NBSE Class 10 Question Paper 2024 All Subjects

NAGALAND BOARD

QUESTION
PAPER
2024

Total number of printed pages: 6 NB-T/E/1

2024
ENGLISH
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 18 questions, divided into four sections A, B, C & D.
iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct question
number in your answer sheet to indicate the option(s) being attempted.
iv) Alternate question for the visually impaired has been provided in question no.13.ONLY
the visually impaired are to attempt this alternate question.
v) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option
being attempted.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left
side.

SECTION-A (Literature)
Answer the following questions:
1. Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given: 3x1=3
(a) Many young men in Mehouviü’s village wanted to marry her because________.
i. she was virtuous ii. she was wealthy
iii. she had a pleasing personality iv. both i and iii

(b) Malcom, the eldest son of King Duncan escaped and took refuge ________.
i. in Ireland ii. in the English Court
iii. with the Scottish nobles iv. with the Norwegian troops

(c) In which year did Nelson Mandela win the race for President of South Africa?
i. 1992 ii. 1993
iii. 1994 iv. 1995

2. Why did Morusa behead the woman at the loom? 3

3. What did Gandhiji do to please his friend and reassure him that he was fit for English
society?
Or 3
What was Mandela’s immediate challenge when he became the President of South
Africa?(Invictus)
4. Does Macbeth see the evil side of his actions? Use examples from the text to explain.
Or 5
Briefly describe the incident at the Holborn Restaurant. (Imitating the English
Gentleman)

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5. Answer either 5(i) or 5 (ii) or 5 (iii) 5
(i) Read the lines and answer the questions that follow:
Tenyur the rich man’s son coveted Etiben
He came with the dowry before Jina did
No one ever heard Jina’s heart plead
Not the Parents, no friends, no gods saw the pain.

(a) Who is ‘he’ referred to in the second line? (1)
(b) What did he do and why? (2)
(c) How did Jina feel? (2)

(ii) Give the summary of the poem, ‘Death the Leveller’. (5)

(iii) (a) In the poem, ‘The Windhover’, how is the Octet (first eight lines) different from
the Sestet( last six lines)?
Or (5)
(b) ‘This poem is a classic example of imagination, mystery and creativity’
Comment. (The Listeners)

6. She’s gone now. Throw it down quickly, for the Lord knows when she’ll be out of it
again.
(i) Who is the speaker here? 1
(ii) Who is ‘she’ referred to here? Explain the underlined word ‘it’ in this
context. 2

7. Give the character sketch of Bartley.
Or 3
‘What more can we want than that?’ What makes Maurya say this?

SECTION - B (Reading)
8. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

(1)It is a land of folklore passed down the generations through word of mouth. Here,
music is an integral part of life; folk songs eulogizing ancestors, the brave deeds of
warriors and traditional heroes; poetic love songs immortalizing ancient tragic love
stories ; Gospel songs that touch your soul (should you have a religious bent of
mind) or the modern tunes rendered exquisitely to set your feet a-tapping.
(2)Each of the17 odd tribes and sub-tribes that dwell in this exotic Hill State can
easily be distinguished by the colourful and intricately designed costumes,
jewellery and beads that they adorn. The present generations of Nagas have
ventured into fashion designing in a big way, representing fabrics that represent the
ancestral motifs blended with modern appeal. Indeed, it is a beautiful mix of the
past with the present, a paradise for those who are into fashion designing .This is
an affluent fashion station of the East.

(3)In days of yore, every warrior had to earn the traditional fineries through acts of
valour in order to wear them. Nature could not have been kinder to Nagaland,
sometimes referred to as the Switzerland of the East; the exquisitely picturesque

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landscapes, the vibrantly colourful sunrise and sunset, lush and verdant flora; this is
a land that represents unimaginable beauty, moulded perfectly for a breathtaking
experience.
(4)Nagaland is blessed with salubrious climate throughout the year and one can visit it
anytime. If one is looking for a quiet getaway from the hustle and bustle of city life
it provides the right ambience; as life here is laidback and slow-providing a tension
free life. For the adventurous and the intrepid, Nagaland is an ideal place for
trekking, rock climbing, jungle camping and offers limitless exploration
possibilities in its lush and vibrant sub-tropical rain forests which are also a
treasure trove of a plethora of medicinal plants.

(i) Answer the following questions:
(a) What forms an integral part of the lives of the Nagas? 1
(b) What distinguishes one tribe from the other? 2
(c) How has nature been kind to Nagaland? 2

(ii) Answer the questions given below as directed: 3x1=3
(a) Indeed it is a beautiful mix of the past with the present, a paradise for
those who are into fashion designing- which of the following is a
synonym of the underlined word in the given context? (Paragraph 2)
i. Heaven ii. Flourishing ground
iii. State of happiness iv.Garden

(b) How is Nagaland a quiet getaway? (Paragraph 4)
i. It provides tension free life.
ii. It provides scope for adventure.
iii. It is free from the hustle and bustle of city life.
iv. All of the above

(c) Nagaland is an ideal place for _________.(Paragraph 4 )
A. Trekking
B. Boating
C. Rock climbing
D. Para gliding
Select the correct option
i. Only A ii. Only B
iii. Only A and C iv.Only A and D

9. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

(1)Cardamom, the Queen of all spices, has a history as old as the human race. Warm
humid climate, loamy soil rich in organic matter, distributed rainfall and special
cultivation and processing methods all combine to make Indian cardamom truly
unique in aroma, flavour, size and it has a parrot green colour. Two types of
cardamom are produced in India. The first type is the large one, which has not
much significance as it is not traded in the future market. It is cultivated in North-

eastern area of the country. The second type is produced in the Southern states and
these are traded in the future market. These are mainly cultivated in Kerala, Tamil
Nadu and Karnataka.

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(2)Cardamom is an expensive spice, second only to saffron. It is often adulterated and
there are many inferior substitutes from cardamom-related plants such as Siam
cardamom, Nepal cardamom, Winged Java cardamom, etc. However, it is only
Elettaria cardamom which is the true cardamom. Indian cardamom is known in two
main varieties: Malabar cardamom and Mysore cardamom. The Mysore variety
contains levels of cineol and limonene and hence is more aromatic.
(3)North India is the main market for cardamom produce in the country. Normally,
domestic demand goes up during the major festivals such as Diwali, Dussehra and
Eid. Colour, size and aroma are the major variables that shape cardamom prices in
the Indian market.
(4)Kerala is the main producer of cardamom and contributes up to 60% in total
production. Karnataka produces around 25% cardamom of the total production.
Ooty is the main producer of cardamom in Tamil Nadu and contributes around 10-
15% of the total production. Besides India, Guatemala also produces around 2,200
tons of cardamom.
(i) Answer the following questions:
(a) How is cardamom known as? 1
(b) What are the two main varieties of Indian cardamom? 2
(c) When does the domestic demand for cardamom go up in India? 2
(ii) Read the passage and answer the questions given below as directed: 3x1=3
(a) According to the passage, which of the following states does not produce
cardamom? (Paragraph 1)
i. Kerala ii. Karnataka
iii.Tamil Nadu iv. Bihar
(b) Cardamom is an expensive spice, second only to saffron. It is often
adulterated. Which of the following is the correct antonym of the
underlined word? (Paragraph 2)
i. Degraded ii.Pure
iii. Impure iv.Superior
(c) The true cardamom is known as________. (Paragraph 2)
i. Winged Java Cardamom ii. Elettaria Cardamom
iii. Siam Cardamom iv.Nepal Cardamom

10. Read the poem carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Where go the Boats?
Dark brown is the river.
Golden is the sand.
It flows along for ever,
With trees on either hand.
Green leaves a-floating,
Castles of the foam,
Boats of mine a- boating –
Where will all come home?

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On goes the river
And out past the mill,
Away down the valley,
Away down the hill.
Away down the river,
A hundred miles or more,
Other little children
Shall bring my boats ashore. (R.L Stevenson)

(i) Choose the correct rhyme scheme of the poem. 1
a. abbc b. aabc
c. abcc d. abab

(ii) Fill in the blanks to complete the summary of the poem: 6x½=3
This little poem is all about a ______. It longs for its ______which are probably made
of paper. They flow along a ______ which is dark brown in colour while its bed is
______. It flows along trees, green leaves and bubbles of water called ______ .It
passes through the mill, down the valley and hill. At the end boats may reach ______.
SECTION -C (Writing)
11. Answer any one of the following in about 60-80 words: 4
a. You are John, the President of the student council of Oakfield School,Longleng.
Write a notice for the notice board to inform students about the upcoming Annual
Cultural Festival providing details of the programme and schedule.
Or
b. You have opened a new Garment shop. Draft an advertisement to be published in
the newspaper. Think of something unique so that your shop attracts more
customers.
12. Write a paragraph in about 60-80 words on , ‘Importance of Education’ using the
inputs given: 4

Education- weapon to improve life- beneficial for employment-life long process-
better communication- discipline - efficiency-knowledge-a ray of light in the
darkness

13. Based on the visual input given below, write on “ Blood donation” in about 100-150
words: 5

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Alternate question only for the visually impaired students: ONLY the visually
impaired are to attempt this alternate question. (5)
Based on the inputs given below, write on ‘Social Media’ in about 100-150 words.

Sharing ideas and information-virtual network-advantages-global connectivity-
education tool-spread awareness-disadvantages also-addictive-reduced physical
activity-hacking-scam-fake news-promotes laziness

14. Answer any one of the following in about 200 words: 7
a. Write a letter to the manager of a hotel complaining about the inefficient and rude
staff, poor service and low standard of the food that was served to you when you
went to the hotel.
Or
b. As the Sports Secretary of your School, send a report to the headmaster on the
recent victory of your school in the Inter-School Cricket tournament.

SECTION- D (Grammar)

15. Rewrite the given sentences as directed in the brackets: 5x1=5
(a) He swam across the river.
(State whether the underlined word is a transitive or an intransitive verb)
(b) Milind felt like a fool.
(Identify the linking verb in the given sentence)
(c) The water in the pond was dirty.
(Underline the phrase in the sentence)
(d) The tall man________ near the shop knows me.
(Complete the sentence with a non-finite verb)
(e) The team is confident of winning the match.
(Rewrite the sentence changing the underlined Noun phrase into Noun clause.)

16. Change the narration: 4x1=4
(a) Rohan said to me, “My sister flew to Mumbai last year.”
(b) Samuel asked me if I was going on a picnic.
(c) The beggar said to the woman, “Please give me some money.”
(d) Sheena says that she has done her duty.

17. Change the voice: 3x1=3
(a) They registered a formal complaint with the police.
(b) A tough assignment has been given by the teacher.
(c) The student is asking a difficult question.

18. Combine each of the following pairs of sentences by using adjective clause: 3x1=3
(a) You put my spectacles somewhere. Show me the place.
(b) The nurse called a doctor. He came immediately.
(c) I met the sailor. He was the one who saved many people in the ferry disaster.

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Total number of printed pages : 6 NB-T/SS/1
2024
SOCIAL SCIENCES
Full marks : 80 Time : 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 19 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
v) Alternate questions for the visually impaired has been provided in question nos.
1b and 15. ONLY the visually impaired are to attempt this alternate questions.
vi) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option
being attempted.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.

1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives :

(a) Which one of the following is true regarding the Treaty of Constantinople
of 1832? 1
(i) It recognized Turkey as an independent nation
(ii) It recognized France as an independent nation
(iii) It recognized Greece as an independent nation
(iv) It recognized Germany as an independent nation

(b) This portrait was painted by Lorenz Clasen in 1860. Identify the portrait. 1

(i) Germania (ii) Hispania
(iii) Roma (iv) Marianne

Note : This question is in lieu of Q 1.(b) for visually impaired candidates only
(b) Nationalism in Europe brought about the emergence of (1)
(i) The Modern States

(ii) The Nation States
(iii) Multi-National Dynastic States
(iv) Alliances formed among many European States

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(c) Who among the following was a well known pioneer of mass
production of cars? 1
(i) Jamsetji Tata (ii) G.D. Birla
(iii) David Jones (iv) Henry Ford

(d) The decision-making in the IMF and the World Bank is controlled by 1
(i) The Asian-African bloc
(ii) Western industrial powers and the US’s right to veto over key
IMF and World Bank decisions
(iii) All the member-nations of these two banks
(iv) A majority vote by all the nations

(e) Which of the following is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India?1
(i) Biogas (ii) Firewood
(iii) Coal (iv) Petroleum

(f) Rice is a subsistence crop in Odisha; in which of the following states is
rice a commercial crop? 1
(i) West Bengal and Bihar (ii) Punjab and Haryana
(iii) Jammu and Kashmir (iv) Tamil Nadu and Kerala

(g) Manufacturing is the process of 1
(i) producing goods in large quantity
(ii) producing goods by hands
(iii) producing goods without adding value
(iv) none of the above

(h) The ratio between the actual distance on the ground and the distance
shown on the map is called a 1
(i) distance (ii) direction
(iii) scale (iv) cardinal point

(i) Which of the following statements are true regarding multi-party system? 1
I. The supporters of this system believe that this prevents dangers of
fragmentation and the government can run smoothly.
II. This system is cumbersome and leads to political instability.
III. This system do not permit competition.
IV. This system is healthy for a multi-religious and multi-lingual country.

Options:
(i) I and IV (ii) II and IV
(iii) I and II (iv) III and IV

(j) Which factor is often found missing from a non-democratic government? 1
(i) Transparency (ii) Efficiency
(iii) Effectiveness (iv) None of these

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(k) Currency notes in India are issued by 1
(i) UBI (ii) RBI
(iii) SBI (iv) CBI

(l) Majority of the credit needs of the poor households are met from 1
(i) Government (ii) Self-Help Groups
(iii) Formal sources (iv) Informal sources

(m) World Consumer Rights Day is observed on 1
(i) March 15 (ii) April 15
(iii) May 15 (iv) June 15

(n) Areni got an electric shock from a newly purchased iron. She complained
to the shopkeeper immediately. Which right did she use? 1
(i) Right to be heard (ii) Right to consumer education
(iii) Right to choose (iv) Right to safety

(o) Nagaland covers an area of 1
(i) 15,579 sq. km (ii) 15,759 sq. km
(iii) 16,579 sq. km (iv) 16,759 sq. km

(p) Where is the Nagaland Mini Tool Room and Training Centre (NMTTC)
under the Department of Industries and Commerce located? 1
(i) Kohima (ii) Mokokchung
(iii) Mon (iv) Dimapur

Answer the questions in about 20-30 words :

2. Who was considered the soul of Italian unification? Why? 1+1=2

3.a. What was the significance of the Lahore Session of the Congress
held in December 1929? 2
Or
b. When and why was the Inland Emigration Act passed by the British
in India? (1+1=2)

4.a. Classify industries on the basis of capital investment.
Or 2
b. Write any two problems of pipeline transportation.

5. Differentiate between national parties and state parties. 2

6. What should be the most basic outcome of democracy? 2

7. Give two reasons for steady decline in sex ratio in India. 2

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8.a. What is meant by modern consumers on the basis of nature of consumption?
Or 2
b. Mention any two duties of consumers while purchasing goods.

9. Why is floriculture one of the most interesting activities in Nagaland? 2

Answer the questions in about 50-70 words:

10.a. What are the consequences of the Austro-Hungarian Dual Monarchy?
Or 4
b. What actions did France take to consolidate her position in Indochina?

11.a. Briefly explain any four causes of land degradation.
Or 4
b. ‘Biogas is considered as an ideal domestic fuel’. Give four reasons in support
of the statement.

12.a. Mention any four features of local self-government.
Or 4
b. Briefly explain any four functions which political parties perform in a
democracy.

13. Read the source/passage given below and answer the following questions
that follows:
Today, Indian agriculture finds itself at a crossroads. To make
agriculture successful and profitable, proper thrust should be given to the
improvement of the condition of marginal and small farmers. The green
revolution promised much. But today it’s under controversies. It is said that it
has triggered the vanishing of biodiversity, drying up of aquifers and is
resulting in land degradation due to overuse of chemicals and exploitation. The
keyword today is “gene revolution”, which includes genetic engineering.
Organic farming is also much in vogue today because it is practised without
factory-made chemicals such as fertilizers and pesticides. A few economists
think that Indian farmers have a bleak future if they continue growing food
grains on the holdings that grow smaller and smaller as the population rises.
India’s rural population is about 600 million which depends upon 250 million
(approximate) hectares of agricultural land, an average of less than half a
hectare per person. Indian farmers should diversify their cropping pattern from
cereals to high-value crops such as fruits, medicinal herbs, flowers, vegetables
and bio-diesel crops like jatropha and jojoba. These crops need less irrigation
water and give high yields. This would increase the incomes of farmers and
reduce environmental degradation. However, if land is utilized to grow high-

value crops instead of cereals, India would have to import food and export high
value commodities.

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Questions:
i) Give one reason why Green Revolution is under controversy? 1
ii) What is organic farming? 1
iii) Bio-diesel crops jatropha and jojoba have been referred to as high-
value crops. Why? 2

14. Read the source/passage given below and answer the following questions
that follows:
Different persons can have different development goals. What may be
development for one may not be development for the other. It may even be
destructive for the other. Each of us seek different things. People seek things
that are important for them, i.e., that which can fulfil their aspirations or
desires. In fact, at times two persons or group of persons may seek things
which are conflicting. A girl expects as much freedom and opportunity as her
brother and that he also shares in the household work. However, her brother
may not like this. Similarly, to get more electricity, industrialists may want
more dams but this may submerge the land and disrupt the lives of the tribal.
They might resent this and may prefer small check dams or tanks to irrigate
their land. Thus, different development needs are based on their particular life
situations.
Besides seeking more income, one way or the other, people also seek
things like equal treatment, freedom, security and respect of others. In fact, in
some cases, these may be more important than income or more consumption
because material goods are not all that you need to live. Money or material
things that one can buy is one factor on which our life depends. But the quality
of our life also depends on non-material things like friendship, honesty, job
security, etc. Hence, the development goals that people have are not only about
better income but also about other important things in life.

Questions:
i) Why do people have different ideas of development? 1
ii) Cite an example of how development can be conflicting. 1
iii) How can we say that people look at a mix of goals for development? 2

15. On the given political map of India, four features A, B, C, D have been
indicated. Identify these features with the help of the information mentioned
below and write their correct names against the given letters. 4

Faridabad Thermal Power Station
Rourkela iron and steel plant
Area of black soil
Maize producing area

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Note : The following questions are for visually impaired candidates only in lieu
of Q 15.
i) What is a mineral? (1)
ii) Where is Tarapur nuclear power station located? (1)
iii) Name the two main fibre crops of India. (1)
iv) Which city is called the ‘Silicon Valley of India’? (1)

Answer the questions in about 80-100 words:
16.a. Briefly explain the role of religious groups in the development of
anti-colonial feelings in Vietnam.
Or 6
b. Explain any six impact of globalization.

17.a. Mention any six main features of communalism.
Or 6
b. Mention any six features of federalism.

18.a. Write a note on primary sector and its various activities.
Or 6
b. Describe the functioning of Self-Help Groups in India.

19.a. Give an account on the flora and fauna of Nagaland.

Or 6
b. Give an account on the transport and communication system of Nagaland.

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Total number of printed pages : 3 NB-T/FIT/1
2024
FOUNDATION OF INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY

Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours

General Instructions :
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 32 questions.
iv) Internal choice have been provided in some questions.
v) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
vi) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option
being attempted.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left
side.

Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives:
1. Website is a collection of ________. 1
(a) audio files (b) video files
(c) image files (d) html files

2. A sound card is used to _________. 1
(a) reduce sound (b) process data
(c) amplify data (d) produce graphics

3. What is the best MS-Access object for an invoice one can mail to customers? 1
(a) A report (b) A form
(c) A table (d) A query

4. ________ arise when incomplete changes are applied to the information stored
in the database. 1
(a) Data validation (b) Data redundancy
(c) Data atomicity (d) Data inconsistency

5. The default value of font size is 1
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 5 (d) 7

6. Which of the image file extensions cannot be inserted in the web page? 1

(a) .pcd (b) .gif
(c) .jpg (d) .jpeg

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7. Which attribute of the <IMG> tag allows one to display a text instead of an
image? 1
(a) Image (b) src
(c) Border (d) alt

8. Which of the following control allows the user to select multiple values? 1
(a) Menu control (b) Checkbox control
(c) Frame (d) Radio button

9. The distance between cell borders and the content within is defined by 1
(a) Cell spacing ` (b) Cell padding
(c) src (d) link

10. The act of breaking into a computer and/or network is 1
(a) Spam (b) Attachments
(c) Cracking (d) Hacking

Answer the following questions in about 10-20 words:
11. What is Boolean logic? 2
12. What is video conferencing? 2
13. Define Text. 2
14. What are field properties? 2
15. Write any two benefits of setting a primary key in a table? 2
16. What is the difference between title and heading tag? 2
17. What are attributes? 2
18. What is the use of command bgcolor in HTML? 2
19. How is it possible to label the image on the web page? 2
20. What is the purpose of name attribute of <a> tag? 2
21. What is the title attribute of < a > tag used for? 2

Answer the following questions in about 20-30 words:
22. a. Explain the term HTTP. Why is it required?
Or 3
b. Explain any three major types of software that can be downloaded from the

internet.
23. Explain the different elements of a table. 3

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24. a. Explain any three properties of data validation.
Or 3
b. Explain the three key features of MS-Access.
25. What is the difference between an ordinary Notepad document and HTML
document? 3
26. a. Distinguish between Table Heading and Table Row.
Or 3
b. Distinguish between Colspan and Rowspan attributes.
27. How can one insert audio and video in an html file? 3

Answer the following questions in about 50-70 words:
28. a. What is FTP? How does it help on the internet?
Or 4
b. What is LAN? Explain any three elements of LAN.
29. Explain any four operations that can be performed on database. 4
30. What are comments? Write three simple rules for writing comments. 4
31. a. How can one create radio buttons and drop-down list? Explain.
Or 4
b. What is a frame? Explain any three attributes of <frame> tag.
32. a. Explain any four methods to secure a computer from the internet threats.
Or 4
b. Define spyware. Explain any three spywares.

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Total number of printed pages : 7 NB-T/MS/1

2024
MUSIC
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 14 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise
the answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 32 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
v) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the
option being attempted.

N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the
top left side.

SECTION - A : (Ethnic Music)

1. In construction of bamboo trumpet, the bamboo should have : 1
a) 2 nodes b) 4 nodes
c) 6 nodes d) 8 nodes

2. Nagas produce unique and characteristically beautiful : 1
a) earthy sound b) melodious sound
c) sweet sound d) beautiful sound

3. Nagaland is a land of folklore passed down through : 1
a) time immemorial b) artistic expression
c) oral tradition d) found objects

4. Write a brief note on the drum. 2

5. Write notes on any two of the following: 2½+2½ =5
a) The bamboo flute b) Cup violin
c) Trumpet d) Bamboo mouth organ

(2) NB-T/MS/1

SECTION - B : (Western Music)
6. Name the given note : 1

a) C
 b) E
 c) D d) F

7. In the compound time signature, the beats in the bar divide easily into : 1
a) two equal parts b) three equal parts
c) four equal parts d) five equal parts

8. Which of the following is not correctly grouped ? 1

a) b) c) d)

9. Which minor key has 2 (two) sharps in its key signature ? 1

a) B minor
c) F minor
b) D minor
d) E minor

10. Identify the given interval. 1

th th th th
a) major 7 b) minor 7 c) major 6 d) minor 6

11. On what degree of the scale is the dominant triad built ? 1
nd th th th
a) 2 degree b) 4 degree c) 5 degree d) 6 degree

12. The word that tells musicians to sing or play sweetly : 1
a) dolce b) marziale c) vivo d) tranquillo

13. Write correctly grouped quaver or semiquaver rests below the
asterisks (*) . ½x4=2

(3) NB-T/MS/1

14. The following music contains mistakes in the grouping of notes.
Write it out correctly. 2

15. Write a tune for flute using the first five degree of the scale in G major
to the given rhythm. Use a key signature and finish on the tonic. 2

16. a) Write the tonic in the last bar to agree with the anacrusis . 1x2=2

b) Give rests in the last bar to agree with the anacrusis.

17. Add crotchet or quaver rests in the places marked by an asterisk (*)
to complete the bars. Use brackets where necessary . ½x4=2

18. Write the following arpeggios ascending on the treble clef with
minim. Use key signatures. ½x4=2
a) A minor b) F major c) E minor d) B minor

19. Work out the keys of the following : 1x2=2

a)

b)

(4) NB-T/MS/1

20. Use brackets to show the sequence and label it real or tonal. 1x2=2

a)

b)

21. Label the triads with roman numerals and chord symbols to show the
chord progression. 2

22. Write two more repeats of these bars to make ostinati that moves in
similar motion. 1x2=2

a)

b)

23. Label these scales . 1x2=2

a)

b)

(5) NB-T/MS/1

24. Write triads on the tonic and dominant degree of the E harmonic minor
scale using semibreve and label with chord symbols and roman numerals
in the treble stave, ascending. Use key signature. 3

25. Build the correct interval above each note. ½x6=3

minor 3rd minor 6th minor 7th

perfect 5th unison major 7th

26. Using minims, write a 4-part chord (SATB) using the chord of the

b) B  major
given keys as directed . 1½x2=3
a) D minor

27. Identify the cadences and label them with correct roman numerals . 1½x2=3

28. a) Transpose the given tune up an octave into the treble clef to
make them suitable for a violin or flute to play . 1½x2=3

b) Transpose the given tune down an octave into the bass clef to
make them suitable for a cello or bassoon to play .

(6) NB-T/MS/1

29. a) Use the root of each triad shown by the chord symbols to
write a bass line . 1½x2=3

b) Use notes from the tonic or dominant triads shown by the
roman numerals to write a tune above the bass line .

30. a) Using minims, write a broken chord using B minor tonic
triad (going down) . Use pattern of three notes each time.
Finish on the first D below the stave . 1½x2=3

b) Using quaver triplets, write a broken chord using the tonic
triad, going up. Use pattern of three notes each time. Finish
on the first C above the stave .

(7) NB-T/MS/1

31. Construct the following scales with minim notes. Use its key signature
and necessary accidentals. 1x5=5
a) D major descending, treble clef.
b) G harmonic minor ascending, treble clef.
c) C major ascending and descending, bass clef.
d) E melodic minor descending, bass clef
e) B natural minor ascending, treble clef.

32. Look at the following music and answer the questions that follow. 1x5=5

a) Identify the key of this piece.
b) Name the interval between the two notes marked with
asterisks (*) in bar 3.
c) Is the sequence in bars 1 & 2 real or tonal ? (treble clef)
d) What is the name of the musical symbol (  ) used in bar 2 ?
e) What is the music word for music that does not start on the
first beat of the bar?

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Total number of printed pages : 3 NB-T/HS/1
2024
HOME SCIENCE
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours

General instructions :
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 32 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
v) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option
being attempted.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.

Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives:
1. The first emotion that baby experience is 1
(a) anger (c) fear
(b) happiness (d) disgust

2. In ____ play, the enjoyment is derived from the activities of others. 1
(a) passive (c) natural
(b) exploratory (d) creative

3. Low RBC count or immature RBC causes 1
(a) rickets (c) anaemia
(b) goitre (d) night blindness

4. Which vitamin helps in the formation of collagen present in between the
cells? 1
(a) Vitamin A (c) Vitamin C
(b) Vitamin B (d) Vitamin D

5. Potato, onion and garlic should be kept in dark place to avoid 1
(a) rotting (c) discolouration
(b) fermentation (d) germination

6. Which of this is not a human resource? 1
(a) knowledge (c) property
(b) attitude (d) interest

-2- NB-T/HS/1

7. Which Right helps the consumer to get compensation against unfair trade
practices? 1
(a) Right to safety (c) Right to select
(b) Right to be heard (d) Right to seek redressal

8. _____ ensures recycling and controls of pollution in the environment. 1
(a) Woolmark (c) Agmark
(b) Ecomark (d) ISI

9. Which lines suggest life and activity in the elements of art? 1
(a) Vertical lines (c) Diagonal lines
(b) Horizontal lines (d) Curved lines

10. Starch is used as a stiffening agent for which fabric? 1
(a) nylon (c) wool
(b) cotton (d) silk

Answer the following questions in 20-30 words :
11. What are the two types of motor development? 2
12. Differentiate between parallel play and associative play. 2
13. ‘Milk is considered to be a complete food’, why? 2
14. Mention two points on proper disposal of refuse in the kitchen. 2
15. How is selection of cereals and pulses done? 2
16. Name the main resources required for the following activities: 2
i) Running ii) Buying a car
17. What are community resources? Give two examples. 2
18. Write two ways of supplementing family income. 2
19. What are consumer aids? Name any two consumer aids. 2
20. How is continuous rhythm achieved in the arrangement of accessories? 2
21. Name two chemicals used for removing stains. 2
22. What does the following symbol on readymade garment indicate? 2

a) b)

-3- NB-T/HS/1

Answer the following questions in 40-60 words :
23. Enumerate any three principles of development. 3
24. What are the physical needs of a child? 3
25. a) Write any three roles of books in the life of a child up to 3 years.
Or 3
b) Write any three influences of TV on children.
26. Give any three points of differences between fat and oil. 3
27. (a) ‘Meal planning is influenced by age and occupation’. Support this
statement with examples.
Or 3
(b) Mention three measures that provide nutritious food at low cost.
28. (a) Differentiate between real direct income and real indirect income with
examples.
Or 3
(b) Write any three reasons why economic security is important in saving.
29. (a) What is adulteration? Explain its two types.
Or 3
(b) How does a manufacturer or seller lure the consumer to buy their products?
Answer the following questions in 80-100 words :
30. (a) What are the sources of iodine? Enumerate any three diseases caused by
deficiency of iodine.
Or 5
(b) Why is vitamin B known as B-complex? Discuss the function of vitamin B1
(Thiamine) in our body.
31. (a) Name the principles of art. Explain any two principles of art in detail.
Or 5
(b) Explain the types of flower arrangement.
32. (a) Why is proper storage of clothes important? What points should be
considered while storing cotton, silk and woolen clothes?
Or 5
(b) Give five differences between soap and detergent.

*****************

Total number of printed pages : 4 NB-T/BK/1
2024
BOOK-KEEPING & ACCOUNTANCY
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours.

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 28 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
v) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option
being attempted.
N.B:Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.

Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives:
1. The traditional name for income statement is 1
(a) trial balance (b) trading account
(c) trading and profit & loss account (d) final accounts

2. Net profit is ascertained from 1
(a) balance sheet (b) profit & loss account
(c) trading account (d) none of these

3. The bank A/c which does not carry any interest is 1
(a) current A/c (b) savings bank A/c
(c) fixed deposit A/c (d) recurring A/c

4. A bank reconciliation statement can be prepared with the balance of 1
(a) cash book (b) pass book
(c) cheque book (d) both cash book and pass book

5. Interest paid or allowed by the bank but not yet recorded in the cash book will 1
(a) increase amount in the pass book (b) increase amount in the cash book
(c) decrease amount in the pass book (d) none of these

6. A bill dated 1st January, 2023 is payable three months after date. The maturity
date of the bill will be 1
(a) 2nd April, 2023 (b) 4th April, 2023
(c) 3rd April, 2023 (d) 1st April, 2023

7. The person to whom the amount of a bill is payable is called as 1
(a) drawer (b) drawee

(c) maker (d) payee

-2- NB-T/BK/1

8. Errors committed due to incomplete knowledge of accounting is 1
(a) clerical error (b) compensating error
(c) errors of principle (d) errors of omission

9. Depreciation is a/an 1
(a) loss (b) asset
(c) income (d) valuation

10. The method under which the value of assets cannot be written down to
zero level is 1
(a) fixed installment method (b) straight line method
(c) depreciation on original cost (d) reducing installment method

Answer the questions in about 20-30 words:
11. What is a trading account? 2

12. What is a credit card? 2

13. Write two special features of fixed deposit account. 2

14. Briefly explain a sliding figure error. 2

15. What is suspense account? 2

16. Define depreciation according to Spicer and Peglar. 2

Answer the questions in about 30-50 words:
17. Explain any three objectives of profit and loss account. 3

18. Mention and explain any three points to be considered while preparing
final accounts. 3

19. Explain the cases under which the bank balance will be treated as plus balance. 3

20. Write short notes on: 1½x2=3
a) days of grace b) discounting of the bill

21. State any three special features of depreciation. 3

22. The original cost of furniture was ` 9,000 and the amount of depreciation
under diminishing balance method was calculated to be ` 900 during the
first year. Find the rate of depreciation. Also calculate the value of

depreciation for the 2nd year. 3

-3- NB-T/BK/1

Answer the questions in about 70-100 words:
23. a. Explain any five difference between profit and loss A/c and balance sheet.
Or 5
b. Prepare trading, profit and loss account and balance sheet from the following
trial balance of Wekong Timber Ltd. as on 31st March, 2022.

Particulars Debit Credit
Balances ` Balances `
Purchases and Sales 15,750 21,000
Stock 13,000
Carriage on sales 650
Freight inward 500
Salaries and wages 980
Cash 6,600
Capital 20,000
Bills receivable/Bills payable 4,220 2,700
Drawings 2,000
43,700 43,700

Closing stock was estimated at ` 12,000.

24. a. Explain any three advantages and two disadvantages of opening a current A/c.
Or 5
b. Mention and explain any five different types of bank.

25. a. Explain the needs and importance of bank reconciliation statement.
Or 5
b. Prepare a bank reconciliation statement as on 31st March, 2022.
i) The bank column of its cash book showed a debit balance of ` 1,60,000
ii) Cheques deposited but not credited to bank ` 50,000
iii) Cheque issued but not presented for payment ` 42,350
iv) Cheque received by the bank directly from the trade debtors ` 73,000
v) Insurance premium paid by the bank as per standing instruction but not
yet recorded in the cash book ` 10,000.

26. a. Write and explain any five features of bills of exchange.
Or 5
b. On January 1, 2020, Virat sold goods to Rahul for ` 4,000. On the same date,
Virat drew a bill on Rahul for ` 4,000 due after three months. Rahul accepted
the bill and returned it to Virat who retained the bill up to the due date. Rahul
met the bill on the due date.
Pass journal entries in the books of both the parties.

-4- NB-T/BK/1

27. a. Explain any five effects of errors and their rectification on profit and loss A/c
and balance sheet.
Or 5
b. An accountant found the following errors of the previous year after preparing
the financial accounts during the current year.
i) Purchases from Kenny was not awarded in the books ` 200
ii) Sales to Kavi amounting to ` 3,000 was wrongly passed through the sales
book with ` 300
iii) Wages paid to David was debited to David with ` 1,000
iv) Repairs to machinery amounting to ` 1,800 was omitted.
Pass necessary journal entries to rectify these errors.

28. a. Mention and explain any five factors affecting the amount of depreciation.
Or 5
st
b. Dayal and Son’s purchased a machinery for ` 14,00,000 on 1 October 2020 and
spent 1,00,000 on installation. Depreciation was to be provided @10% by written
down value method.
Prepare machinery account for 3 years assuming the books are closed on
March 31st every year.

*********************************

Total number of printed pages: 3 NB-T/EE/1

2024
ENVIRONMENTAL EDUCATION
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 32 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) General option questions are provided in 5 and 6 marks questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
v) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option
being attempted.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.

1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
(i). The practice of growing crops between rows of trees is called
(a) Agro forestry (b) Urban forestry
(c) Commercial forestry (d) Forestry
(ii). The second most important necessity after air to sustain life is
(a) Surface water (b) Pure water
(c) Underground water (d) Distilled water
(iii). Nests of predacious ants are placed to protect the crop from insects on
(a) Papaya trees (b) Lemon trees
(c) Orange trees (d) Acacia trees
(iv). Sugar industry, paper industry, cement industry cause a lot of
(a) Soil pollution (b) Thermal pollution
(c) Noise pollution (d) Air pollution
(v). Any unwanted or unpleasant sound that causes discomfort is
(a) Noise (b) Music
(c) Rhythm (d) Wave
(vi).Forests are the lifeline of
(a) Rural people (b) Tribal people
(c) Urban people (d) Semi-urban people
(vii). Which of the following is not a cause of natural disaster?
(a) Landslide (b) Earthquake
(c) Fire caused by short circuit (d) Cyclone

-2- NB-T/EE/1

(viii). For environmentally safe products, consumers should look for
(a) Hall mark (b) Agmark
(c) ISI mark (d) Ecomark
(ix). Trout may become extinct due to
(a) Climate change (b) Sea water
(c) Salt water (d) Hunting
(x). Chipko movement was a movement for the protection of
(a) Animals (b) Trees
(c) Water (d) Natural gas
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence not exceeding
15 words:
2. Write one importance of planting trees in our houses. 1
3. What is electronic waste (E-waste)? 1
4. Define food adulteration. 1
5. Name any two factors responsible for degradation and loss of wildlife. 1
6. Write the full form of CNG. 1
7. Write one advantage of wind energy. 1

Answer the following questions in about 20 - 30 words:
8. Write two importances of coral reefs. 2
9. Mention any two measures to prevent poaching and hunting. 2
10. Define soil pollution. 2
11. Give any two reasons for energy crises. 2
12. What is climate change? 2
13. Mention any two man made factors of landslides. 2
14. Write any two human activities causing floods. 2
15. Write any two importance’s of sacred groves. 2

Answer the following questions in about 30 - 50 words:
16. Write any three disadvantages of shifting cultivation. 3

17. Write any three popular indigenous practices in our country for nature
preservation. 3

-3- NB-T/EE/1

18. Mention three effects of air pollution on human beings. 3
19. Name any three sources of water pollution. 3
20. Mention any three reasons behind depletion of forest cover. 3
21. List any three problems faced by displaced people related to resettlement and
rehabilitation. 3
22. Write any three purposes of water harvesting. 3

Answer any three from the following questions in about 50-60 words:

23. State five reasons why conservation of forest is essential. 5
24. Mention five benefits of social forestry. 5
25. Write five effects of cyclones. 5
26. Mention any five mitigation measures for fire. 5
27. List any five consumers’ duties for making correct choices while buying different
items. 5
28. ‘United Nations has guaranteed eight consumer rights to citizens of all Nations’
Mention any five consumer rights. 5
Answer any two of the following questions in about 70-100 words:
29. Write any six advantages of rainwater harvesting. 6
30. Mention any six benefits of biofertilizers. 6
31. Write any six effects of noise pollution on human health. 6
32. Mention any six measures to control noise pollution. 6

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Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-T/IT(V)/1
2024
Information Technology ES (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
v) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option being
attempted.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Which of the following correctly explains olfactics?
(a) Sense of seeing (b) Sense of hearing
(c) Sense of touch (d) Sense of smell
ii. Emotional, mental, physical and social response to any perceived threats and
demands is known as
(a) Positive response (b) Stress
(c) Pressure (d) Passion
iii. Which of the following functions of an entrepreneur involves employment,
development and compensation of employees?
(a) Personnel (b) Production
(c) Marketing (d) Accounting
iv. SDG stands for
(a) Safe development goals (b) Social development goals
(c) Sustainable development goals(d) Short term development goals
v. To undo the most recent change in a document, the short cut key is
(a) Ctrl+A (b) Ctrl+X
(c) Ctrl+Y (d) Ctrl+Z
vi. The libre office writer provides two ways to crop an image, the crop tool and the
(a) Crop page (b) Edit page
(c) Tool bar (d) Task bar
vii. The tools> protect document> sheet can be used for
(a) Sharing sheet with others (b) Hiding the sheet
(c) Protecting the sheet (d) Consolidating the sheet
viii. Which of the following bar provides information about the spreadsheet and ways to
change its features?
(a) Tool bar (b) Title bar
(c) Formula Bar (d) Status bar

ix. Which of the following is a collection of related records?
(a) Data (b) Fields
(c) Tables (d) File

-2- NB-T/IT(V)/1

x. What type of hazards are caused due to repetitive movements, improper set up of
work stations?
(a) Biological hazards (b) Chemical hazards
(c) Ergonomic hazards (d) Physical hazards

Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is non verbal communication? 1
3. What is self awareness? 1
4. Who is an entrepreneur? 1
5. Define sustainable development. 1
6. What are styles? 1
7. What is the short cut key to open function wizard key in calc? 1
8. What is database management system (DBMS)? 1
9. Write one possible cause of fire. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. What is an operating system? State one function of an operating system. 1+1=2
11. Write the steps to insert image in insert image dialog box. 2
12. Write the steps of resizing an image. 2
13. Differentiate between relative and absolute hyperlinks. 2
14. Write two aspects of scenario that can be altered independently. 2
15. Write any two uses of database management system. 2
16. What is a foreign key? 2
17. What is a hazard? Give an example. 1+1=2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. Explain briefly the four settings for positioning image within a text. 4
19. What is spreadsheet? Briefly explain the three data types of spreadsheet. 1+3=4
20. (a) Explain any four advantages of a database.
Or 4
(b) Write the steps for changing label of a form.
21. (a) What are safety hazards? Write three causes of common workplace hazards.
Or 1+3=4
(b) List any four fire safety evacuation plans. (4)

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Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-T/T&H(V)/1
2024
Tourism & Hospitality (Vocational)
Total marks : 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
v) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option being
attempted.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. What kind of software seems to be useful in the beginning, but will cause
damage to the computer once installed?
(a) Virus (b) Malware
(c) Trojan Horse (d) Spam
ii. It is the most important skill to keep one’s actions on track for the successful
completion of the task at hand.
(a) Discipline (b) Organizational skills
(c) Multitasking ability (d) Communication skills
iii. Interacting with one another in a consistent manner comes under the primary
goal of
(a) Environmental protection (b) Cultural diversity
(c) Economic growth (d) Social inclusion
iv. Which of the following is not a tool to get feedback from customers?
(a) Feedback forms (b) Interviews
(c) Questionnaires (d) Reporting hierarchy
v. The host-guest relationship is referred to as
(a) relationship toll (b) customer management
(c) hospitality (d) CRM
vi. The modern business protocol is seen as
(a) gender neutral (b) gender equality
(c) gender sensitivity (d) gender disparity
vii. Works of literature, drama, music or art as well as cinematic and audio-visual
works are all protected by
(a) patent (b) copyright

(c) trademarks (d) trade secrets
viii. It often refers to the policies and practices used during food production, packing,
transportation and serving.
(a) Food safety (b) Food protection
(c) Food hygiene (d) Food sanitation

-2- NB-T/T&H(V)/1

ix. Hazards that causes falls, slips and trips are considered as
(a) physical hazards (b) safety hazards
(c) ergonomic hazards (d) accidental hazards
x. A printed list of many dishes that may be ordered at a restaurant is known as
(a) booking (b) tip
(c) menu (d) toppings
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. State any two factors considered to be sources of stress in modern times. 1
3. What is a folder? 1
4. Define customer feedback. 1
5. What is sexual harassment? 1
6. What is meant by copyright infringement? 1
7. Mention any two guidelines for maintaining floor safety. 1
8. Write two main principles of sustainable development. 1
9. List any one reason to justify why English language is essential in
hospitality industry. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Briefly explain any two factors that causes communication barriers. 2
11. What are Standard Operating Procedures? Why is it needed in restaurant? 2
12. Write any two myths about entrepreneurship. 2
13. Who is a customer? Write one reason why customer is important in
hospitality industry. 1+1=2
14. Suggest two ways to accomplish workplace gender equality. 2
15. Differentiate between patent and copyright. 2
16. Mention any two ways of handling waste bin or trash can. 2
17. What are physical hazards? Give two examples. 1+1=2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. a) Write any four hospitable conducts required while dealing with a guest.
Or 4
b) Write any four facilities that should be provided by the companies for
the safety of female employees to travel at night.
19. a) Explain the LAST compliant plan to handle and control a complaint.
Or 4
b) Explain briefly any four benefits of effective communication among
colleagues in hospitality industry.
20. What is Intellectual Property Right (IPR)? State any three objectives of IPR.
1+3=4

21. Mention any four key duties of the Food Safety and Standards Authority
of India (FSSAI). 4

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Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-T/R(V)/1
2024
Retail (Vocational)
Total marks : 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
v) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option
being attempted.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. The only people who often interact directly with customers are
a) wholesalers b) importers
c) retailers d) distributors
ii. Stock should be maintained so as to mitigate uncertainties in
a) wholesale operation b) supply or demand
c) market operation d) store operation
iii. To remain competitive, it is essential to provide high quality service,
trustworthiness and
a) transparency b) commitment
c) credibility d) compatibility
iv. The process of bringing products from a retailer or other point of sale to the
customers’ door is known as
a) transportation b) delivery
c) business d) retailing
v. Which of the following is not a cause of accident in retail stores?
a) Even floor conditions b) Leaky ceilings
c) Narrow walkways d) power short-circuit
vi. An agreement made between two parties is also known as
a) reconciliation b) cooperation
c) contract d) commitment
vii. Public signs and visual symbols are part of
a) written communication b) verbal communication
c) visual communication d) non-verbal communication
viii. It is generated by pent-up worries, frustration and apprehension.
a) Survival stress b) Environmental stress

c) Work-related stress d) Internal stress
ix. What are small pictures on the desktop called?
a) Icons b) Wallpaper
c) Taskbar d) Notification bar

-2- NB-T/R(V)/1

x. Which of the following is not a commercial function of entrepreneur?
a) Production b) Policy making
c) Finance d) Accounting
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is batch control? 1
3. State any two factors that affects loading and unloading of merchandise. 1
4. What is accident? 1
5. What is constructive feedback? 1
6. Mention any two principles of effective communication. 1
7. Write any two types of self-awareness. 1
8. What is a file? 1
9. Who is an entrepreneur? 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Write any two duties and responsibilities of the store operations assistant. 2
11. Define the term ‘retail operation’. Mention any two retail activities. 1+1=2
12. Mention any two problems associated with retail transportation. 2
13. Write two manners on how retail bagging is done. 2
14. What is workplace violence? Suggest one measure to prevent violence,
shoplifting and robbery at workplace. 1+1=2
15. Briefly explain any two importance of feedback. 2
16. What is challenging work environment? State any one suggestion to
inspire an employee amid challenging workplace condition. 1+1=2
17. Mention two main principles of sustainable development. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. a) What is stock control? Briefly explain any three techniques of stock
control. 1+3=4
Or
b) Briefly explain any four points that need to be considered while
responding to customer queries and feedback. (4)
19. a) Explain four rules regarding delivery of goods.
Or 4
b) Explain the procedures of delivery of items in the case of store shipping.
20. Explain four common safety concerns in retail store. 4
21. ‘Without teamwork, a business or organization won’t be able to meet
its goals’. Justify the statement. 4

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Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-T/B&W(V)/1
2024
Beauty & Wellness (Vocational)
Total marks : 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
v) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option
being attempted.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. It is a complex mixture of gestures, movement, posture and tone of voice.
a) Kinesics b) Proxemics
c) Haptics d) Body language
ii. Norton, AVG and Kaspersky are examples of
a) antivirus b) system software
c) operating system d) windows firewall
iii. Sustainable development requires judicious use of
a) human resources b) physical resources
c) natural resources d) man-made resources
iv. Which of the following product is used to protect our skin from UV rays?
a) Cream b) Sunscreen
c) Toner d) Moisturizer
v. What is used to perform threading?
a) Nylon thread b) Polyester thread
c) Woollen thread d) Cotton thread
vi. Which of the following is an eyebrow shape?
a) C shaped b) L shaped
c) S shaped d) U shaped
vii. This type of make up usually requires minimal use of cosmetic products.
a) Nude make up b) HD make up
c) Matte make up d) Dewy make up
viii. Which of the following is not a purpose of make up?
a) Enhance our features b) Make us happy
c) Look beautiful d) Hide our imperfections

ix. The fastest and easiest way to increase customer loyalty in beauty and wellness
industry is by improving
a) the infrastructure b) the make up tools
c) cosmetic products d) the customer service

-2- NB-T/B&W(V)/1

x. ‘Be on time, your client’s time is limited and valuable’ is to do with
a) professionalism b) personal grooming
c) customer satisfaction d) customer attraction
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. State any two key factors affecting effective communication. 1
3. What is computer? 1
4. Mention any two primary goals of sustainable development. 1
5. What are the tiny holes or pores on our skin from which hair grow are
known as? 1
6. What do we use, when our skin becomes dull and dry? 1
7. Name any two types of waxing. 1
8. What should be applied on the face to complete the look in the process
of make up? 1
9. List any two ways to create positive impression at workplace. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. What is stress? Write two sources of stress in modern times. 1+1=2
11. Briefly describe two advantages of pursuing entrepreneurship as a career. 2
12. Describe two basic steps that is involved in skin care routine. 2
13. What is waxing? State one safety tips to be followed in waxing. 1+1=2
14. What is threading? Name any two types of threading. 1+1=2
15. What is airbrush make up? State one way of preparing airbrush make up.
1+1=2
16. Differentiate between HD make up and bridal make up. 2
17. Write any two importance of etiquettes in workplace. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. (a) Explain any four skin care products.
Or 4
(b) Explain the functions of epidermis, the top layer of the skin.
19. (a) What is bleaching? Write any three step by step procedures of
bleaching. 1+3=4
Or
(b) Write any four safety tips to be followed during threading session. (4)
20. Describe any four make up procedures. 4
21. Define etiquette. Explain three benefits of correct etiquettes in a workplace.
1+3=4

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Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-T/E(V)/1
2024
Electronics (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
v) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option being
attempted.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. The strength of magnetic field is
(a) Volt (b) Newton per coulomb
(c) Tesla (d) Coulomb per second
ii. With the circuit, a fuse is always connected in
(a) Parallel (b) Series
(c) Both parallel and series (d) Star
iii. If the mixer grinder shuts down automatically, then it could be a problem of
(a) Loose blade (b) Crack in the jar
(c) Faulty wiring (d) Broken coupler
iv. In a microwave oven, the cooking surface is generally made up of ceramic or
(a) Enamel (b) Copper
(c) Silver (d) Glass
v. What is the safest distance to keep from all electrical panels?
(a) 3 feet (b) 4 feet
(c) 5 feet (d) 5 feet
vi. Under which type of fire does cooking oils and fats come?
(a) Type A (b) Type C
(c) Type D (d) Type K
vii. Stress generated by pent up worries; frustration and apprehension in inner self is
called
(a) Internal stress (b) Survival stress
(c) Environmental stress (d) Work related stress
viii. A recycled file will get stored in which folder?
(a) Downloads (b) Document
(c) Recycle bin (d) Pictures
ix. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a successful entrepreneur?

(a) Self confident (b) Risk taking
(c) Action oriented (d) Indecisive
x. Which of the following is a primary goal of sustainable development?
(a) Making government policies (b) Economic growth
(c) School administration (d) Weather forecast

-2- NB-T/E(V)/1

Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is a motor? 1
3. What is the basic working principle of home appliances in house hold
applications? 1
4. Name any two products with small energy rating label. 1
5. Write any two types of operating system in computer. 1
6. What is self awareness? 1
7. State one myth and reality of an entrepreneur. 1
8. What are electrical hazards? 1
9. Write one objective of sustainable development goals. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Differentiate between DC and AC fuses. 2
11. Write the steps to change rotary incher switch. 2
12. What is non verbal communication? Mention any two components of non
verbal communication. 1+1=2
13. Name any two types of juicers and write their uses. 1+1=2
14. What is the problem if microwave appears dead? Write one factor that may
cause this condition. 1+1=2
15. What are standard operating procedures (SOP)? Name a material that can be
used to remind workers of chemical hazards. 1+1=2
16. ‘Being able to act quickly in an emergency situation is paramount to an
electrician’s working life’. Justify the statement with two points. 2
17. State Fleming’s Right Hand Rule. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. (a) Explain briefly any two parts of motors.
Or 4
(b) Explain briefly electromechanical relays and solid state relays.
19. Explain any two ways to clean mixer grinder. 4
20. (a) Explain any four ways in which you can perform trouble shooting of micro
oven.
Or 4
(b) Explain any four ways to maintain microwave oven.
21. Write four ways to protect oneself from electrical hazards. 4

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Total number of printed pages: 2 NB-T/MSFC(V)/1
2024
Multi Skill Foundation Course (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time: 2 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
v) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option
being attempted.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Mixture of cement, sand and gravels is called
(a) mortar (b) concrete
(c) ferro-cement (d) RCC
ii. What is the unit of resistance?
(a) Volt (b) Ampere
(c) Watt (d) Ohms
iii. The battery converts which of the following energy into electrical energy?
(a) Nuclear (b) Chemical
(c) Thermal (d) Mechanical
iv. The process of collecting, filtering, storing and using rainwater is known as
(a) irrigation (b) conservation
(c) percolation (d) rainwater harvesting
v. The method of growing plants without soil is called
(a) azolla (b) hydroponic
(c) aerobic (d) anaerobic
vi. Which type of blood cell is called as "soldier of the body"?
(a) White Blood Corpuscles (b) Red Blood Corpuscles
(c) Thrombocytes (d) Platelets
vii. What does the word 'Seiri' mean?
(a) Sort (b) Shine
(c) Standardize (d) Set in order
viii. According to Howard W. Johnson, which of the following is not a basic
element of entrepreneur?
(a) Invention (b) Innovation

(c) Equality (d) Adaptation
ix. Negative stress is also known as
(a) survival stress (b) distress
(c) internal stress (d) work stress

-2- NB-T/MSFC(V)/1

x. How many sustainable development goals were established by the United
Nations General Assembly in 2015?
(a) 14 (b) 15
(c) 16 (d) 17
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. Who is an entrepreneur? 1
3. Define self-motivation. 1
4. Write any one principle of sustainable development. 1
5. What is meant by painting? 1
6. List any two areas where contour line is used. 1
7. Why is rainwater storage important? 1
8. Name one method of artificial insemination. 1
9. State any two main components of balance diet. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. What is effective communication? List any two C's of effective
communication. 1+1=2
11. Write four measures to protect computer. 2
12. Draw the symbolic representation of the third angle projection method. 2
13. What are welding fumes? Write one safety measure for protection against
welding fumes. 1+1=2
14. Differentiate between direct and alternating current. 2
15. What is a pump? Write any two places where it is used. 1+1=2
16. What is meant by irrigation? Write about any one type of irrigation. 1+1=2
17. What are communicable and non-communicable diseases? 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. Write any four characteristics of concrete cement. 4
19 What is biogas? State any three advantages of biogas. 1+3=4
20. (a) Briefly describe hydroponic fodder production system.
Or 4
(b) State any four importance of nursery.
21. (a) Mention the advantages of packaged food.
Or 4
(b) Write any four reasons on the importance of vaccination.

*************************************

Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-T/AG(V)/1
2024
Agriculture (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
v) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option being
attempted.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Which method of land is suitable for undulating land and sandy soil?
(a) Sprinkler irrigation (b) Drip irrigation
(c) Spray irrigation (d) Subsurface irrigation
ii. It is a type of micro irrigation equipment which is often used for temperature control
in outdoor settings
(a) Drippers (b) Sprinklers
(c) Foggers (d) Misters
iii. The most common herbicide used in brinjal is
(a) Paraquat (b) Fluchloralin
(c) Alachlor (d) Trifluralin
iv. Which of the following is derived from tobacco plant and is used for repelling
insects?
(a) Nimbolin (b) Nimbin
(c) Pyrethrum (d) Nicotine
v. Damping off is a disease of
(a) Leaves (b) Fruits
(c) Seedlings (d) Flowers
vi. Vegetables crops such as tomatoes, peppers and corn are harvested in
(a) Summer season (b) Winter season
(c) Spring season (d) Autumn season
vii. Noise, vibration, heat and other unhealthy climatic conditions are causes of
(a) Electrical hazards (b) Mechanical hazards
(c) Chemical hazards (d) Physical hazards
viii. It refers to the movement of the body or its separate parts which may be culture
bound
(a) Body language (b) Proxemics

(c) Kinesics (d) Haptics
ix. The small pictures on the desktop are called
(a) Icons (b) Taskbar
(c) Wallpaper (d) Notification area

-2- NB-T/AG(V)

x. Using eco-friendly materials comes under which of the primary goals of sustainable
development?
(a) Economic growth (b) Environmental protection
(c) Cultural diversity (d) Social inclusion
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is a fogger? 1
3. What are pre plant herbicides? 1
4. Name any two natural enemies to combat pests. 1
5. State two fundamental principles of effective communication. 1
6. What are maturity indices? 1
7. What is hazard? 1
8. What is an operating system in a computer? 1
9. List any two primary goals of sustainable development. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. What is irrigation? Write one main objective of irrigation system. 1+1=2
11. What is biological control of weeds? 2
12. Write two differences between broadleaf and grassy weeds. 2
13. Write the scientific names of two solanaceous crops and also name two common
solanaceous vegetable diseases. 2
14. Differentiate between climacteric and non-climacteric vegetables. 2
15. What is stress? List two sources of stress in modern times. 1+1=2
16. State any two common hazards at vegetable farm with examples. 2
17. Who is an entrepreneur? State two characteristics of a successful entrepreneur.2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. (a) Briefly explain any four types of micro irrigation system. 4
Or
(b) Write any two advantages and disadvantages of micro irrigation equipments.
(2+2=4)
19. (a) What are weeds? Briefly explain the annual, biennial and perennial weeds.
Or 1+3=4
(b) Explain any four tools and equipments for insect pest and disease management
operations. (4)
20. What is grading of crops? Write three advantages of grading. 1+3=4
21. Explain any four types of hazards that occur in agricultural works. 4

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Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-T/Auto(V)/1
2024
Automotive (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
v) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option being
attempted.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Vehicle engines that work on internal combustion engine and electric are called
(a) Battery operated engines (b) Hybrid engines
(c) Electric engines (d) Air engines
ii. Which of the following is the outer edge of a wheel that holds the tires and acts as
link between the hub and the tyre?
(a) Rim (b) Flange
(c) Barrel (d) Lug hole
iii. Which of the following is a measurement unit of pressure?
(a) CFM (cubic feet per min) (b) Pounds per square inch (PSI)
(c) Horse power (d) Watts
iv. Who is the first point of contact between customer and the dealership in an
automobile shop?
(a) Automobile engineer (b) Automobile technician
(c) Automobile shopkeeper (d) Automobile salesperson
v. To ensure that the vehicle remains at optimal operating temperature, the vehicle
relies on a fluid called
(a) Petrol (b) Brake oil
(c) Coolant (d) Gear oil
vi. The opposite side of the face of a hammer is called
(a) Cheek (b) Neck
(c) Face (d) Peen
vii. ABS stands for
(a) Active braking system (b) Artificial braking system
(c) Autonomous braking system (d) Anti lock braking system
viii. It refers to the language that has been used in a message
(a) Content (b) Process
(c) Context (d) Information

ix. The ability to work on more than one thing at a time and complete each of them with
required proficiency is known as
(a) Organisational skill (b) Negotiating skill
(c) Multi tasking ability (d) Adaptability

-2- NB-T/Auto(V)/1

x. The United Nations Sustainable Development Summit 2015 set certain global
development goals known as
(a) Agenda 2015 (b) Agenda 2020
(c) Agenda 2025 (d) Agenda 2030
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. List the two types of chassis. 1
3. What is a screwdriver? 1
4. Mention any two C’s of effective communication. 1
5. Name two types of engine oil. 1
6. What is customer service? 1
7. Write two benefits of using electric cars. 1
8. What is stress? 1
9. Define sustainable development. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. What is live axle and dead axle? 2
11. Write the formula for least count of vernier calliper. 2
12. Write four reasons for the need to change engine oil. 2
13. List any two duties of automobile salesperson. 2
14. What is stop and start technology? Why is it useful? 1+1=2
15. What is the function of clutch and gearbox? 2
16. What is start up India scheme? 2
17. What is operating system in computer? Mention any two operating systems.1+1=2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. (a) What is a wheel? Name any three parts of the wheel and write their functions.
Or 1+3=4
(b) What is an engine? Name any three components of internal combustion engine
and write their functions.
19. (a) Explain four types of hammers.
Or 4
. (b) Explain the procedures of adding coolant.
20. Explain any four qualities of good customer service in automotive workshop. 4
21. Explain four key components of hybrid electric cars. 4

******************************************

Total number of printed pages: 7 NB-T/SC/1
2024
SCIENCE
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise
the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 23 questions in 4 Sections. Marks allocated to
every question are indicated against it.
iii) All questions are compulsory in 1 and 2 marks questions (Section A and B).
iv) Internal choice is given in 3 and 5 marks questions (Section C and D). A
student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
v) General choice is given in 5 marks questions. A student has to attempt only 4
questions from this Section-D.
vi) Alternate questions for the visually impaired students are provided in some
questions. Only the visually impaired students have to attempt such alternate
questions.
vii) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option
being attempted.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left
side.

SECTION - A
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives:
(i) The given reaction is an example of
Na2SO4 + BaCl2 → BaSO4 + 2NaCl 1
(a) combination reaction (b) double displacement reaction
(c) decomposition reaction (d) displacement reaction
(ii) Butanol is a four-carbon compound with the functional group 1
(a) -CHO (b) -COOH
(c) -COO- (d) -OH
(iii) What is the name of the compound- CH3CH2COOH? 1
(a) Ethanal (b) Propanoic acid
(c) Ethanoic acid (d) Propanol
(iv) Which part of the human alimentary canal receives bile from the liver? 1
(a) Stomach (b) Small intestine
(c) Large intestine (d) Oesophagus
(v) At synapse, chemical signal is transmitted from 1
(a) dendritic end of one neuron to axonal end of another neuron
(b) axon to cell body of same neuron

(c) cell body to axonal end of same neuron
(d) axonal end of one neuron to dendritic end of another neuron

-2- NB-T/SC/1

(vi) In the given figure, the parts A, B & C are sequentially 1

(a) cotyledon, plumule & radicle (b) plumule, radicle & cotyledon
(c) plumule, cotyledon & radicle (d) radicle, cotyledon & plumule

(vii) In human females, an event that marks the onset of reproductive phase is 1
(a) growth of body (b) changes in the hair pattern
(c) change in voice (d) menstruation
(viii) In human males, all the chromosomes are paired perfectly except one.
These unpaired chromosomes are 1
(i) large chromosomes (ii) small chromosomes
(iii) y chromosomes (iv) x chromosomes
(a) both (i) and (ii) (b) both (i) and (iii)
(c) both (iii) and (iv) (d) both (ii) and (iv)
(ix) In peas, a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with a short plant (tt). The ratio of
pure tall plants to short plants in F2 is 1
(a) 1:3 (b) 3:1
(c) 1:1 (d) 2:1
(x) The human eye forms the image of an object at the 1
(a) retina (b) iris
(c) pupil (d) cornea
(xi) The apparent flattening of the sun’s disc at sunset is due to the phenomenon of 1
(a) reflection (b) refraction
(c) dispersion (d) tyndall effect
(xii) An electron enters a magnetic field at right angle to it as shown in the figure. The
direction of force acting on the electron will be 1

(a) to the right (b) to the left
(c) into the page (d) out of page
(xiii) What is the shape of the magnetic field lines at the centre of a circular loop? 1

(a) Curve (b) Parabola
(c) Straight (d) Circular

-3- NB-T/SC/1

(xiv) In a food chain, the third trophic level is always occupied by 1
(a) producers (b) herbivores
(c) decomposers (d) carnivores
(xv) Disposable plastic plates should not be used because they are made of 1
(a) light weight materials (b) non-biodegradable materials
(c) bio-degradable materials (d) non-toxic materials

SECTION - B
Answer the following questions in about 20-30 words:
2. If we take hydrochloric acid (HCl) and acetic acid (CH3COOH) of the same
concentration of 1 molar; HCl is found to be a strong acid and CH3COOH is
found to be a weak acid. Give reason. 2

3. Why does calcium start floating when added to water? Write the reaction of
calcium with water. 2

4. Write the formula and draw the structure of benzene. 2

5. How are lungs designed to maximize area for exchange of gases in human
beings? 2

6. What is chemotropism? Give one example. 2

7. Magnetic field lines around a bar magnet are shown in the figure. Lanu
makes a statement that; magnetic field at point A is stronger than at point B.
State whether the statement is correct. Explain why? 2

SECTION - C
Answer the following questions in about 40-60 words:
8. a. Balance the following chemical equations:
(i) Fe + H2O → Fe3O4 + H2
(ii) Pb(NO3)2 → 2PbO + NO2 + O2

(iii) NaOH + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + H2O 3×1=3
Or
b. What is oxidation-reduction reaction? Give one example. (2+1=3)

-4- NB-T/SC/1

9. In the following experiment, what will happen if we add?

(i) HCl solution in the beaker and switch on the current.
(ii) Glucose (C6H12O6) solution in the beaker and switch on the current.
(iii) What conclusion can be drawn from the above experiment? 3×1=3

Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
What is chlor-alkali process? Name two products formed by this process.
(1+2=3)

10. a. Draw the electron dot structure of a molecule with single, double and triple
covalent bond.
Or 3×1=3
b. Draw the structural isomers of pentane (C5H12).

Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
Explain three chemical properties of carbon compounds. (3×1=3)

11. a. Draw the structure of a neuron and label any four parts.
Or 1+4×½=3
b. Identify the given figure and label the indicated parts.

Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
Compare and contrast the nervous and hormonal mechanism for control and
co-ordination in animals. (3)

-5- NB-T/SC/1

12. How do Mendel’s experiments show that traits may be dominant or recessive?
What will be the F1 progeny if a tall plant with round seeds is crossed with
short plant with wrinkled seeds? 2+1=3

13. a. The image below shows a thin lens of focal length 5m.
(i) What is the kind of lens shown in the figure below?
(ii) If a real inverted image is to be formed by this lens at a distance of 7m from
the optical centre, then show with calculation where should the object be
placed?

Or 3
b. An object 4cm in size is placed at 25cm in front of a concave mirror of focal
length 15cm. At what distance from the mirror should a screen be placed in
order to obtain a sharp image? Find the nature and size of the image.

Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
(i) State the difference between Pole and Centre of curvature of a spherical
mirror.
(ii) In which type of mirror does the centre of curvature lie behind the
mirror? (2+1=3)

14. Define power of accommodation. How does it help us to see nearby and far
away objects? 1+2=3

15. a. The potential difference between terminals of an electric heater is 60V when it
draws a current of 4A from the source. What current will the heater draw if the
potential difference is increased to 120V?
Or 3
b. Show with calculation how can three resistors of resistances 2Ω, 3Ω and 6Ω be
connected to give a total resistance of (i) 4Ω and (ii) 1Ω?

Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
State Ohm’s Law and express it mathematically. (2+1=3)

16. (i) Will current flow more easily through a thick wire of same material when
connected to same source? Explain.
(ii) Why does the cord of an electric heater not glow while heating element

does? 1+2=3

-6- NB-T/SC/1
17. What precautions should be taken to avoid the overloading of domestic circuit?
Give three points. 3

18. Study the food chain given below and answer the questions that follow:

(i) If the amount of energy available at the third trophic level is 100 Joules, then
how much energy will be available at the producer level? Justify your answer.
(ii) Is it possible to have two more trophic levels in this food chain? Justify your
answer. 2+1=3

Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
What is ozone? Explain how it is formed. (1+2=3)

SECTION - D
Answer any 4 questions from the following questions (19 to 23) in about 70-100
words:
19. Abulie conducted an experiment to investigate the condition under which iron
rust. He took three test tubes and placed clean iron nails in each of them, as
shown in the figure.
- In test tube A, he put water.
- In test tube B, he put boiled distilled water and a layer of oil.
- In test tube C, he put anhydrous calcium chloride.

(i) In which of the following test tubes, the rusting of iron nails took place. Give
reason.
(ii) In which of the test tubes, the rusting of iron nails did not take place. Give
reason. 2+3=5

-7- NB-T/SC/1

Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
Explain five ways to prevent rusting of iron. (5×1=5)

20. Explain the human excretory system with a neat labelled diagram. 3+2=5

Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
Name the components of the excretory system in human beings. Give one
function of each. (5)

21. Describe the various pathways involved in breaking down of glucose molecule.
5

22. a. Draw a labelled diagram of the longitudinal section of a flower and explain the
male and female reproductive parts.
Or 2+3=5
b. Draw and explain the female reproductive system in humans.

Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
Explain any two mode of reproduction by a single cell organism. (2½+2½=5)

23. a. Draw a ray diagram of an image formation by a concave mirror, when object is
placed : (i) beyond C (ii) between P and F.
Write the nature and position of the image formed in both the cases.
Or 1½+1½+2=5
b. Draw a ray diagram of an image formation by a convex lens, when the object is
placed : (i) between F1 and 2F1 (ii) between F1 and optical centre.
Write the nature and position of the image formed in both the cases.

Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
(i) A lemon appears larger when immersed in a glass of water. Explain why.
(ii) How does light ray bent as it goes from rarer to denser medium?
(iii) As light enters through a glass slab, the emergent ray is parallel to incident
ray. Why?
(iv) What is refraction of light? (1+1+2+1=5)

*******************************

Total number of printed pages : 5 NB-T/T/1

2024
TENYIDIE
Total marks: 80 Time: 3 hours

General Instructions :
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 24 main questions.
iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
iv) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option being
attempted.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.

SECTION – A (Kesi Mhaphrü)
1. Thedze phrülie di ketsokecü hako kelashülie:
U tsiepfumia kelhouzho u kenei se puo sü kepekro di lhoukecü. Themiae
lhoukecü nu huoniehuo se morosuoya mu süla kepekrokecüe meyie se. Rüna pete
nu thehouba ba phreya mu süko nunu u krü u tsiepfumiae kehou mu kepekro vor
üsi. Ukoe uko mhatho re phi. Kechükenyü huo nyita, penie tei huo morei
ketsienyhata mo liro miapuorei tsu mo di baya mo üsi. Ukoe kepekrokecü la uko tei
jüya mo. Ukoe khise uko mhatho nu voketa mhodzü vo thehoubako nunu
thedzetheseko kepuya, siro uko mhathoko nu vokewa sie rei kepekrolieya üsi.
Ukoe thedzethese, theriethekro, liecielierhieko pete thehouchü nunu
kepulieya. Mhathomhachü pete rei thehou nunu kepuya. Mhanuü mia huo dze
kesuo huo nyi di thehouba nunu kepu bata liro süu vi mote mu süu thengate.
Themia thehou nu voya kemokoe mia u le peviya mo mu sümia thataya üsi. U krü
zho keviko rei thehoubako nunu si sakuolieya. Nhicumiae phichümia perieya. U krü
u pfutsanuokoe die pukecü nu ‘A süu putuoü vorzhie’ iya mo derei phichümia thuo
rei die pukecü nu “A thie phichümia chalie chü di puzhie ho’ iya üsi. Thehethehieko
nu vo liro phichümia bu mha metha rieya mu sidi ukoe jashüya.
Thiedzü teiu nu we miapuorei lietsu gei rülei bataya mo mu süla phere di
huoniehuo kinu vokecü chü petsa phi süla thekhruothenyi teiko geinu kesilieya üsi
kekreilamonyü thenyi teiko nu liro huoniehuo ga kakecü rei chü phiya mu süla mia
krünuokoe u nuonuo bu u muo se vo u mei, u niako tsü di u bu kesilieya. Kepekro
di lhouyakecü puo rhi kekreikreikecü donu kekhriethokecü rei meyie se mu
khriethomia liro kechükesia teiko nu rei kekho kelho die kepuya üsi. U tsiepfumia
kezeu kezeu mu kezepfü kezepfü nyi phreya üsi. Mia puoe nanyü chü liro mithu phi
khupie puo zeu tsüya üsi mu mha hau mha kemeyie mu therhu sekecü puo. Mithu
phi hau-e khrietho muo siya.
Diecako donu puotou-u kedapie thushülie:

a. Rüna pete nu kedipuo ba phreya ga? 1
(i) Kepekrokecü ba (iii) U krü u pfutsanuo kehou ba

-2- NB-T/T/1
(ii) Thehouba (iv) Thehethehie ba
b. Kimhiekecümia mhasi rükrülieya ga? 1
(i) Kiülie nu keshürheimia (iii) Thehouba nu voyakezhamia
(ii) U thuo u peleyakezhamia (iv) U rübei mha leyakezhamia
c. U tsiepfumia kedipuo kechü nu u tei jüya mo ga? 1
(i) Liecielierhiekecü (iii) Mhathomhachü
(ii) Kepekrokecü (iv) Thehethehie
d. Kevimia-e die pukecü 1
(i) Ae mhakenyimia (iii) Ae kevimia
(ii) Ae mhakesimia (iv) Ae kethachümia
e. Kekhriethokecü nu mithu phi khupie tsükecüu 1
(i) Khrietho muo (iii) Therhu
(ii) Meyie (iv) Nanyü muo
f. Kezeu kepetsou thushülie. 1
(i) Kezepfü kezepfü (iii) Kezepfü
(ii) A zepfü (iv) A kezepfü
g. Thedze nu cayieu thushülie. Kiüdi thiedzü huoniehuo kinu vo petsaya ga? 1+1=2
h. U pfutsanuoko die kimhie di puya ga? Khrietho nu kedipuo kepfhekho pie baya üsi
ga? 1+1=2
SECTION – B (Thedze Kezo)
2. Hanie puo (1) kedapie dieca krie puo nunu krie di hiepengou (100 – 150) mese nu
thushülie.
a. N nadi nu themiako cienheciera kelhoupie dzücha (drainage) nu khashü di tei rü vor
tse dzü bu zoupfü kezakezi di nadiu bie perhuthor baketa la kethezhokecü
dzeyieleshü puo thupie thedzeleshü kethukemeho-u tsü di kimhielie morosuo shikecü
n nounyü kezashülie.

Moro 6

b. Nieko leshüki nu ‘thezie khakeshü’(blood donation) mhathochie puo chükelieu se
rükhruo mhathu puo thupie Mt. Japfü leshükiu dieyieleshü nu khashülie.

3. Hanie puo (1) kedapie dieca hiepengou (50) mese nunu thushülie.
a. Leshüki nu Tenyidie zekecü puo kemevi ba mu mo ücü kephrümia kenie kerüchükecü
rhi nunu thushülie.
Moro 4
b. Noe leshüda kesa puo thukelie la süu kekhrü kehouchie puo pebatuo üzhie. Süu
pemvü di phreikie puo thupie kezashülie.

SECTION – C (Diezho mu Thuyie)
4. Die puotou-u kedapie thushülie: 5x1=5
(a) Puo rüzhü nu le di kuolie. ‘Kuo’ hau pfhephra kiu nu ba ga?

(i) Puo (iii) Se
(ii) Kenie (iv) Pengou

-3- NB-T/T/1
(b) Khunuo se mia thuyakezhau üse-
(i) Ke (iii) Kia
(ii) Kie (iv) Ka

(c) Puo seibo geinu tetsu. Dieca hau nu diepe-u kiu ga?
(i) Puo (iii) tetsu
(ii) seibo (iv) geinu

(d) No ketho pu ba _____?
(i) shi (iii) ga
(ii) nhie (iv) ro

(e) Chüwaketa dze pesikeshü.
(i) Puwa (iii) Pute
(ii) Puta (iv) Puya

5. Dieca ‘zhie’ hau se puoca kenyi diecha mu diemei diecha puopuo chüshülie.
1+1=2
6. Zatsekhu 90% hau dieca nu thushülie. 1

7. Dieca puokru tou-u pie rhiephi (-) kesedo thashülie. 1
_________ pu melie.

8. Diesou hako puoca thushülie.
a. Noutenouca 1
b. Sopasolhi 1
c. Thecathebie 1

9. Diekhu mu dierozu kekrü kebako thu kemezhüshülie.
a. Nyiepu pete rei zivi yazo. 1
b. Ciedo themia kelhou rüdi phi te. 1
c. Kenie mu kenie ro die chülie ya. 1

10. Diecha hako thuyie chüpie Tenyidie nu khashülie. 5x1=5
a. What a beautiful house you have!
b. He spoke very softly.
c. No need to worry.
d. Who broke the window?
e. Why are you absent-minded?
SECTION – D (Diemvü)
11. Diecako donu puotou-u kedapie thushülie: 5x1=5

(a) Tsathouyo kediu la puotei kichiepuo mevo ga?

(i) Zha thenie (iii) Khrü hiethenie
(ii) Zha hiethenie (iv) Khrü thenie

-4- NB-T/T/1
(b) Vihienuo _____ puo nunu rüzie hie.
(i) Lietsa (iii) Thelhuo
(ii) Rüna (iv) Ca

(c) Red Cross mhatho hau la kehou kerietho-u nu supuo bu kehou se ga?
(i) Dunant (iii) Ketsau
(ii) Moynier (iv) Napoleon

(d) Kiüdi Rütsolhouü puo thuo puo pie joyie ze kemejüshü ga?
(i) Puo nieu gei jakecü la (iii) Puo ra kemo sikeshü la
(ii) Puo krü siaketa la (iv) Puo nieu puo peseketa la

(e) “Yharayhayhu” ikecü hau puoca kedipuo ga?
(i) Merieyhara (iii) Kekra
(ii) Mha kemeva (iv) Ketei

Ketsokecü hako donu sorou (6) kedapie dieca 20 – 25 mese nunu kelashülie : 6x2=12

12. Kedipuo chü moro kedipfüe shürholie lhota üdi kediu ki pu ga?
13. Kedipuo la Krase-e Kedieu geiketuo rhüta ga?
14. Vihienuo kedipuopuo se puo üpfü tarhoshü ga?
15. Solferino kijü nu rüna kiu nunu terhü chüta ga mu kimhiecü rhü puo üsi ga?
16. Martin Luther King-e kijü nu mhasi phrüketuo phrü tseikelie sie kedipuo chüketuo
puo pepilie ga?
17. A kesuoüpfü kedipuo la puo nou mezhieta ga?
18. “Tuo sei zhü rei rüwita molie.” Diecha hau geizo kiu nunu se par ga? Ükezomia za
thushülie.

Ketsokecü hako donu kenie (2) kedapie dieca 40 – 50 mese nunu kelashülie : 2x4=8

19. “Hei! Kedipfü n zivi we mhatho puolie, rüna puo nu Nyiepoudiü ücüpfü puo ba mu
süpfü phizhü zorei n zie ki zivi sewe.”
i. Kedipfüe die hau sikelie ki kedipuo mhieta ga? (2)
ii. Kedipfü thedo kesuo kicüpuo rhü sieta ga? (2)

20. Jean Henry Dunant supuo ga? Kimhie di puoe rüyachü nu rüzapfü kezhüko
khruohishü ga? ‘Solferino Kerükra’ leshüdayo Europe nu kimhie vota ga? (1+2+1=4)

21. “Hie pfhe ketei chü dzie suo keba, cüi chüse huopiehuorie ke. Hie kethau mo zhülie
dinu.”
i. Diecha hako geizo kiu nunu se par ga? (1)

ii. “Huopiehuorie’ puoca kedipuo ga? (1)

-5- NB-T/T/1
iii. Thenupfüe terhümia puo nupfu geikewa dze sikelie ki kedipuo chü ga? (2)

Ketsokecü hako dieca 60 – 90 mese nunu kelashülie:

22. a. Themia kekhrü hau tuo zo vor puo kele nu tsolieta. Puo tuoshütuo ücü duü rei
thuophi di tuo. Süsie vor thechüu tsokelie ki rei puo thuophi la mecie. Thuophi
geinu terhuomiae pedzüperie puo puo keleu chülieketuo pie puo pesishüwata.
i. Themia kekhrü hau supuo ga? 1
ii. ‘Thuophi’ puoca kedipuo ga? 1
iii.Thuophikelie geinu kedipuo silieya ga? 1
iv. Puo kedipuo chüketuo la thechü hau nu vor ga? 1
v. Kimhie di puo kele chülie ga? 1

Moro

b. Kedipuo la Keziu puo nieu khawa di rühou tuota ga? Keziu kirapuo nu tshü tsia
pelhou ga? Süko kimhielie üsi ga? Rüna nu phichükoe Keziu bu kedipuo chülienu
pushü ga? (1+1+1+2=5)

23. “Nhicu rüzhü hie kehie shüshie
Hie pfu hie pie hie zuo hie dzieshü
Suo ze bata rei la hie kenyhu
Keba ki we jüta mo dinu.”
i. Diecha hako geizo kiu nunu se par ga? 1
ii. Ükezomia geizo hau nu kedipuo dze pushü ga? 2
iii. Geizo diecha hako ca vatshashülie. 2

24. a. “A kesuoü sie vo thenupfü
Sou chülie mu liemou a se nu
Ketsu nhie we teinuo kesisie
Mehü thesü loziko pfhe he
Zo vor mu zo sie a khou vü.”
i. Diecha hako geizo kiu nunu se par ga? 1
ii. Loziko puoca kedipuo ga? 1
iii. Geizo diecha hako ükezomia kele medzi di vatshashülie. 3
Moro
b. Ketho mu Kevi geizo-u supuo zoshü ga? U themia we ketho mu kevi silie mo di
kedipuo chütuoya mu Jihova die we kimhie üsi ga? Ükezomia kimhie di kijü nu
kelhou mu teigei kelhou dze pushü ga? Geizo-u nu zhorüli kevi kenie thushülie.
(1+1+1+2=5)

****************************

Total number of printed pages: 5 NB-T/A/1

2024
AO
Total marks: 80 Time : 3 hours

General Instructions :
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 22 main questions.
iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
iv) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option
being attempted.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left
side.

SHILEM – A (Rajem Latang)
1. Teküpoklen agüja alibaji junga züngang aser tasüngdangbatemji langzüang:
Senso tajungi pei nübur asoshi mapa tajung inyaker. Shinoki pei nübur
aser pei lima atema nübu, rongsen, mapang aser shisatsü agi yarir parnokji senso
tajung ta züngshir. Pei jurila ajangzüktsü atema masü saka pei lima nübur
ajangzüktsü atema senso shiai inyaktsüla.
Mejai koda meranga aser tanen makai inyaker, yamaji nübur ajaki pei
asoshi mapa meranga aser shisa kaa inyaktsü angazüktsüla. Inyakba agi takar
akümer saka meinyakra sensaka alitsü. Ajaki wadang balala nung mapa balala
meranga inyakra iba jagi linük ka meraketaktsür. Nisung shiai pei lima atema
mapa meranga inyaktsüla. Mapa meranga aser nendaka inyakbaji senso ka
teinyaktsü tongtibang shilem mesüra asen nem lemzüktsüba mapa senzüka
yutsübaji tai tulu lir. Office-i mapang shitak nung or temulung agüja aser
merükmerüka inyaka yutsübaji awashi tajung. Mapa meranga inyaker taküm kaji
ajaki meraketa repranger.
Alima nung mapa meranga inyaker rongnung America nunger, England
nunger, Japan aser China nungertemji lir. Parnoki mapa meranga inyakba yong
parnok lima nung senso ka tali meraketa repranger. Item lima nung nübur ajaki
mapa kanga meranga aser tasa kaa inyaker. Ibayongji parnok lima takar akümer.
Takar lima akümtsü asoshi nübur masü saka wadang balala nung alimai
züngshitsüsa mapa jenti inyaktsü renema alitsü nüngdak.
Aluyimertem shirnoki metsü tsüngküm shitak nung meranga inyaker,
parnoki pei kisüng ajangzükba dang masü saka nüburtem ajak ajangzüktsüsa
inyakteter. Iba jagi linük ka rongsenketsüng nung ajungketer aser nübur
anüngaponga metoktsür. Yamaji kaketshirtem shirnoki meranga azünger parnoki
takok tajung ngua pei Khonang nüngsang anguba dang masü saka iba jagi pei
linük aser nüburtem jenjang tejakleni anir.

-2- NB-T/A/1

Nisung shia inyaktsü mapa balala lir. Nübur shiai item mapa balala ajak
shia alitsü nüngdaker. Nisung kati mapa tapu aika shia aser meteta alitsü nüngdak.
Item rongnung karbosa tangar dang nungi tajungba lanur shiai inyaktettsüla.
Kodang nisung kati mapa jenti tobur junga mesüra ronem ronema inyakteter, iba
jagi linük nung terenlok adokdakrsür.
Itemi langzüang:
(a) Senso tajungi pei nübur asoshi mapa _____ inyaker. 1
i. meranga ii. tajung
iii. jenti iv. aika
(b) Nisungi kechi nungi meranga inyaktsü angazüker? 1
i. Tsürabur ii. Shiruru
iii. Medemer iv. Meja
(c) Asen nem lemzüktsüba mapa senzüka yutsübaji _____ tulu lir. 1
i. temenen ii. tai
iii. khuret iv. shisabulu
(d) Mapa meranga inyaker taküm kaji tangari koma repranger? 1
i. Sabua ii. Akhümketa
iii. Meraketa iv. Nükshia
(e) Parnoki mapa meranga inyakba yong parnok lima nung _____ ka tali
meraketa repranger. 1
i. nisung ii. tetsür
iii. tebur iv. senso
(f) Takar lima akümtsü asoshi nübur masü saka wadang balala nung alimai
_____ mapa jenti inyaktsü renema alitsü nüngdak. 1
i. züngshitsüsa ii. meteta
iii. sabutsüsa iv. meimtsüsa
(g) Meranga inyakba tajangzük kar shiang. 2
(h) Senso ka tongtibang teinyaktsü kechi? 2

SHILEM – B (Olem)
2. Agüja aliba onük aser arrla amshia ojang 100 – 150 shi nung shiti ka
züluang:
a. Na Temjenba/ Temjenla, Heritage colony, Dimapur nung alir, nai osang
kaket nung züngshiba ama, Human Resource Manager, Excel Software, C.P
Road, Dimapur dangi Computer Engineer mapa atema temepishiba shiti ka
züluang. 6
Mesüra
b. Ner school-I ayongzüba ‘Lipoküm Anogo’ koda amung, iba sentong nung
tangar school-tem jaoka shilem agi iba indang osang kaket nung adoktsü
asoshi osang agütsüba ka züluang.

3. Agüja aliba onük aser arrla amshia ana rongnung ka ojang 50 shi nung
züluang:

-3- NB-T/A/1

a. Na kaket zülur tajung ka, nai züluba kaket tasen ka sayatsü asoshi ner
medemer, adianu aser nüngdakbapur jaokba (invitation) ka züluang.
Mesüra 4
b. Agüja aliba onük amshia sensaksem ka züluang:
Medemer ana tsüngda tatidang temer kechi inyaktsü sentongsa lir, iba
indang sensaksem (dialogue) ka züluang.

SHILEM – C (Orrlem)
4. Agüja alibatem nungi shitak telangzüba agüjang: 5x1=5
(a) Koba ojang ya timsü ojang?
(i) Masü (ii) Kar
(iii) Mali (iv) Maka

(b) Oti aser Nendong temesüktep ojang mesüra oyim dang kechi ajar?
(i) Rarem leplashi (ii) Nendong saku
(iii) Müken Nendong (iv) Ramok leplashi

(c) Tana Amilemi belenzüka Tasem Amilem dang oa ashibaji _____ tongta.
(i) Jilok tongta (ii) Müken tongta
(iii) Tana tongta (iv) Otenta tongta

(d) Oren ana mesüra ana dak tali mesentepa tuluba kümtetba dang kechi
ajar?
(i) Kezi oren (ii) Atentep oren
(iii) Ayimlok oren (iv) Oren jinutep

(e) Mapanglem tapu asemji kaka shia kwi lemsar?
(i) Ana (ii) Asem
(iii) Pezü (iv) Pungu

5. Timsü aser Rapasü leni meyipang: 2x1=2
(a) Tulur ashiba manga nungma.
(b) Tsüngrem temeim ajak den kasasa lir.

6. Jilok aser müken tongta leni meyipang. 2x1=2
(a) Yimsüsüri ashi, ‘bangdak küpok liang.’
(b) Merenlai ozü ki tobur ajung indang thama.

7. Item oren kobala oren nungsa aden züluang. 2x1=2
(a) Alila anogo shia alui aor.
(b) Asenoki ngunüba nisung shiba indang ajaki angashia lir iba to ya.

8. (a) Temsülai ni aiben yarir (Tongnir, salur aser nendong lemdangang) 1

-4- NB-T/A/1

(b) Yimya agi sensakeri ajemalur (Tongnir muralokoing, salur atsülangang) 1

9. Mungra tapu kwi lir talishitsü oren ka ka zülüang. 1+1=2

10. Ao oshi agi meyipang: 5x1=5
(a) What a beautiful house you have!
(b) He spoke very softly.
(c) No need to worry.
(d) Who broke the window?
(e) Why are you absent-minded?

SHILEM - D (Otsü aser Sangro)
11. Agüja aliba nungi shitak telangzüba shimteta: 5x1=5
(a) Kidang ______ aliba agi kibong ta ajar.
(i) Putepa aser pelatepa (ii) Jungtepa aser yaritepa
(iii) Yaritepa aser putepa (iv) Jungtepa aser putepa

(b) “Ankodangi aoba tetezü
(i) An tekong shizükba (ii) An tekong atangba
(iii) An tekong lepzükba (iv) Aeni aoba

(c) Aori küm nung alu lenmang _____ tashi apir.
(i) anaben (ii) asemben
(iii) pezüben (iv) punguben

(d) Chungliyimti riju penzür angji ni _____.
(i) lilasang (ii) sotetlasang
(iii) mesemshilasang (iv) tialasang

(e) Sariwar tetezü?
(i) Tsükchir pelateper (ii) Aeni aor
(iii) Tongpangi aor (iv) Ainlen jajar

Item tasüngdangbatem ojang 20 – 25 tashi nung langzüang: 6x2=12
12. Benjongbentsü nung aon kentsütepa tapu anaji kechisa.
13. a. Aor sobalibaji kechiba tangari junger ta ashir?
Mesüra
b. Kima yimdong jembishinü awashi yimya tajung kar shiang.
14. Kechiba asenoki arem lushi aser tzü mopung kümzüka ayutsüla.
15. Tzüpong tetezü kechi?
16. ‘Lisem Manung Tenüng’ sangro nung sangro züluri kechi inyaktsü mulungtet?

-5- NB-T/A/1

17. a. Shirsa sobu totep?
Mesüra
b. Imtimeren Jamiri pa tayang mulung kechi agi süneptsü ta bilem?
Item tasüngdangbatem ojang 40 – 50 tashi nung langzüang: 2x4=8
18. Nagaland nung nai metetba ‘Tourist Spot’ mesüra State Government-I agizüka
aser meteta aliba ‘Tourist Village’ ka indang rasaa züluang.
19.a Kechiba nokinketer ta aja? Nokinketertemi kechi osetsa amshia rara?
Mesüra
b. Tokonglu ayimba jenjang telemsa kwi lir tenüngtem shiang aser rateta züluang.

Item tasüngdangbatem ojang 60 – 90 tashi nung langzüang: 3x5=15
20.a. Sobaliba tetezü kechi? Sobaliba tapu kwi rateta züluang. (1+4=5)
Mesüra
b. Yimjung tetezü kechi? Yimjung ajanga kechi adoker? Na yimjung yanglur ka ta
shitettsü nai kechisa inyaksütsüla? (1+1+3=5)

21. ‘Pa temeshi lai kü tanela chiyungtsü. Ni mekümzükra ni tanaben asütsü’.
i) Koba sangro nungi? (1)
ii) Shibai mejem? (1)
iii) Agüja aliba orentemji rateta shiang? (3)

22 a. “Anikilen tasüngtet ashiapong
aser anembong akaba kin.
Tetsü-tamo-tanük- taku ketepsentep,
Ilang-tinu temeimtep.”
i) koba sangro nungi? (1)
ii) Shibai zülu? (1)
iii) Tekongji rateta züluang. (3)
Mesüra
b. “Batir kilang tajung metsü küma
Septsü dentsü mopungi oner ogo.
Putu jenti züsenba rongsen agi
Aoyi küma sayatenyatsüogo.
Putusa putu Ao kin otsü nung
Mamatsttsü asükolang tonga”.
i) Koba sangro nungi? (1)
ii) Shibai zülu? (1)
iii) Tekongji rateta shiang. (3)

*********************************

Total number of printed pages : 5 NB-T/S/1
2024
SÜMI (SÜTSAH)
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 22 main questions.
iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
iv) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option being
attempted.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
KOKÜPPHA – A (Ghili Kiyye)
1. Yepua keu phiju no inijü akeqo khochile tsülo:
Raja Ram Mohan Roy ye aqoaho shikikithe gholo atughumi. Paye 1771
mpe lono Hooghly district lo kuthokuzu Brahmin Hindumi kibo lono punu. Pa
kighthi hukuthu boqha ye Muslim Maktab lono ithulu eno paye Arabic ngo Persian
tsalo akighiche shivuve. Hipaqo tsa keu vechewono Koran ngo Islamic philosophy,
eno Sufisimqo akivishi philuve. Kughono pano Hindu chine lo kumo keu pulu che
keu che keu tishi kepu kumo ipi oi pithuve keno papu aza kutolo paju alomouve.
Tishikeu lono paye aki qhiveno aqha kümtsülo itsü izü che wuve eno tileno puju
shiju keu kutomo shilu eno shikalu. Paye itaghi Kimiyemi tsa, French, Latin, Hebrew
eno Greek tsaqo shikalu. Paye Gita eno Upanishadic philosophy qo ghi akivishi
ithive. 1805 mpe lono Raja Ram Mohan Roy ye English East India Company Bengal
loi akümla shi wuve. 1815 mpe loye akümla shimove no Calcutta lo xü acheuve.
Tithiu paye pa kuxü kumtsu pephe pesü kütami ghenguno mla wuve. Paye Alhou
lakhi likhi pülü eno asü-atu kümla eno achine jeli shi keu lachile. 1815 mpe lono
Atmiya Sabha huthu tsü, ikemu 1828 lono kili pesu Bhama Samaj shive. Paye 1831
lo England lo wu, tiye Mughal Emperor ghenguno qhiniju tsu nike. Paye September
27, 1833 Bristol lono thive. Mughal Emperor no paje pesü Raja ipi kuve tsü.
Aküplü kuchou lo thonei kemi, Christianmi gholo ye Christian, Hinumi
gholoye Hindu, Muslim gholo ye Muslim eno Hindumi gholo Vedantist (Vedanta
vehu akivishi ithive kemi). Paye India lo Kimiyemi tsa kiphi, kulolaumi-u phuiko
süghini ke ghenguno pa mlo kümtsü tsü saphu. Pa ghenguno Hindu College huthulu.
Pano kiyephi ghenguno kichighi tsü.
Pano Sati lakükha ghenguno puthugho tsü. Sati ye akimi thive kelo
anipu qhi piti küghave lhekeu ke. Chimemi külakithe luni keu sakuphu tsü, Casteism
lakha, akimi anipu kutomo lu keu lachile, hipaqo lo sakuphu kumlah shitsu. Pa no
Tsaiko ghenguno mullah süstsu keu mikhemuzu ye kumo. Akighiche kiyemi lakhino,
Raja Ram Mohan Roy pesu “the herald of a new age” ipi kutsü keu ye achipi.
Rabindranath Tagore no pi keu no Raja Ram Mohan Roy no India akitheu khaqhive
tsü ipi. Raja Ram Mohan Roy thive ke thiu ye Brahma Samaj ye pa papemi

Debendranath Tagore eno Keshavchandra Sen pama no pe kibe qove.
Achipiu tsathi pe kimichi tsulo:
a. Raja Ram Mohan Roy ye kiu mpe lono punu kea? 1
(i) 1772 (iii) 1972

-2- NB-T/S/1

(ii) 1872 (iv) 1771
b. Brahma Samaj ye azu-u ye ipi che kea? 1
(i) Maha Dev (iii) Atmiya Sabha
(ii) Samual (iv) Manu kautilya
c. Paye khileno thive kea? 1
(i) Delhi (iii) Hooghly
(ii) Mumbai (iv) Bristol
d. Paye keu philosophy akivishi ithive kea? 1
(i) Vedanta (iii) Yoga
(ii) Uttara (iv) Gita eno upanishadic
e. Raja Ram Mohan Roy ye kiu mpe lono England lo wukea? 1
(i) 1832 (iii) 1833
(ii) 1831 (iv) 1834
f. Khiu ghenguno Hindi college huthulu kea? 1
(i) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (iii) Mahatma Gandhi
(ii) Raja Ram Mohan Roy (iv) Jawaharlal Nehru
g. Sati kiqi ye kiu kea? 2
h. Akigiche kiyemi lakhi no ‘Raja Ram Mohan Roy’ pesükiu ku tsü kea? Khiu no paje
pesü Raja ipi kuve tsü kea? 1+1=2

KOKÜPPHA – B (Iqqikulu)
2. Atsathi 100-150 dolono yelo:
a. Principal Director, School Education lau yekili lakhi yelo. Noye Akato/ Tokali no
kiphi kilo shikükami mipi akeu vechewo nongu no phine shi akeu toi nongu
skikalu amokeu ghenguno. 6
Momü
b. No w district lo opelo akijeu shipeno ‘Shikükami tsala’ ikhilu. Achüpüghü mla no
ikhilu keu kishekulu kiyephi lo yesü lo.

3. Atsathi 50 dolono lakhi likhi yelo:
a. Kuküsü kiye, “Opu ngo oza pama akibo shilu keu Ampr 25ikhilu akeu”. 4
Momü
b. Noye Hino, oküsau no mugha, oküsau mugha ye ago aholo, aghili jeli achene eno
akiphi lo ghi atüghiu jo lono tolu cheni. Paye kishi ado peitha thi cheni keno inju
ghi oko küptsa kile keu yelo.
KOKÜPPHA – C (Tsayeh)
4. Akiyethi akilhe kili ve keu kimichi tsülo: 5x1=5
(a) Akkha pesu ______ shiva.
(i) aqha (ii) aqa
(iii) aqqa (iv) aqhha

(b) Kükhü pesu _________ shiva.
(i) küuxu (ii) küxü
(iii) küxxü (iv) kukhu

(c) Akke pesu _________ shiva.

-3- NB-T/S/1

(i) aqqe (ii) aqee
(iii) aqe (iv) ake

(d) Zhe pesu ________shiva.
(i) je (ii) ajee
(iii) azhe (iv) jeh

(e) Azhi pesu ________ shiva.
(i) ajii (ii) ajih
(iii) azi (iv) aji
5. Sutsakutho akiqi pitsülo:
(a) Khecheli kupo 1
(b) Ayi kighe 1
6. Tsashi pe aje lo süvelo.
(a) pe 1
(b) ghe 1
7. Sucho pe Bidelau süvelo:
(a) Alokivi. 1
(b) Kükümgha. 1
8. Ye küqü pua keu achipiu lono yevelo:
(a) Avino 1
(b) Wu no 1

9. Atsa tuna pe atsajo mlalo:
(a) Abo-ake 1
(b) Tuqu-time 1
10. Sütsah lo pekili süve lo. 5x1=5
(a) What a beautiful house you have!
(b) He spoke very softly
(c) No need to worry.
(d) Who broke the window?
(e) Why are you absent-minded?
KOKÜPPHA- D (Kichitssathoh eno Apuh Assü Leshe)
11. Achipiu tsathi pe kimeve tsülo: 5x1=5
(a) Willaim Carey ye _______ tsala loye phuiko eno xüghili phiche.
(i) asüzani (ii) aghizani
(iii) ashigheni (iv) anighini

(b) IRCS ye __________.
(i) India Red Cross Society
(ii) International Red Cross Society
(iii) Irish Red Cross Society
(iv) Iran Red Cross Society

-4- NB-T/S/1

(c) Atopuu lakhino li kimi akiniu kilo wo kelo__________ lono küla cheni.
(i) Aminikimijixe (ii) Ashoghixe
(iii) Topunasho xe (iv) Lathaxe
(d) Kumlo chelo, ________ ye.
(i) Chishilimi (ii) Achulimi
(iii) Ayelimi (iv) Jimolimi
(e) Ghulo _________ kivehu juana.
(i) lakhi (ii) kuthu
(iii) kini (iv) bidi

Atsathi 20 – 25 dolono khochilelo: 6x2=12
12. Khunoqo pesü ‘Serampore Trio’ ipi kea?
13. Federal Governmentof Nagaland to State khije ache eno khiji shi reconstruct shive
kea?
14. Amu no pa sasü kusholune pikelo Tüghami ye kishi pamu pishiqhi kea?
15. Juxeli ye Inami Sholu kelo kishi li vilo pitsü penishi ipi kea?
16. “Tsala kipetsü Ino Sahu sawo naye,
Hi lumo aye juküpülo shela”
a. Hiye kiu leshe lo ani kea? (1)
b. Khuno khiu lumove keu küpü ipi ani kea? (1)
17. a. “Rathsamu nono tüngü sayewo.
Che legho shole aye shole luve ala.”
i. Tüngü kiqi jütsü lo.
ii. Khu sasü cheleqho ipi ani kea?
Momü
b. Kiu-a pesü ‘Ghoshixe sülo’ ipi kuve tsü kea?

Atsathi 40-50 dolono khochilelo: 4x2=8
18. a. Angushuu kiqi ye kiu, eno Azapokhi kiqi ye keu kea? (2+2=4)
Momü
b. Thochipa ye khuno ghami eno paye kishi keu lonono Tusholi pama kimiye kilelu
keno yelo.
19. “Timi ye ni lojimi pavinie ju kümsüye,
Kucho iposhuu ikeyo no thsalu müthaye.”
a. Hiye khu no khu shipili keu le kea? (2)
b. ‘Ipushuu ikujo’ ye khu pama pi ani kea. (2)

Atsathi 60 - 90 dolono khochilelo :
20. a. William Carey no India lo ighi kelo:
i. Khuno company no India lo lhidi shiche kea? 1
ii. A-a khipaqo lo kea? 1

iii. Kiu zükilu lo ikughi kelo Captain no atsala tukiqhe puwuve tsü kea? 1
iv. Kiu zükilu eno kughono no Calcutta India tolu kea? 2
Momü
b. i. British yepeka ighimoke lo khu no angushuu ilho keu aje kipishi kughache kea? (1)
ii. Paye kiu ngushuu kea? (1)
iii. Khuno ghami no atsala khije pa qo kea? (2)

-5- NB-T/S/1

iv. Pay kiu, kiu lhoxü ilhone pükapütsa ju kea? (1)

21. a Tsüsütxe eno külakupu lo:
i. Kulakupu ye kiu ipi ye pua ani kea? 1
ii. Akibo kiqi ye kiu kea? 2
iii. Abolomi kiqi ye kiu kea? 2
Momü
b. Timi ye khu sasu alu küghüngu chi che kea. Pama lu kichi ghili yelo. (1+4=5)

22. “Iki no showo tsükinhe lazü, she ikuwo
Tsükinhe inokukhu ki ye O puhnno lhokha shi,
Aküsa hi isalla shi tsüye.
O ltsü no hakiye ino kehi ato ino kugho lono.”
i. Hiye kiu leshe lono ikiphe lu kea? 1
ii. Khu sholu kea? 1
iii. Khupe pe pa küsa shi tsü kea? 1
iv. Itsü khilave kea? 1
v. Khia-a lo atsü phuwu kea? 1

****************************

Total number of printed pages : 5 NB-T/L/1
2024
LOTHA
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours

General Instructions :
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 22 main questions.
iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
iv) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option being
attempted.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.

SECTION - A ( Ekhao)
1. Motsü shi khae zesi oküpoe engao jiang janlana:
Nkolo eran reni oyan motsünga lo onpoe vancho. Oni na tsolo tsüka to na
tsokhying tsüka to tae vana onpoeata chüi siracho. Onpyayi ji elümoto emhok nongra
sükhying tssoe sicho. Tolia ota ji na oka ji heto ezocho, Aka apo ha ayo oni na mpa esisi yi
silia ntia ntsso ka to phyota vancho. Tsüngon motsünga lo jo oka ji na ota ji, “ Ata enio ntio
tsotav meka eni ha oli teriv tae lia jontavka” to ezoa jontacho. Tsüngon na lo jo onpyayi na
oli wotale ocho n asana oni liji joni licho. Hoji tsükona ota na oyan ji lo oki akvü nte na aka
eni li ji ejonicho alo to engathechia wocho. Tolia oki akvü na eli tia nkhyov vanka ena
meka to janlancho. Tolia hoji to onpyayi li ji ocho n asana joni tae licho.
Tsüngon motsünga lo jo ota na oka thüngi “Aka eni li ji ochoang na ejoniya sana
owo chetav ka” to ezoa owo cheta vanle, opo ha oyo oni na chiro oni liji, “Aka ha ango oni
li shi ji lichung ero to tintayile” to okhen nsia khüta jonta vancho. “Aka okhana lia nino ayo
sükhyimjo ji lo tsothekhe, ayio apo sükhyimjo ji lo tsokthevü ka” to ezocho. Oni na cheta
vantasi mmyuale oka jo oyo sükhyimjo ji lo tsokthele sükhyimjo ji nnri küma elachoe
sicho. Opo jo sükhyimjo ji ericho saküma ntia ntsso na echülikvüi sosi rheyicho. Hoji tolyui
oka ji ompvü tae tssoe sio ji na elümoto nongra tsünga, ayio apoti ka je, ata jo echülikvüi
apo ha ayo oni phana rheyithaka je to phyoa ompvü tae yingsüyingloa vancho. Hoji esüa
ota na ha oka ji nchümi zesi elümoto nongra nchümcho. Ombo na opo thüngi ayio nchüngo
chümpoe yipvüka to phyole opo na ango chümpoe jo ni khyuvü ka ti chongo to ezocho.
Tole ngaro ji na ntia ntsso ka to ezoa chümpoe chongocho. Ombo na chümpoe echüi jiang
na bhari, loksa tükta kokhüng jiang lo beno pyakae yiprae sirasi omboti kümi sia jo elümoto
ombo kyua opo thüngi yile, opo na ana ni ezo ntsacho la nibobo yancho ka to ezocho.
Ojyua enyathüng to jo opo ha oyo oni na live tona wokochü tona honochü to
tseni pia, heto ezocho “Echüi tona eküm to zhükvü lio ji yakchi sanati lanphei tsokhe”. To
ezoa echüi metaae na eküm metaae chiyithokcho. Tole ombo na otsotso ntio kvütvü tseni a
picho sana to nchüma zehungo ji tsükona echüi metaae na lanphei zele live lo wokochü,
honochü to tae tssocho. Küma elani tsenlani hansi eküm metaae na chiyi lanphe zele otsi
tona wokoso, honoso to tssoa jo olani na tsoso oka thüngi oyi, “Aka echüi metaae jo

nmhonka eni na vana evamo eküm metaae shi lo mmhomo ka”, to rüa ezocho to motsü
rütala.

-2- NB-T/L/1

Engao shiang janlana:
a. Onpyayi li ji jo _____ joni vayicho 1
(i) opo ha omo oni na (iii) oyo ha ono oni na
(ii) opo ha oyo oni na (iv) oyo ha omo oni na
b. Onpyayi lo ocho na opo sükhyimjo lo tsokthecho la? 1
(i) Eboeroro (iii) Khyingroe
(ii) Eloeroro (iv) Loroe
c. Echüi jiang na müngale ntio kümra yicho la? 1
(i) Beno (iii) Bentsü
(ii) Otssak (iv) Benjüm
d. Eboeroro ji na chümpoe chongole echüi jiang na ntio elhi tssota vancho la? 1
(i) Bhari tona Loksa tükta vancho (iii) Bhari tona onhyan tükta vancho
(ii) Loksa tona okhyak tükta vancho (iv) Loksa tona onhyan tükta vancho
e. Oli teriv tae jontav ka to jo ocho na phyocho la? 1
(i) Opo (iii) Oyo
(ii) Eloeroro (iv) Eboeroro
f. “Aka ha ango oni li shi ji lichung ero to tintayile” Shi jo ochoang na phyocho la? 1
(i) Omoang (iii) Onoang
(ii) Onpyayi (iv) Opoang
g. Ntio tsso ji na onpyayi emhoknongra eküm lo tssoe sicho la? 2
h. Yitsüng shiang nkhüma kümthoka: 1+1=2
(i) Echüi (ii) Mmyuathüng

SECTION – B (Eramo)
2. Oküpoe pi elio shiang oni lo motsünga ethüngi, yitsüng 100 -150 harüma na erana:
a. Ni yantsüro ji lo kyon jiang thüngi jonjia solar energy ji tsakae mizhü wondang
ngkoho/nkümche elani mizhü wondang kakoyu (electricity bill) züngchak (limit) tsükona
‘Easter Mirror’ yithen etssüngchopvüi thüngi yiyenran erana.
Mekana 6
b. Nzyu 2023 ji lo ni na kha evamo khaphen yanphen ki ji lo na jüli tsüngon (Cultural
Day) jilo lankon eramo ji jüa khitacho. Osi hoji kvüto khitacho sana nte khaphen ki
yithen kako ji lo theta yirüa (report) erana.

3. Oküpoe pi elio shiang oni lo motsünga ethüngi, yitsüng 50 harüma na erana :
a. Ni na kha vamo ji lo na jüli tssolanphyolan osi echanta lhinsüng ji lo oro ethev tsükona
nte pvüopoang thüngi etsa kako erana.
Mekana 4
b. Ekhiranta:
Kyon tsüka na eyip mmhona nyipo ji tsükona tsüktssen thüngi otsük zelo wocho.
Tsüktssen tona nochonori ji to oni yuta lo oyi elonta jiang erana.

SECTION - C (Yinsanlan)
4. Janlan pi elio jiang lona elamo ji erana : 5x1=5

-3- NB-T/L/1

(a) Oli chencho sülo otssok jiang bukki ovo eniethium tssoa thüng mvüthan jiang zeta oli
mvüthan jiang cheta rümphia woala towoe na tsacho. Shi jo ntio choro ji la?
(i) Ephi (ii) Chopük
(iii) Jikanika (iv) Chesü

(b) Orang mpong vena thüng jo ayio oki vancho.
(i) Ntangyao Eyieton (ii) Etovo Eyieton
(iii) Etsyuka Eyieton (iv) Nungka Eyieton

(c) Yitsüng ‘Ndüngo’ shi yichak esütao yitsüng ji jo;
(i) Ekoni (ii) Enhyano
(iii) Omhawoe (iv) Oküpoe

(d) Ombo na Christian tsükona yantso onte hanthokcho. (Shilo lhitssoyi ji jo.)
(i) Ombo (ii) Christian
(iii) Yantso (iv) Hanthokcho
(e) Onte ki jo khaphen ki ji mhatongoe tssocho. (Shi lo mhachungyi ji jo)

(i) Onte (ii) Khapen
(iii) Mhatongoe (iv) Tssocho

5. Ejüngi elio shiang Tepfüyi khi pyingthoka. 2x1=2
a. Abemo na _____ eranala.
b. _____ na sanphia

6. Yitsüng ‘Noa’ shi na yichak eni pia yiren nsüngrüa. 2x1=2

7. Yiren shiang renthangyi kümthoka. 2x1=2
a. Enyathüng jo opo na yithen kako khathakcho to ombo na phyocho.
b. Onte na khvüringashü ji T.V. lona zeta vancho to ombo na phyocho.

8. Yiren pi elio shiang yitsünga tae na janlana 2x1=2
a. Elhi ntia ntsso na oyam mo tae enghikae evan.
b. Kyon kholo oyi nsandemo ji.

9. Ejüngi elio shiang etsyuchi epio ephani na janlana 2x1=2
a. Ana hunga jo ombo otsi ji _____ (Past Perfect Tense khi pyingthoka)
b. Onte na mangsü _____ sala. (Future Continuous Tense khi pyingthoka)

10. Yiren shiang Lotha yi na Khophia. 5x1=5
a. What a beautiful house you have!
b. He spoke very softly.

c. No need to worry.
d. Who broke the window?
e. Why are you absent-minded?

-4- NB-T/L/1

SECTION – D (Eranntolan)
11. Engao shiang akvülo elamo ji ethüngi janlana: 5x1=5
a. Nzyu nzo eni yithako ji yuta lo saya tona ngkohoche to elio ji jo ntio meta ae la?
(i) Rome (ii) Europe
(iii) Australia (iv) America

b. “Ehe…hmmm… shi jo nkolo a tsoenyi ji esükhüng kana,” yiren shi jo ocho na
phyocho la?
(i) Ranphan na (ii) Onjeni lo eramo ji na
(iii) Onjeni lo nongho ji na (iv) Humchipili na

c. Elhi Etssoeten olan mongo jiang ekhao ji jo ocho na khophia erancho la?
(i) Y.Y. Kikon (ii) K.R. Murry
(iii) N. Ezung (iv) Orenyemo Tungoe

d. “Tsensoyia” to ephyo ji yichak jo
(i) Tzüthechia (ii) Thenhyacho
(iii) Ejümkacho (iv) Lüngthacho

e. “Yenjania” to ephyo ji yichak jo
(i) Ezoyia (ii) Phyothoka
(iii) Yenjanile (iv) Jonjiyia

Oküpoe engao shiang yitsüng 20 – 25 harüma na janlana: 6x2=12
12. Ntio tsükona oyamo kyon jiang na oyan pyona tsamvü methakcho la?
13. Ntio tsükona enhunga kyon jiang na ovüngthüng lona sikata harishia vanala?
14. Elhingo tona nzanchi to jo kvütolyui kheti tssocho la?
15. Pikhüchak so jiang jo kvüto tsena la?
16. Khensoe ji na Phencho vara, limhatsü vara nmhon, shi tsükona kyon jiang thüngi ntio
ntssonga ezocho la?
17. a. Yitsüng shiang jo pofü ekhao lona khichecho shing yichak pia.
i. Ngkonrhüa ii. Mponi na
Mekana
b. “Erontong etssov jo” to ephyo ji eroroa ejüa.

Oküpoe engao shiang yitsüng 40 – 50 harüma na janlana: 2x4=8
18. a. Pvüji Khüngtsüta Hohosoying (U.N.O) jiang elhilan jiang erana.
Mekana
b. Elhi etssoe olan mezhüoto jiang erana. Onte na ete tsükona ntio elhi tssoa la? Ntio

tsükona onte na elhi ntssochecho la?

-5- NB-T/L/1

19. a. Chungiyi “oshomo merangcho” ji lo, loroe ji na khyingroe ji chokacha alo nchokacho
yilan ezocho sana mmhona eroroa erana.
Mekana
b. Chungiyi “pofü” ji lo khensoe ji ephani na jo.
i) Pofü ji jo ntio esüa to phyocho la?
ii) Nti Naga oyikosen hetvü ni lyingcho ato! Shi mmhona eroroa erana.

Oküpoe engao shiang yitsüng 60 – 90 harüma na janlana: 3x5=15
20. a. Evo tona kongken ji to jo ntio na kümcho la? Motsü ji mmhona erana?
Mekana
b. “Rhyuven Tokhü jo kvüthüng khiala?”
Rhyuven Tokhü tona mojükhorüm to echümpota jo ntio la?
Mojükhorüm yichak jo ntio la?

21. Chungiyi “Wokha yan Etsso Khen” yintssen ji erana.

22. a. “Ete oren shilo jo, yantaro azüm kila,
Nti yan ha nehü yan nli la.
Poni lo tssolia ti khonda na van le,
Jeni yeni lo ha ti khonda na van le,
Phirenyanren lo ha ti khonda le,
Phonglan yinsüng sana nchü na vana ka,
Zhükhvü jüying sana nchü na vana ka,
Enong ngi tssüngtsürontsü samona chüa kila
Ralo yutso jotani ezao ha chüa kila,
Eta no maküm evamo kila”
i) “Yantaro azüm” kila to yichak jo ntio la? (1)
ii) Ochoang thüngi ti khonta na vanta le to ezocho la? (2)
iii) Echüo tona nchüo tsütsailan jiang jo ntio ntio la? (2)
Mekana
b. Ngaro ji opo oyoang na echüli vandamvü ji thüngi kvüto oyi yencho la? Echüli
vandamvü ji na ngaro ji pvüopo thüngi kvüto oyi yencho la? (2+3=5)

*********************************

Total number of printed pages : 6 NB-T/H/1
2024
HINDI
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours

General Instructions :
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 16 main questions.
iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
iv) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option
being attempted.
N.B:Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left
side.

SECTION – A (vifBr cks/k)
1. fuEufyf[kr xn~;k¡’k dks i<+dj iwNs x, iz’ uksa ds mRrj fyf[k,%&

ifjJe gh lQyrk dh dqath gSA ifjJe djus ls eqf’dy-ls-eqf’dy dk;Z
Hkh laiUu gks tkrk gS, tcfd ifjJe ls th pqjkus ls dsoy vlQyrk gh gkFk
yxrh gSA ifjJe u djus dk gh ifj.kke gS fd ijh{kk ‘kCn ds uke ls
gh vf/kdka’k fon~;kfFkZ; ksa dks fnu esa rkjs fn[kkbZ nsus vkjaHk gks tkrs gSaA dqN
fon~; kkFkhZ iwjs o”kZ ;kstukcn~/k rjhds ls ifjJe djrs gSaA mUgsa ijh{kk ds le;
fdlh izdkj dh dfBukbZ dk lkeuk ugha djuk iM+rkA tks fon~;kFkhZ iwjs o”kZ
xIisc kth, lSj-likVk, vkokjkxnhZ vkfn esa viuk le; u”V djrs gSa, mUgsa ijh{kk
ds fnuksa esa lksrs-tkxrs lHkh txg ijh{kk dk vkrad fn[kkbZ nsrk gS A ijh{kk dh
pqukSrh dk lkeuk djus ds fy, o”kZ Hkj ,dkxzfpr gksdj fuf’pr le;kuqlkj
v/;;u djuk vko’;d gSA ijh{kk esa fon~; kfFkZ;ksa dks le;-lhek dk /;ku j[krs
gq, iz’ uksa dks gy djuk pkfg,A blls ‘kr-izfr'kr lQyrk feysxhA ijh{kkfFkZ; ksa
dks viuk vkRefo’okl det+ksj ugha iM+us nsuk pkfg,A ijh{kk nsus ls ,d ?kaVk
iwoZ fdlh Hkh iqLrd, uksVcqd vkfn ij /;ku ugha nsuk pkfg,A iz’u-i= gy djrs
le; lcls igys mu iz’ uksa dks gy djuk pkfg,, ftUgsa lcls vPNh rjg fd;k
tk ldrk gSA blds ckn mu iz’ uksa dks gy djuk pkfg,, tks de rS;kj gksaA bl
izdkj ijh{kk ds dfBu fnuksa esa ;kstukcn~/k :Ik ls dk;Z djrs gq, lQyrk izkIr
dh tk ldrh gSA

a. lQyrk dh dqat h D;k gS \ 1
(i) deZghu (ii) vkylh (iii) IkfjJe ( iv) dk;j

-2- NB-T/H/1

b. vlQyrk dc gkFk yxrh gS \ 1
( i) ifjJe djus ls (ii) esgur u djus ls
(iii) eqf’dy dk;Z djus ls (iv) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
c. ijh{kkfFkZ;ksa dks fnu esa rkjs dc fn[kkbZ nsus yxrs gSa \ 1
(i) ifjJe djus ls (ii) ifjJe u djus ls
(iii) ,dkxzfpr gksdj v/;;u djus ls (iv) ;kstukcn~/k rjhds ls ifjJe
d. dqN fo|kFkhZ fdl rjhds ls ifjJe djus yxrs gSa \ 1
(i) vO;ofLFkr rjhds ls (ii) le;kuqlkj
(iii) ;kstukcn~/k rjhds ls (iv) buesa ls dksb Z ugha
e. fdls ijh{kk ds le; dfBukb;ksa dk lkeuk ugha djuk iM+rk gS \ 1
(i) ;kstukcn~/k rjhds ls ifjJe (ii) vkylh izÑfr ds fon~; kFkhZ
(iii) xIisckth vkSj lSj-likVk ls (iv) vkokjkxnhZ esa le; u”V djus ls
f. ijh{kkFkhZ dks viuk D;k det+ksj ugha iM+ us nsuk pkfg, \ 1
(i) izsj.kk (ii) vkRefo’okl (iii) bTt+r (iv) lao snuk
g. ijh{kkFkhZ dks ijh{kk ds le; vkrad D;ksa fn[kkbZ nsrk gS \ 2
h. ijh{kkFkhZ dks ‘kr-izfr’kr lQyrk dc feysxh \ 2

Section - B (ys[ku)
2. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlh ,d iz’u dk mRrj 100&150 ‘kCnksa esa fyf[k,%& 6

a. vkids {ks= ds fctyh dh leL;k o mlls mRiUu dfBukb;ksa dk fooj.k nsrs
gq, fdlh lekpkj i= ds lEiknd dks i= fyf[k,A
vFkok
vki XYZ fon~; ky; dh dyk ,oa lkaLÑfrd ifj”kn ds lfpo ehuw/jkt gSaA
vki ds fon~; ky; esa 14 flracj dks fganh fnol euk;k x;kA bl lanHkZ esa
lHkk ds vk;kstu dk laf{kIr izfrosnu fyf[k,A

3. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlh ,d iz’u dk mRrj 50&100 ‘kCnksa esa fyf[k,%& 4
a. fe= dks xehZ dh NqV~Vh vius lkFk fcrkus ds fy, vkea=.k djrs gq, ,d i=
fyf[k,A
vFkok
b. Hkkjr vkSj Jhyadk ds chp gks jgs gkWdh eSp ij nks fe=ksa ds chp gks jgh ppkZ
dk ,d lao kn fyf[k,A

-3- NB-T/H/1

Section - C (O;kdj.k)
4. fuEUfyf[kr fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj pqudj fyf[k,%&
(a) “mYykl” fdl laf/k dk mnkgj.k gS \ 1
(i) Loj laf/k (ii) O;atu laf/k
(iii) folxZ laf/k (iv) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(b) “;Fkkle;” ‘kCn esa dkSu lk lekl gS \ 1
(i) rRiq:”k (ii) cgqc zhfg
(iii) deZ/kkj; (iv) vO;;hHkko
(c) ‘esa, ij ’ fdl dkjd dk fpg~u gS \ 1
(i) vf/kdj.k (ii) viknku
(iii) lacks/ku (iv) dj.k
(d) okP; ds …. Hksn gksrs gS \ 1
(i) nks (ii) rhu
(iii) pkj (iv) ik¡p
(e) ‘iwN&rkN’ esa dkSu lh iqu:fDr gS \ 1
(i) iw.kZ (ii) viw.kZ
(iii) vuqdj.k (iv) dksbZ ugha

5. fuEufyf[kr ‘kCnksa ds nks-nks i;kZ;okph ‘kCn fyf[k,%& 1+1=2
(a) dey (b) ioZr

6. fuEufyf[kr ‘kCnksa ds foykse ‘kCn fyf[k,%& 4x½=2
(a) ekfyd (b) liwr (c) ifo= (d) tfVy

7. fuEufyf[kr ‘kCnksa ds fyax cnfy,%& 4x½=2
(a) o/kw (b) ukjh (c) egk’k; (d) e`x

8. fuEufyf[kr eqgkojksa ds vFkZ fy[kdj okD;ksa esa iz;ksx dhft, %& 2
(a) Qwyk- Qyk gksuk
(b) rkus nsuk

9. dks”Bd esa nh x;h fØ;k ds lgh :i ls okD;ksa ds [kkyh LFkku Hkfj, %& 2
(a) Ñi;k eq>s ekQ+ dj ----------A ( nsuk)
(b) ldZl esa tksdj us yksxksa dks cgqr ------------ A (g¡luk)

-4- NB-T/H/1

10. fuEufyf[kr okD;ksa dk fganh esa vuqokn dhft,%&
(a) Congratulations for your great success! 1
(b) I profited by your valuable advice. 1
(c) Come to my house. 1
(d) When did you visit the Museum? 1
(e) Never tell a lie. 1

Section - D (lkfgR;)
11. fuEufyf[kr fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj pqudj fyf[k,%&
(a) pqUuw-eqU uw ds firk dk D;k uke Fkk \ 1
(i) xtk/kj ckcw (ii) jk; fot; cgknqj
(iii) x.ks’kh (iv) jkethey
(b) eUuw HkaMkjh dk tUe dgk¡ gqvk Fkk \ 1
(i) e/;izns’k (ii) jktLFkku
(iii) xqtjkr (iv) mRrj izns’k

(c) lkfgfR;d lHkk esa Hkk”k.k nsus ds fy, dkSu [kM+k gqv k \ 1
(i) r#.k fon~;kFkhZ (ii) ys[kd
(iii) lapkyd (iv) vfrfFk

(d) deZohj D;k ns[kdj ugha ?kcjkrs \ 1
(i) lk¡i (ii) vkx
(iii) fo?u vkSj ck/kk (iv) ikuh

(e) ^e/kq’kkyk’ fdl dfo dh jpuk gSa \ 1
(i) ukxktqZu (ii) v;ks/;kflag mik/;k; ‘gfjvkS/k ’
(iii) johUnzukFk Bkdqj (iv) gfjoa’k jk; ‘cPpu’

12- fuEufyf[kr iz’ uksa ds mRrj 20-25 ‘kCnksa esa fyf[k,%&
(a) Qsjhokys dks xyh ds cPpksa ij eerk D;ksa Fkh \ 2
(b) fdl yyd us lkse k cqv k dks vius e`r iq= dh ,dek= fu’kkuh cspus
dks foo’k dj fn;k \ 2
(c) xtk/kj ckcw dks vdsys D;ksa jguk iM+k Fkk \ 2
(d) HksfM+;k orZeku dky esa fdldk izfrfuf/kRo djrk gS \ 2

-5- NB-T/H/1

(e) vdky ds ckn vUu ds nkus vkus ls ?kj-Hkj dh vk¡[kksa esa ped D;ksa vk
x;h \ 2
(f) viuh jpukvksa esa fcgkjh us fdl Hkk”kk dk iz;ksx fd;k gS \ 2

13- fuEufyf[kr iz’ uksa ds mRrj 40-50 ‘kCnksa esa fyf[k,%& 4x2=8
(a) ;wjksi ds izHkko ds dkj.k vkt xq#-f’k”; lac a/k esa D;k vUrj vk x;k gS \
vFkok
uhys ,oa gjs jax ds fl;kjksa us HksfM+;s ds i{k esa D;k rdZ fn;s \

(b) ouksa dh l?kurk dk o.kZu dfo us fdu ‘kCnksa esa fd;k gS \

14- fuEufyf[kr in~; k¡’k dks i<+dj iwNs x, iz’uksa ds mRrj fyf[k,%&

“ rsjk nso rk nso ky; esa ugha gSA
Tkgk¡ et+nwj iRFkj QksM+dj jkLrk rS; kj dj jgs gSa,
rsjk nsork ogha pyk x;k gSa !
os /kwi –cjlkr esa ,d leku rirs->qylrs gSa,
muds nksuksa gkFk feV~Vh esa lus gSa
mudh rjg lqUnj ifj/kku R;kxdj feV~Vh-Hkjs jkLrksa ls tk ”

(i) Rksjk nso rk dgk¡ ugha gS \ 1
(ii) Ekt+nwj iRFkj QksM+dj D;k rS; kj dj jgs gSa \ 1
(iii) +et+nwj dc ,d leku rirs->qylrs gS \ 1
(iv) muds nksuksa gkFk fdlesa lus gSa \ 1
(v) ‘ ifj/kku’ ‘kCn dk vFkZ crkb, A 1

15- fuEufyf[kr xn~;k¡’k dks i<+dj iwNs x, iz’ uksa ds mRrj fyf[k,%&
(a) “,d fnu dh ckr gS xk¡o ds lHkh yksxksa us fu’p; fd;k fd os nwljs fnu
unh ij tkdj eNfy;k¡ yk;saxs vkSj xk¡o esa t’u euk;saxsA tc lHkh ;qod
taxy ls ‘vksuks ’ bdV~Bk djrs gq, unh ij igq¡p x;s, rc xk¡ookyksa us feydj
‘vksuks’ dwVuk vkjaHk fd;k A blh fnu xk¡ookyksa ds jps gq, “kM~;a= ds vuqlkj
vkjek dks ekjuk FkkA lc yksxksa us lksph-le>h pky ds vuqlkj vkjek dks
lcls igys ‘vksuks’ dwVus ds fy, pquk vkSj mldk ;’kxku fd;kA T;ksa gh
vkjek us ewly ls ‘vksuks’ dwVuk ‘kq: fd;k R;ksa gh ihNs ls fdlh us mlds

-6- NB-T/H/1

flj ij ewly ls izgkj dj fn;kA bl izdkj yksdxhr xkrs gq, xk¡ookyksa us
‘vksuks’ ds lkFk-lkFk vkjek dks Hkh dwV-dwVdj unh esa cgk fn;kA”
(i) ,d fnu xk¡o ds yksxksa us D;k fu’p; fd;k \ 1
(ii) Xkk¡ookyksa us feydj D;k dwVuk vkjaHk fd;k \ 1
(iii) Xkk¡ookyksa us fdldks ekjus dk “kM~;a= cuk;k \ 1
(iv) Xkk¡ookyksa us lcls igys ‘vksuks’ dwVus ds fy, fdldks pquk \ 1
(v) Xkk¡ookyksa us yksdxhr xkrs gq, D;k fd;k\ 1

vFkok

(b) “,d lkfgfR;d lHkk esa ,d r#.k fon~;kFkhZ Hkk”k.k nsus ds fy, [kM+k gqv k, ij
mldk Hkk”k.k tek ugha- og ?kcM+k x;kA Jksrkvksa us rkfy;k¡ ihVha, nl-ik¡p
okD; dgus ds ckn gh mls cSB tkuk iM+kA eap ij mldh dqlhZ gekjh dqlhZ
ds ikl gh Fkh D;ksafd gesa Hkh ml lHkk esa cksyus dk fuea=.k FkkA viuk
ilhuk iksaNrs gq, mlus eq>ls /khjs ls dgk :”

(i) r#.k fon~; kFkhZ fdl lHkk esa Hkk”k.k nsus ds fy, [kM+k gqvk \ ( 1)
(ii) fdldk Hkk”k.k tek ugha \ ( 1)
(iii) fdlus rkfy;k¡ ihVha\ ( 1)
(iv) fon~; kFkhZ dks fdrus okD; cksydj cSB tkuk iM+k\ ( 1)
(v) izLrqr iafDr fdl ikB ls yh xbZ gS \ ( 1)

16- fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlh ,d in~; [kaM dh lanHkZ rFkk izlax lfgr O;k[;k
dhft,%& 5
(a) ^^jfgeu nsf[k cM+su dks, y?kq u nhft;s MkfjA
Tkgk¡ dke vkoS lqbZ, dgk djS rjokfj AA^^

vFkok

(b) “tx foHkke; rks u dkyh jkr esj h,
eSa foHkke; rks ugha txrh v¡/ksjh,”

*********************

NB-T/B/1

Total number of printed pages -7

2024
BENGALI
Total Marks : 80 Time : 3 hours

General Instructions :
(i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and
revise the answers.
(ii) The question paper consists of 23 main questions.
(iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
(iv) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option
being attempted

N.B. : Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated
on the top left side.

বিভাগ – ‘ক’
পাঠ (Reading)

1. বিচের পাঠটি মচিাচ াগ বিচে পড় :
আনন্দবাজার অনলাইন ডেস্ক :বেঙ্গালু রু: বেষ আপডেট: ৩০ অগস্ট ২০২৩ ১৪:৩১
চাাঁডে এক সপ্তাহ কাটিডে বেলল চন্দ্রযান-৩-এর বরাভার প্রজ্ঞান। তার হাডত োকক আরও এক সপ্তাহ।
এর মাডে ‘অকভযাডনর বসরা ছকে’ উডেডছ প্রজ্ঞাডনর কযাডমরাে। েু ধোর টুইডট বসই ছকে প্রকাে
কডরডছ ইসডরা। বসই ছকেডত আসডল কযাডমরােকি হডেডছ ইসডরার লযান্ডার কেক্রম।
ইসডরা টুইডট জাকনডেডছ, েু ধোর সকাডলই কেক্রডমর একটি ছকে তুডলডছ প্রজ্ঞান। এডক ‘অকভযাডনর
বসরা ছকে’ (ইডমজ অে েয কমেন) তকমা কেডেডছন কেজ্ঞানীরা। ছকেটি উডেডছ বরাভাডরর বনকভডগেন
কযাডমরাডত।
ইসডরা জাকনডেডছ, এই বনকভডগেন কযাডমরাটি কেডেষ ভাডে চন্দ্রযান-৩-এর জনযই ততকর করা
হডেডছ। এই কযাডমরা ততকর হডেডছ ইডলকডরা-অপটিক্স কসডস্টডমর গডেষণাগাডর।
প্রজ্ঞাডনর কযাডমরাে বতালা কেক্রডমর ছকেডত বেখা যাডে, চাাঁডের অমসৃ ণ মাটিডত কডেক হাত দূডর

োাঁক়িডে রডেডছ লযান্ডারটি। ছকেটি ে়ি কডর ইসডরা বেকখডেডছ, লযান্ডাডরর নীডচ চযাডস্ট এেং ইলসা

[2]
NB-T/B/1

বপডলােদু’টিডকও বেখা যাডে। পৃ কিেীর সমে অনু যােী, েু ধোর সকাল ৭টা ৩৫ কমকনডট এই ছকেটি
বতালা হডেডছ।
এর আডগ মঙ্গলোর সন্ধ্যাে ইসডরা টুইট কডর জাকনডেকছল, চাাঁডের েকিণ বমরুর মাটিডত সালোডরর
উপকিকতর প্রমাণ বপডেডছ বরাভার প্রজ্ঞান। এ ছা়িাও কমডলডছ অযালু কমকনোম, কযালকসোম, বলাহা,
বক্রাকমোম, টাইডটকনোম, মযাঙ্গাকনজ, কসকলকন, অকক্সডজডনর অকিত্ব। ইসডরা জাকনডেকছল,
হাইডরাডজডনর বখাাঁজ চলডছ চাাঁডের ওই অঞ্চডল। প্রজ্ঞাডন রডেডছ বলজার-ইনকেউসে বেকোউন
বেডরাডকাপ (এলআইকেএস)। নমু না সংগ্রহ কডর তা বলজার প্রযু কির মাধযডম পরীিা কডর এই
প্রযু কি। এটিও ইডলকডরা-অপটিক্স কসডস্টডমর গডেষণাগাডর ততকর করা হডেডছ।
গত েু ধোর সন্ধ্যা ৬টা ৪ কমকনডট চাাঁডের েকিণ বমরুর কাডছ বনডমকছল চন্দ্রযান-৩-এর লযান্ডার। পডরর
কেন বভাডর ইসডরা জানাে, লযান্ডাডরর বপট বিডক সেল ভাডে বেকরডেডছ বরাভার প্রজ্ঞান। বসটি ঘু ডর
ঘু ডর চাাঁডের মাটিডত অনু সন্ধ্ান চালাডে। ছ’চাকা কেকেষ্ট এই বরাভাডরর গকত বসডকডন্ড এক
বসকিকমটার মাত্র। ১৪ কেন অিথাৎ এক চন্দ্রকেেস পযথন্তই তার আেু। চাাঁডে সূ যথ েু ডে বগডল আর এই যন্ত্র
কাজ করডে না।

বিচিেশ অিু সাচর বিচের প্রশ্নগুবির উত্তর িাও :
(ক) খবরটি কবব প্রকাশিত হবেবে? 1
(i) ৩০ শি আগস্ট (ii) ৩১ শি আগস্ট
(iii) ১ লা শেবেম্বর (iv) ২রা অবটাবর

(খ) চন্দ্রযান-৩ এর নাম কী? 1
(i) প্রজ্ঞান (ii) শবজ্ঞান
(iii) প্রশতভা (iv) পৃ থ্বী

(গ) শবক্রম কী? 1
(i) লযাণ্ডার (ii) রবকট
(iii) চন্দ্রযান (iv) েযাবটলাইট

(ঘ) কাবক অশভযাবনর শেরা েশবর তকমা শেওো হবেবে? শয কযাবমরাে েশবটি

শতালা হবেবে, শেটি শকাথাে ততশর করা হবেবে? 1+1 =2

(ঙ) েশবটি শকান বাবর শতালা হবেবে? 1

[3]
NB-T/B/1

(i) শোমবার (ii) মঙ্গলবার
(iii) বু ধবার (iv) শুক্রবার

(চ) শরাভারটির আেু কতশেন? 1
(i) েি শেন (ii) বাবরা শেন
(iii) শচাদ্দ শেন (iv) এক মাে

(ে) বযােবাকয েহ েমাে শনর্ণে কবরা : গববষর্াগার 1

(জ) চাাঁবের েশির্বমরুর মাটিবত শকান শকান শজশনবের অশিত্ব পাওো শগবে? 2

ববভাগ – ‘খ’
রেিা ও বিবমে বি (Writing and Composition)
2. বিচের য যকািও একটি বিষে যিচে বিচে ১০০ যেচক ১৫০ টি শচের মচযে উত্তর িাও :
(ক) তুশম ৭/১ পশি, ক্লাব শরাড, হাবেদ্রাবাে-১৩-র বাশেন্দা শরাশহত/ শমঘা। শতামাবের
এলাকাে েরবরাশহ জবলর কবল শবগত কবেকশেন ধবর অপশরস্রুত ও অপযণাপ্ত জল
েরবরাহ করা হবে, শেই শবষবে অশভবযাগ জাশনবে ‘েয হাবেদ্রাবাে টাইমস্’- এর
েংবােপবের েম্পােকবক শপাস্ট বক্স ৩৫০, হাবেদ্রাবাে- ১ – এই ঠিকানাে একটি
শচঠি শলবখা। 6
অেিা
(খ) তুশম গুোহাটি আোম উপতযকা উচ্চ শবেযালবের পশরববিবান্ধব ক্লাববর োে েম্পােক
আশেতয / েপ্তপর্ণা, গত ২৬বি জানু োশর শতামাবের শবেযালবে উক্ত ক্লাববর উবেযাবগ
একটি শেোে রক্তোন শিশববরর আবোজন করা হবেশেল, শেই শবষবে একটি
প্রশতববেন রচনা কবরা।

3. িয েিাবযক ৪০ যেচক ৫০ টি শচে বিচের য যকািও একটি প্রচশ্নর উত্তর িাও :
(ক) তুশম কাটিহার শরলওবে স্কুবলর োংস্কৃশতক শবভাবগর শিিাথী েম্পােক শনমণল/ নম্রতা,
শতামাবের স্কুবলর ‘োধীনতা শেবে’ উপলবি আবোশজত একটি োংস্কৃশতক অনু ষ্ঠাবনর
একটি আমন্ত্রনপে শলবখা। 4
অেিা
(খ) বতণ মান প্রজবের অশতশরক্ত োমাশজক মাধযবমর প্রশত আেশক্ত শনবে দুই বন্ধু োশহল ও

জাশহো-র মবধয কাল্পশনক েংলাপ শলশপবদ্ধ কবরা।

[4]
NB-T/B/1

বিভাগ – ‘গ’
িোকরণ ও অিু িাি (Grammar & Translation)
4. বিচের বিকল্পগুবির যেচক সঠিক উত্তরটি যিচে িাও :
(ক) একাশধক পে শমবল গঠিত হে — 1
(i) েমিপে (ii) েমেযমান পে
(iii) পূ বণপে (iv) উত্তরপে

(খ) বাচয কত প্রকার? 1
(i) দুই (ii) শতন
(iii) চার (iv) েে

(গ) ভাাঁবে মা ভবানী মাবন – 1
(i) িূ নয ভাণ্ডার (ii) মা দুগণার ভাণ্ডার
(iii) েিকমণা ভাণ্ডার (iv) লক্ষ্মীর ভাণ্ডার

(ঘ) ‘জেেূ চক উৎেব’ শক এককথাে ববল — 1
(i) জেন্তী (ii) শজন্দাবাে
(iii) জেগুরু (iv) েঞ্জে

(ঙ) ‘রাজপথ’ – এই েমিপেটির বযােবাকয হবব — 1
(i) রাজার পথ (ii) রাজা কনকমথকত পথ
(iii) রাজা ও পথ (iv) পবথর রাজা

5. িােে বিণে ে কচরা :
(i) কাজটা ভাবলা শেখাে না। 1
(ii) কী শবপবেই পো শগল! 1
(iii) আমগুবলা শপবক শগবে? 1

6. এক কোে প্রকাশ কচরা :
(i) তচে মাবের ফেল 1
(ii) জানবার ইো 1

7. িোসিাকে সহ সমাস বিণে ে কচরা :
(i) পীতাম্বর 1

[5]
NB-T/B/1

(ii) অগ্রজ 1
(iii) পাাঁচবফােন 1

8. সােে ক িাচকে প্রচোগ কচরা :
(i) োত খু ন মাপ 1
(ii) শহবত শবপরীত 1

9. িাাংিাে অিু িাি কচরা :
(i) What a beautiful house you have! 1
(ii) He spoke very softly. 1
(iii) No need to worry. 1
(iv) Who broke the window? 1
(v) Why are you absent-minded? 1

বিভাগ – ‘ঘ’
সাবহিে – গিোাংশ ও পিোাংশ (Literature)
10. বিচের বিকল্পগুবির যেচক সঠিক উত্তরটি যিচে িাও :
(ক) পরার্ মণ্ডল শক শেল? 1
(i) জশমোর (ii) কৃষক
(iii) মহাজন (iv) শগামিা

(খ) ‘অদ্ভুত আাঁধার এক’ কশবতাটি শকান কাবযগ্রবের অন্তগণত? 1
(i) ঝরাপালখ (ii) মনশবহঙ্গম
(iii) রূপেী বাংলা (iv) ধূ ের পাণ্ডুশলশপ

(গ) ‘বান’ গবল্প শকান পু বজার কথা আবে? 1
(i) মনো পু বজা (ii) গঙ্গা পু বজা
(iii) রান্না পু বজা (iv) দুগণা পু বজা

(ঘ) ‘বাববরর প্রাথণনা’ কশবতাে কার জীববনর প্রাথণনা করা হবেবে? 1
(i) বাববরর (ii) হুমােুবনর

(iii) শেশলবমর (iv) খু রবমর

[6]
NB-T/B/1

(ঙ) অভাগীর োমীর নাম কী? 1
(i) রশেক বাঘ (ii) অধর রাে
(iii) ঈশ্বর নাশপত (iv) ঠাকুরোে

২০-২৫ টি শচে বিচের য যকািও ে’টি প্রচশ্নর উত্তর িাও :
11. “বাজাবর দুে েিা হবলা।”— শকান পাবঠর অংি? দুধ েিা হল শকন? 1+1 =2

12. কালবকতুর শোট গ্রােবক কীবের োবথ তুলনা করা হবেবে? খাওোর েমে তার গলা
শেবে শকমন িব্দ হত? 1+1 =2
13. “পরার্ মণ্ডল আপনাবক িালা বশলোবে।” – শক কখন এই অশভবযাগ করবতা? 2

14. ‘বলাই’ পাঠ অনু োবর বস্তুত আমরা শকান পোথণবক মানু ষ ববল থাশক? 2
15. কশব বলরাম োে কার ভক্ত শেবলন? তাাঁর রশচত পে শকান গ্রবে স্থান শপবেবে? 1+1 =2
16. “শকন্তু শগৌরাঙ্গ এবলন না।” – শগৌরাঙ্গ শকাথাে এবলন না? শকন এবলন না? 1+1 =2
17. তরু কীবের জবনয কান শপবত শেল? তরু কীভাবব তার ভাষা েযি করত? (1+1 =2)
কম – যিবশ ৪০ যেচক ৫০ টি শচে বিচের য যকািও দু’টি প্রচশ্নর উত্তর িাও :
18. “– মবন হইল না এ শকান শিাবকর েযাপার —”
(i) শকান পাবঠর অংি? 1
(ii) শলখবকর নাম কী? 1
(iii) শকান প্রেবঙ্গ এ কথা বলা হবেবে? 2

19. “তার মাবঝ নবঘনিযাম।।” –
(i) শকান কশবতার অংি? (1)
(ii) নবঘনিযাম বলবত কাবক শবাঝাবনা হবেবে? (1)
(iii) কাবের মাবঝ কখন নবঘনিযাম শেবলন? (2)

20. “অদ্ভুত আাঁধার এক এবেবে এ পৃ শথবীবত আজ,” –
(i) শকান কশবতার অংি? 1
(ii) আাঁধার ‘অদ্ভুত’ শকন? 1

(iii) অদ্ভুত আাঁধাবর কী কী পশরলশিত হবে? 2

[7]
NB-T/B/1

প্রাে ৬০-৯০ টি শচে বিচের প্রশ্নগুবির উত্তর িাও :
21. (ক) “দুর তহবত ফু িরা বীবরর পালয োো।” —
(i) শকান পাবঠর অংি? 1
(ii) কশবর নাম কী? 1
(iii) শকান মূ ল কাবযগ্রে শথবক েংকশলত? 1
(iv) ‘বীর’ বলবত কাবক শবাঝাবনা হবেবে? 1
(v) বীবরর োো শপবে ফু িরা কী কবরশেল? 1
অেিা
(খ) “আমারই ববণর জবের উিাবে
মৃ তুয শডবক আশন শনবজর ঘবর?” –
(i) শকান কশবতার অংি? (1)
(ii) শক এই প্রশ্ন কবরবেন? (1)
(iii) কাবক এই প্রশ্ন কবরবেন? (1)
(iv) কখন ও শকন বক্তার এরকম মবন হবেবে? (2)

22. (ক) “এর োম শবি ঘা জু বতা” –
(i) শকান পাবঠর অংি? 1
(ii) শলখবকর নাম কী? 1
(iii) শক ববলবে? 1
(iv) কাবক উডেডে কবর ববলবে? 1
(v) কীবের োম শবি ঘা জু বতা? 1
অেিা
(খ) “তাবের েবঙ্গ ওর কী শয একটা বেেয ভাব তা ও শকমন কবর প্রকাি করবব?
(i) শকান পাবঠর অংি? (1)
(ii) এখাবন ‘তাবের’ বলবত কাবের শবাঝাবনা হবেবে? (1)
(iii) ‘ওর’ই বা শক? (1)
(iv) ‘তাবের’ ও ‘ওর’ শচরকাবলর েম্পকণ টা কী তা আবলাচনা কর। (2)

23. ‘জগেীিচন্দ্র’ কশবতাটির নামকরবর্র োথণকতা শবচার কবরা। 5

********************

Total number of printed pages: 6 NB-T/AE/1
2024
ALTERNATIVE ENGLISH
Total marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers
ii) The question paper consists of 21questions.
iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
iv) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option
being attempted.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left
side.
Unit – I (Reading)
1. Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:
Mud is a gorilla who lives in a cage at a mall. He has spent twenty-seven years
either living in a human home or at the mall.
I was born in a place humans call Central Africa, in a dense rainforest so
beautiful no crayons could ever do it justice. Gorillas do not name their newborns
right away, the way humans do. We get to know our babies first. We wait to see
hints of what might yet be.When they saw how much she loved to chase me around
the forest, my parents decided on my twin sister’s name –Tag.
Oh, how I loved to play tag with my sister! She was nimble, but when I got
too close, she would leap on to my unsuspecting father. Then I would join her and
we would bounce on his belly, until he gave us the grunt, a sound that meant,
‘Enough!’ That game never got old although my father might have disagreed.
It did not take long for my parents to find my name. All day long, I made
picture. I drew on rocks and bark and my poor mother’s back. I used sap from
leaves. I used the juice from fruits. But mostly, I used mud. And that is what they
called me- Mud.
To a human, Mud might not sound like much. But to me, it was everything.
On the basis of your reading of the passage, answer the following questions:
a. How did Mud get his name? 2
Choose the correct option from the alternatives given: 3x1=3
b. Why was Mud’s twin sister named as Tag?
i. Because he loved playing with his sister.
ii. Because she loved to chase Mud.
iii. Because she picked the name herself.
iv. Their father disagrees with any other name.
c. Why do gorillas not name their babies right away?
i. They wait to get to know their babies first.
ii. They don’t name their babies.

iii. Their babies choose their own names.
iv. They have to perform a ceremony to be named.

-2- NB-T/AE/1

d. Which among the words is a synonym of the word ‘grunt’?
i. Whisper iii. Laughter
ii. Scream iv. Grumble
2. Read the poem and answer the questions that follow:
If you can’t be a pine on the top of the hill
Be a scrub in the valley- but be
The best little scrub by the side of the rill;
Be a bush if you can’t be a tree.

If you can’t be a bush be a bit of a grass,
And some highway happy make;
If you can’t be a muskie then just be a bass-
But the liveliest bass in the lake.

We can’t all be captains, we’ve got to be crew
There’s something for all of us here,
There’s big work to do, and there’s lesser to do
And the task you must do is the near.

If you can’t be a highway then just be a trail
If you can’t be the sun be a star;
It isn’t by size that you win or you fail-
Be the best of whatever you are! (Douglas Mallock)

On the basis of your reading of the poem, choose the correct answer: 3x1=3
a. What is the poet’s tone in the poem?
i. Religious iii. Melancholic
ii. Optimistic iv. Desperate
b. What does the poet want us to be in whatever job/work we do?
i. The laziest iii. The most honest
ii. The earliest iv. The best
c. What should you be if you can’t be a tree?
i. Branch iii. Flower
ii. Hill iv. Bush
Write true or false: 4x½=2
d. The poet says if you can’t be a pine on the hill, you can be a highway.
e. We should be a star if we can’t be the sun.
f. The poet says everyone can be captains without crew.
g. Size cannot decide our victory but being the best we can be.

-3- NB-T/AE/1

Unit– II (Writing and Applied Grammar)
3. a.Complete the story in about 150-200 words following the starter line given below.
One evening while Kuvieo was at the library……… 6
Or
b.Teenagers waste most of their time on Facebook and other social networking sites.
Parents today are worried a lot due to this as their children’s studies and other
activities get neglected. Write an article in about 150-200 words on the topic,
“Advantages and Disadvantages of Social Networking Sites”

4. a. Write a dialogue in about 100-150 words between two friends discussing who is
more useful to society- a doctor or a teacher/ a policeman or a lawyer (choose any
one).
Or 6
b.Write a report in about 150-200 words on the Cultural Day programme which was
organized by your school.

5. Fill in the blanks with the correct Degree of Comparison: 2x1=2
a. The route was _____ (long) than we had expected.
b. Shuni is the _____ (young) among her siblings.

6. Choose the best preposition to complete the passage: 2x1=2
Kevi bought many books and kept them in the library. Many visitors come to borrow
the books _____ (with/from/for) his library. He keeps his favorite books _____
(at/behind/from) the wooden shelf.

7. Rewrite the sentences as directed: 2x1=2
a. Ruli is honest. Ruli is hardworking. (Use an appropriate Conjunction to join the
sentences)
b. She looks as if she is sick. (Underline the Adverb Clause)

8. Change the voice: 2x1=2
a. Vinito is flying a kite.
b. The chief guest was welcomed by the villagers.

Unit – III (Literature)
9. Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given: 10x1=10
i.Why did Pasteur release the crazed dog’s saliva into a sterile test-tube?
a. He did not want to mix the rabies microbes with other germs.
b. He did not want the rabies microbes to escape.
c. He did not want the poisonous saliva to touch his skin.
d. He did not want the rabies microbes to reproduce.

-4- NB-T/AE/1

ii. What sign is the laughter of the old people?
a. Triumph over death b. Triumph over life
c. Triumph over pain d. Triumph over sadness

iii.What according to Anne Frank does she lack?
a. Admirers b. A loving family
c. One true friend d. A pet dog

iv. “Old and young, we dream of graves and monuments.” Who said this? (The Ambitious
Guest)
a. The grandmother b. The daughter
c. The young man d. The landlord

v.‘Without thee what is all the morning’s wealth?’ Who is ‘thee’ here. (To Sleep)
a. Mother b. Sleep
c. Nature d. Cuckoo

vi.What does the poet want to see in her broken land?
a. High handedness b. Sovereignty
c. The beauty of Christ d. AK forty sevens

vii.What do Toshi and the village kids do long after the vehicle had gone?
a. Sit around some place and recount the whole incident.
b. Sniff the vehicle exhaust together.
c. Throw pebbles at the apes.
d. Go home and sleep.

viii. Why are the fishes in Vancouver full of cancer? (Speech by Severn Suzuki)
a. Global warming.
b. Excessive usage of water.
c. Dumping of industrial waste into lakes.
d. Polluted air from industries.

ix. On Anne’s 14th birthday, who composed a lovely poem?
a. Margot b. Miep
c. Peter d. Otto Frank

x. Who provided motor power by galloping along behind the trolley?
a. The driver b. The mechanic
c. The ward boy d. Dr. Barnard

-5- NB-T/AE/1

Answer the following questions in about 20-25 words: 5x2=10
10. What does the father wish to let people know him as after his death? (The Ambitious
Guest)
11. Why does the poet address sleep as mother in the poem, ‘To Sleep’?
12. Why does the poet think that he has come to the end of his voyage? (Closed Path)
13. Why does Anne feel such a strong need to start writing a diary? (The Diary of a Young
Girl)
14. Why does Anne Frank say that nature is the best medicine for all her trouble? (The
Diary of a Young Girl)
Answer thefollowing questions in about 40-45 words: 5x4=20
15.a. ‘In Canada we lived a privileged life…’ (Speech by Severn Suzuki)
i. What sort of privileged life do the children in Canada enjoy? (2)
ii. How do the children living in Brazil and Somalia suffer as narrated by Severn
Suzuki? (2)
Or
b. ‘I thought that my voyage had come to its end
At the last limit of my power, that the path before me was closed,’ (Closed Path)
i. What voyage is the poet talking about? (1)
ii. Why was he thinking so? (2)
iii. What do you think he started doing next? (1)
16. a. ‘There’s been a break-in! Peter went down to the warehouse this morning and
noticed at once that the warehouse door was open.’ (Diary of a Young Girl)
i. What did the burglars steal from the warehouse? (2)
ii. What new orders were imposed for the residents of the Annex after the break
in? (2)
Or
b. What are the similarities between Anne and Peter? Do you think these reasons
contribute to them becoming closer? (3+1=4)

17.‘During such exploits, finding a patch of oil or fuel which had fallen through a leak in
the vehicle was like hitting the jackpot!’ (Fragrance of the Gods)
i. Why was finding a patch of oil on the ground like winning the jackpot? (1)
ii. Why and how did the finder try to hide the oil? (3)
18.What are the signs and symptoms of rabies? Which region of the brain does the rabies
germ favour? (Man Against Virus) (3+1=4)
19. ‘Lord of Heaven and earth, look down in mercy
And remember that we have tried, though imperfectly,
All our days
To live by thy given code:’ (Prayer of the Meek)
i. Who is the poet talking to? (1)
ii. What is the ‘given code’? (3)

-6- NB-T/AE/1

Read the lines and answer the questions that follow:
20.a. ‘If you can’t, they accept their fate.’ (In Celebration of Being Alive)
i. Who do ‘you’ refer to? 1
ii. What is the fate that children accept? 2
iii. Why do you think they accept their fate more willingly than others? 2
Or
b. ‘Saliva glistens in
the corners of their mouths,
their heads wobble
on brittle necks, but
the laps
are filled with memories’
i. Who is being addressed in this poem? (1)
ii. What is the attitude of old people when they laugh? (2)
iii. What does the poet mean by ‘their laps are filled with memories’? (2)

21. ‘Mr. Dussel has arrived. Everything went smoothly.’ (Diary of a Young Girl)
i. Who is Mr. Dussel? 2
ii. What do the residents of the Annex get to know from Mr. Dussel about the
outside world? 3

******************************

Total number of printed pages : 6 NB-T/M-A/1
2024
MATHEMATICS - A
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours

General Instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 23 questions.
iii) All questions are compulsory.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
v) Marks allocated to each question are indicated against it.
vi) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option being
attempted.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top
left side.

Section – A
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives.
Y
(a) The number of zeroes of the polynomial p(x) in
the adjoining graph is X 0 X 1
(i) 0 (ii) 1
(iii) 2 (iv) 3
Y
(b) The pair of equations 2x + y = 5 and x + 2y = 4 are 1
(i) consistent and have a unique solution.
(ii) consistent and have dependent solutions.
(iii) inconsistent and parallel.
(iv) consistent and parallel.

(c) The quadratic equation 2x2  5 x + 1 = 0 has 1
(i) two distinct real roots. (ii) two equal real roots.
(iii) more than two real roots. (iv) no real roots.

(d) How many terms are there in the AP 3, 6, 9, 12, ..., 111? 1
(i) 38 (ii) 37 (iii) 36 (iv) 35

(e) If θ is an acute angle and 1 + 2 sinθ = 2, then the value of θ is 1
(i) 30 (ii) 45 (iii) 60 (iv) 90

(f) If θ varies from 90 to 0, then how does cos θ varies? 1

(i) Decreases from 0 to 1 (ii) Decreases from Not Defined to 0
(iii) Increases from 1 to 0 (iv) Increases from 0 to Not Defined

-2- NB-T/M-A/1

(g) Q is a point on x-axis at a distance of 5 units from y-axis to its right. The
coordinates of the point Q are 1
(i) (0, 5) (ii) (5, 5) (iii) (5, 5) (iv) (5, 0)
P
(h) QA and PB are perpendiculars on AB. If AO = 10 cm,
BO = 6 cm and PB = 9 cm, then the measure of AQ is A B 1
O
(i) 6.67cm (ii) 10 cm
(iii) 15 cm (iv) 25 cm
Q
(i) If PQR  XYZ, Q = 70, R = 60, what is the measure of X + Y? 1
(i) 130 (ii) 120 (iii) 110 (iv) 50

(j) The number of tangents to a circle which are parallel to a given chord is 1
(i) infinite (ii) 3 (iii) 2 (iv) 1

(k) If the perimeter and the area of a circle are numerically equal, then the
radius of the circle is 1
(i) 2 units (ii)  units (iii) 4 units (iv) 2 units

(l) The ratio of the total surface area to the lateral surface area of a cylinder
with base radius 80 cm and height 20 cm is 1
(i) 2 : 1 (ii) 3 : 1 (iii) 4 : 1 (iv) 5 : 1

(m) The construction of Cumulative Frequency table is useful to determine 1
(i) Mode (ii) Mean (iii) Median (iv) All the above

(n) Two coins are tossed simultaneously. The probability of getting atmost one
head is 1
3 1 1 1
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
4 3 2 4

(o) A die is thrown once. The probability of getting a composite number is 1
1 1 1
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 1
6 3 2

Section – B
3 5
2. Prove that is an irrational number, given that 5 is an irrational number. 2
2
1
3. Find the roots of the quadratic equation 2x2 – x + = 0 by factorisation. 2
8

4. Given 15 cot A = 8, find sin A and sec A, with the help of a right triangle. 2

-3- NB-T/M-A/1

5. In a rectangle, the angle between a diagonal and a side is 30, and the length of
its diagonal is 8 cm. Find the dimensions of the rectangle. 2

6. Find the point on the x-axis which is equidistant from (2, 5) and (2, 9) 2

7. A vertical pole of length 6 m casts a shadow 4 m long on the ground and at the
same time, a tower casts a shadow 28 m long. Find the height of the tower. 2

8. The length of the minute hand of a clock is 14 cm. Find the
area swept by the minute hand in 15 minutes. 2

Section – C

9. (a) Find the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 6x2 – 3 – 7x and verify the
relationship between the zeroes and the coefficients.
Or 3
2
(b) Find the nature of the roots of the quadratic equation, x – 6x + 5 = 0. If the
real roots exist, find them.

10. Solve the following pair of linear equations by substitution method: 3
3x 5 y x y 13
  2 ,  
2 3 3 2 6
11. If the 3rd and the 9th terms of an AP are 4 and 8 respectively, which term of this AP
is zero? 3

5 cos 2 60   4 sec 2 30  tan 2 45
12. a. Evaluate
sin 2 30  cos 2 30 
Or 3
2
1  sec A sin A
b. Prove that :  , where A is acute.
sec A 1  cos A

13. A 1.5 m tall boy is standing at some distance from a 30 m tall building. The angle of
elevation from his eyes to the top of the building increases from 30 to 60 as he
walks towards the building. Find the distance he walked towards the building. 3
B C
14. The Class X students of a school, have been
allotted a rectangular plot of land for their P
gardening activity. Sapling of Pine trees are R
planted on the boundary at a distance of 1 m from

each other. There is a triangular grassy lawn in Q
the plot, as shown in the figure.
A D

-4- NB-T/M-A/1

(i) Taking A as origin and AD as x-axis, find the coordinates of the vertices of the
triangular plot.
(ii) Find the coordinates of the midpoint of side PR. 3

15. a. A girl of height 90 cm is walking away from the
base of a lamp-post at a speed of 1.2 m/s. If the
lamp is 3.6 m above the ground, find the length
of her shadow after 4 seconds.
Or 3
b. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || DC and its diagonals intersect each
AO CO
other at the point O. Show that 
BO DO
16. a. Prove that the lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle
are equal.
Or 3
b. Prove that the angle between the two tangents drawn from an external point
to a circle is supplementary to the angle subtended by the line-segment
joining the points of contact at the centre.

17. a. A chord of a circle of radius 15 cm subtends an angle of 60 at the centre.
Find the areas of the corresponding minor and major segments of the circle.
[Take  = 3.14 and 3 = 1.73]
Or 3
b. Rachel, an engineering student, was asked to make a model shaped like a
cylinder with two cones attached at its two ends by using a thin aluminium
sheet. The diameter of the model is 3 cm and its length is 12 cm. If each
cone has a height of 2 cm, find the volume of air contained in the model
22
that Rachel made. [Take  = ]
7
18. Find out the mean concentration of SO2 in the air (in parts per million, i.e., ppm)
for 30 localities using Step-deviation method, the data of which is below: 3
Concentration of
0.00-0.04 0.04-0.08 0.08-0.12 0.12-0.16 0.16-0.20 0.20-0.24
SO2 (in ppm)
Frequency 4 9 9 2 4 2
19. a. The given distribution shows the number of runs scored by some top batsmen of
the world in one-day international cricket matches. Find the mode of the data.
3000 - 4000 - 5000 - 6000 - 7000 - 8000 - 9000 - 10000-
Runs scored

4000 5000 6000 7000 8000 9000 10000 11000
Number of batsmen 4 18 9 7 6 3 1 1

-5- NB-T/M-A/1

Or 3
b. The lengths of 40 leaves of a plant are measured correct to the nearest
millimeter, and the data obtained is represented in the following table:
Length (in mm) 118-126 127-135 136-144 145-153 154-162 163-171 172-180
Number of leaves 3 5 9 12 5 4 2
Find the median length of the leaves.
20. A box contains 90 discs which are numbered from 1 to 90. If one disc is drawn at
random from the box, find the probability that it bears: (i) a two-digit number,
(ii) a perfect square number, (iii) a number divisible by 5. 3

Section – D
21. Answer any one from the following questions (a) to (c): 5
a. Avibu went travelling by train with his father who is
an expert in Mathematics. He told Avibu that path of
train A is given by the equation 2x + 4y = 8 and path
A B
of train B is given by the equation 3x + 6y = 18.
Help Avibu solve the following questions:
(i) Represent the two equations graphically.
(ii) Write the coordinates of the point where the line
2x + 4y = 8 intersects the x-axis.
(iii) Write the coordinates of the point where the line 3x + 6y = 18 intersects
the y-axis.
Or
b. John was asked to represent the following statement in the form of a
quadratic equation:
1
The sum of two numbers is 9. The sum of their reciprocals is .
2
(i) If John wrote the equation correctly, what would he have written?
(ii) Find the values of the two numbers.
1
(iii) Also, verify that the sum of the reciprocals of the two numbers is .
2
Or
c. Avika’s mother opened a new shoe shop. To display
the shoes, she put 3 pairs of shoes in 1st row, 5 pairs in
2nd row, 7 pairs in 3rd row and so on. On the basis of
the above information, answer the following questions:
(i) If she puts a total of 120 pairs of shoes, what is the
required number of rows?

(ii) What is the difference of pairs of shoes in the 17th
row and 10th row?

-6- NB-T/M-A/1

22. Answer any one from the following questions (a) to (c): 5
a. State and prove Thales Theorem.
Or P
A
b. Sides AB and BC and median AD of a triangle ABC
are respectively proportional to sides PQ and QR, and
median PM of PQR. Show that ABC  PQR B D CQ M R
Or
c. Prove that opposite sides of a quadrilateral circumscribing a circle subtend
supplementary angles at the centre of the circle.

23. Answer any one from the following questions (a) to (c): 5
a. A round table cover has six equal designs as shown in figure.
If the radius of the cover is 28 cm, find the costs of making
the designs at the rate of `0.35 per cm2.
22
[Take  = and 3 = 1.73]
7
Or
b. A tent is in the shape of a cylinder surmounted by a conical top. If the
height and diameter of the cylindrical part are 2.1 m and 4 m respectively,
and the slant height of the top is 2.8 m, find the area of the canvas used for
making the tent. Also, find the cost of the canvas of the tent at the rate of
22
`500 per m2. [Take  = ]
7
Or
c. A solid consisting of a right circular cone of height 120 cm and radius 60
cm standing on a hemisphere of radius 60 cm is placed upright in a right
circular cylinder full of water such that it touches the bottom. Find the
volume of water left in the cylinder, if the radius of the cylinder is 60 cm
22
and its height is 180 cm. [Take  = ]
7

******************************************

Total number of printed pages : 7 NB-T/M-B/1
2024
MATHEMATICS - B
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours

General Instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 23 questions.
iii) All questions are compulsory.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
v) Marks allocated to each question are indicated against it.
vi) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option being
attempted.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top
left side.
Section – A
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives.

(a) A polynomial of degree 2 is called a 1
(i) quadratic polynomial. (ii) cubic polynomial.
(iii) linear polynomial. (iv) bi-quadratic polynomial.
(b) If a pair of linear equations has no solution, then the lines are 1
(i) always intersecting. (ii) always coincident.
(iii) parallel. (iv) intersecting or coincident.

(c) A quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, a  0 has two equal roots, then 1
(i) c2 – 4ab = 0 (ii) b2 – 4ab = 0
(iii) b2 + 4ac = 0 (iv) b2 – 4ac = 0
1 5 9 13
(d) The common difference of the AP , , , , ... is 1
3 3 3 3
4 4
(i) (ii) (iii) 2 (iv) 2
3 3
3
(e) If sinθ = , then the value of θ is 1
2
(i) 90 (ii) 60 (iii) 45 (iv) 30

(f) In the adjoining figure, the value of cos θ is A 1
AB BC
(i) (ii)

AC AC
AB AC
(iii) (iv) B C
BC AB

(g) The mid-point of the line joining the points A(x1, y1) and B(x2, y2) is 1
2 2 2 2
(i)  x2  x1    y 2  y1  (ii) x 2  x1    y 2  y1 
 x  x 2 y1  y 2   x  x 2 y1  y 2  A
(iii)  1 ,  (iv)  1 , 

2 cm
3cm
 2 2   2 2 
(h) In the adjoining figure, if DE || BC, then EC is equal to D E 1
(i) 4 (ii) 6

6cm
(iii) 9 (iv) 12
B C
A R
(i) If ABC  PQR, then the value of Q is 1
(i) 80 (ii) 60 40
60 80
(iii) 40 (iv) 20 Q
B C P
(j) The number of tangents that can be drawn from an external point to a circle is 1
(i) infinite (ii) 0 (iii) 1 (iv) 2

(k) In a circle, if the lengths of the major arc and the minor arc are 30 cm and
14 cm respectively, then the circumference of the circle is 1
(i) 44 cm (ii) 30 cm (iii) 16 cm (iv) 14 cm

(l) The radius of the sphere whose surface area is 154 cm2 is 1
(i) 3.5 cm (ii) 7 cm (iii) 14 cm (iv) 49 cm
N
 c. f .
(m) In the formula, Median = l  2  h , h is 1
f
(i) highest frequency (ii) height (iii) class mark (iv) class size

(n) What is the probability of a sure event? 1
1
(i) 0 (ii) (iii) 1 (iv) Less than 1
2
(o) A die is thrown once. The probability of getting a number less than 3 is 1
1 1 2
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 1
6 3 3
Section – B
2. Given that HCF (26, 91) = 13. Find the LCM (26, 91) 2

3. Find the roots of the quadratic equation x2 – 3x – 10 = 0 by factorisation. 2

4. State whether sin (A + B) = sin A + sin B is True or False. Justify your answer. 2

5. A tower is 100 3 m high. Find the angle of elevation of its top from a point 100 m
away from its foot. 2

-3- NB-T/M-B/1

6. Find the distance between the points (1, 2) and (3, 4) 2

7. E and F are points on the sides PQ and PR respectively of a PQR. PE = 4 cm,
QE = 4.5 cm, PF = 8 cm and RF = 9 cm. Check whether EF || QR or not. 2

8. Find the area of a sector of a circle with radius 21 cm if the angle of the sector is
22
60 [Take  = ] 2
7
Section – C
1 3
9. (a) If and are the zeroes of a quadratic polynomial, find the polynomial and
3 2
hence verify the relationship between the zeroes and the coefficients.
Or 3
(b) Find the value of k for which the quadratic equation, kx (x – 2) + 6 = 0 has
equal roots.

10. Solve the following pair of linear equations by substitution method: 3
2x + 3y = 11, 2x – 4y = –24
11. Find the 31st term of an AP whose 11th term is 38 and 16th term is 73. 3
7
12. a. If cot θ = , find cot2θ with the help of a right triangle.
8
Or 3
1  sin A
b. Prove that : = sec A + tan A, where A is acute.
1  sin A
13. From a point on the ground, the angles of elevation of the bottom and the top of a
transmission tower fixed at the top of a 20 m high building are 45 and 60
respectively. Find the height of the tower. [Use 3 = 1.732] 3

14. Three friends from Dimapur, namely Reema, 10
Jyoti and Deepa living in different locations are 9
8
represented by the points A, B and C 7
respectively. They all go to the same school 6 B
A
which is located at the origin O. Reema comes 5
to school by foot, Jyoti comes by bus and Deepa 4 C
3
comes by car. Using this information, answer 2
the following: 1
(i) Write the coordinates of the points A, B & C. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 1112131415 3
(ii) How far is the school from Jyoti’s

location?

B
15. a. In the adjoining figure, if LM || CB and LN || CD, M
AM AN A L C
prove that 
AB AD N
Or D 3
b. E is a point on the side AD produced of a parallelogram ABCD and BE
intersects CD at F. Show that ABE  CFB.

16. a. Prove that the lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle
are equal.
Or 3
b. The length of a tangent from a point A at distance 5 cm from the centre of
the circle is 4 cm. Find the radius of the circle.

17. a. A chord of a circle of radius 10 cm subtends a right angle at the centre. Find
the areas of the corresponding minor and major segments of the circle.
[Take  = 3.14]
Or 3
b. A vessel is in the form of a hollow hemisphere mounted by a hollow
cylinder. The diameter of the hemisphere is 14 cm and total height of the
22
vessel is 13 cm. Find the inner surface area of the vessel. [Take  = ]
7

18. The table below shows the daily expenditure on food of 25 households in a
locality. Find the mean daily expenditure on food by a suitable method. 3
Daily expenditure (in `) 100-150 150-200 200-250 250-300 300-350
Number of households 4 5 12 2 2

19. a. A student noted the number of cars passing through a spot on a road for 100
periods each of 3 minutes and summarised it in the table given below. Find
the mode of the data.
Number of cars 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70 70-80
Frequency 10 14 13 12 20 8 15 8
Or 3
b. The following frequency distribution gives the monthly consumption of
electricity of 68 consumers of a locality. Find the median monthly
consumption of the data.
Monthly consumption (in units) 68-85 85-105 105-125 125-145 145-165 165-185 185-205
Number of consumers 4 5 13 20 14 8 4

-5- NB-T/M-B/1

20. A box contains 5 red marbles, 8 white marbles and 4 green marbles. One marble
is taken out of the box at random. What is the probability that the marble taken
out will be: (i) red, (ii) white, (iii) not green? 3

Section – D
21. Answer any one from the following questions (a) to (c): Y6 5
a. Nina saw a creeper on the boundary of her aunt’s house 4
which was in the shape as shown in the figure. Answer the
2
following questions by considering that the creeper has
( 2,0) (4,0)
the same mathematical shape as shown in the figure: X 4 2 0 2 4 X
(i) How many zeroes does the polynomial (shape of the 2
creeper) have? 4
(ii) Find the sum of the zeroes. 6
(iii) Find the product of the zeroes.
8
(iv) Write the expression of the polynomial represented
by the graph. 10
Or Y
b. Rana usually go to a dry fruit shop with his mother. He observes the following
two situations:
On 1st day: The cost of 2 kg of almonds and 1 kg of cashew was `1600.
On 2nd day: The cost of 4 kg of almonds and 2 kg of cashew was `3000.
Denoting the cost of 1 kg almonds by ` x and cost of 1 kg cashew by ` y,
answer the following questions:
(i) Represent algebraically the situations of the 1st day and the 2nd day.
(ii) What is the coordinate of the point, which the equation represented by
the 1st day intersect the x-axis?
(iii) What is the coordinate of the point, which the equation represented by
the 2nd day intersect the y-axis?
Or
c. In a board game, the number of sea shells in various cells forms an AP. If
the number of sea shells in the 3rd and 11th cell together is 68 and the
number of shells in the 11th cell is 24 more than that of the 3rd cell, then
answer the following questions based on this data:

a1 a2 a3 a4 a5 a6 a7 a8 a9 a10 a11 a12 a13 a14 a15 a16 a17 a18 a19 a20

-6- NB-T/M-B/1

(i) What is the difference between the number of sea shells in the 19th and
20th cells?
(ii) How many sea shells are there in the first cell?
(iii) How many total sea shells are there in the first 13 cells?

22. Answer any one from the following questions (a) to (c): 5
P
a. State and prove Thales Theorem.
Or A
b. In the adjoining figure, A, B and C are points on OP, OQ
and OR respectively such that AB || PQ and AC || PR. O
Show that BC || QR. B C
Or Q R
c. Prove that opposite sides of a quadrilateral circumscribing a circle subtend
supplementary angles at the centre of the circle.

23. Answer any one from the following questions (a) to (c): 5
a. A brooch is made with silver wire in the form of a
circle with diameter 35 mm. The wire is also used in
making 5 diameters which divide the circle into 10
equal sectors as shown in the figure. Find the:
(i) total length of the silver wire required.
22
(ii) area of each sector of the brooch. [Take  = ]
7
Or
b. A tent is in the shape of a cylinder surmounted by a conical top. If the
height and diameter of the cylindrical part are 2.1 m and 4 m respectively,
and the slant height of the top is 2.8 m, find the area of the canvas used for
making the tent. Also, find the cost of the canvas of the tent at the rate of
22
`500 per m2. [Take  = ]
7
Or
c. A gulab jamun, contains sugar syrup up to about 30% of
its volume. Find approximately how much syrup would be
found in 45 gulab jamuns, each shaped like a cylinder
with two hemispherical ends with length 5 cm and
22
diameter 2.8 cm. [Take  = ]
7

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