elevation of the top of the tower is
30°. Find the height of the tower and the
width of the canal.

17. a. Prove that the parallelogram circumscribing a circle is a rhombus.

Or 5

b. Two tangent TP and TQ are drawn to a circle with centre O from an
external point T. Prove that PTQ = 2OPQ.

18. a. From a solid cylinder whose height is 2.4 cm and diameter 1.4 cm, a conical
cavity of the same height and same diameter is hollowed out. Find the total

surface area of the remaining solid to the nearest cm2.

Or 5

-6- NB-T/M/1

b. A solid iron pole consist of a cylinder of height 220 cm and base diameter 24
cm, which is surmounted by another cylinder of height 60 cm and radius 8
cm. Find the mass of the pole, given that 1 cm3 of iron has approximately 8 g
mass. [use π = 3.14]

19. a. If the median of the distribution given below is 28.5, find the values of x and
y.
Class interval Frequency
0 - 10 5
10 - 20 x
20 - 30 20
30 - 40 15
40 - 50 y
50 - 60 5
Total 60

Or 5

b. The following distribution shows the daily pocket allowance of children of
a locality. The mean pocket allowance is ` 18. Find the missing frequency f.
Daily pocket 11- 13 13 - 15 15 - 17 17 - 19 19 - 21 21 - 23 23 - 25
allowance (in `)
Number of 7 6 9 13 f 5 4
children

******************************************

Total number of printed pages : 3 NB-T/FIT/1
2023
FOUNDATION OF INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY

Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours

General Instructions :
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 32 questions.
iv) Internal choice have been provided in some questions.
v) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left
side.

Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives:
1. WWW uses the ___________ protocol. 1
(a) http (b) ftp
(c) www (d) none of these

2. Which of the following is the most complex form of data? 1
(a) Video data (b) Audio data
(c) Numeric data (d) Text data

3. Number of characters in a field name is 1
(a) 14 (b) 64
(c) 65 (d) 255

4. ________ refers to the different values of same data in different files. 1
(a) Atomicity (b) Data redundancy
(c) Data duplication (d) Data inconsistency

5. Which of the following is not a web browser? 1
(a) Mozilla Firefox (b) Internet Explorer
(c) Opera (d) Notepad

6. Comments should be enclosed within __________ tag. 1
(a) < --- ! ---! > (b) < ! -- and --- >
(c) <! – ….. and …. – > (d) < --- and --- >

7. The default value of numbered list is 1
(a) Roman numerals (b) Arabic numerals
(c) Numbers (d) Alphabets

-2- NB-T/FIT/1

8. The ______ attribute is the URL of the image to be inserted in the document. 1
(a) src (b) align
(c) img (d) alt
9. ________ is not a tag but an attribute of anchor. 1
(a) href (b) method
(c) rcf (d) hcf

10. A spam is a /an 1
(a) unwanted e-mail (b) piece of software
(c) antivirus (d) none of these

Answer the following questions in about 10-20 words:
11. What is indexing software? 2
12. What are the factors affecting download and upload times? 2
13. Distinguish between data and information. 2
14. What is DBMS? 2
15. What are select and action queries? 2
16. What is a Validation Rule? 2
17. What are heading tags? 2
18. What is the use of < body > tag? 2
19. How can one create a link to an e-mail address? 2
20. What are header and standard cells? 2
21. How can a text box be created in html? 2

Answer the following questions in about 20-30 words:
22. a. What is Internet? List any four uses of internet.
Or 3
b. What is E-group? Write two advantages of E-group.
23. What is the use of creating relationship in a table? Discuss the two ways to
create a relationship. 3
24. a. What are < title >, < i > and < html > tags?
Or 3

b. What are the uses of background, bgcolor and text attributes of < body >
tag?
25. What are < p >, < br > and < hr > tags? 3

-3- NB-T/FIT/1

26. What are the uses of height, border and width attributes of < img > tag? 3
27. a. What are action, target and method attributes of < form > tag?
Or 3
b. How can one create frames in html? Explain with examples.

Answer the following questions in about 50-70 words:
28. a. What is E-banking? Write any three disadvantages of E-banking.
Or 4
b. Discuss any four benefits of networking.
29. What are data types? Explain any three data types. 4
30. What are subscript and superscript? Explain with examples. 4
31. a. What are internal and external linking? Explain with examples.
Or 4
b. What are ordered and unordered list? Discuss the attributes used with
ordered and unordered lists.
32. a. What is sniffing? Discuss the three security measures to protect your
network from sniffing attacks.
Or 4
b. Explain e-mail related crimes.

********************************

Total number of printed pages : 7 NB-T/MS/1

2023
MUSIC
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 14 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise
the answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 32 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.

N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the
top left side.

SECTION - A : (Ethnic Music)

1. The instruments that Nagas use in their folk music are quite : 1
a) normal in nature b) cultural in nature
c) elementary in nature d) religious in nature

2. Which tribe uses the drum during dance? 1
a) Yimchunger b) Zeliang
c) Phom d) Konyak

3. The bamboo flute “wewo” is in which dialect ? 1
a) Angami b) Ao
c) Konyak d) Rengma

4. What are the themes of Naga folk music? 2

5. Write short notes on any two of the following: 2½+2½ =5
a) Cup violin b) The bamboo mouth organ
c) Trumpet d) Bamboo sounding box

(2) NB-T/MS/1

SECTION - B : (Western Music)

6. Four semiquavers is equivalent to : 1
a) half a crotchet beat b) one half crotchet beat
c) one crotchet beat d) two crotchet beats

7. Name the given note : 1

a) G b) B c) F d) A

8. Identify the given interval. 1

a) major 6th b) minor 6th
c) major 7th d) perfect 5th

9. Two quaver triplets is equivalent to a : 1
a) dotted crotchet b) crotchet
c) minim d) dotted minim

10. A crotchet beat divides easily into : 1
a) one quaver b) two quavers
c) three quavers d) four quavers

11. Write the correct time signature. 1

a) b) c) d)

12. In a melodic minor scale ascending the degree which are raised by a
semitone are : 1
th th th th
a) 6 & 7 degree b) 5 & 6 degree
th th th th
c) 7 & 8 degree d) 4 & 5 degree

(3) NB-T/MS/1

13. Write correctly grouped quaver and semiquaver rests below the asterisk (*). 2

and second inversion in the key of B  major on the bass stave.
14. Write the key signature and the tonic triad in the root, first inversion
2

15. Identify the following : 1+1=2

a)

b)

16. The following music contains mistakes in the grouping of notes and rests.
Write it out correctly. 2

17. Write the correct time signature : 1+1=2

a)

b)

18. Write a tune for cello using the first five degrees of the scale in C major
to the given rhythm and finish on the dominant. 2

(4) NB-T/MS/1

19. Define real and tonal sequences. 1+1=2

20. Work out the following keys. 1+1=2

a)

b)

21. a) Write G in the last bar to agree with the anacrusis. 1+1=2

b) Write a rest in the last bar to agree with the anacrusis.

22. Write two more repeats of these bars to make ostinati that moves in
contrary motion. 1+1=2

a)

b)

(5) NB-T/MS/1

23. Label the triads with roman numerals and chord symbols to show the
chord progression. 2

24. a) Using triplets quavers, write a broken chord using B  major tonic

the first B  above the stave.
triad, going up. Use patterns of three notes each time. Finish on
1½+1½=3

b) Using quavers beamed in fours, write a broken chord using B minor
triad going down. Use patterns of four notes each time. Finish on
the first B below the stave.

25. a) Use the root of each triad shown by the roman numerals to
write a bass line. 1½+1½=3

b) Use notes from the tonic or dominant triads shown by the roman
numerals to write a tune above the bass line.

(6) NB-T/MS/1

26. Draw the following intervals up from the given keys as directed. 6x½=3
a) b) c) d) e) f)

perfect perfect major minor major major
fifth fourth sixth second third seventh

27. Transpose the following tunes as directed. 1½+1½=3
a) Up an octave.

b) Down an octave.

28. Write triads on the tonic and dominant degrees of the Bm (harmonic)
scale using semibreve and label with chord symbols and roman
numerals, in the bass stave, descending, with key signature. 6x½=3

29. Identify the cadences and label them with correct roman numerals. 1½+1½=3

30. Using crotchet, write a 4 part - chord (SATB) using the chords
shown by a roman numeral. Use key signature. 1½+1½=3
a) E minor
b) D major

31. Construct the following scales with semibreves. Use key signature and
necessary accidentals. (ascending) 5x1=5
a) A harmonic minor, treble stave
b) F major, bass stave

d) B  major, treble stave
c) G melodic minor, treble stave

e) D natural minor, bass stave

(7) NB-T/MS/1

32. Look at the following music and answer the questions that follow. 5x1=5

a) What is the key in this piece ?
b) What does the time signature indicate?
c) What is the meaning of ‘tranquillo ?
d) Name the interval between the two notes marked with

How many counts or beats will ‘  ’ get in this piece ?
asterisks (*) in the 6th bar.
e)
.

*****************************

Total number of printed pages : 3 NB-T/HS/1
2023
HOME SCIENCE
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours

General instructions :
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 32 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.

Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives:
1. The average weight of a child at birth is 1
(a) 1.5-2 kg (c) 3.5-4.5 kg
(b) 2.5-3 kg (d) 4.5-5 kg

2. Which of the following is an indoor play material? 1
(a) Football (c) Tricycle
(b) Clay and sand (d) Puzzles

3. An additional intake of____ protein is recommended for pregnant and lactating
mother. 1
(a) 10-15gms (c) 25-30gms
(b) 15-25gms (d) 30-35gms

4. Osteomalacia is caused due to deficiency of 1
(a) Vitamin A (c) Vitamin C
(b) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin K

5. Perishable food starts losing their appearance and nutritive value within 1
(a) 2-3 days (c) 8-9 days
(b) 4-5 days (d) 10-12 days

6. _____ is one resource which is available to all equally. 1
(a) Time (c) Energy
(b) Knowledge (d) Skills

7. ________ Act 2005, was enacted by the Government for promoting openness,
transparency and accountability in the working of every public authority. 1
(a) Right to Safety (c) Right to Select

(b) Right to Information (d) Right to Consumer Education

-2- NB-T/HS/1

8. Which standardization mark is marked on agricultural product? 1
(a) ISI (c) FPO
(b) AGMARK (d) BIS

9. _____ is known as Ikebana form of flower arrangement. 1
(a) Line arrangement (c) Small arrangement
(b) Mass arrangement (d) Dry arrangement

10. Neem soap, carboxylic soap and soap containing sulphur are_____ soaps. 1
(a) toilet (c) hard
(b) medicated (d) flake

Answer the following questions in 20-30 words :

11. How does play help in the development of self-insight in children? 2

12. How does the size of the family affect meal planning? 2
13. Why is the proper selection of food product important? 2
14. Define food hygiene. Why is cleanliness of a person essential in cooking
and serving food? 2
15. Distinguish between personal and shared resources. 2

16. Enumerate any two factors affecting wise use of resources. 2
17. What is budget? Why is it important? 2
18. State any two advantages of consumer education. 2
19. What is harmony? Which elements of art are used to bring harmony? 2
20. Differentiate between formal and informal balance in flower arrangement. 2
21. What does the following symbol on readymade garment indicate? 2

a) b)

22. What is a placket? Where do we find it in our garment? 2
Answer the following questions in 40-60 words :
23. Enumerate any three factors that affect emotional development of a child. 3
24. (a) Write any three significances of play in the life of a child.

Or 3
(b) What are the different types of play according to playmates? Explain briefly.

-3- NB-T/HS/1

25. (a) Explain briefly the ill effects of excessive intake of fats.
Or 3
(b) Enumerate any three advantages of germination of food.
26. ‘Meal planning is important’. Give any three reasons. 3
27. (a) Explain any three factors affecting expenditure of a family.
Or 3
(b) Explain any three methods to ensure safe and sound investment.
28. Discuss any three malpractices followed by seller under ‘defective weights
and measures’. 3
29. (a) What points should be kept in mind while arranging colours?
Or 3
(b) Enumerate the various steps of flower arrangement.

Answer the following questions in 80-100 words :
30. (a) State five differences between growth and development.
Or 5
(b) What is social development? Trace the social development in children
from 0-12 months.
31. (a) What are the functions of carbohydrates in our body? Mention five points.
Or 5
(b) Enumerate any five points each on how nutrients can be conserved during
preparation and cooking of food.
32. (a) Write any five properties of a good soap.
Or 5
(b) Discuss the various steps in laundering process.

***********************

Total number of printed pages : 4 NB-T/BK/1

2023
BOOK-KEEPING & ACCOUNTANCY

Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours.

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 32 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B:Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.

Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives:
1. The statement of assets and liabilities is 1
(a) balance sheet (b) trial balance
(c) trading account (d) profit and loss account

2. Final accounts are prepared 1
(a) at the end of calendar year (b) at the end of assessment year
(c) at the end of accounting year (d) on Christmas

3. The bank which helps in the payment of foreign trade is 1
(a) central bank (b) exchange bank
(c) commercial bank (d) indigenous bank

4. The debit balance of pass book is 1
(a) plus balance (b) minus balance
(c) both plus and minus (d) neither plus nor minus

5. If deposits exceeds the withdrawals from the bank, cash book will show 1
(a) plus balance (b) minus balance
(c) overdraft balance (d) both plus and minus balance

6. How many sets of bills are prepared in bills of exchange in case of foreign
bills? 1
(a) one (b) two
(c) three (d) four

7. On maturity, a bill is met by its 1
(a) endorsee (b) payee

(c) drawer (d) drawee

-2- NB-T/BK/1

8. Errors detected before preparation of trial balance are rectified 1
(a) without opening a suspense account
(b) by opening a suspense account
(c) by transferring to profit and loss account
(d) by transferring to trading account

9. Depreciation is calculated on 1
(a) current assets (b) wasting assets
(c) fixed assets (d) fictitious assets

10. Depreciation is caused by 1
(a) obsolescence (b) wear and tear
(c) passage of time (d) all of the above

Answer the questions in about 20-30 words:
11. What is meant by financial statements? 2

12. Define the term banking. 2

13. Mention any four types of account that can be opened with the bank. 2

14. What is meant by compensating errors? 2

15. What are the two parts of errors of omission? 2

16. Write the meaning of obsolescence. 2

Answer the questions in about 30-50 words:
17. Explain any three importance and purposes of profit and loss account. 3

18. Mention and explain any three features of balance sheet. 3

19. Explain how the bank balance will be treated as plus balance. 3

20. Name and explain the parties of promissory notes. 3

21. Write and explain the advantages of diminishing balance method. 3

22. “The useful life of assets depends upon certain factors”. State any three factors.

-3- NB-T/BK/1

Answer any four from questions no. 23 to 30 in about 70-100 words: 4 x 5 = 20
23. Explain the benefits of E-banking to the customer.

24. Explain the new services provided by the banks due to the introduction of
computerized equipment.

25. Explain the steps for creation of bank reconciliation statement.

26. Prepare a bank reconciliation statement from the following particulars as on
31st December, 2016.
i) Balance as per cash book ` 1,14,400.
ii) Cheques of ` 11,250, ` 1,870 and ` 1,350 were issued in the month and
were presented for payment in January.
iii) Cheque of ` 11,500 and ` 1,850 were sent for collection. However no
cheques were collected in the year.
iv) Bank charges ` 180 for commission.
v) ` 1,170 was allowed by the bank as interest.

27. Write and explain any five differences between bills of exchange and
promissory note.

28. On January 1, 2020, Atso sold goods to Naro for ` 5,000 payable after 3
months. Naro accepted and returned it to Atso who retained the bill and duly
met on maturity.
Pass journal entries in the books of both the parties.

29. Explain the errors of commission.

30. The trial balance extracted from the books of Ayunlo Tep on 31st March, 2018
did not agree. The difference was transferred to the suspense account. During
2018-2019, the following errors were discovered.
i) The total in the purchases book was short by ` 450
ii) The total of one page in the sales book was carried forward to the next
page as ` 3,955 instead of ` 3,595
iii) Goods returned to Anao Konyak worth ` 2,000 were not entered in the
books at all.
iv) A sales of ` 3,000 to Zhavituo was wrongly entered as ` 300 in the sales
book.
v) An amount of ` 900 spent on repairs was debited to the building
account.

-4- NB-T/BK/1

Answer the questions in about 70-100 words:
31. a. Mention and explain five points to be considered while preparing final
accounts.
Or 5
b. Prepare trading, profit and loss account and balance sheet as on 31st December,
2020 from the following trial balance of M/s. Lanu Trading Co.

Particulars Debit Credit
Balances ` Balances `
Stock 2,000
Purchases and Sales 7,500 21,250
Sundry Debtors and Creditors 5,500 1,500
Carriage 750
Wages 3,600
Rent and taxes 2,400
Bank 2,000
Capital 17,000
Plant and machinery 16,000
39,750 39,750

The closing stock as on 31st December, 2020 was valued at ` 2,500.

32. a. Mention and explain any five objectives of charging depreciation.
Or 5
b. Amen purchased a machinery on 1st January 2015 for ` 20,000. She depreciates it
every year on 31st December using straight line method at the rate of 10% p.a.
Show the machinery account for the first 5 years.

*********************************

Total number of printed pages: 3 NB-T/EE/1

2023
ENVIRONMENTAL EDUCATION
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 32 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) General option questions are provided in 5 and 6 marks questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.

N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.

1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
(i). The plantation done on vacant land and lands unfit for agriculture is called
(a) Commercial forestry (b) Urban forestry
(c) Agro forestry (d) Forestry
(ii). Water logging also leads to
(a) Deforestation (b) Soil erosion
(c) Landslide (d) Floods
(iii). Termite mounds are suitable for
(a) Oranges (b) Lemons
(c) Sorghum (d) Banana
(iv). Agricultural discharges, toxic metals and detergents are the major sources of
(a) Soil pollution (b) Air pollution
(c) Noise pollution (d) Water pollution
(v). Forests are the lifeline of
(a) Tribal people (b) Semi-urban people
(c) Rural people (d) Urban people
(vi).Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Oxygen
(c) Nitrous oxide (d) Methane
(vii). Sacred groves
(a) Cause soil erosion (b) Disturb water cycle
(c) Are reservoirs of biodiversity (d) Lead to soil instability

-2- NB-T/EE/1

(viii). While purchasing pulses, flour, edible oil, ghee, rice etc, consumers should look
for
(a) Hall mark (b) Ecomark
(c) ISI mark (d) Agmark
(xi). Trout may become extinct due to
(a) Climate change (b) Sea water
(c) Salt water (d) Hunting
(x). Water harvesting is the activity of direct collection of
(a) Ground water (b) Rain water
(c) Sea water (d) River water
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence not exceeding
15 words:
2. Write the meaning of the word ‘zabo’. 1
3. Mention one disadvantage of shifting cultivation. 1
4. Define noise. 1
5. Write the meaning of the word ‘tsunami’. 1
6. Who is a consumer? 1
7. Write the full form of CNG. 1

Answer the following questions in about 20 - 30 words:
8. Mention two advantages of afforestation. 2
9. State any two harmful effects of soil erosion. 2
10. Write any two causes of oil spill. 2
11. Mention any two effects of thermal pollutants. 2
12. Write any two sources of noise pollution. 2
13. Mention any two reasons for energy crises. 2
14. Write any two effects of ozone depletion. 2
15. ‘United Nations has guaranteed eight consumer rights to citizens of all nations’
Mention any two of them. 2

Answer the following questions in about 30 - 50 words:
16. Mention any three measures involved in conservation and management of water. 3
17. Write any three benefits of agro-forestry. 3

-3- NB-T/EE/1

18. Mention three effects of radioactive pollutants in water. 3
19. Differentiate between global warming and climate change. 3
20. Mention any three sources of greenhouse gases. 3
21. List any three man-made factors of landslide. 3
22. Write any three factors responsible for degradation and loss of wildlife. 3
Answer any three from the following questions in about 50-60 words:
23. State five reasons why conservation of forest is essential. 5
24. Mention five importance’s of coral reefs. 5
25. Write five public awareness programmes that convey awareness about water. 5
26. Mention any five benefits of biofertilizers. 5
27. Write any five major effects of drought. 5
28. Mention any five mitigation measures for fire. 5
Answer any two from the following questions in about 70-100 words:
29. Write any six effects of noise pollution on human health. 6
30. Mention any six measures to control soil pollution. 6
31. Write any six ways through which food article is adulterated. 6
32. Mention six measures to stop cruelty to animals. 6

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Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-T/IT(V)/1
2023
Information Technology ES (Vocational)
Total marks : 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory except Q. nos.18 to 23 where general option is given.
iii) The question paper consists of 23 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. The word ‘communication’ is derived from a Latin word meaning
(a) To share (b) To give
(c) To take (d) To try
ii. Communication which involves interchanging messages only through images and
pictures is called
(a) Verbal communication (b) Non verbal communication
(c) Visual communication (d) Actions
iii. A set of dreams with a deadline to get them are called
(a) Opinions (b) Values
(c) Abilities (d) Goals
iv. Time management is the thinking skill that helps to
(a) Waste time (b) Delay planned activity
(c) Complete tasks on time (d) Indulge in useless activity
v. Mails from companies who are advertising a product or trying to attract you to their
website are called
(a) Anti virus (b) Spam
(c) Thrash (d) Notepad
vi. What should a strong password consist of?
(a) Only letters (b) Numbers and special character
(c) Letters, numbers and special character (d) Name of a person
vii. Which of the following is a quality of an entrepreneur?
(a) Having misconceptions (b) Being indecisive
(c) Being irresponsible (d) Trying new ideas
viii. A false belief about something is called
(a) Misconception (b) Risk
(c) Reality (d) Truth
ix. Which of the following is an eco friendly fuel?
(a) LPG (b) Diesel

(c) Petrol (d) Bio gas
x. Which of the following is not a sustainable goal according to United Nation?
(a) Clean water and sanitation (b) Quality education
(c) Population (d) Reduced inequality

-2- NB-T/IT(V)/1

Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is a template? 1
3. Write the full form of TOC. 1
4. How will you delete a scenario? 1
5. What is the use of tools>goal seek? 1
6. List any two types of database 1
7. What is the use of function in a query? 1
8. What is hot work? 1
9. Define emergency. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Write any two mechanisms to modify both predefined and custom styles. 2
11. What is the use of fill format mode? 2
12. Write a short note on data>consolidate. 2
13. What is macro? Write its use. 2
14. Differentiate between main form and sub form. 2
15. Write any two uses of report in a database. 2
16. List any two main causes of fire and explosions, when using oxygen. 2
17. Mention any two safety measures of smoking. 2
Answer any four from the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. Write any two image filters and their effects. 4
19. Write four steps to merge a document in calc. 4
20. Write the steps in creating a DDE link in calc. 4
21. Mention any four logical functions and its description of a function wizard. 4
22. List four sources of hazard. 4
23. Write any four precautionary measures for fire, if plant and equipment are not
properly maintained. 4

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Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-T/T&H(V)/1
2023
Tourism & Hospitality (Vocational)
Total marks : 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory except Q. nos.18 to 23 where general option is given.
iii) The question paper consists of 23 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. What type of word should be used for verbal communication?
(a) Acronyms (b) Simple
(c) Complex (d) Jargons
ii. What makes you complete your work or studies without others cheering you?
(a) Self confidence (b) Self management
(c) Self motivation (d) Self esteem
iii. The organization that has made the Sustainable Development Goals is the
(a) UNESCO (b) UNICEF
(c) WHO (d) UN
iv. Floated hotels are located in
(a) quiet surroundings (b) big cities
(c) metropolitan cities (d) surface of water
v. Which of the following etiquette should be avoided while talking to guest?
(a) Always smile (b) Stand erect at ease
(c) Lean against the counter (d) Maintain eye contact
vi. Unwanted jokes, gestures, offensive words on clothing and unwelcome comments
are considered as
(a) sexual harassment (b) human rights violation
(c) sexual abuse (d) sexual violence
vii. Food borne illness and infection linked to consumption of contaminated fish and
seafood.
(a) Pneumonia (b) Thrush
(c) Meningitis (d) Vibrio cholera
viii. Intellectual property has its own unique features to distinguish itself from other types
of rights. Which of the following is not an IP feature?
(a) Territorial (b) Independence

(c) Trademarks (d) Indivisible
ix. The Health and Safety Executive provides guidance and general information about
(a) dispose of refuse (b) personal protective equipment
(c) housekeeping (d) hotel management

-2- NB-T/T&H(V)/1

x. Which of the following can be considered as a powerful non verbal communication?
(a) A smile (b) Handshake
(c) Eye contact (d) Confidence
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is self management? 1
3. Define ‘hospitality’. 1
4. What is table setting? 1
5. List any two facilities available for senior citizens in hotels. 1
6. What is Geographical Indication? 1
7. What does HACCP stand for? 1
8. What is one of the biggest cause of injuries on the job and may be grounds
for dismissal? 1
9. Mention any two tips that will help you to make best use of the suggestions
you receive for improving your work. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Write any two advantages of verbal communication. 2
11. Write any two functions of the ENTER key. 2
12. What is entrepreneurship? Write any two functions of entrepreneurs. 1+1=2
13. Write any two offensive habits that should be avoided when with the guest. 2
14. Write any two guidelines to prevent sexual harassment in the workplace. 2
15. What are the two categories of intellectual property? Write one example
each for the two categories. 1+1=2
16. What is food safety? 2
17. Mention any two safety precautions one must observe in work area. 2
Answer any four from the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. Briefly explain any four types of services in the hospitality industry. 4
19. Define table manners. Explain any three ways to give the appearance of
being confident, yet comfortable. 1+3=4
20. Explain any four facilities that can be provided to motivate female worker. 4
21. Explain the four types of intellectual property. 4
22. Briefly explain food labeling. 4
23. Describe the importance of English language in hospitality industry. 4

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Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-T/R(V)/1
2023
Retail (Vocational)
Total marks : 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory except Q. nos.18 to 23 where general option is
given.
iii) The question paper consists of 23 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. The process through which a business firm shares valuable information with its
customer is known as
a) business communication b) customer communication
c) commercial communication d) customer review
ii. It is used to describe all the activities that keep the store functioning well.
a) Wholesale operation b) Market operation
c) Retail operation d) Store operation
iii. DSD stands for
a) direct store delivery b) digital store delivery
c) data system delivery d) direct system delivery
iv. Rail transport service is a good choice for shipment of
a) building materials b) lumber and coal
c) oil d) edible commodities
v. According to ‘work safety advice’, it is recommended that men don’t lift
anything heavier than
a) 45 kilograms b) 35 kilograms
c) 25 kilograms d) 15 kilograms
vi. Which of the following is not a common communication barrier?
a) Linguistic b) Financial
c) Interpersonal d) Organisational
vii. Valuable information that will be used to make important decision is known as
a) review b) communication
c) survey d) feedback
viii. In SMART goal setting, what does the letter ‘A’ stand for?
a) Achievable b) Attainable
c) Available d) Adorable

ix. What is the short cut key ctrl+z used for?
a) Copy b) Paste
c) Undo d) Cut

-2- NB-T/R(V)/1

x. How many Sustainable Development Goals were launched by the United
Nations?
a) 20 b) 19
c) 18 d) 17
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is retail store operation? 1
3. State any one factor that should be kept in mind while delivering products. 1
4. Write any one responsibility in lifting and handling operations. 1
5. What is ‘just in time’ in stock control? 1
6. What is team work in retail store? 1
7. What is conceptual skill? 1
8. List any two basic ways in which people can help towards achieving
Sustainable Development Goals. 1
9. What is the function of ENTER key? 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Write any two safety ways of handling products in retail store. 2
11. State the objectives of the retail transportation. 2
12. Write any two factors affecting loading and unloading of merchandise. 2
13. Differentiate between health and hygiene in retailing. 2
14. List any two potential hazards in retail store and state their harmful
effects. 1+1=2
15. What is non verbal communication? Write any two types of non verbal
communication. 1+1=2
16. Mention any two rights of employees in retailing. 2
17. What is entrepreneurship? Write any two functions of an entrepreneur.
1+1=2
Answer any four from the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. Explain any four fundamentals of retail operation. 4
19. Explain any four core competencies required for Store Operation Assistant. 4
20. Briefly explain four common modes of retail transportation. 4
21. Describe the techniques of lifting goods. 4
22. Explain four ways on how to work effectively in a team. 4
23. What is time management? Briefly explain three steps for effective
time management. 1+3=4

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Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-T/B&W(V)/1
2023
Beauty & Wellness (Vocational)
Total marks : 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory except Q. nos.18 to 23 where general option is
given.
iii) The question paper consists of 23 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Which of the following acts as a protective shield for the body?
a) Muscles b) Bones
c) Skin d) Nerves
ii. Which of the following is an example of oral communication?
a) Newspapers b) Letters
c) Phone call d) Email
iii. It is the uppermost layer of the hair.
a) Cortex b) Cuticle
c) Medulla d) Follicles
iv. Which of the following is the muscle of the neck?
a) Latissimus dorsi b) Temporalis
c) Caninus d) Supine
v. Ingredients which give the products a shimmering effect is
a) Cobalt Blue b) Perfumes
c) Alcohol d) Pearlised Agents
vi. It acts as heat insulator and protects the head.
a) Scalp hair b) Body hair
c) Eyelashes d) Hair shaft
vii. In smart goal setting, the letter ‘A’ stands for
a) Admirable b) Achievable
c) Attentive d) Attraction
viii. Which of the following key is used to paste a file?
a) Ctrl+a b) Ctrl+c
c) Ctrl+p d) Ctrl+v
ix. Which organization has made the Sustainable Development Goals?
a) United Nations b) UNESCO

c) UNICEF d) World Health Organization

-2- NB-T/B&W(V)/1

x. People who work for a person or organization and get paid for the work are
called
a) Entrepreneur b) Businessman
c) Wage employed d) Self employed
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. List two most commonly used method for removing unwanted hair. 1
3. What is non verbal communication? 1
4. Write one negative effect of Gutkha on health. 1
5. What type of thread is required for threading? 1
6. State one way to protect data in a computer. 1
7. What is used to improve or correct imperfections of skin? 1
8. Name the two major fibers of dermis. 1
9. List any two Sustainable Development Goals. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. State any two uses of toners and fresheners. 2
11. List any four contra-indications of skin sensitivity test. 2
12. State any two characteristics of oily skin. 2
13. Write any two steps to be followed to clean makeup sponge. 2
14. Mention any two myths and misconceptions about entrepreneurship. 2
15. Why is patch test performed before bleaching? What chemicals are used
as bleaching agent? 1+1=2
16. Name any two commonly used makeup brushes and write their uses. 1+1=2
17. Write any two telephone call ethics for salon staff. 2
Answer any four from the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. Briefly explain four steps for effective time management. 4
19. Explain the importance of team work in a beauty salon. 4
20. Mention any two equipments required for waxing. Write any three
after care advice that should be provided to the client after waxing. 1+3=4
21. Explain four procedures to perform skin analysis. 4
22. What products should be used if the client has sensitive/allergic skin?
Write six steps to apply foundation. 1+3=4
23. Explain any four basic functions of the skin. 4

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Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-T/E&H(V)/1
2023
Electronics & Hardware (Vocational)
Total marks : 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory except Q. nos.18 to 23 where general option is given.
iii) The question paper consists of 23 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. The strength of an electric field is represented by
(a) Tesla (b) Newton per cuolomb
(c) Gauss (d) Coulomb per second
ii. A relays contact electrical life ranges from
(a) 100,000 to 500,000 cycles (b) 100,000 to 400,000 cycles
(c) 100,000 to 300,000 cycles (d) 100,000 to 200,000 cycles
iii. A motor that reverses the direction of an electrical current at regular times is called
(a) DC motors (b) Brushed (BDC) motors
(c) AC motors (d) Induction motors
iv. Which of the following is not a part of mixer grinder?
(a) Blade (b) Motor unit
(c) Stirrer fan (d) Speed selector
v. Which of the following juicers is known as cold press juicers?
(a) Centrifugal juicers (b) Masticating juicers
(c) Triturating juicers (d) Reamers
vi. Which of the following generates microwaves in microwave oven?
(a) Magnetron (b) Turntable
(c) Fan blower (d) High voltage diode
vii. If the microwave oven is making a buzzing or humming noise, then it could be a
problem of
(a) Magnetron (b) Thermo protector
(c) Power settings (d) High voltage diode
viii. Under which type of fire does wood, paper, cloth, rubber and plastic come?
(a) Type A (b) Type B
(c) Type C (d) Type D
ix. The full form of SOP is
(a) Set of protocols (b) Standard operating procedures
(c) Set of procedures (d) Standard operating protocols

x. Which of the following is not a sustainable goal according to the United Nations?
(a) Clean water and sanitation (b) Quality education
(c) Reduced inequality (d) Population

-2- NB-T/E&H(V)/1

Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is RPM of motor? 1
3. What is the working principle of fuse? 1
4. Name any two kitchen ingredients that are used to clean mixer grinder. 1
5. Mention any two reasons that cause overload in mixer grinder. 1
6. State one use of a microwave oven. 1
7. What are the ovens inside panels and windows made of? 1
8. Mention any two common workplace chemical hazards. 1
9. Name any two examples of non-verbal communication. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. State Fleming’s left hand rule. 2
11. What are relays? List one way how protective relays prevent equipment
damage. 1+1=2
12. Differentiate between masticating and centrifugal juicers. 2
13. What is a mixer? Name any two parts of electric mixer. 1+1=2
14. What is e-waste? Write an example of an e-waste. 1+1=2
15. List any two ways to protect data in a computer. 2
16. What does the acronym PASS stand for in fire extinguishers? 2
17. Write any two functions of an entrepreneur. 2
Answer any four from the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. Explain brushed (BDC) and brushless (BDLC) motors. 4
19. Explain any four frequently occurring faults in mixer/juicer/grinder. 4
20. Explain any four important features of microwave oven. 4
21. Write the full form of BEE. What is BEE star rating? Who puts BEE star rating
labels? 1+2+1=4
22. State any four reasons to quit fighting a fire and to evacuate immediately. 4
23. What is time management? Mention three ways to effectively manage time.
1+3=4

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Total number of printed pages: 2 NB-T/MSFC(V)/1
2023
Multi Skill Foundation Course (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time: 2 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 23 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. The isometric projections angle should be drawn at
(a) 90˚ (b) 45˚
(c) 30˚ (d) 15˚
ii. Petrol engines are also known as
(a) compressor ignition engines (b) spark ignition engines
(c) external combustion engines (d) 2 sroke engines
iii. In which plant is cleft grafting done?
(a) Mango (b) Rose
(c) Pineapple (d) Banana
iv. Which of the following is not an element of air pollution?
(a) Sulphur dioxide (b) Oxygen
(c) Carbon dioxide (d) Carbon monoxide
v. Which of the following is a breed of buffalo?
(a) Sahiwal (b) Dangi
(c) Khilar (d) Murrah
vi. Which of the following age and above is considered as senior citizens?
(a) Eighty years (b) Seventy years
(c) Sixty years (d) Fifty years
vii. Which of the following is an example of service business?
(a) Grocery shop (b) Automobile showroom
(c) Coaching centre (d) Electronics store
viii. Which of the following is not a type of paint coating?
(a) Overcoat (b) Primer
(c) Undercoat (d) Finishing coat
ix. Verbal communication means to communicate using

(a) gestures and expressions (b) signs and symbols
(c) written and oral words (d) demonstrations

-2- NB-T/MSFC(V)/1

x. The full form of email is
(a) easy mail (b) electronic mail
(c) efficient mail (d) extendable mail
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What does ICT stand for? 1
3. What is welding? 1
4. Define solar energy. 1
5. What is rain water harvesting? 1
6. Name any one type of plant propagation. 1
7. What is artificial insemination? 1
8. Name the instrument used for measuring blood pressure. 1
9. Write an example each on perishable and non-perishable food. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. What is die stock? List any two types of die stock. 1+1=2
11. Write any two advantages of DOL starter. 2
12. State the importance of quality education towards sustainable development. 2
13. Mention any two elements/nutrients required by plants and write
their function. 1+1=2
14. Why is soil testing important? 2
15. What is meant by water pollution? List any two major sources of
water pollution. 1+1=2
16. List any four elements of communication. 2
17. Differentiate between interests and abilities. 2
Answer any four from the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. Explain any four from the 5s of engineering workshop. 4
19 What is ferro-cement? State any three benefits of ferro-cement. 1+3=4
20. Describe the working system of sprinkler irrigation method. 4
21. Write any four differences between two stroke and four stroke engines. 4
22. Mention any four steps to be followed in the maintenance of inverter
and battery. 4
23. Why is mental health important? List any four behaviors or signs of
mental problem. 2+2=4

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Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-T/AG(V)/1
2023
Agriculture (Vocational)
Total marks : 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory except Q. nos.18 to 23 where general option is given.
iii) The question paper consists of 23 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Total dissolved salt in irrigation water is measured by
(a) Hygrometer (b) Lux meter
(c) pH meter (d) EC meter
ii. The critical stage of irrigation in cabbage is the
(a) Head formation (b) Flowering stage
(c) Seed germination (d) Harvesting stage
iii. The most common weeds in vegetable crops is
(a) Annual (b) Biennial
(c) Perennials (d) Winter annuals
iv. Living organisms such as fungi, bacteria and insects that are used to control weed
population are known as
(a) Myco herbicides (b) Persistent herbicides
(c) Herbigation (d) Bio herbicides
v. The most active stage of tomato fruit borer is
(a) Adult (b) Caterpillar
(c) Larvae (d) Pupae
vi. Botanical pesticides are obtained from
(a) Animals (b) Fungus
(c) Plants (d) Flowers
vii. Ripening is associated with rapid increase in
(a) Respiration (b) Transpiration
(c) Evaporation (d) Pollination
viii. In sand and coir method, the produce is covered with sand and
(a) Straws (b) Manure
(c) Cotton fibre (d) Coconut fibre
ix. How can antivirus protect your devices?
(a) Increase its performance (b) Protect it from overheating

(c) Prevent data from getting corrupt (d) It can back up data
x. Which organization has made the sustainable development goals?
(a) UNESCO (b) United Nations
(c) UNICEF (d) World Health Organisation

-2- NB-T/AG(V)/1

Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is irrigation? 1
3. What are herbicides? 1
4. What does NSKE stand for? 1
5. What are pathogens? 1
6. List two visual maturity indices. 1
7. What is sorting? 1
8. What is time management? 1
9. Write any two functions of an entrepreneur. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Write any two roles of water in plants. 2
11. Write any two characteristics of weeds. 2
12. Write any two precautions to be taken while applying weedicides. 2
13. What are trap crops? Give an example. 2
14. Differentiate between pathogens and predators with an example each. 2
15. Mention any two causes of impairing quality of produce in transit. 2
16. List any two objectives of post harvest technology. 2
17. What is ICT? Name two main parts of computer system. 2
Answer any four from the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. Briefly explain the four methods of irrigation system. 4
19. Write any four differences between broadleaf and narrow leaf weeds. 4
20. Briefly explain the four methods of weed management. 4
21. What is damping off? Write any three control measures for damping
off. 1+3=4
22. What is post harvest handling of solanaceous crop? List any three causes of post
harvest losses in vegetables. 1+3=4
23. Explain four different types of verbal communication with suitable examples.
4

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Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-X/HC(V)
2023
Healthcare (Vocational)
Total marks : 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory except Q. nos.18 to 23 where general option is given.
iii) The question paper consists of 23 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. The word hospital is derived from a Latin word ‘hospitalis’ which means
(a) Home (b) Host
(c) Hurt (d) House
ii. The dietary department has the responsibility for ensuring quality
(a) Laundry service (b) Housekeeping
(c) Food service (d) Administration
iii. A hospital with bed strength of 200 to 300 beds is called
(a) Referral hospital (b) District hospital
(c) Primary health care (d) Community health care
iv. The care plan should be developed and initiated within
(a) 8 hours (b) 9 hours
(c) 10 hours (d) 11 hours
v. Which of the following is not a part of fruit and vegetable diet?
(a) Potatoes (b) Paneer
(c) Pears (d) Apples
vi. The number of breaths a person takes per minute is called
(a) Blood pressure (b) Temperature
(c) Respiration rate (d) Pulse rate
vii. The word ‘microorganisms’ comes from a Greek word, which means
(a) Small organism (b) Big organism
(c) Organism (d) Living organism
viii. Which of the following is an immediate and temporary treatment given to a victim
of accident or sudden illness?
(a) Medical help (b) Medical attention
(c) Medical aid (d) First aid
ix. Neurology is the study of
(a) Cells (b) Nervous system
(c) Bones (d) Muscles

-2- NB-X/HC(V)

x. A state of uneasiness and apprehension about future uncertainties is called?
(a) Stress (b) Depression
(c) Anger (d) Anxiety

Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. List any two professionals available in a hospital. 1
3. What is pulse rate? 1
4. What is a pathogen? 1
5. Write the full form of CPR. 1
6. What is cytology? 1
7. Name the vehicle specifically designed to transport critically sick or injured person
to a medical facility. 1
8. What is hospital acquired infection? 1
9. What are stressors? 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. What is a hospital? 2
11. List the four vital signs of life. 2
12. Differentiate between signs and symptoms. 2
13. Write any two purposes of first aid. 2
14. What is fever? Write one symptom of fever. 1+1=2
15. Differentiate between macronutrients and micronutrients with an example each.
2
16. List any four qualities of a medical receptionist. 2
17. Mention any four personality characteristics that cause anger. 2
Answer any four from the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. Explain any four types of hospitals. 4
19. Write any four objectives of a care plan. 4
20. List any four purposes of bedmaking. 4
21. Write any four roles of the housekeeping department. 4
22. Write four first aid steps to be taken for first degree burns. 4
23. Write four functions of musculoskeletal system. 4

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Total number of printed pages: 2 NB-T/AUTO(V)/1
2023
Automotive (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time: 2 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory except Q. nos. 18 to 23 where general option is
given.
iii) The question paper consists of 23 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Channel section of a car is made of
(a) iron (b) wood
(c) steel (d) aluminum
ii. Which of the following is not a part of automobile body?
(a) Doors (b) Hood
(c) Deck lid (d) Engine
iii. Distance travelled by the piston in moving from TDC to BDC is known as
(a) power (b) stroke
(c) bore (d) engine torque
iv. Multimeter is used for measuring
(a) speed (b) distance
(c) current (d) volume
v. Air filter is made of
(a) rubber (b) steel
(c) plastic (d) paper
vi. One of the most important aspect of customer service is that of what is often
referred to as the
(a) feel good factor (b) maintenance
(c) offers (d) bonus
vii. The full form of ABS is
(a) Airlock Braking System (b) Antilock Braking System
(c) Anti Brake System (d) Air Bag System
viii. Which of the following is not an element of the communication process cycle?
(b) Channel (b) Receiver
(d) Sender (d) Time
ix. What should a strong password consist of?

(a) Only letters
(b) Letters, numbers and special characters
(c) Name of a person
(d) Letters and numbers

-2- NB-T/AUTO(V)/1

x. Which of the following is not a major problem related to sustainable development?
(a) Development (b) Food
(c) Water (d) Fuel
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is the full form of BDC? 1
3. What is indicated horse power (IHP)? 1
4. What is a hand tool? 1
5. List two materials required for changing of coolant. 1
6. What are hybrid cars? 1
7. In SMART goal setting, what does the letter ‘S’ stand for? 1
8. Define computer hardware. 1
9. What is sustainable development? 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. What is chassis? Write any two classifications of chassis according to
the fitting of engine. 1+1=2
11. What is capacity of an engine? 2
12. Differentiate between outside calipers and inside calipers. 2
13. Write two reasons why air filter is important in vehicle. 2
14. What is consumer support in automobile industry? State any two important
aspects of a customer service. 1+1=2
15. Write four different types of innovation used in automobiles. 2
16. List any four qualities of successful entrepreneurs. 2
17. Write two different types of verbal communication with an example each. 2
Answer any four from the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. Mention any four advantages of tubeless tyre. 4
19. Briefly explain four properties of a good lubricant. 4
20. Explain any four different types of hand tools used in automobile workshop. 4
21. Describe any four steps to be followed to change engine oil. 4
22. Mention eight important duties of sales person in automobile dealerships
or service center. 4
23. What is stress? Explain any three simple stress management techniques.1+3=4

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