CSIR NET 2026 Information Bulletin

वै ा नक तथा औ ो गक अनुसंधान प रषद
COUNCIL OF SCIENTIFIC & INDUSTRIAL RESEARCH

JOINT CSIR - UGC NET
JUNE - 2026

INFORMATION
BULLETIN

[email protected]
https://nta.ac.in/
https://csirnet.nta.nic.in/

NATIONAL TESTING AGENCY

Shaping the Future of Education through Innovation and Integrity

Vision
The right candidates joining best institutions
will give India her demographic dividend.

Mission
To improve equity and quality in education by
administering research-based valid, reliable, efficient,
transparent, fair and international level assessments. The
best subject matter experts, psychometricians and IT
delivery and security professionals will ensure that the
current gaps in existing assessment systems are properly
identified and bridged.

Core Values
✔ Quality
✔ Efficiency
✔ Effectiveness
✔ Equity
✔ Security
✔ Collaboration

Excellence in Education Assessments

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TABLE OF CONTENT

CHAPTER NO. CHAPTER NAME PAGE NO.

IMPORTANT INFORMATION AND DATES AT A GLANCE 2
CHAPTER – 1 INTRODUCTION ABOUT NTA AND JOINT CSIR- UGC NET 3-5
CHAPTER – 2 ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA 6-8
CHAPTER – 3 DETAILS OF EXAMINATION 9-11
CHAPTER – 4 FACILITY FOR PwD/PwBD CANDIDATES 12-14
CHAPTER – 5 REGISTRATION AND APPLICATION PROCESS 15-21
CHAPTER – 6 ADMIT CARD, INSTRUCTION AND PROHIBITED MATERIALS 22-25
CHAPTER – 7 UNFAIR MEANS PRACTICES 26-27
CHAPTER – 8 PROCEDURE OF DECLARATION OF RESULT 28
CHAPTER – 9 GENERAL / MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS 29
CHAPTER – 10 CORRESPONDENCE WITH NTA 30
ANNEXURE-I JOINT CSIR- UGC NET SUBJECTS 31
ANNEXURE-II The GAZETTE OF INDIA NOTIFICATION RELATED TO PwD/PwBD CANDIDATES 32-34
ANNEXURE –III LETTER OF UNDERTAKING FOR USING OWN SCRIBE (More Than 40%) 35
ANNEXURE –IV CERTIFICATE FOR PERSON WITH SPECIFIED DISABILITY COVERED UNDER
THE DEFINITION OF SECTION 2 (S) OF THE RPWD ACT, 2016 BUT NOT COVERED
36
UNDER THE DEFINITION OF SECTION 2(R) OF THE SAID ACT, I.E. PERSONS
HAVING LESS THAN 40% DISABILITY AND HAVING DIFFICULTY IN WRITING
ANNEXURE- V LETTER OF UNDERTAKING FOR USING OWN SCRIBE (Less Than 40%) 37
ANNEXURE -VI REPLICA OF APPLICATION FORM
38-60
ANNEXURE-VII PAYMENT OF EXAM FEE - PROCEDURE/ MODE / SERVICE PROVIDER(S),
61-62
SERVICES CHARGES AND HELPDESK
ANNEXURE -VIII LIST OF EXAM CITIES FOR JOINT CSIR- UGC NET June, 2026 63-68
ANNEXURE -IX ATTESTATION FORM (For ‘Result Awaited’ Candidates only) or (For Enrolled
69
Candidates only)
ANNEXURE -X FORMAT OF OBC CERTIFICATE 70
ANNEXURE -XI FORMAT OF SC/ST CERTIFICATE 71
ANNEXURE -XII FORMAT OF EWS CERTIFICATE 72
ANNEXURE -XIII PROCEDURE FOR APPEARING IN COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT) 73-79
ANNEXURE -XIV HELPDESK CONTACT DETAILS OF JOINT CSIR- UGC NET 80

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LIST OF ABBREVIATIONS
CBT Computer Based Test

CSIR Council of Scientific and Industrial Research

EWS Economically Weaker Section

GOI Government of India

MCQ Multiple Choice Question

MoE Ministry of Education

NDA Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA)

NFOBC National Fellowship for Other Backward Classes

NFSC National Fellowship for Schedule Caste

NFPwD National Fellowship for Persons with Disabilities

NTA National Testing Agency

OBC-NCL Other Backward Classes-Non-Creamy Layer

PwD Persons with Disabilities

RPwD The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016

SC Scheduled Castes

ST Scheduled Tribes

UGC University Grant Commission

UPI Unified Payment Interface (UPI)

UR Unreserved

UT Union Territory

1

IMPORTANT INFORMATION AND DATES AT A GLANCE

Joint CSIR-UGC NET June, 2026

Name of the Examination Joint CSIR-UGC NET June, 2026
Online registration and submission of 27-05-2026 to 19-06-2026
Application Form through NTA Website: (upto 11:50 P.M.)
https://csirnet.nta.nic.in
Last date for successful transaction of
20-06-2026 (upto 11:50 P.M.)
Examination fee

Fee Payable for
JOINT CSIR-UGC NET June, 2026
(Debit/Credit Card/UPI or Internet Banking through any of the payment gateway of SBI/ICICI)
Category Application Fee
General INR 1150
General-EWS/OBC(NCL)* INR 600
SC/ST/PwD/PwBD/Third Gender INR 325
Note:
• An applicant can apply for payment through net-banking/debit/credit card/UPI.
• Service charges of the concerned Bank/ Payment Gateway Integrator, as applicable.
• Applicants are advised to read Payment instructions carefully before paying the application fee.

Name of the Examination JOINT CSIR-UGC NET June, 2026

Correction in the Particulars of Application Form 22-06-2026 to 23-06-2026
online only (upto 11:50 P.M.)
City Intimation Slip To be announced later through website.
Downloading of Admit Card by the Candidate To be announced later through website.
from NTA Website
Mode of Examination Computer Based Test (CBT)
Pattern of Examination Objective Type with MCQ
Duration of Examination 180 minutes (03 hours)
Date(s) of Examination Schedule 17th and 18th July, 2026
Timing of Examination Shift 1 09:00 a.m. to 12:00 Noon
Shift 2 03:00 p.m. to 06:00 p.m.
Centre, Date and Shift of Joint CSIR-UGC As mentioned on the Admit Card
NET Examination
Display of Recorded Responses and Answer Keys Will be announced later on website
Declaration of Result on NTA Website Will be announced later on website
Website https://csirnet.nta.nic.in / www.nta.ac.in

*OBC (Other Backward Classes)-NCL (Non-Creamy Layer) as per the central list of Other
Backward Classes available on the website of National Commission for Backward Classes. The
candidates falling in this list may mention OBC in the Category Column.
State list OBC Candidates who are not in OBC-NCL (Central List) may choose General
(EWS) in case they fulfill the prescribed requirement in this regard.

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CHAPTER – 1: INTRODUCTION ABOUT NTA AND JOINT CSIR- UGC NET

1.1. About National Testing Agency (NTA)
The Ministry of Education (MoE), Government of India (GOI) has established the National
Testing Agency (NTA) as an independent, autonomous, and self-sustained premier testing
organization under the Societies Registration Act (1860) for conducting efficient,
transparent and international standard tests in order to assess the competency of
candidates for admissions to premier higher education institutions.

The National Testing Agency (NTA) has been entrusted by the Council of Scientific and
Industrial Research (CSIR), with the task of conducting of Joint CSIR-UGC NET, June,
2026 which is a test to determine the eligibility of Indian nationals for ‘award of Junior
Research Fellowship and appointment as Assistant Professor’, ‘appointment as Assistant
Professor and admission to Ph.D.’ and ‘admission to Ph.D. only’ in Indian universities and
colleges.

1.2. About Joint CSIR-UGC Fellowship

CSIR and UGC provide Research Fellowships for research under expert guidance of
faculty members/scientists working in University Departments/ National Laboratories
and Institutions in various fields of Science and interdisciplinary areas of research. Joint
CSIR-UGC NET Fellowships are accepted in Universities/IITs/Post Graduate
Colleges/Govt. Research Establishments including those of the CSIR, Research &
Development establishments of recognized public or private sector industrial firms and
other recognized institutions. Only bonafide Indian Citizens are eligible for the test. Joint
CSIR-UGC NET Fellowships are accepted in India.

There is no end period for the validity of the qualifying certificate of Assistant
Professor.

The award of Joint CSIR-UGC NET Fellowship is for a fixed tenure and does not imply
any assurance or guarantee for subsequent employment by CSIR-UGC NET to the
beneficiary.
➢ The candidates qualifying under the ‘appointment as Assistant Professor and
admission to Ph.D.’ category will be eligible for appointment as Assistant Professor
and admission to Ph.D. but not for the award of JRF.

➢ The candidates qualifying under the ‘admission to Ph.D. only’ category will be
eligible for admission to Ph.D. only but not for the award of JRF and/or appointment
as Assistant Professor.

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➢ The eligibility will be determined in the following manner:

Eligible for
Qualified for
JRF Assistant Professor Ph.D. admission
Category-1
Award of JRF and Yes Yes Yes
appointment as Assistant
Professor
Category-2
Appointment as Assistant No Yes Yes
Professor and admission
to Ph.D.
Category-3
No No Yes
Admission to Ph.D. only

➢ The JRF-qualified candidates are admitted into the Ph.D. programme based on an interview
as per the UGC (Minimum Standards and Procedures for Award of Ph.D. Degree)
Regulations, 2022.

➢ Joint CSIR-UGC NET under category-2 and category-3 can be used as an entrance test for
Ph.D. admission in place of entrance tests conducted by the different
universities/HEIs for admission to Ph.D.

➢ For admission to Ph.D., the marks obtained in the Joint CSIR-UGC NET by the candidates
in category-2 and category-3 will be valid for a period of one year from the date of declaration
of the result of Joint CSIR-UGC NET.

➢ For candidates qualified under the category-2 and category-3, the marks obtained in the
Joint CSIR-UGC NET written examination will have 70% weightage at the time of admission
and 30% weightage will be based on the performance in the interview/viva voce
conducted by the concerned University/HEI concerned.

➢ The number of candidates who will be qualified for JRF-NET, Assistant Professor and
‘admission to the Ph.D. only’ will be decided by the results committee.

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1.3. About Junior Research Fellowship Stipend
The stipend of a JRF selected through CSIR- National Eligibility Test (NET) will be
Rs. 37,000/- per month for the first two years. In addition, annual contingent grant of
Rs. 20,000/- is reimbursed directly to the fellow. The Fellowship will be governed by
terms and conditions of CSIR, UGC or Research Scheme, as applicable.

On Completion of two years as JRF and if the Fellow is registered for Ph.D., the Fellowship
will be upgraded to SRF (NET) and the stipend will be increased to Rs. 42,000/-
per month for the 3rd and subsequent years, on the basis of assessment of Fellows’
research progress/ achievements through interview by an Expert Committee consisting of
the Guide, Head of the Department and External Member from outside the University/
Institution (who is an expert in the relevant field, not below the rank of Professor/ Associate
Professor). As far as possible, the External Member should be the chairman of three
members Committee. Where the guide happens to be the Head of the Department, the
Dean, Faculty of Science or any senior member of the Department may be associated as
the third member of the Committee. In the event of the Committee not recommending up-
gradation or the fellow has not registered for Ph.D., the candidate will continue to receive
JRF with a stipend of Rs. 37,000/- per month for the 3rd year or his/her fellowship may be
terminated depending upon the recommendation of the Committee and the decision of
CSIR in this regard will be final.
The number of fellowship for each subject is limited and may vary from exam cycle to
exam cycle.

1.4 Joint CSIR-UGC NET Examination June, 2026
National Fellowships/Schemes (NFOBC, NFSC and NFPwD/NFPwBD)

Candidates aspiring for the NFOBC, NFSC or NFPwD/NFPwBD shall also have to apply
for Joint CSIR UGC NET June, 2026. However, the result of NFOBC, NFSC and
NFPwD/NFPwBD will be compiled/declared by the respective nodal agency on their
websites. Candidates must provide correct information in online application form
(wherever asked for) to be eligible for these fellowships. These fellowships/schemes are
governed by the guidelines available on official websites of implementing
agencies/ministries.

1.5 The data of UGC-NET candidates can be shared by the UGC/NTA with Higher
Educational Institutions (HEIs) for admission to Ph.D. programmes and with
Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) & other organizations for their recruitment
processes.

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CHAPTER – 2: ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA

2.1 Joint CSIR- UGC NET June, 2026 Eligibility Criteria
2.1.1.
a) General/ Unreserved/ General-EWS candidates who have secured at least 55%
marks (without rounding off) in Master’s Degree or equivalent examination from
recognized universities/ institutions are eligible for appearing in this examination. The
Other Backward Classes (OBC) belonging to Non-Creamy Layer/Scheduled Caste (SC)/
Scheduled Tribe (ST)/ Persons with Disability (PwD/PwBD)/ Third gender category
candidates who have secured at least 50% marks (without rounding off) in Master’s
degree or equivalent examination are eligible for this Test.
b) Candidates who are pursuing their Master’s degree or equivalent course or
candidates who have appeared for their qualifying Master’s degree (final year)
examination and whose result is still awaited, or candidates whose qualifying
examinations have been delayed may also apply for this test. However, such candidates
will be admitted provisionally and shall be considered eligible for Joint CSIR-UGC
NET, only after they have passed their Master’s Degree or equivalent examination
with at least 55% marks (50% marks in case of OBC-NCL/ SC/ ST/ PwD/ PwBD/ Third
gender category candidates). Such candidates must complete their Master’s degree or
equivalent examination within two years from the date of Joint CSIR-UGC NET result
with required percentage of marks, failing which they shall be treated as disqualified.

However, those candidates who qualify for ‘Admission to Ph.D. Only’ must complete
their Master’s degree or equivalent examination within one year from the date of Joint
CSIR- UGC NET result with required percentage of marks, failing which they shall be
treated as disqualified.

c) Candidates belonging to the Third gender category are eligible to draw the same
relaxation in fee, age and Eligibility Criteria for Joint CSIR-UGC NET as are available
to SC/ ST/ PwD/ PwBD categories. The subject-wise qualifying cut-offs for this category
would be the lowest among those for SC/ ST/ PwD/ PwBD/ OBC–NCL/ General-EWS
categories in the corresponding subject.

d) The Ph.D. degree holders whose Master’s level examination have been completed by
19 September 1991 (irrespective of date of declaration of result) shall be eligible for a
relaxation of 5% in aggregate marks (i.e. from 55% to 50%) for appearing in Joint
CSIR- UGC NET.

e) Candidates are neither required to send any certificates/documents in support of their
eligibility nor submit printout of their Application Form or Confirmation Page to NTA.
However, the candidates, in their own interest, must ensure their eligibility for appearing
in the examination. In the event of any ineligibility being detected by the CSIR/UGC/NTA
at any stage, their candidature will be cancelled, and they shall be liable for legal action.
NTA does not verify the information provided by the candidates during online registration
and hence candidature will be purely provisional subject to the fulfillment of eligibility
criteria.
f) Candidates holding a foreign qualification are advised, in their own interest, to
obtain equivalence of their qualification from the University Grants Commission (UGC).
The Candidates with Post-Graduate diploma awarded by an Indian Institute should in
their own interest, ascertain the equivalence of their diploma with Master's degree of
recognized Indian Universities from Association of Indian Universities (AIU).
6

g) The candidates having passed a 4-year/8-semester bachelor’s degree programme
should have a minimum of 75% marks in aggregate or its equivalent grade on a point
scale wherever the grading system is followed. A relaxation of 5% marks or its equivalent
grade may be allowed for those belonging to SC/ ST/ OBC (non-creamy layer)/
Differently-Abled, Economically Weaker Section (EWS) and other categories of
candidates as per the decision of the Commission from time to time (refer to University
Grants Commission.
(Minimum Standards and Procedures for Award of Ph.D. Degree) Regulations, 2022
https://www.ugc.gov.in/pdfnews/0909572_Minimum-Standards-and-Procedure-for-
Award-of-PhD Degree.pdf)

The candidates qualifying in the Joint CSIR-UGC NET exam, based on a four-year
undergraduate degree, will be eligible for the award of the Junior Research Fellowship
(JRF) and for admission to the Ph.D. The candidates qualifying in the Joint CSIR-
UGC NET, based on a four-year undergraduate degree, will not be eligible for
appointment as Assistant Professor.
h) The candidates who are pursuing Four Year/8 Semester Bachelor’s Degree Programme
and are in their last semester/year may also apply for the test. However, such candidates
will be admitted provisionally and shall be considered eligible for the award of
JRF/admission to Ph.D. only after fulfilling the requirements contained in the University
Grants Commission (Minimum Standards and Procedures for Award of Ph.D. Degree)
Regulations, 2022 within two years (if qualified for award of JRF)/within one year (if
qualified for admission to Ph.D. only) from the date of declaration of the Joint CSIR-UGC
NET result, failing which they shall be treated as disqualified.

i) The candidates with a Four-Year Bachelor’s Degree Programme are allowed to appear
in a subject (the List of Subjects and their Codes for Joint CSIR-UGC NET June-2026
are given at (Annexure-I) in which they want to pursue a Ph.D. irrespective of the
discipline in which they have obtained the four-year bachelor’s degree.
2.1.2 Upper Age limit:
a) JRF: Not more than 30 years as on the 1st day of the month in which the examination
is concluded i.e. July, 2026.
A relaxation of upto 5 years is provided to the candidates belonging to OBC-NCL (as
per the Central list of OBC available on website: www.ncbc.nic.in) /SC/ST/PwD /PwBD
/Third gender categories and to women applicants.
Relaxation will also be provided to the candidates with research experience, limited to
the period spent on research in the relevant / related subject of post-graduation degree,
subject to a maximum of 5 years, on production of a certificate from appropriate authority,
which should be a recognized Indian university / Institute of National Importance / foreign
university which is duly approved / recognized / accredited in its own Country / Public
Sector Undertaking of Government of India / State Government in India. The research
should not have been carried out towards completion of graduation or post-graduation
degree(s).

A relaxation of upto 5 years is provided to the candidates who have served in the armed
forces subject to the length of service in the armed forces upto the first day of the month
in which the concerned Joint CSIR-UGC-NET is, conducted, i.e., July, 2026 Total age
relaxation on the above ground(s) shall not exceed five years under any circumstances.

7

b) Assistant Professor: There is no upper age limit in applying for Joint CSIR UGC-
NET for Assistant Professor.

c) Admission to PhD: There is no upper age limit in applying for Joint CSIR-UGC-
NET for Admission to PhD.
2.1.3 Declaration

In the event of any ineligibility being detected by CSIR / UGC / NTA at any stage, their
candidature will be cancelled and they shall be liable for legal action. NTA does not verify
the information provided by the candidates during online registration and hence
candidature will be purely provisional subject to the fulfillment of eligibility criteria.

[Note: The information provided in this chapter (from point 2.1. onwards) has been received from CSIR]

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CHAPTER – 3: Details of Examinations
3.1 Mode of Examinations
The Examinations will be conducted in Computer Based Test (CBT) mode.
3.2 Pattern of Question Papers
The Test will consist of three parts. All the parts will consist of objective type, multiple choice
questions. There will be no break between papers. The subject-wise scheme of
examination is as per details below:
CHEMICAL SCIENCES (701) PART A PART B PART C TOTAL
Total questions 20 40 60 120
Max No of Questions to attempt 15 35 25 75
Marks for each correct answer 2 2 4 200
Marks for each incorrect answer 0.5 0.5 1 -
(Negative marking for part A, B & C is @ 25%)

EARTH, ATMOSPHERIC, OCEAN AND PART A PART B PART C TOTAL
PLANETARY SCIENCES (702)
Total questions 20 50 80 150
Max No of Questions to attempt 15 35 25 75
Marks for each correct answer 2 2 4 200
Marks for each incorrect answer (Negative 0.5 0.5 1.32 -
marking for part A & B is @ 25% and part C
is @ 33%)

LIFE SCIENCES (703) PART A PART B PART C TOTAL
Total questions 20 50 75 145
Max No of Questions to attempt 15 35 25 75
Marks for each correct answer 2 2 4 200
Marks for each incorrect answer (Negative 0.5 0.5 1 -
marking for part A, B & C is 25%)

MATHEMATICAL SCIENCES (704) PART A PART B PART C TOTAL
Total questions 20 40 60 120
Max No of Questions to attempt 15 25 20 60
Marks for each correct answer 2 3 4.75 200
Marks for each incorrect answer 0.5 0.75 0 -
(Negative marking in Part A & B is 25%; no
negative marking in Part C)

PHYSICAL SCIENCES (705) PART A PART B PART C TOTAL
Total questions 20 25 30 75
Max No of Questions to attempt 15 20 20 55
Marks for each correct answer 2 3.5 5 200
Marks for each incorrect answer (Negative 0.5 0.875 1.25 -
marking for part A, B & C is 25%)
9

Chemical Sciences: The candidate is required to answer a maximum of 15, 35 and 25
questions from Part-A, Part-B and Part-C respectively. If more than required number of
questions are answered, only first 15, 35 and 25 questions in Part A, Part B and Part
C respectively will be taken up for evaluation. Below each question in Part A, Part B
and Part C, four alternatives or responses are given. Only one of these alternatives is the
"correct" option to the question. The candidate has to find, for each question, the correct or
the best answer.

Earth Sciences: The candidate is required to answer a maximum of 15, 35 and 25 questions
from Part-A, Part-B and Part-C respectively. If more than required number of questions
are answered, only first 15, 35 and 25 questions in Part A, Part B and Part C
respectively will be taken up for evaluation. Below each question in Part A, Part B and
Part C, four alternatives or responses are given. Only one of these alternatives is the "correct"
option to the question. The candidate has to find, for each question, the correct or the best
answer.

Life Sciences: The candidate is required to answer a maximum of 15, 35 and 25questions
from Part-A, Part-B and Part-C respectively. If more than required number of questions
are answered, only first 15, 35 and 25 questions in Part A, Part B and Part C
respectively will be taken up for evaluation. Below each question in Part A, Part B and
Part C, four alternatives or responses are given. Only one of these alternatives is the "correct"
option to the question. The candidate has to find, for each question, the correct or the best
answer.

Mathematical Sciences: The candidate is required to answer a maximum of 15, 25 and
20 questions from Part-A, Part-B and Part-C respectively. If more than required number
of questions are answered, only first 15, 25 and 20 questions in Part A, Part B and
Part C respectively will be taken up for evaluation. Below each question in Part A, Part
B, four alternatives or responses are given. Only one of these alternatives is the "correct"
option to the question. The candidate has to find, for each question, the correct or the
best answer. In Part C each question may have "ONE" or "MORE" correct options.
Credit in a question shall be given only on identification of "ALL" the correct options
in Part C.
Physical Sciences: The candidate is required to answer a maximum of 15, 20 and 20
questions from Part-A, Part-B and Part-C respectively. If more than required number
of questions are answered, only first 15, 20 and 20 questions in Part A, Part B and
Part C respectively will be taken up for evaluation. Below each question in Part A,
Part B and Part C, four alternatives or responses are given. Only one of these alternatives
is the "correct" option to the question. The candidate has to find, for each question, the
correct or the best answer.

Part 'A' shall be common to all subjects. This part shall contain questions pertaining
to General Aptitude with emphasis on logical reasoning, graphical analysis,
analytical and numerical ability, quantitative comparison, series formation,
puzzles etc.

10

Part 'B' shall contain subject-related conventional Multiple-Choice questions
(MCQs), generally covering the topics given in the syllabus.

Part 'C' shall contain higher order questions that may test the candidate's
knowledge of scientific concepts and/or application of the scientific concepts.
The questions shall be of analytical nature where a candidate is expected to
apply scientific knowledge to arrive at the solution to the given scientific
problem.

3.3 Medium of Examination

The Paper will be in bilingual i.e. Hindi and English. Candidates are required to answer in
the medium as per option exercised in the Application Form. In case of any ambiguity
between Hindi and English version due to translation, English version would be treated as
final.
3.4 Marking Scheme of Examinations
Please refer to point no. 3.2.
3.5 Subjects of the Test

The Test will be held in the subjects mentioned below:

Subject Code Subjects of the Test
701 Chemical Sciences
702 Earth, Atmospheric, Ocean and Planetary Sciences
703 Life Sciences
704 Mathematical Sciences
705 Physical Sciences

3.6 Syllabus of the Test
Syllabus & Scheme of Examination of the MCQ Paper may be seen at CSIR HRDG
website: www.csirhrdg.res.in .
3.7 The score card will be published with total percentile score and marks.

[Note: The information provided in this chapter (from point 3.1. onwards) has been received from CSIR]

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CHAPTER – 4: FACILITY FOR PwD/PwBD CANDIDATES

4.1 The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016:

The Gazette of India, Extraordinary Part-II Section 1, Ministry of Law And Justice (Legislative
Department) New Delhi dated 28 December 2016 on “The Rights of Persons With
Disabilities Act, 2016. The relevant paragraphs of the above Gazette Notification for
consideration are as under: -
Chapter -1.
Para 2(r), “persons with benchmark disabilities” (PwBD) means a person with not less
than forty percent (40%) of a specified disability where specified disability has not been
defined in measurable terms and includes a person with disability where specified disability
has been defined in measurable terms, as certified by the certifying authority.

Para 2 (s) “Persons with Disability (PwD)” means a person with long term physical,
mental, intellectual, or sensory impairment which, in interaction with barriers, hinders his full
and effective participation in society equally with others.
Para 2 (zc) “specified disability” means the disabilities as specified in the schedule
(Annexure II).

4.1.1 Office Memorandum dated 29 August 2018:

Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment, Govt. of India, Office Memorandum No. F. No.
34- 02/2015-DD-III dated 29 August 2018 for conducting written examination for persons with
specified disabilities covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the RPwD Act,
2016. The relevant paragraphs of the above Office Memorandum for consideration are as
under: -
Para IV. The facility of Scribe/Reader/Lab Assistant should be allowed to any person with
benchmark disability as defined under section 2(r) of the RPwD Act, 2016 and has limitation
in writing including that of speed if so desired by him/her.
In case of persons with benchmark disabilities in the category of blindness, locomotor
disability (both arm affected-BA) and cerebral palsy, the facility of scribe/reader/lab assistant
shall be given, if so desired by the person.
In case of other category of persons with benchmark disabilities, the provision of
scribe/reader/lab assistant can be allowed on production of a certificate to the effect that
person concerned has physical limitation to write, and scribe is essential to write examination
on his behalf, from the Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Medical Superintendent of a
Government health care institution.
In case the candidate is allowed to bring his own scribe, the qualification of the scribe should
be one step below the qualification of the candidate taking examination. The person opting
for own scribe should submit details of the own scribe as per proforma at Annexure-III
(more than 40%).

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4.1.2 Office Memorandum dated 10 August 2022:

Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment, Govt. of India, Office Memorandum No F. No.
29-6/2019-DD-III dated 10 August 2022 for conducting written examination for persons with
specified disabilities covered under the definition of Section 2(s) of the RPwD Act, 2016 but
not covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the said Act, i.e. person having less than
40% disability and having difficulty in writing. The relevant paragraphs of the above Office
Memorandum for consideration are as under: -
Para 3 (b). The facility of scribe and/or compensatory time shall be granted solely to those
having difficulty in writing subject to production of a certificate to the effect that person
concerned has limitation to write and that scribe is essential to write examination on his/her
behalf from the competent medical authority of a Government healthcare institution as per
proforma at Annexure-IV.
Para 3 (c). The medical authority for the purpose of certification as mentioned above should
be a multi-member authority comprising the following: -
i. Chief Medical officer/Civil Surgeon /Chief District Medical Officer, Chairperson
ii. Orthopaedic/PMR specialist
iii. Neurologist, if available*
iv. Clinical Psychologist/Rehabilitation Psychologist/ Psychiatrist/Special Educator
Occupational therapist, if available*
v. Any other expert based on the condition of the candidate as may be nominated by the
Chairperson.

(* the Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Chief District Medical Officer may make full efforts
for inclusion of neurologists, occupational therapist from the nearest District or the Medical
College/Institute, if the same is not available in the District)”
The candidate should fill up the details of scribe as per undertaking proforma “Annexure
- V” (Less than 40%).

4.2 Scribe and Compensatory Time

1. The candidate should have the discretion of opting for his own scribe / reader / lab assistant
or request the Examination Body for the same. The examining body may also identify the
scribe / reader / lab assistant to make panels at the District / Division / State level as per
the requirements of the examination. In such instances the candidates should be
allowed to meet the scribe two days before the examinations so that the candidates get a
chance to check and verify whether the scribe is suitable or not.

2. The word “extra time or additional time” that is being currently used should be changed
to “compensatory time” and the same should not be less than 20 minutes per hour of
examination for persons who are allowed use of scribe / reader / lab assistant. All the
candidates with benchmark disabilities who are eligible for availing the facility of scribe in
terms of guidelines vide para IV of Para 4.1.1 above may be allowed additional time of
minimum of one hour for examination of 3 hours duration whether they use the facility of
scribe or not. In case the duration of the examination is less than an hour, then the
duration of additional time should be allowed on pro-rata basis. Additional time should
not be less than 5 minutes and should be in the multiple of 5”.

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Note – Both the guidelines i.e. dated 29 August 2018 (for PwBDs) and dated 10 August
2022 (for PwDs) have other important aspects such as allowing use of assistive devices,
proper seating arrangement, accessibility of examination centres etc. which will be followed.
The scribe will help the Candidate in reading the questions and / or keying in the answers as
per the directions of the Candidate. A scribe will NEITHER explain the questions NOR
suggest any solution to the Candidate.
It is to be noted that the Scribe will be provided by the National Testing Agency (NTA), if
requested by the Candidate.
If it is found at any stage that a candidate has availed the services of a scribe and/or availed
the compensatory time but does not possess the extent of disability that warrants the use of
a scribe and/or grant of compensatory time, the candidate will be excluded from the process
of evaluation, ranking, counselling and admission. In case such a candidate has already
been admitted to any Institution, the admission of the candidate will be cancelled.
Disability certificate/Unique Disability Identification (UDID)) issued by the notified medical
authority needs to be uploaded in the Online Application Form of JOINT CSIR- UGC NET
June, 2026

Note: The NTA does not guarantee any change in the category or sub-category (PwD/PwBD
status) after the submission of the Online Application Form, and in any case, no change will
be entertained by NTA after the declaration of NTA Score for JOINT CSIR- UGC NET June,
2026. The category/sub-category (PwD/PwBD status) entered in the JOINT CSIR- UGC NET
June, 2026 Database by the candidate will be used as final. Therefore, the candidates are
advised to fill in the category/sub-category column very carefully.

Note: The extent of “specified disability” in a person shall be assessed in accordance with
the “Guidelines for the purpose of assessing the extent of specified disability in a person
included under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016.

Note: Candidates must note that the benefit of reservation will be given to them subject to
verification of documents. If it is discovered at any stage that a candidate has used a
false/fake/incorrect document or has furnished false, incorrect or incomplete information, in
order to avail the benefit of reservation, then such a candidate shall be excluded from all
admission processes. In case such a candidate has already been given admission, the
admission shall stand cancelled.

In the case of the Institutes run/aided/recognized by State Governments, the reservation
policy of the respective State Governments shall be applicable

14

CHAPTER – 5: REGISTRATION AND APPLICATION PROCESS

5.1. Ready Reckoner:
Before beginning the process of filling the Online Application Form, read
Information Bulletin carefully, keep ready required documents and follow the
instructions as mentioned at the beginning of the Application Form:
❖ Copy of Board/ University Certificate for Candidate’s Name, Mother’s Name, Father’s
Name and Date of Birth
❖ Type of Identification – Passport Number/ Ration Card/ Aadhaar Card Number/ Digi
locker/ Voter ID Card Number/ APAR ID/ Other Govt ID
❖ Qualifying Degree Certificate or last semester marks sheet
❖ Your Mailing Address as well as Permanent Address with Pin Code
❖ Four cities for Centres of your choice
❖ Code of Joint CSIR-UGC NET Subject being applied for
❖ Category Certificate, if applicable
❖ Result Awaited Certificate, if applicable
❖ Economically Weaker Section (EWS) Certificate, if applicable
❖ Person with Disability (PwD/PwBD) Certificate, if applicable
❖ e-mail address and Mobile Number of candidate
❖ Scanned images in JPG/JPEG format only
Candidate’s Photograph File size must be between 10 kb to 200 kb.
Candidate’s Signature in running hand File size must be between 10 kb to 50 kb.
5.2. Instructions for filling Online Application Form
5.2.1. Candidates can apply “Online” ONLY for JOINT CSIR - UGC NET June, 2026 by
accessing the website: https://csirnet.nta.nic.in/. (The Application other than online
mode would not be accepted in any case). The entire application process of JOINT
CSIR- UGC NET June 2026 is online, including uploading of scanned images,
Payment of Fees and Printing of Confirmation page. Therefore, candidates are not
required to send/submit any document(s) including Confirmation page to NTA
through Post/Fax/By Hand/E-mail.
5.2.2. If a candidate submits multiple Application Forms for the same course, only the first
one will be considered and all others will be rejected automatically.
5.2.3. Replica of Application Form is given at Annexure-VI.
5.2.4. Information Bulletin and Replica of Application Form given therein may be
downloaded and read carefully by the candidate to be sure about his/her eligibility
and be familiar with the requirements for submission of Online Application Form.
5.2.5. To avoid correction in the particulars at a later stage, the candidate should exercise
utmost caution while filling up the details in the Application Form.
5.2.6. Following Steps may be followed to Apply Online:
Step-1: Read the instructions at the beginning of the application form & Register for
Online Form submission using your (candidate’s) own Email ID and Mobile
No. and note down system generated Application Number.
Step-2: Complete the Online Application Form and Upload scanned images of (i)
Candidate’s Photograph (in JPG/JPEG file size: 10 kb - 200 kb), (ii)
Candidate’s Signature (in JPG/JPEG file size: 10kb - 50kb), (iii) Duly verified
15

Result Awaited Attestation Form (in PDF file size: 50kb - 300kb), (iv)
Category Certificate, if applicable (SC/ ST/ OBC/ EWS etc.) (in PDF file size:
50kb - 300kb) & (v) PwD/PwBD Certificate, if applicable (in PDF file size:50kb
- 300kb).
Step-3: Pay prescribed fee through Net Banking / Debit Card / Credit Card
/ UPI and keep proof of fee paid for future reference.
5.2.7. All the 3 Steps can be completed in one go or each step completed at a time, saved,
and the next completed later. The final submission of Online Application Form will
remain incomplete if Step - 2 and Step– 3 are not completed, such Application Forms
will stand rejected and no correspondence on this account will be entertained.

After the submission of Online Application Form (i.e. successful completion of Step-3),
Confirmation Page of the Application Form, should be downloaded and a printout of the
same may be retained for future reference. The Confirmation Page of the online Application
Form will be generated only after successful payment by the Candidate.
In case the Confirmation Page is not generated after payment of Prescribed Fee, then the
candidate should approach the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway Integrator (in the helpline
number and email given in Annexure-VII of the Information Bulletin), for ensuring the successful
payment.

Despite the above, if successful transaction is not reflected on the Portal, it means the transaction
is not complete, and the candidate will have to make the payment a second time and ensure
confirmation of payment/OK status. However, any duplicate payment received in course of said
transactions, by NTA, at the fee reconciliation stage, will be refunded to the candidate in the same
payment mode through which the duplicate payment is received.

Notes:

i. No request for refund of fee once remitted by the candidate will be entertained.
ii. Candidates are advised to keep visiting the NTA’s website regularly for latest updates and to
check their e-mails.
iii. The NTA can make use of the data generated for the purpose of research and analysis.
iv. All the candidates who have submitted the online Application and paid the Examination fee till
last date will be allowed to appear in JOINT CSIR- UGC NET June, 2026 and their admit
cards will be uploaded on the website.
v. The certificates of educational qualification and category (if applied under reserved category)
will be verified by the concerned institution. The candidates are, therefore, advised to ensure
their eligibility and the category (if applying under reserved category).
vi. NTA will, in no way, be responsible for any wrong/incorrect information furnished by the
candidate(s) in his/her Online Application Form. The letter/e-mails/WhatsApp Message/Public
Grievance in this regard will not be entertained by the NTA.
vii. Candidates are advised to retain their Admit & Score Cards for future reference.

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5.3. Choice of Cities for Examination Centre
5.3.1. List of Cities for Examination Centres for JOINT CSIR- UGC NET June, 2026 are
given at Annexure-VIII. It is mandatory for candidates to select four cities (as
1st, 2nd, 3rd & 4th choice) of their choice while filling Online Application Form.

5.3.2. All efforts will be made to allot a Centre of Examination to a candidate in a City of
his/her Choice, in order of preference. However, due to logistic & administrative
reasons, exam centre may be allotted to him/her in a different city of nearby area.

5.3.3. The City for Examination Centre once chosen and allotted cannot be changed (after
the closing of the correction window) and any request in this regard will not be
entertained.
5.4. Procedure for Filling Application Form

PART I: REGISTRATION PAGE

Fill in the basic information and note down the system generated Application No.
(i) Candidate’s Name/ Mother’s Name/ Father’s Name: Provide Candidate’s Name,
Mother’s Name, and Father’s Name as given in the Secondary School Examination
or equivalent Board / University Certificate in capital letters. No prefix in the name
of the candidate is allowed
(ii) Date of Birth: dd/mm/yyyy Provide Candidate’s date of birth as recorded in
Secondary School Examination or equivalent Board/University Certificate.
(iii) Mobile Number and e-mail Address: Candidates must provide own Mobile Number
and e-mail address as the same may be validated. The candidate must ensure that e-
mail address and mobile number provided in the Application Form are their own (which
cannot be changed later) as communication may be sent by e-mail or SMS.
Note: Only one e-mail address and one Mobile Number are valid for one
application
PART II: FILL IN THE COMPLETE APPLICATION FORM
Fill in the complete Application
1. The application particulars entered can be edited before final submission of
the Application Form.
2. Once finally submitted, particulars in certain specific fields may be changed only
during correction window. After that no communication in this regard would be
entertained.
3. All the steps for submission of Online Application Form, Uploading of
Candidate’s photograph, Candidate’s signature, Documents (if applicable),
Payment of fee and Printing of Confirmation Page can also be done
separately. The Application Form can be saved as a Draft, at each stage,
and can be filled later (before the last date).
4. Facility of submission of Online Application Form, uploading of photograph,
signatures, payment of fee and printing of the Confirmation Page will be
deactivated as per schedule for submission of Application Form. Hence,
candidates are required to complete the process within the prescribed schedule.

17

5. Candidates are not required to send/ submit hard copy of Confirmation page to
NTA office. However, the candidates are advised to retain the hard copy of the
Confirmation Page, and a proof of fee submitted for future need.
6. Registration will be treated as complete only if the fee has been transacted
successfully, else the form will be cancelled.
7. Other Backward Classes (OBC)-Non Creamy Layer is as per the central
list of Other Backward Classes available on National Commission for
Backward Classes (NCBC), Government of India website
(www.ncbc.nic.in). Thus, the candidates falling in this list may mention OBC
in the Category Column. State list OBC Candidates who are not in OBC-
NCL (Central List) may choose General (EWS) in case they fulfill the
prescribed requirements in this regard.
8. Gender- Provide Candidate’s gender as recorded in the Type of Identification
viz. Passport Number/ Ration Card/ Other Govt. ID. Provide complete postal
address with PIN Code (Mailing Address as well as Permanent Address) for
further correspondence. PIN code of Correspondence Address should be given
in the space provided for this purpose.
9. Joint CSIR-UGC NET Subject: The candidate should select the CSIR-UGC
NET subject to appear from the list of Joint CSIR-UGC NET June, 2026
Subjects given at Annexure-I.

Notes:

a. The NTA shall not be responsible for any delay/loss in postal transit or for an incorrect
Correspondence address given by the Applicant in the Application Form. Therefore, the
candidate has to ensure that he/she mentions his/her complete correspondence address,
including pin code, in his/her Online Application Form.
b. The Candidate must ensure that e-mail address and Mobile Number provided in the Online
Application Form are their own (which cannot be changed later) as communication maybe
sent by NTA through e-mail or SMS.
c. The Candidate should not give the postal address, Mobile Number or e-mail ID of Coaching
Centre in the Online Application Form.
d. Under no circumstances the choice of cities for Centre and NET subject filled in
the Application Form shall be changed by the NTA.
e. Information such as his/her name, contact details/address, category, PWD status,
educational qualification details, date of birth, choice of exam, cities, etc, provided by
the candidate in the online application form will be treated as final. Any request for change
in such particulars after the closure of correction period will not be considered by NTA.
Following the completion of examination process, corrections in the details specified in the
certificate may be considered under special circumstances. This is contingent upon the
submission of the necessary documentation and approval by the competent authority.

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PART III: UPLOADING OF SCANNED IMAGES

(i) Candidate’s Photograph:
• Photograph should not be with cap or goggles. Photograph should cover 80%
face (without mask) visible including ears against white background.
• Spectacles are allowed if being used regularly.
• Polaroid and Computer-generated photos are not acceptable.
• Applications not complying with these instructions or with unclear photographs are
liable to be rejected.
• If it is found that the photograph uploaded is fabricated i.e. de- shaped or
seems to be hand-made or computer made, the form of the candidate will be
rejected and the same would be considered as using unfair means and the
candidate would be dealt with accordingly.
• The photograph need not be attested.

Note: Passport size photograph is to be used for uploading on Online Application Form and
also for pasting on Attendance Sheet at the Examination Centre.

• The candidate should scan his/her passport size photograph for uploading. File size
must be between 10 kb to 200 kb (in JPG/JPEG Format only).

(ii) Candidate’s Signature:
• The candidates are required to upload the full signature in running hand writing in the
appropriate box given in the Online Application Form. Writing full name in the Box in
Capital letters will not be accepted as signature and the Application Form would be
rejected.
• The candidate should put his/her full signature on white paper with Blue/Black
Ink pen and scan for uploading.
• File size must be between 10 kb to 50 kb (in JPG/JPEG Format only).

(iii) Result Awaited Attestation Form: to be uploaded (if applicable) (Annexure IX)
• File size must be between 50 kb to 300 kb (in PDF Format only).

(iv) Category Certificate: to be uploaded (if applicable) (Annexure X, XI, XII)
• File size must be between 50 kb to 300 kb (in PDF Format only).

(v) PwD/PwBD Certificate: to be uploaded (if applicable)
• File size must be between 50 kb to 300 kb (in PDF Format only).

Note: Candidate must ensure that the uploaded images are clear and proper

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PART IV: PAYMENT OF EXAMINATION FEE

Pay prescribed fee through Net Banking / Debit Card / Credit Card / UPI and keep
proof of fee paid for future reference. Please see Annexure–VII for details.

PART V: CHECK LIST FOR FILLING THE ONLINE APPLICATION FORM
The candidates are advised to ensure the following points before submitting the
Online Application Forms:

(i) Whether they fulfill the eligibility conditions for the Test as prescribed under the
heading ‘Eligibility Criteria’ and ‘Age Limit’.
(ii) That they have selected their category viz General/ General-EWS/ OBC (Non-
Creamy Layer)/ SC/ ST/ PwD/ PwBD/ Third gender and Minority option, in the
relevant column correctly.
(iii) That they have filled their Subject and City of examination in the relevant
column correctly.
(iv) That Candidates with Disability (PwD/PwBD) have correctly filled the relevant
column in the Online Application Form. Only PwD/PwBD candidates have to fill this
column and the others have to leave it blank.
(v) That they have kept a printout of Application Form (Confirmation Page) for their
own record, to be produced, at a later stage, if required.

5.5. Important Points to Note:
5.5.1. The Candidates should fill their complete postal address with PIN Code for further
correspondence.
5.5.2 The Candidate must ensure that e-mail address and Mobile Number provided
in the Online Application Form is his/her own (which cannot be changed
later) as all communication will be sent by NTA through e-mail and/or SMS.
5.5.3 Online Application Form cannot be withdrawn once it is submitted
successfully.
5.5.4 Application Form of candidates who do not fulfil the eligibility criteria shall be
rejected.
5.5.5 In case a candidate is found providing incorrect information or the identity is
proved to be false at any time in the future, the candidate shall face penal action
as per the law.
5.5.6 Candidates are advised to retain the following documents with them as reference
for future correspondence:
❖ Printouts of the Confirmation Page of Online Application Form.
❖ Proof of fee paid
❖ Photographs (same as uploaded on the Online Application Form) – 6 to 8
passport size photographs (for pasting on the Attendance Sheet at the
Examination Centre).

20

5.5.6.1. The name on the photo identification must match with the name as shown
on the Admit Card. If the name has been changed due to events such as
marriage, candidate must show the relevant document at the time of exam.
The relevant documents are - Marriage Certificate/ Divorce/ Decree / Legal
Name Change Document / Gazette Notification.

5.5.7 Provision of Reservation for candidates belonging to EWS/ OBC/ SC/ ST/ PwD/
PwBD will be as per GoI instructions issued from time to time.

5.5.8 The Aadhaar number is only one of the types of identification and is not
mandatory. Candidates can also upload details of other IDs such as
Passport, Ration Card, or any other valid Government identity.

5.5.9 A candidate can fill only one application. If a candidate submits multiple Application
Forms for the same course, only the first one will be considered, and all the others
will be rejected automatically.

21

CHAPTER – 6: Admit Card, Instructions and Prohibited Materials

6.1. Admit Card for the Examinations

6.1.1. The Admit Card will be issued provisionally to the candidates, subject to their
satisfying the eligibility conditions.

6.1.2. The candidate has to download the Admit Card from the NTA website and
appear for the Examination at the given Centre on Date, timing and Examination as
indicated in their Admit Card. Candidate may please note that Admit Cards will not
be sent by post.

6.1.3. No candidate will be allowed to appear at the Examination Centre, on Date
and timing other than that allotted to them in their Admit Card.

6.1.4. In case candidates are unable to download Admit Cards from the website, they may
approach the Help Line between 09:30 am and 5:30 pm or write to NTA at
[email protected].

6.1.5. The candidates are advised to read the instructions on the Admit Card carefully
and follow them during the conduct of the Examination.

6.1.6. In case of any mismatch in the particulars of the candidate or his/her
photograph/signatures shown in the Admit Card and that of Confirmation
Page, the candidate may immediately approach the Helpline between 09:30
am and 5:30 pm.

Notes:
a. Under no circumstance, a duplicate Admit Card for Joint CSIR-UGC NET
June, 2026 will be issued at the Examination Centres.
b. Candidate must not mutilate the Admit Card or change any entry made
therein.
c. Candidates are advised to preserve their Admit Card in good condition for
future reference.
d. No Admit Card shall be issued to the candidates whose Applications are
found to be incomplete for any reasons (including indistinct/ doubtful
photographs/unsigned Applications) or who do not fulfill the eligibility criteria
for the examination.
e. Issue of Admit Card, however, shall not necessarily mean acceptance of
eligibility which shall be further scrutinized at subsequent stages of
admission process.

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6.2. Important Instructions for Candidates
6.2.1. The candidates are advised to read the instructions on the Admit Card carefully
and follow them strictly.
6.2.2. Candidates MUST bring the following documents on the day of Examination
at the test centre. Candidates who do not bring these will not be allowed to appear
in the Examination.
i. Print copy of Admit Card downloaded from NTA website.
ii. One passport size photograph (same as uploaded on the Online
Application Form) for pasting on the specific space in the attendance sheet
at the Centre during the Examination.
iii. Any one of the authorized Govt. photo IDs (must be original, valid and
non- expired), viz. PAN card/ Driving License/ Voter ID/ Passport/ Aadhar
Card (With photograph)/ Aadhar Enrolment No/ Ration Card
iv. PwD/ PwBD certificate issued by the Competent Authority, if claiming the
relaxation under PwD/ PwBD category.

If the name has been changed due to events such as marriage, candidate
must show the relevant document at the time of exam. Marriage Certificate/
Divorce/ Decree / Legal Name Change Document.

6.2.3 Candidates should not be in possession of any material listed in the list of prohibited
material.

6.2.4 Candidates are not allowed to carry any baggage inside the Examination Centre.
NTA will not be responsible for any belongings stolen or lost at the premises.

6.2.5 The candidates shall report at the Examination Centre at the time mentioned on
the Admit Card to avoid crowding at the Examination Centre.

6.2.6 Candidates must reach the test centres on or before the reporting time. Entry of
the candidates into centre shall be stopped 30 mins before the start of the
Examination.

6.2.7 Candidates may note that late entry to the Examination premises is not
permitted under any circumstances. NTA shall not be responsible for any
delayed arrival of the candidate in reaching the centre due to any reason.
Candidates are advised to familiarize themselves with the location of test centre
and plan travel time accordingly.

6.2.8 Biometric information of all the candidates shall be captured. Identity checks will
be made upon arrival at the test centre to ensure that there are no unauthorized
candidate is appearing for the test. Candidates are required to cooperate with the
security personnel for security checks.

23

6.2.9 The candidate must show, on demand, the Admit Card for entry in the Examination
room/hall. A candidate who does not possess the valid Admit Card shall not be allowed
to enter the Examination Centre.

6.2.10 Candidates should take their allotted seat immediately after opening of the Examination
Hall. If not, they are likely to miss some of the general instructions to be announced in
the Examination Rooms/ Halls. NTA shall not be responsible for any resultant delay.

6.2.11 Any candidate found to have changed room/ hall or the seat on his/her own other than
allotted would be considered as a case of unfair means and the candidature shall be
cancelled and no plea would be accepted.

6.2.12 The candidate must sign and paste the photograph on the Attendance Sheet at the
appropriate place.

6.2.13 The candidate should ensure that the question paper available on the computer is as
per the opted Examination indicated in the Admit Card. In case, the subject of question
paper is other than the opted Examination, the same may be brought to the notice of the
Invigilator concerned immediately.

6.2.14 All calculations/writing work are to be done only in the rough sheet provided at the
centre in the Examination Room/ Hall and on completion of the test candidates
must hand over the rough sheets to the invigilator on duty in the Room/ Hall.

6.2.15 No candidate, without the special permission of the Centre Superintendent or the
Invigilator concerned, will leave his/ her seat or Examination Room/ Hall until the full
duration of the paper is over. Candidates must follow the instructions strictly as instructed
by the Centre Superintendent/Invigilators.

6.2.16 Please note that only registered candidates will be allowed at the Examination Centre.
Friends or relatives accompanying the candidates shall not be allowed entry in
the test centre under any circumstances and will not be allowed to contact the candidate
while the Examination process is going on.

6.2.17 Candidate shall appear at their own cost at the Centre on Date and time as indicated
on their Admit Card issued by the NTA. No TA, DA or any accommodation facility will
be admissible for appearing in JOINT CSIR- UGC NET June, 2026 examination.

6.2.18 The candidates are governed by the Rules and Regulations/Instruction of the NTA
with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be
dealt with as per rules.

6.2.19 Applications of candidates submitting false and fabricated information will be
rejected and such candidates will be further debarred from appearing in
Examinations conducted by NTA.

24

6.2.20 NTA reserves the right to withdraw permission, granted inadvertently if any, to
any candidate who is not eligible to appear in the JOINT CSIR-UGC NET June,
2026 even though the Admit Card had been issued by the NTA.

6.2.21 In case of any ambiguity in interpretation of any of the instructions/ terms/ rules/
criteria regarding determination of Eligibility/ Conduct of Examination/ Registration
of Candidates/ Information contained therein, the interpretation of the CSIR/ NTA
shall be final and binding.

6.3. Prohibited Materials

Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, Calculators, DocuPen, Slide
Rules, Log Tables and Electronic Watches with facilities of calculator, printed or written
material, bits of papers, mobile phone, Blue-tooth devices, pager or any other electronic
gadget/ device etc.
• The candidates are prohibited to bring any kind of electronic gadgets/device in the
Examination room/hall.
• If any candidate is in possession of any of the above item, his/ her candidature will be
treated as unfair means and lead to cancellation of the current Examination and also
debar the candidate for future Examination(s) & the material will be seized.
• Smoking, chewing gutka, spitting etc. in the Examination Room/Hall is strictly prohibited.
• Instrument/ Geometry/ Pencil box, Handbag, Purse or Any kind of Paper/ Stationery,
Eatables / Snacks and Tea / Coffee / Cold drinks / Water (loose or packed),
Mobile Phone / Ear Phone / Microphone / Pager / Calculator/ Camera / Tape
Recorder, any metallic item or electronic gadgets etc. are NOT allowed in the
Examination Room / Hall.
Note: Diabetic students will be allowed to carry eatables like sugar tablets / fruits
(like banana / apple / orange) and transparent water bottle to the Examination Hall.
However, they will not be allowed to carry packed foods like chocolate / candy /
sandwich etc.

25

CHAPTER – 7: Unfair Means Practices

7.1. Unfair Means Practices and Breach of Examination Rules

7.1.1. Definition: Unfair Means practice is an activity that allows a candidate to gain an
unfair advantage over other candidates. It includes, but is not limited to:
a. Being in possession of any item or article which has been prohibited or can be
used for unfair practices including any stationery item, communication device,
accessories, eatable items, ornaments or any other material or information
relevant or not relevant to the Examination in the paper concerned;
b. Using someone to write Examination on his / her behalf (physical or virtual
impersonation) or preparing material for copying;
c. Writing the Exam at an Exam Centre other than the one allotted to him / her;
d. Violating Examination rules or any direction issued by NTA in connection with
Joint CSIR – UGC NET Examination;
e. Assisting other candidate to engage in malpractices, giving or receiving
assistance directly or indirectly of any kind or attempting to do so;
f. Contacting or communicating or trying to do so with any person, other than
the Examination Staff, during the Examination time in the Examination Centre;
g. Threatening any of the officials connected with the conduct of the Examination
or threatening any of the candidates;
h. Using or attempting to use any other undesirable method or means in
connection with the Examination;
i. Manipulation and fabrication of online documents viz. Admit Card, Rank Letter,
Self-Declaration, etc.;
j. Forceful entry/exit from Examination Centre/Hall;
k. Use or attempted use of any electronic device after entering the
Examination Centre;
l. Affixing/ uploading of wrong/ morphed photographs/ signatures on the
Application Form/ Admit Card/ Proforma;
m. Creating obstacles in smooth and fair conduct of Examination;
n. In possession of bits of paper
o. Not attempting the question paper for long time intervals;
p. Fidgeting and looking here and there;
q. Availing of the service of a scribe and/ or compensatory time without processing
the extent of disability that warrants the use of service and/ or grant of
compensatory time;
r. Any candidate with more than one Application Number (more than one SCORE
CARDS) will be treated as UFM, even if found at a later stage, and strict action
will be taken against that Candidate.
s. Any other malpractices declared as Unfair Means by the NTA;
t. An offence punishable under the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair
Means) Act, 2024.
26

Disclaimer- The decision of the NTA shall be final and binding in determining
whether any individual or candidate is guilty of committing any of the
aforementioned or similarly classified offences under Unfair Means (UFM) cases.

7.1.2. Punishment for using Unfair means practices
During the course of or before or after the Examination, if a candidate is found indulging
in any of the practices as defined above, he/she shall be deemed to have used Unfair
means practice(s) and booked under UNFAIRMEANS (U.F.M.) Case. The candidate
could be debarred for 3 years in future and shall also be liable for criminal action and
/or any other action as deemed fit.

7.1.3. Cancellation of Result

The result JOINT CSIR- UGC NET June, 2026 of the candidate(s) who indulge in Unfair
means Practices will be cancelled and will not be declared. Similarly, the result of those
candidates who appear from the Centre other than the one allotted to them or allow another
candidate/person to write the examination on his behalf will be cancelled. No plea will be
entertained in this regard.

27

CHAPTER – 8: Procedure of Declaration of Result
8.1. Display of Recorded Responses
The NTA will display the Recorded Responses and Question Paper attempted by the
candidates on the NTA website https://csirnet.nta.nic.in/ prior to declaration of result. The
recorded responses are likely to be displayed for two to three days.
A Public Notice in this regard informing the date/s when the window will open will be hosted
on the NTA website.

8.2. Display of Provisional Answer Key for Challenges
The NTA will display Provisional Answer Key of the questions on the NTA website
https://csirnet.nta.nic.in/ to provide an opportunity to the candidates to challenge the
Provisional Answer Key. The Answer Keys are likely to be displayed for two to three days.
The Candidates will be given an opportunity to make a challenge online against the
Provisional Answer Key, on payment of Rs. 200/- per challenged question, as a non-
refundable processing fee.
The NTA decision on the challenges shall be final and the result will be declared on
the basis of final answer keys.
8.3. Procedure and Criteria for Declaration of Result
• Negative marking for wrong answers, wherever required, shall be applicable as
per subject wise scheme of Exam.
• If a question for any reason is found to be wrong, the benefit of marks will be given
to only those candidates who attempted the question.
• On examining the challenges by the subject experts, if it is found that along with
the original answer key one more option(s) is correct, then marks will be awarded
to all those candidates who have attempted any one of the correct options. (Except
in Part C of Mathematical sciences where rules as prescribed in Chapter 3.2
shall apply)
No grievances/representation with regard to Answer Key(s) after declaration of result will
be entertained.
Key Challenge procedure- Only paid challenges made during stipulated time through key
challenge link will be considered. Challenges without justification/evidence and those filed
on any other medium other than the prescribed link will not be considered.
The merit lists decided by Result Committee will be made on the basis of performance of
candidates in the above test.

There will be no separate cut-off for Part A, B & C. The cumulative marks of all
parts are taken into consideration for drawing of merit list. There is a minimum bench
mark of 33% for General, EWS & OBC category and 25 % in respect of SC/ ST and
PwD/ PwBD categories for both fellowship and Assistant Professor.

8.4. Re-Evaluation/Re-Checking of result

a. There shall be no re-evaluation/re-checking of the result. No correspondence in this
regard shall be entertained.
28

CHAPTER – 9: General / Miscellaneous Provisions

9.1. Procedure for appearing in Computer Based Test (CBT)
Please read the detailed procedures for Computer Based Test (CBT) provided at
Annexure-XIII.
9.2. Caution Notice and Non-Disclosure Agreement
9.2.1. Caution Notice
a. Candidates are advised to refer to Joint CSIR- UGC NET June, 2026 website
https://csirnet.nta.nic.in for authentic information and periodic updates about Joint
CSIR- UGC NET June, 2026.
b. Candidates are advised not to be allured by various claims of any party or
person or institute for qualifying Joint CSIR- UGC NET June, 2026 securing seat.
c. Candidates are advised to bring any such information to the notice to NTA by e-
mail on [email protected]
9.2.2. Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA)
a. Joint CSIR- UGC NET June, 2026 is a proprietary Examination and is
conducted by NTA. The contents of this exam are confidential, proprietary and are
owned by NTA/CSIR and explicitly prohibits the candidate from publishing,
reproducing or transmitting any or some contents of this test, in whole or in part,
in any form or by any means, verbal or written, electronic or mechanical or through
Hangouts, Blogs etc. using either one’s own account or proxy account(s), for
any purpose.
b. By registering for the Joint CSIR- UGC NET June, 2026, candidates are covered
by Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA). As per NDA, candidates cannot disclose
any question or contents of question paper in part or otherwise with any person or
party or website or such other media/publication. Any act in breach of the NDA
shall be liable for penal action as per law. Kindly note that this is a punishable
offence and shall lead to cancellation of candidature.
c. Violation of any act or breach of the same shall be liable for penal action and
cancellation of the candidature at the bare threshold.

29

CHAPTER – 10: Correspondence with NTA

10.1. Correspondence with NTA
All the correspondence should be addressed by e-mail to NTA on [email protected]. The
email query shall be addressed only if it is not anonymous and contains the name,
Registration/ Application No, postal address and contact number of the sender. An email
containing vague or general queries and other queries as contained in the Information
Bulletin shall not be entertained. Queries shall not be entertained from person claiming to
be representatives, associates or officiates of the applicant candidate. The following
information shall not be revealed by phone or email:
a. Internal documentation/status.
b. Internal decision making process of NTA. Any claim/counter claim thereof.
c. Dates & venue of internal meetings or name of the staff/officers dealing with it.
d. Any information which in the opinion of NTA cannot be revealed.
10.2. Help Desk Contact Details of Joint CSIR-UGC NET
a. For enquiry regarding Fellowship under CSIR Scheme, Fellowships under UGC
schemes and for eligibility for Assistant Professor, candidates contact on the address
given in Annexure XIV
10.3. NTA Weeding Out Rules
The record of JOINT CSIR- UGC NET June, 2026 will be preserved up-to 90 days from the
date of declaration of result.
10.4. Legal Jurisdiction
All disputes pertaining to the conduct of JOINT CSIR- UGC NET Examinations including
results shall fall within the jurisdiction of Delhi / New Delhi only. Further, any legal question
arising out of the Examination shall be entertained only when raised within 30 days from the
declaration of result.
The Director (Administration) of the NTA shall be the official by whose designation the NTA may
sue or be sued.
10.5. RTI
Information uploaded on the website shall not be provided to the candidate or any other
person under R.T.I. Act, 2005. The information uploaded on the website shall remain for
a specific period only. Therefore, the candidates are advised to download the uploaded
information and keep with them for future. In due course of examination or in midway of
process, neither any application under Right to Information Act, 2005 shall be entertained
nor information will be provided.

30

ANNEXURE-I

JOINT CSIR- UGC NET SUBJECTS

The Syllabus & Scheme of Examination may be seen at CSIR HRDG website:
www.csirhrdg.res.in.

National Testing Agency will not provide the copy of syllabus to individual candidates.

The Test will be held in the subjects mentioned below:

Subject Code Subjects of the Test Specializations
701 Chemical Sciences Analytical Chemistry
Inorganic Chemistry
Organic Chemistry
Physical Chemistry
Others
702 Earth, Atmospheric, Ocean and Geology
Planetary Sciences Geophysics
Meteorology
Oceanography
Physical Geography
Others
703 Life Sciences Biochemistry
Biodiversity and Taxonomy
Biotechnology
Botany
Genetics
Microbiology
Physiology
Zoology
Others
704 Mathematical Sciences Applied Mathematics
Pure Mathematics
Statistics
Others
705 Physical Sciences Atomic & Molecular Physics
Classical Dynamics
Condensed Matter Physics
Electromagnetics
Experimental Design
Electronics
Nuclear & Particle Physics
Quantum Physics
Thermodynamics
Others

31

ANNEXURE-II

32

33

34

ANNEXURE-III

LETTER OF UNDERTAKING FOR USING OWN SCRIBE (More Than 40%)

I , a candidate with (nature of the disability)

appearing for (name of the examination) bearing Roll
No. at (name of the centre) in the

District , (name of the State).My
educational qualification is _.

2. I do hereby state that (name of the scribe) will provide the service
of scribe /reader / lab assistant for the undersigned for taking the aforementioned examination.

3. I do hereby undertake that his qualification is _. In case, subsequently it is
found that his qualification is not as declared by the undersigned and is beyond my qualification. I shall
forfeit my right to the post and claims relating thereto.

(Signature of the candidate)

(counter signature by the parent/guardian, if the candidate is minor)

Place:

Date:

35

ANNEXURE-IV

(Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment, Govt. of India F. No. 29-6/2019-DD-III dated
10 August 2022)

Certificate for person with specified disability covered under the definition of Section 2
(s) of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the
said Act, i.e. persons having less than 40% disability and having difficulty in writing

1. This is to certify that, we have examined Mr/Ms/Mrs ................................................. (name of the
candidate), S/o of /D/o ……………………… a resident of …………………….
(Vill/PO/PS/District/State), aged………………….yrs, a person with………………………………
(nature of disability/condition), and to state that he/she has limitation which hampers his/her
writing capability owing to his/her above condition. He/ she requires support of scribe for writing
the examination.
2. The above candidate uses aids and assistive device such as prosthetics & orthotics, hearing
aid (name to be specified) which is/are essential for the candidate to appear at the examination
with the assistance of scribe.
3. This certificate is issued only for the purpose of appearing in written examinations conducted
by recruitment agencies as well as academic institutions and is valid upto (it is
valid for maximum period of six months or less as may be certified by the medical authority)

Signature of Medical Authority

(Signature & (Signature & Name) (Signature & (Signature & (Signature &
Name) Name) Name) Name)
Orthopaedic/ Clinical Neurologist Occupational Other Expert as
Psychologist/Rehabilitation (if available) Therapist (if nominated By the
PMR
Psychologist/Psychiatrist/ available) Chairperson (if
specialist
Special Educator any)

(Signature & Name)

Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Chief District Medical Officer ...................................... Chairperson

Name of Government Hospital/Health

Care Centre with Seal

Place:

Date:
36

ANNEXURE-V

LETTER OF UNDERTAKING FOR USING OWN SCRIBE (Less Than 40%)

(Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment, Govt. of India
F. No. 29-6/2019-DD-III dated 10 August 2022)

Letter of Undertaking by the person with specified disability covered under the definition of
Section 2 (s) of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the
said Act, i.e. persons having less than 40% disability and having difficulty in writing

I , a candidate with _ (nature of
disability/condition)
appearing for the (name of the examination) bearing Roll No.
at (name of the centre) in the
District
, (name of the State). My educational
qualification is .

2. I do hereby state that (name of the scribe) will
provide the service of scribe for the undersigned for taking the aforementioned examination.

3. I do hereby undertake that his qualification is . In
case, subsequently it is found that his qualification is not as declared by the undersigned and
is beyond my qualification. I shall forfeit my right to the post or certificate/diploma/degree
and claims relating thereto.

(Signature of the candidate)

(counter signature by the parent/guardian, if the candidate is minor)

37

ANNEXURE-VI

REPLICA OF APPLICATION FORM

38

39

40

41

42

43

44

45

46

47

48

49

50

51

52

53

54

55

56

57

58

59

60

ANNEXURE-VII
PAYMENT OF EXAM FEE - PROCEDURE/ MODE / SERVICE PROVIDER(S),
SERVICES CHARGES AND HELPDESK

After completing Step-2 of Online Application Form, candidates may remit the examination fee
(Step-3) by choosing the following options:
Online Mode i.e. Debit/Credit Card/UPI or internet banking through any of the payment
gateway of SBI or ICICI:
▪ Check the validity of the Debit/Credit Card and keep it ready with you while logging on
to website for submitting application form. Candidate should enter the information
asked for and make payment through Debit/ Credit Card.
▪ Through Net Banking, check the balance in your account and keep all credentials
ready with you while logging on to website for submitting application form. Candidate
should Login with his/her credentials of net banking and make payment through Net
Banking.
Please select any Mode of Payment/Service Provider (Service & other charges as applicable
per transaction to be paid by the candidate to the concerned Bank/ Payment Gateway
Integrator): -
S. Mode of
STATE BANK OF INDIA ICICI
No Payment
BANK
SBI Rs 5.00+GST ICICI NIL Charge
1 Net Banking Other
Rs 5.00+GST Other Banks 4.00 + GST
Banks

2 Debit Cards Nil Nil

0.80% + GST 0.40%of
Domestic (Minimum Rs Domestic Transaction value
11/-)
3 Credit Cards
3.50% of Fee+ GST 2.35%of
International (Minimum Rs 11/-) International Transaction value

Unified Payment
4 NIL Charge NIL Charge
Interface (UPI)

Note: In case, the fee payment status is not ‘OK’ the candidates are advised as following :-
(i) If the fee is paid through credit/debit card and status is not OK, it means the transaction is
cancelled. Therefore, such candidates have to pay the fee once again and ensure the OK
fee status.
(ii) For cancelled transactions, the amount will, automatically, be refunded by the concerned
Bank to concerned credit/debit card within 15 days of last date of submission of Application
Form.

61

2. Helplines:
(a) If Paying through State Bank of India (SBI):
Sl. Name Email ID Contact Number
1 Helpdesk3 [email protected] 011-26391804
2 Customer Care [email protected] 1800112211
3 Through SMS UNHAPPY (add text) 8008202020
(b) If Paying through ICICI Bank:
Sl. Name Email ID Contact Number
1 Customer support
Helpline number [email protected] 18602332332
(9AM to 6PM)
(c) NTA Helpdesk Contact details (in case the payment related issues are not resolved
through the above-mentioned Helplines of the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway
Integrator):
Email: [email protected]
Phone No.: 011-40759000, 011-69227700

3. Procedure to raise payment related Grievance:

After (successful completion of Step-3, Confirmation Page of the Application Form, should
be downloaded and a printout of the same may be retained for future reference. The
Confirmation Page of the online Application Form could be generated only after successful
payment by the Candidate.
In case the Confirmation Page is not generated after payment of prescribed Fee, then the
candidate should approach the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway integrator (in the helpline
number and email mentioned above), for ensuring the successful payment.
Inspite of above, if successful transaction is not reflected on the Portal, the candidate may
contact NTA Helpline. If the payment issue is still not resolved, the candidate may pay second
time.
However, any duplicate payment received from the candidate by NTA in course of said
transactions will be refunded through the same payment mode through which the duplicate
payment is received, after fee reconciliation by NTA.
Information to be provided by the Candidate while raising any payment related
query/grievance through QRS/email/Helplines: -
a. Name of the Bank and / or payment Gateway.
b. Date and time of the transaction
c. Transaction Number
d. Bank Reference Number
e. Proof of transaction
f. Screenshot from the payment portal (in case of payment failure).

62

ANNEXURE-VIII
LIST OF EXAM CITIES FOR JOINT CSIR- UGC NET June, 2026

S.No. State City CITY_Code
1 Andaman and Nicobar Island PORT BLAIR AN01
2 Andhra Pradesh ANANTAPUR AP01
3 Andhra Pradesh ELURU AP06
4 Andhra Pradesh GUNTUR AP07
5 Andhra Pradesh KADAPA (YSR KADAPA) AP08
6 Andhra Pradesh KAKINADA AP09
7 Andhra Pradesh KURNOOL AP10
8 Andhra Pradesh NELLORE AP11
9 Andhra Pradesh ONGOLE AP12
10 Andhra Pradesh RAJAHMUNDRY AP13
11 Andhra Pradesh SRIKAKULAM AP14
12 Andhra Pradesh TIRUPATHI/TIRUPATI AP16
13 Andhra Pradesh VIJAYAWADA AP17
14 Andhra Pradesh VISAKHAPATNAM AP18
15 Andhra Pradesh VIZIANAGARAM AP19
16 Arunachal Pradesh ITANAGAR/NAHARLAGUN AL01
17 Assam DIBRUGARH AM01
18 Assam GUWAHATI AM02
19 Assam JORHAT AM03
20 Assam SILCHAR (ASSAM) AM04
21 Assam TEZPUR AM05
22 Bihar ARRAH BR09
23 Bihar AURANGABAD (BIHAR) BR01
24 Bihar BHAGALPUR BR02
25 Bihar DARBHANGA BR04
26 Bihar GAYA BR05
27 Bihar MUZAFFARPUR BR06
28 Bihar PATNA BR07
29 Bihar PURNEA BR08
30 Chandigarh CHANDIGARH/MOHALI/ PANCHKULA CH01
31 Chhattisgarh BHILAI NAGAR/DURG CG01
32 Chhattisgarh BILASPUR (CHHATTISGARH) CG02
33 Chhattisgarh RAIPUR CG03
Daman & Diu and Dadra &
34 SILVASSA
Nagar Haveli DN01
35 Delhi DELHI/NEW DELHI DL01
36 Goa PANAJI/MADGAON/MARGAO GO01
37 Goa MAPUSA GO03
38 Gujarat AHMEDABAD GJ01
63

S.No. State City CITY_Code
39 Gujarat ANAND GJ02
40 Gujarat GANDHINAGAR GJ23
41 Gujarat JAMNAGAR GJ06
42 Gujarat MEHSANA GJ08
43 Gujarat MODASA GJ27
44 Gujarat RAJKOT GJ10
45 Gujarat SURAT GJ11
46 Gujarat VADODARA GJ12
47 Gujarat VALSAD/VAPI GJ13
48 Haryana AMBALA HR01
49 Haryana FARIDABAD HR03
50 Haryana GURUGRAM HR04
51 Haryana KURUKSHETRA HR07
52 Himachal Pradesh BILASPUR (HIMACHAL PRADESH) HP01
53 Himachal Pradesh DHARAMSALA HP13
54 Himachal Pradesh HAMIRPUR (HIMACHAL PRADESH) HP03
55 Himachal Pradesh KANGRA/PALAMPUR HP04
56 Himachal Pradesh KULLU HP10
57 Himachal Pradesh MANDI HP08
58 Himachal Pradesh SHIMLA HP06
59 Himachal Pradesh UNA HP09
60 Jammu and Kashmir BARAMULLA JK01
61 Jammu and Kashmir BADGAM/ BUDGAM JK07
62 Jammu and Kashmir JAMMU JK02
63 Jammu and Kashmir PULWAMA JK06
64 Jammu and Kashmir SAMBA JK03
65 Jammu and Kashmir SRINAGAR (J & K) JK04
66 Jharkhand BOKARO JH01
67 Jharkhand DHANBAD JH02
68 Jharkhand HAZARIBAGH JH05
69 Jharkhand JAMSHEDPUR JH03
70 Jharkhand RANCHI JH04
71 Karnataka BELAGAVI (BELGAUM) KK02
72 Karnataka BENGALURU-URBAN KK20
73 Karnataka DAVANGERE KK06
74 Karnataka DHARWAD KK10
75 Karnataka HASSAN KK09
76 Karnataka HUBLI KK27
77 Karnataka GULBARGA/KALABURGI KK08
78 Karnataka MANGALURU (MANGALORE) KK12
79 Karnataka MYSURU (MYSORE) KK14

64

S.No. State City CITY_Code
SHIVAMOGA
80
Karnataka (SHIMOGA)/SHIVAMOGGA KK15
81 Karnataka UDUPI/MANIPAL KK17
82 Kerala ALAPPUZHA/CHENGANNUR KL01
83 Kerala ERNAKULAM/MOOVATTUPUZHA KL04
84 Kerala KANNUR KL07
85 Kerala KOLLAM KL09
86 Kerala KOTTAYAM KL11
87 Kerala KOZHIKODE/CALICUT KL12
88 Kerala MALAPPURAM KL13
89 Kerala PALAKKAD KL15
90 Kerala PATHANAMTHITTA KL16
91 Kerala THIRUVANANTHAPURAM KL17
92 Kerala THRISSUR KL18
93 Kerala WAYANAD KL19
94 Ladakh KARGIL LL02
95 Ladakh LEH LL01
96 Lakshadweep KAVARATTI LD01
97 Madhya Pradesh BHOPAL MP03
98 Madhya Pradesh GWALIOR MP06
99 Madhya Pradesh INDORE MP07
100 Madhya Pradesh JABALPUR MP08
101 Madhya Pradesh SAGAR MP12
102 Madhya Pradesh SATNA MP13
103 Madhya Pradesh UJJAIN MP15
104 Maharashtra AHILYANAGAR MR01
105 Maharashtra AKOLA MR02
106 Maharashtra AMRAVATI MR03
107 Maharashtra CHANDRAPUR MR09
AURANGABAD (MR)/ CHHATRAPATI
108 Maharashtra
SAMBHAJINAGAR MR04
109 Maharashtra DHULE MR10
110 Maharashtra JALGAON MR13
111 Maharashtra KOLHAPUR MR14
112 Maharashtra LATUR MR15
113 Maharashtra MUMBAI MR16
114 Maharashtra NAGPUR MR17
115 Maharashtra NANDED MR18
116 Maharashtra NASHIK MR19
117 Maharashtra PUNE MR22
118 Maharashtra RATNAGIRI MR24
119 Maharashtra SANGLI MR25
120 Maharashtra SATARA MR26
65

S.No. State City CITY_Code
121 Maharashtra SOLAPUR MR27
122 Maharashtra THANE MR28
123 Maharashtra WARDHA MR29
124 Manipur BISHNUPUR MN05
125 Manipur CHURACHANDPUR MN03
126 Manipur IMPHAL MN01
127 Manipur KAKCHING MN04
128 Meghalaya SHILLONG MG01
129 Mizoram AIZAWL MZ01
130 Nagaland DIMAPUR NL01
131 Nagaland KOHIMA NL02
132 Odisha ANGUL OR10
133 Odisha BALASORE (BALESWAR) OR02
134 Odisha BARAGARH OR21
135 Odisha BARIPADA/MAYURBANJ OR12
136 Odisha BERHAMPUR / GANJAM OR03
137 Odisha BHADRAK OR11
138 Odisha BHUBANESWAR OR04
139 Odisha CUTTACK OR05
140 Odisha DHENKANAL OR06
141 Odisha KENDUJHAR (KEONJHAR) OR15
142 Odisha RAYAGADA OR26
143 Odisha ROURKELA OR08
144 Odisha SAMBALPUR OR09
145 Puducherry PUDUCHERRY PO01
146 Punjab AMRITSAR PB01
147 Punjab BHATINDA PB02
148 Punjab JALANDHAR PB04
149 Punjab LUDHIANA PB05
150 Punjab SAHIBZADA AJIT SINGH NAGAR PB12
151 Punjab PATHANKOT PB07
152 Punjab PATIALA/FATEHGARH SAHIB PB08
153 Punjab PHAGWARA PB21
154 Rajasthan AJMER RJ01
155 Rajasthan BIKANER RJ05
156 Rajasthan HANUMANGARH RJ23
157 Rajasthan JAIPUR RJ06
158 Rajasthan JODHPUR RJ07
159 Rajasthan KOTA RJ08
160 Rajasthan SIKAR RJ09
161 Rajasthan SRIGANGANAGAR RJ10
162 Rajasthan UDAIPUR RJ11

66

S.No. State City CITY_Code
163 Sikkim GANGTOK SM01
164 Tamil Nadu CHENNAI TN01
165 Tamil Nadu COIMBATORE TN02
166 Tamil Nadu CUDDALORE TN03
167 Tamil Nadu DHARMAPURI TN26
168 Tamil Nadu ERODE TN28
169 Tamil Nadu KALLAKURICHI TN39
170 Tamil Nadu KANCHIPURAM TN05
171 Tamil Nadu KANYAKUMARI/NAGERCOIL TN06
172 Tamil Nadu KARUR TN29
173 Tamil Nadu KRISHNAGIRI TN21
174 Tamil Nadu MADURAI TN08
175 Tamil Nadu NAMAKKAL TN10
176 Tamil Nadu SALEM TN11
177 Tamil Nadu THANJAVUR TN12
178 Tamil Nadu THOOTHUKUDI TN13
179 Tamil Nadu TIRUCHIRAPPALLI TN14
180 Tamil Nadu TIRUNELVELI TN15
181 Tamil Nadu TIRUPPUR TN22
182 Tamil Nadu THIRUVALLUR TN34
183 Tamil Nadu VELLORE TN18
184 Tamil Nadu VILUPPURAM TN23
185 Tamil Nadu VIRUDHUNAGAR TN20
186 Telangana HYDERABAD/SECUNDERABAD TL01
187 Telangana KARIMNAGAR TL02
188 Telangana KHAMMAM TL03
189 Telangana MAHBUBNAGAR TL04
190 Telangana NALGONDA TL05
191 Telangana SIDDIPET TL11
192 Telangana WARANGAL TL07
193 Tripura AGARTALA TA01
194 Uttar Pradesh AGRA UP01
195 Uttar Pradesh ALIGARH UP02
196 Uttar Pradesh FAIZABAD UP06
197 Uttar Pradesh BAREILLY UP04
198 Uttar Pradesh GHAZIABAD UP07
199 Uttar Pradesh GHAZIPUR UP23
200 Uttar Pradesh GORAKHPUR UP08
201 Uttar Pradesh NOIDA/GREATER NOIDA UP09
202 Uttar Pradesh JHANSI UP10
203 Uttar Pradesh KANPUR UP11
204 Uttar Pradesh LUCKNOW UP12

67

S.No. State City CITY_Code
205 Uttar Pradesh MATHURA UP13
206 Uttar Pradesh MEERUT UP14
207 Uttar Pradesh MORADABAD UP15
208 Uttar Pradesh MUZAFFARNAGAR UP16
209 Uttar Pradesh ALLAHABAD/PRAYAGRAJ UP03
210 Uttar Pradesh VARANASI UP18
211 Uttarakhand DEHRADUN UK01
212 Uttarakhand HALDWANI UK02
213 Uttarakhand ROORKEE UK06
214 West Bengal ASANSOL WB01
215 West Bengal BURDWAN (BARDHAMAN) WB02
216 West Bengal DURGAPUR WB04
217 West Bengal HOOGHLY WB06
218 West Bengal HOWRAH WB07
219 West Bengal KALYANI WB08
220 West Bengal KOLKATA WB10
221 West Bengal KHARAGPUR WB13
222 West Bengal SILIGURI WB11

68

ANNEXURE-IX

ATTESTATION FORM (For ‘Result Awaited’ Candidates only)
OR
(For ‘Enrolled’ Candidates only)

I certify that the information given by the candidate Shri/ Smt./
Kum has been verified by me with
reference to records of the University/Institute.

It is further certified that the said candidate is enrolled for M.Sc. (mention the degree/course if
M.Sc. equivalent) on (mention date/month/year) / / ;
OR,
after completing 10+2, the said candidate is enrolled for (mention the degree/ course)
on this date/ month/ year / / and is
th th
presently pursuing (mention year/semester, e.g 4 year/7 semester) / since
(mention date/ month/ year) / / , and is eligible to appear under Result Awaited
category as laid down in the eligibility criteria.

Illustrative List of degrees/ courses:

(i) BS-4 year program
(ii) B.E (iii) B. Tech
(iii) B. Pharma
(iv) MBBS
(v) Integrated BS-MS/ Masters M.Sc.
(vi) (vi) M.Sc. or equivalent
Signature of the Head of Dept./Institute
Rubber stamp/ seal

Name:

Designation:

Rubber Stamp/Seal:

69

ANNEXURE-X
FORMAT OF OBC CERTIFICATE

FORM OF CERTIFICATE TO BE PRODUCED BY OTHER BACKWARD CLASSES APPLYING FOR
APPOINTMENT TOPOSTS / ADMISSION TO CENTRAL EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS, UNDER
THE GOVERNMENT OF INDIA
This is to certify that Shri/ Smt./ Km. Son/ Daughter of Shri/
Smt. of Village/ Town District/Division
in the State/ Union Territory
belongs to the Community which is recognized as
a backward class under:
(i) Resolution No. 12011/68/93-BCCI dated 10/09/93 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part I Section I No. 186 dated
13/09/93.
(ii) Resolution No. 12011/9/94-BCC dated 19/10/94 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part I Section I No. 163 dated
20/10/94.
(iii) Resolution No. 12011/7/95-BCC dated 24/05/95 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part I Section I No. 88 dated25/05/95.
(iv) Resolution No. 12011/96/94-BCC dated 9/03/96.
(v) Resolution No. 12011/44/96-BCC dated 6/12/96 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part I Section I No. 210 dated
11/12/96.
(vi) Resolution No. 12011/13/97-BCC dated 03/12/97.
(vii) Resolution No. 12011/99/94-BCC dated 11/12/97.
(viii) Resolution No. 12011/68/98-BCC dated 27/10/99.
(ix) Resolution No. 12011/88/98-BCC dated 6/12/99 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part I Section I No. 270 dated
06/12/99.
(x) Resolution No. 12011/36/99-BCC dated 04/04/2000 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part I Section I No. 71 dated
04/04/2000.
(xi) Resolution No. 12011/44/99-BCC dated 21/09/2000 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part I Section I No. 210 dated
21/09/2000.
(xii) Resolution No. 12015/9/2000-BCC dated 06/09/2001.
(xiii) Resolution No. 12011/1/2001-BCC dated 19/06/2003.
(xiv) Resolution No. 12011/4/2002-BCC dated 13/01/2004.
(xv) Resolution No. 12011/9/2004-BCC dated 16/01/2006 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part I Section I No. 210 dated
16/01/2006.
(xvi) Resolution No. 12011/14/2004-BCC dated 12/03/2007 published in the Gazette of India Extraordinary Part I Section I No. 67 dated
12/03/2007.
(xvii) Resolution No. 12015/2/2007-BCC dated 18/08/2010.
(xviii) Resolution No. 12015/13/2010-BCC dated 08/12/2011.

Shri/Smt./Km. and/ or his/her family ordinarily
reside(s) in the District/Division of the
State/Union Territory. This is also to certify that he/she does
not belong to the persons/sections (Creamy Layer) mentioned in Column 3 of the Schedule to the
Government of India, Department of Personnel & Training O.M. No. 36012/22/93-Estt.(SCT) dated
08/09/93 which is modified vide OM No. 36033/3/2004 Estt.(Res.) dated 09/03/2004, further modified
vide OM No.36033/3/2004-Estt.(Res.) dated 14/10/2008, again further modified vide OM No.
36036/2/2013-Estt (Res) dated 30/5/2014or the latest notification of the Government of India.

Dated: District Magistrate / Deputy Commissioner /
Any other Competent Authority Seal:
NOTE:
(a) The term ‘Ordinarily resides’ used here will have the same meaning as in Section 20 of the Representation of the
People Act, 1950.
(b) The authorities competent to issue Caste Certificates are indicated below:
(i) District Magistrate/ Additional Magistrate/ Collector/ Deputy Commissioner/ Additional Deputy Commissioner/ Deputy
Collector/ 1st Class Stipendiary Magistrate/ Sub-Divisional magistrate/ Taluka Magistrate/ Executive Magistrate/ Extra
Assistant Commissioner (not below the rank of 1 st Class Stipendiary Magistrate).
(ii) Chief Presidency Magistrate / Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate / Presidency Magistrate.
1. Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tehsildar’ and
2. Sub-Divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and / or his family resides.
70

ANNEXURE- XI
FORMAT OF SC/ST CERTIFICATE

1. This is to certify that Shri/ Smt.*/ Kum*……………………..Son/ daughter of………………………Of village/
town* ………………….. in District/ Division*………………………of the State/ Union
Territory*……………………….Belong to the…………………………………………Caste/ Tribe* which is
recognized as a Scheduled

Caste/Scheduled Tribe* under:
*The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950
*The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order, 1950
*The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) (Union Territories) Order, 1951
*The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) (Union Territories) Order, 1951
{As amended by the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Lists (Modification Order) 1956, the Bombay Reorganization Act, 1960,the
Punjab Reorganization Act 1966, the State of Himachal Pradesh Act, 1970, the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971 and the
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders (Amendment) Act, 1976}
*The Constitution (Jammu & Kashmir) Scheduled Castes Order, 1956;
*The Constitution (Andaman & Nicobar Islands) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1959, as amended by the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
Tribes Orders (Amendment) Act 1976;
*The Constitution (Dadra and Nagar Haveli) Scheduled Castes Order, 1962;
*The Constitution (Dadra and Nagar Haveli) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1962;
*The Constitution (Pondicherry) Scheduled Castes Order, 1964;
*The Constitution (Uttar Pradesh) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1967;
*The Constitution (Goa, Daman and Diu) Scheduled Castes Order, 1968;
*The Constitution (Nagaland) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1970
*The Constitution (Sikkim) Scheduled Castes Order, 1978
*The Constitution (Sikkim) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1978
*The Constitution (Jammu and Kashmir) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1989
*The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Orders (Amendment) Act, 1990
*The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order Amendment Act, 1991
*The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order Second Amendment Act, 1991

2. This certificate is issued on the basis of the Scheduled Castes/ Scheduled Tribes Certificate issued
to Shri/ Smt*………………………father/ mother* of Shri/ Smt/ Kumari ................................... Of
……………………….Village/ town*…………………… in District/ Division*……………………… of the State/
Union Territory*……………………………….. Who belongs to the Caste/ Tribe* which is recognized as a
Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe* in the State/ Union Territory*………………………..issued by
the………………………………Dated ……………………
3. Shri/Smt*/ Kumari* ………………………………………… and/ or* his/ her family ordinarily reside(s) in
village/town*………………………………………….. Of District/ Division* of the State/Union Territory of
…………………………………

Signature …………………… ……
Designation………………………
(With seal of Office)
Place: … ………………… State
Date: ……………….…. Union Territory

NOTE: The term “Ordinarily resides” used here will have the same meaning as in Section 20 of the
Representation of the Peoples Act, 1950.
*Please delete the words which are not applicable.
AUTHORITIES EMPOWERED TO ISSUE SCHEDULED CASTE/ SCHEDULED TRIBE CERTIFICATES
{G.I. Dept. of Per. & Trg. O.M. No. 3012//88-Estt. (SCT), (SRD III) dated 24.04.1990}

The under mentioned authorities have been empowered to issue Caste Certificates of verification:
1. District Magistrate/ Additional District Magistrate/ Collector/ Deputy Commissioner/ Additional Deputy
Commissioner/ Deputy Collector/ First class Stipendiary Magistrate/ Sub Divisional Magistrate/Taluka
Magistrate/ Executive Magistrate/ Extra Assistant Commissioner.
2. Chief Presidency Magistrate/Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate/Presidency Magistrate.
3. Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tehsildar
4. Sub-Divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and/or his/her family normally resides

71

ANNEXURE-XII
FORMAT OF EWS CERTIFICATE
Government of India
(Name & Address of the authority issuing the certificate)

INCOME & ASSET CERTIFICATE TO BE PRODUCED BY ECONOMICALLY WEAKER
SECTIONS

Certificate No. Date
VALID FOR THE YEAR_

1. This is to certify that Shri/Smt./Kumari son / daughter /
wife of permanent resident of, Village / Street Post
Office District in the State/ Union
Territory Pin Code Whose photograph is
attested below belongs to Economically Weaker Sections, since the gross annual income* of
his/ her ‘family’** is below Rs. 8 Lakh (Rupees Eight Lakh only) for the financial year His/ her
family does not own or possess any of the following assets ***:
I. 5 acres of agricultural land and above;
II. Residential flat of 1000 sq. ft. and above;
III Residential plot of 100 sq. yards and above in notified municipalities;
IV Residential plot of 200 sq. yards and above in areas other than the notified municipalities.
2. Shri/Smt./Kumari belongs to the caste
which is not recognized as a Scheduled Caste, Scheduled Tribe and Other Backward Classes
(Central List).

Signature with seal of Office Name

Designation

Recent
Passport size
attested
photograph of
the applicant

*Note 1: Income covered all sources i.e. salary, agriculture, business, profession etc.
** Note 2: The term “Family” for this purpose include the person, who seeks benefit of reservation, his/ her
parents and siblings below the age of 18 years as also his/her spouse and children below the age of 18 years.
***Note 3: The property held by a “Family” in different locations or different places/cities have been clubbed while
applying the land or property holding test to determine EWS status.

72

ANNEXURE-XIII
PROCEDURE FOR APPEARING IN COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT)
The major examinations being conducted by NTA are Computer Based Test (CBT). A CBT requires
candidates to sit in front of a computer terminal (node) allocated to them against their Roll number and
Admit card. After logging the candidate will get detailed instructions for the examinations. At the
designated time of start of examination, the candidates will be able to proceed and see the
questions on the computer screen using the computer mouse. Candidates will have the option to change
/ modify/ edit / answers already entered any time during the examination.
Procedure for appearing in Computer Based Test (CBT):

(Sample/mock test will be available on NTA website: www.nta.ac.in for hands on practice)

(a) A computer terminal (node) indicating Roll Number will be allocated to each candidate.
Candidates should find and sit on their allocated computers only. Any candidate found to have
changed room/hall or the computer on their own other than the one allotted would lead to
cancellation of candidature and no plea in this regard would be entertained.
(b) For login, the candidate will have to enter login-ID and password. The computer terminal allotted
to the candidate will display WELCOME login screen, Candidate’s photograph and Joint CSIR-
UGC NET subject opted by the candidate.

Candidate Login Page

Candidate Welcome Screen

(c) After login, the candidate shall be able to see the detailed instructions for the examination.
Candidates are advised to go through the instructions carefully regarding the type of questions and
marking scheme. At the designated time of start of the examination, the candidates will
be able toproceed and see the questions on the computer screen.

73

General Instruction Page

Please read the instructions

carefully General Instructions:
1. Total duration of examination is 180 minutes.
2. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer in the top right corner of screen will
display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination. When the timer
reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You will not be required to end or submit your
examination.
3. The Questions Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each
question using one of the following symbols:

You have not visited the question yet.
You have not answered the question.
You have answered the question.
You have NOT answered the question but have marked the question for review.
The question(s) "Answered and Marked for Review" will be considered for
evaluation.

4. You can click on the ">" arrow which appears to the left of question palette to collapse the
question palette thereby maximizing the question window. To view the question palette again,
you can click on"<" which appears on the right side of question window.
5. You can click on your "Profile" image on top right corner of your screen to change the
language during the exam for entire question paper. On clicking of Profile image you will get a
drop-down to change the question content to the desired language.

6. You can click on to navigate to the bottom and to navigate to top of the question
are, without scrolling.

Navigating to a Question:
7. To answer a question, do the following:
a. Click on the question number in the Question Palette at the right of your screen to go to
that numbered question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save your answer
to the current question.
b. Click on Save & Next to save your answer for the current question and then go to the next
question.
c. Click on Mark for Review & Next to save your answer for the current question, mark it for
Review, and then go to the next question.

Answering a Question:
8. Procedure for answering a Multiple-Choice type question:

74

a. To select you answer, click on the button of one of the options.

b. To deselect your chosen answer, click on the button of the chosen option again or click on
the Clear Response button

c. To change your chosen answer, click on the button of another option

d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save & Next button.

e. To mark the question for review, click on the Mark for Review & Next button.

9. To change your answer to a question that has already been answered, first select that
question for answering and then follow the procedure for answering that type of question.

Navigating through sections:

10. Sections in this question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions in a
Section can be viewed by click on the section name. The Section you are currently viewing is
highlighted.
11. After click the Save & Next button on the last question for a section, you will automatically
be taken to the first question of the next section.

12. You can shuffle between sections and questions anything during the examination as per your
convenience only during the time stipulated.

13. Candidate can view the corresponding section summery as part of the legend that appears in
every section above the question palette.
The keyboard attached to the computer, if any, will be disabled during the entire duration of the
examination. Depending on the type of question, the answers to questions can either be entered by
clicking on the virtual on-screen keyboard (numeric or otherwise) using the computer mouse or by
clicking the chosen option(s) using the computer mouse. Candidates will have the option to
change/modify answers already entered anytime during the entire duration of the examination.

In case the computer/mouse allotted to any candidate malfunctions anytime during the test, he/she will
be immediately allotted another computer system and the time lost due to this will be adjusted in the
server so as to give the candidate the full allotted time.

The on-screen computer clock counter of every candidate will be set at the server. The countdown
timer in the top right side of computer screen will display the time remaining (in minutes) available
for the candidate to complete the examination. When the timer reaches zero, the examination will
end by itself. Candidate will not be required to end or submit the examination.

75

(d) The Question Palette displayed on the screen will show the status of each question using one
of the following symbols:

The question(s) “Answered and Marked for Review” status for a question indicates that candidate
would like to have a relook at that question again. A candidate has the option of answering a
question and simultaneously “Marked for Review”, these answers will be considered for evaluation.
However, if a candidate has simply put “Marked for Review” for a question without answering it,
the corresponding question marked for review without an answer will not be considered for
evaluation. It may be noted that a candidate can return to any “Marked for Review” question
any time during the examination by clicking on the corresponding question number icon displayed
on the Question Palette of the corresponding section.
(e) Candidate can click on the “>” arrow which appears to the left of question palette to collapse
the question palette thereby maximizing the question viewing window. To view the question palette
again, candidate can click on “<” which appears on the right side of question window.
(f) Candidate can click on to navigate to the bottom and to navigate to the top of the question
area, without scrolling. Using the computer mouse the candidate can scroll up and down the
question viewing area for viewing the entire question.
(g) The full paper can be viewed by clicking the “Question Paper” icon on the top right corner of
the screen.

(h) Blank Sheets for doing rough Work/calculations shall be provided to the candidates. The
Blanks Sheets would have a Header page for the candidates to write down his/her Name and
76

Roll Number. All calculations/writing work are to be done only in the Blank Sheets provided at
the centre in the examination Room/Hall and on completion of the test candidates must hand
over the rough sheets to the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
(i) Navigating to a Question to navigate between questions within a Paper, candidate needs
to do the following:
(a) Click on the question number in the Question Palette at the right of the screen to go to
that numbered question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save the answer to
the currently displayed question.
(b) Click on “Save & Next” to save the answer of any question. Clicking on “Save & Next” will
save the answer for the current question and the next question will be displayed on the
candidate’s computer screen.
(c) Click on “Mark for Review & Next” to mark a question for review (without answering it)
and proceed to the next question.

(j) Answering a Question
To navigate between questions within a Paper, candidate needs to do the following: Procedure
for answering a Multiple-Choice type question:
(a) To select the option(s), click on the corresponding button(s) of the option(s).
(b) To deselect the chosen answer, click on the button of the chosen option again or click
on the “Clear Response” button.
(c) To save the answer, the candidate MUST click on the “Save & Next” button.
(d) To mark the question for review (without answering it), click on the “Mark for Review &
Next” button.
(k) Navigating through sections:

(i) Sections in the question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions
in a section can be viewed by clicking on the section name. The section in which
candidate is currently viewing will be highlighted.
(ii) After clicking the “Save & Next” button on the last question for a section, candidate
will automatically be taken to the first question of the next section.
(iii) Candidate can shuffle between sections and questions within sections anytime during
the examination as per the convenience only during the time stipulated.

77

(iv) Candidate can view the corresponding section summary as part of the legend that
appears in every section above the question palette.

Question

Respective

Navigation

Question on Screen
(l) Procedure for answering questions that require inputs from virtual key board (numeric
or otherwise):
(a) Candidate will have to use the on-screen virtual keyboard (that would be displayed just
below the question statement of these types of questions) and the attached computer
mouse to enter his/her answer in the space provided for answer.

On Screen Virtual Keyboard

(b) The answer can be changed, if required, anytime during the test. To save the answer,
the candidate MUST click on the “Save & Next” button.
(c) To mark the question for review (without answering it), click on the “Mark for Review &
Next” button.
78

Candidate will have the option to change previously saved answer of any question,
anytime during the entire duration of the test. To change the answer to a question that has
already been answered, first select the corresponding question from the Question
Palette, then click on “Clear Response” to clear the previously entered answer and
subsequently follow the procedure for answering that type of question.

(m) ROUGH WORK:

All calculations/writing work are to be done only in the rough sheet provided at the Centre in the
examination Room/Hall and on completion of the test candidates must hand over the rough
sheets to the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.

79

ANNEXURE- XIV

HELPDESK CONTACT DETAILS OF JOINT CSIR- UGC NET June, 2026

Fellowship under DEPUTY SECRETARY / UNDER SECRETARY (EMR),
CSIR Scheme:
CSIR-HRDG, CSIR COMPLEX (OPPOSITE INSTITUTE OF
HOTELMANAGEMENT), LIBRARY AVENUE, PUSA, NEW DELHI
– 110012
Fellowships under UNDER SECRETARY,
UGC Schemes SELECTION AND AWARD BUREAU, UNIVERSITY GRANT
COMMISSION, SOUTH CAMPUS, UNIVERSITY OF DELHI,
BENITO JUAREZ MARG, DHAULA KUAN, NEW DELHI- 110021
For Eligibility for EDUCATION OFFICER,
Assistant Professor:
UNIVERSITY GRANTS COMMISSION, SOUTH CAMPUS,
UNIVERSITY OF DELHI, BENITO JUAREZ MARG, DHAULA
KUAN, NEW DELHI-110021

80

वै ा नक तथा औ ो गक अनुसंधान प रषद
COUNCIL OF SCIENTIFIC & INDUSTRIAL RESEARCH

NATIONAL TESTING AGENCY
(AN AUTONOMOUS ORGANIZATION UNDER THE DEPARTMENT OF HIGHER
EDUCATION, MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, GOVERNMENT OF INDIA)

011 4075 9000, 011 6922 7700

[email protected]

HTTPS://CSIRNET.NTA.NIC.IN/