UPSC CDS I 2026 Notification

EXAMINATION NOTICE NO. 4/2026 CDS- I DATED 10.12.2025

(Last Date for Submission of Applications: 30.12.2025)

COMBINED DEFENCE SERVICES EXAMINATION (I), 2026
[INCLUDING SSC WOMEN (NON-TECHNICAL) COURSE]
(Commission’s Website https://upsc.gov.in)

IMPORTANT
The Online Application Portal of Union Public Service Commission for
registration and filling up of application form online has four
cards/modules, three of which namely, Account creation, Universal
Registration and Common Application Form are common to all
examination applications and can be filled anytime by the candidate
while the fourth card/module is examination specific and can be filled
during the time period allowed in notification of an examination.
Applicants are required to apply online by using the website
https://upsconline.nic.in.

Once a candidate has registered on the Online Application Portal, a
Universal Registration Number (URN) is generated which is common for
all the examinations of the Commission. After filling up of the
examination specific form, Application Number is generated which is
examination specific and is to be retained by the applicant alongwith the
URN for any future communication with the Commission. While the URN
will be unique and will remain constant, the Application Number will be
dynamic in nature and will vary from examination to examination.

Detailed instructions are available on the home page of the portal as
well as with all profiles/modules to guide the candidates for filling up the
application and upload the documents. Candidates are advised to first go
through these Instructions carefully and prepare documents in advance
to have a smooth flow during filling up of form and document uploading.
Applicants are strongly advised to use their Aadhaar Card as ID
documents for easy, effortless and seamless verification and
authentication of ID and other details.

1. CANDIDATES TO ENSURE THEIR ELIGIBILITY FOR THE EXAMINATION:
The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfil all the
eligibility conditions for admission to the Examination. Their admission at all the stages of
the examination will be purely provisional subject to satisfying the prescribed eligibility
conditions.
Mere issue of e-Admit Card to the candidate will not imply that his/her candidature has
been finally cleared by the Commission.
Verification of eligibility conditions with reference to original documents will be taken up
only after the candidate has qualified for interview/Personality Test.

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2. HOW TO APPLY
Candidates are required to apply online by using the website
https://upsconline.nic.in. Candidates are advised to go through the General instructions,
Profile/Module wise instructions and instructions for uploading of documents before
proceeding to fill up the form. A candidate who is willing to apply for Combined Defence
Services Examination shall be required to submit the requisite information and supporting
documents towards various claims, such as date of birth, educational qualification, etc as may
be sought by the Commission alongwith the Universal Registration Number (URN), Common
Application Form (CAF) and the fourth module i.e. Examinaiton Specific module (including
fees and centre etc.). Failure to provide the required information/documents alongwith the
Common Application Form (CAF) will entail cancellation of candidature for the examination.
NOTE 1:- The Commission provides a one-time facility for candidates to update or modify
their Universal Registration Number (URN) profile. Please note that any changes made to
the URN Profile will not be reflected in applications already submitted. The updated
information will apply only to applications submitted after the candidate has made the
necessary changes and successfully re-locked the URN Profile.

NOTE 2- Live Photo Capture for filling up of Common Application Form (CAF):
Applicants are required to upload their photograph and also capture their live photograph
while filling up the Common Application Form (CAF). Applicants must ensure that the
uploaded photograph and the live photograph captured is clear as per instructions given on
“Instructions and FAQs > Instruction for filling the form > Photos and Signature” available
on the Commission’s website https://upsconline.nic.in.

2.1 The candidate will not be allowed to withdraw his/her applications after the submission of
the same.
2.2 Candidate should have details of one Photo ID Card viz. Aadhaar Card/Voter
Card(EPIC)/PAN Card/Passport/Driving License/Any other Photo ID Card issued by the
State/Central Government. The details of this Photo ID Card will have to be provided by the
candidate while filling up the Universal Registration Number (URN) Profile. This Photo ID
Card will be used for all future reference and the candidate is advised to carry this Photo ID
Card while appearing for Examination/Personality Test/SSB.
2.3 Applicants are strongly advised to use their Aadhaar Card as ID documents for easy,
effortless and seamless verification and authentication of ID and other details.

3. LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATIONS:

The Online Applications can be filled upto 06:00 PM of 30th December, 2025. The
eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card on the last working day of the
preceding week of the date of the examination which will be made available on the UPSC
website (https://upsconline.nic.in) for downloading by the candidates. Admit Card will
not be sent by any other means e.g. by post or e-mail.

4. Marking Answers in the OMR Sheet
For both writing and marking answers in the OMR sheet (Answer Sheet) candidates must use
black ball pen only. Pen of any other colour is not permitted. Do not use Pencil or Ink pen.
Candidates should note that any omission/mistake/discrepancy in encoding/filling of details in
the OMR answer sheet especially with regard to Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code
will render the answer sheet liable for rejection. Candidates are further advised to read
carefully the “Special Instructions” contained in Appendix- II of the Notice.

5 PENALITY FOR WRONG ANSWERS:
Candidates should note that there will be penalty (Negative Marking) for wrong answers
marked by a candidate in the Objective Type Question Papers.

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6. Online Question Paper Representation Portal (QPRep)
The Commission provides opportunity to the candidates to make representations to the
Commission on the questions asked in the Papers of the Examination in a time frame of 7 days
(a week) i.e. from the next day of the Examination Date to 6.00 p.m. of the 7th day. Such
representation must be submitted through the “Online Question Paper Representation
Portal (QPRep)” only by accessing the URL
https://upsconline.gov.in/miscellaneous/QPRep/. No representation by email/post/hand or by
any other mode shall be accepted and the Commission shall not involve into any
correspondence with the candidates in this regard. No representation shall be accepted under
any circumstances after this window of 7 days is over.

7. HELPDESK FOR CANDIDATES

The Commission has established a dedicated helpline to assist the candidates during the
application process. Candidates seeking clarification, guidance, or assistance related to the
application process or examination details can contact the helpline no. 011-24041001 or email
ID – [email protected]. The helpline will be operational from 10:00 AM to 5:30 PM on all
working days during the Application Window i.e. from 10.12.2025 to 30.12.2025. Applicants
may utilize this service for any issues relating to the application process, including fee
payment, uploading of documents, etc.

8. MOBILE PHONES BANNED:

(a)The use of any mobile phone (even in switched off mode), pager or any electronic
equipment or programmable device or storage media like pen drive, smart watches etc. or
camera or blue tooth devices or any other equipment or related accessories either in working
or switched off mode capable of being used as a communication device during the
examination is strictly prohibited. Any infringement of these instructions shall entail
disciplinary action including ban from future examinations.

(b) Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned item including
bags, mobile phones or any valuable/costly items to the venue of the examination, as no
arrangement for safe-keeping will be made at the venue of the examination. Commission will
not be responsible for any loss in this regard.

9. Please follow the Instruction in respect of uploading of Photograph as
elaborated in the Instructions to upload documents in the home page of the
online application portal.

10. The candidates should reach the venue of the Examination well in time
at least 30 minutes prior to the commencement of each session of the
Examination. No late entry will be allowed inside the Exam-venue under any
circumstances.
11. Face Authentication for Candidates at the Examination Venue
In order to ensure a secure and smooth examination process, all
candidates will be required to undergo face authentication at the examination
venue mandatorily. Candidates are advised to enter the examination venue
well in time for face authentication/identity verification and frisking.

CANDIDATES ARE REQUIRED TO APPLY ONLINE AT https://upsconline.nic.in ONLY.
NO OTHER MODE IS ALLOWED FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION.
GOVERNMENT STRIVES TO HAVE A WORKFORCE WHICH REFLECTS GENDER
BALANCE AND WOMEN CANDIDATES ARE ENCOURAGED TO APPLY.

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No.F.8/02/2025 -E.I(B)—Combined Defence Services Examination (I), 2026 will be conducted by
the Union Public Service Commission on 12th April, 2026 for admission to the under mentioned
courses :—

Approximate No. of
S.
Name of the Course Vacancies
No.
(Refer Note –iii)
Indian Military Academy, Dehradun –162nd (DE) Course
1. commencing in January 2027 [including 13 vacancies 100
reserved for NCC `C’ Certificate (Army Wing) holders]
Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala - Course commencing in
January 2027 Executive Branch (General Service)/Hydro
2. 26
[including 06 vacancies for NCC ‘C’ Certificate (Naval
Wing) holders and 01 for Hydro]
Air Force Academy, Hyderabad - (Pre-Flying) Training
Course commencing in January 2027 i.e. 221 F(P) Course.
3. 32
[including 03 vacancies reserved for NCC ‘C’ Certificate
(Air Wing) holders through NCC Special Entry]
Officers’ Training Academy, Chennai (Madras)
4. 125th SSC (Men) (NT) (UPSC) Course Commencing in 275
April 2027.
Officers’ Training Academy, Chennai (Madras)
5. 125th SSC Women (NT) (UPSC) Course commencing in, 18
April 2027.

Total 451

NOTE (i) Indian Army publishes vacancies for Men and Women separately for various entries
keeping into account the operational and administrative needs of the Force as envisaged in the existing
and future scenarios. Though the vacancies for Men and Women categories as per SSC(NT) Courses
are being notified through a common Notification and tested through a common written examination
for administrative purpose, SSC(NT) Men and SSC(NT) Women are separate entries and the selection
for both these categories is done separately but in gender pure manner as per vacancies notified.
THE PREPARATION OF WRITTEN RESULTS AND FINAL MERIT LISTS FOR SSC(NT) MEN
AND SSC(NT) WOMEN CATEGORIES WILL ALSO BE DONE SEPARATELY AS PER
VACANCY NOTIFIED.

NOTE (ii) : The date of holding the examination as mentioned above may be changed, if so required,
at the discretion of the Commission.
NOTE (iii) : The number of vacancies given above is tentative and may be changed at any stage of
selection process by Services H. Q. as per organisation requirement at that point of time.
N.B. (I) (a) : Candidates are required to specify clearly in respective column of the Exam Specific
Module the Services for which he/she wishes to be considered in the order of his/her preference. A
male candidate is advised to indicate as many preferences as he wishes to, subject to the condition
given at paras (b) and (c) below, so that having regard to his rank in the order of merit due
consideration can be given to his preferences when making appointment.
(b) (i) : If a male candidate is competing for Short Service Commission (Army) only, he should
indicate OTA as the one and only choice. However, a male candidate competing for Short Service
Commission Course at OTA as well as Permanent Commission course at IMA, Indian Naval
Academy and Air Force Academy should indicate OTA as his last preference; otherwise OTA will be
deemed to be the last choice even if it is given a higher preference by the candidate.

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(b) (ii) : Women candidates are being considered only for Short Service Commission at OTA. They
should indicate OTA as the only choice.

(c) Candidates who desire to join Air Force Academy must indicate AFA as first choice, as they have
to be administered Computer Pilot Selection System (CPSS) and/or and AF Medicals at Central
Establishment/Institute of Aviation Medicines. Choice exercised for AFA as second/third etc. will be
treated as invalid.

(d) Candidates should note that, except as provided in N.B. (II) below, they will be considered for
appointment to those courses only for which they exercise their preference and for no other course(s).
It is mandatory for a candidate to exercise at least one preference to be considered for service
allocation.

(e) No request for addition/alteration in the preferences already indicated by a candidate in his/her
application will be entertained by the Commission. Further, in view of multiple reconfirmations of
information submitted during the application process, the Commission has decided not to extend the
facility of making any correction(s) in any field(s) of the application form after its submission and
closure of the application window of this Examination. Second choice will come for consideration
only when the first choice is not offered to the candidate by Services HQ. When first choice is offered
and a candidate declines the same, his/her candidature will be cancelled for all other choices for
regular Commission.

N.B. (II) All Left over Finally Qualified candidates of IMA/INA/AFA courses who could not be
inducted for the said course due to the lack of vacancies, will be considered for SSC(NT), even if they
have not indicated their choice for this course, subject to the following conditions:-
i) Vacancies are available after issuing the Joining Letters to those candidates who had applied
and qualified for SSC(NT)
ii) Left over finally qualified candidates are willing to join SSC(NT)
iii) Such left over finally qualified and willing candidates will be placed in order of merit after
the last candidate who had opted SSC(NT), subject to number of vacancies available for
SSC(NT). Accordingly, such Left over candidates will be issued Joining Letter in order of merit.

NOTE 1: NCC ‘C’ Certificate (Army Wing (Senior Division)/ Air Wing/Naval Wing) holders may
also compete for the vacancies in the Short Service Commission Course but since there is no
reservation of vacancies for them in this course, they will be treated as general candidates for the
purpose of filling up vacancies in this course. Candidates who have yet to pass NCC ‘C’ Certificate
(Army Wing (Senior Division)/ Air Wing/Naval Wing) examination, but are otherwise eligible to
compete for the reserved vacancies, may also apply but they will be required to submit the proof of
passing the NCC ‘C’ Certificate (Army Wing (Senior Division)/ Air Wing/Naval Wing) examination
to reach the IHQ of MoD (Army) / Dte Gen of Rtg (Rtg A) CDSE Entry for SSC male candidates and
SSC women entry for female candidates West Block III, R. K. Puram, New Delhi-110066 in case of
IMA/SSC first choice candidates and IHQ of MOD (Navy) DMPR, (OI&R Section), Room No. 204,
‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhawan, New Delhi-110 011 in case of Navy first choice candidates and Dte of
Personnel (Offrs), Kasturba Gandhi Marg, New Delhi-110001. Phone No. 23010231 Extn.
7645/7646/7610 in case of Air Force first choice candidates by 13th November, 2026. To be eligible to
compete for reserved vacancies the candidates should have served for not less than 3 academic years
in the Senior Division Army Wing Air Wing/Naval Wing of National Cadet Corps and should not
have been discharged from the NCC for more than 24 months for IMA/Indian Naval Academy/Air
Force Academy courses on the last date of receipt of Application in the Commission’s Office.
NOTE 2 : In the event of sufficient number of qualified NCC ‘C’ Certificate (Army Wing (Senior
Division)/ Air Wing/Naval Wing) holders not becoming available on the results of the examination to
fill all the vacancies reserved for them in the Indian Military Academy Course/Air Force Academy
Course/Indian Naval Academy Course, the unfilled reserved vacancies shall be treated as unreserved
and filled by general candidates. Admission to the above courses will be made on the results of the
written examination to be conducted by the Commission followed by intelligence and personality test
by the Services Selection Board of candidates who qualify in the written examination. The details
regarding the (a) scheme, standard, syllabus of the examination, (b) Special instructions to candidates
to objective type tests (c) Guidelines with regard to physical standards for admission to the Academy

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and (d) Brief particulars of services etc. for candidates joining the Indian Military Academy, Indian
Naval Academy, Air Force Academy and Officers’ Training Academy are given in Appendices I, II,
III and IV respectively.

2. CENTRES OF EXAMINATION:
The Examination will be held at the following Centres:

1 AGARTALA 28 GHAZIABAD 55 NAVI MUMBAI

2 AGRA 29 GORAKHPUR 56 PANAJI (GOA)
3 AJMER 30 GURUGRAM 57 PATNA
SRI VIJAYA PURAM
4 AHMEDABAD 31 GWALIOR 58
(PORT BLAIR)
5 AIZAWL 32 HYDERABAD 59 PRAYAGRAJ (ALLAHABAD)
6 ALIGARH 33 IMPHAL 60 PUDUCHERRY
7 ALMORA (UTTARAKHAND) 34 INDORE 61 PUNE
ANANTPUR (ANDHRA
8 35 ITANAGAR 62 RAIPUR
PRADESH)
CHHATRAPATI
SAMBHAJINAGAR
9 36 JABALPUR 63 RAJKOT
[AURANGABAD
(MAHARASHTRA)]
10 BENGALURU 37 JAIPUR 64 RANCHI
11 BAREILLY 38 JAMMU 65 SAMBALPUR
12 BHOPAL 39 JODHPUR 66 SHILLONG
13 BHUBANESWAR 40 JORHAT 67 SHIMLA
14 BILASPUR (CHHATISGARH) 41 KARGIL 68 SILIGUDI
15 CHANDIGARH 42 KOCHI 69 SRINAGAR
16 CHENNAI 43 KOHIMA 70 SRINAGAR (UTTARAKHAND)
17 COIMBATORE 44 KOLKATA 71 SURAT
KOZHIKODE
18 CUTTACK 45 72 THANE
(CALICUT)
19 DEHRADUN 46 LEH 73 THIRUVANANTHAPURAM
20 DELHI 47 LUCKNOW 74 TIRUCHIRAPALLI
21 DHARAMSHALA 48 LUDHIANA 75 TIRUPATI
22 DHARWAD 49 MADURAI 76 UDAIPUR
23 DISPUR 50 MANDI 77 VARANASI
24 FARIDABAD 51 MUMBAI 78 VELLORE
25 GANGTOK 52 MYSORE 79 VIJAYAVADA
26 GAYA 53 NAGPUR 80 VISHAKHAPATNAM

HANUMAKONDA
27. GAUTAM BUDDH NAGAR 54 NASHIK 81
(WARANGAL URBAN)

Applicants should note that there will be a ceiling on the number of candidates allotted to each of the
centres except Chennai, Dispur, Kolkata and Nagpur. Allotment of Centres will be on the first-apply-
first-allot basis and once the capacity of a particular centre is attained, the same will be frozen.
Applicants, who cannot get a centre of their choice due to ceiling, will be required to choose a Centre
from the remaining ones. Applicants are, thus, advised that they may apply early so that they could
get a Centre of their choice.
NB : Notwithstanding the aforesaid provision, Commission reserve the right to change the
Centres at their discretion if the situation demands.
Candidates admitted to the examination will be informed of the time table and place or places of
examination. Candidates should note that no request for change of centre will be granted.

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NOTE : While filling in his/her Examination Specific module, the candidates should carefully decide
about his/her choice for the centre for the examination.

If any candidate appears at a Centre/Paper other than the one indicated by the Commission in his/her
e-Admit Card, the papers of such a candidate will not be valued and his/her candidature will be liable
to cancellation.

3. CONDITIONS OF ELIGIBILITY:

(a) Nationality: A candidate must either be:
(i) a Citizen of India, or
(ii) a subject of Nepal, or
(iii) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka and East African
Countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire and
Ethiopia or Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India.
Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii) and (iii) above shall be a person in whose
favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.
Certificate of eligibility will, however, not be necessary in the case of candidates who are Gorkha
subjects of Nepal.
A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary, may be admitted to the
examination provisionally subject to the necessary certificate being given to him/her by the Govt.
before declaration of result by UPSC.

(b) Age Limits, Sex and Marital Status :
(i) For IMA— Unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 2nd January, 2003 and not later than
1st January, 2008 only are eligible.
(ii) For Indian Naval Academy— Unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 2nd January,
2003 and not later than 1st January, 2008 only are eligible.
(iii) For Air Force Academy—
Age: 20 to 24 years as on 1st January, 2027 i.e. born not earlier than 2nd January 2003 and not later
than 1st January 2007. Upper age limit for candidates holding valid and current Commercial Pilot
Licence issued by DGCA (India) is relaxable upto 26 yrs. i.e. born not earlier than 2nd January 2001
and not later than 1st January 2007 only are eligible.
Note: Candidate below 25 years of age must be unmarried. Marriage is not permitted during
training. Married candidates aged 25 years or above are eligible to apply but during training period
they will neither be provided married accommodation nor can they live with family out of the
premises.
(iv) For Officers' Training Academy—(SSC Course for men) Unmarried male candidate born not
earlier than 2nd January 2002 and not later than 1st January 2008 only are eligible.
(v) For Officers' Training Academy—(SSC Women Non-Technical Course) Unmarried women,
issueless widows who have not remarried and issueless divorcees (in possession of divorce
documents) who have not remarried are eligible. They should have been born not earlier than 2nd
January 2002 and not later than 1st January 2008.
NOTE : Male divorcee/widower candidates cannot be treated as unmarried male for the purpose of
their admission in IMA/INA/AFA/OTA, Chennai courses and accordingly they are not eligible for
these courses.
The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in the Matriculation/Secondary
School Examination Certificate or in a certificate recognised by an Indian University as equivalent
to Matriculation or in an extract from a Register of Matriculates maintained by a University, which
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extract must be certified by the proper authority of the University or in the Matriculation/Secondary
School Examination or an equivalent examination certificate. No other document relating to age
like horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts from Municipal Corporation, service records and the like
will be accepted.
The expression Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate in this part of the
instruction includes the alternative certificates mentioned above.
Sometimes the Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate does not show the date of
birth, or only shows the age by completed years or completed years and months. In such cases a
candidate must send in addition to the self attested/certified copy of Matriculation/Secondary
School Examination Certificate a self attested/certified copy of a certificate from the
Headmaster/Principal of the Institution from where he/she passed the Matriculation/Secondary
School Examination showing the date of his/her birth or exact age as recorded in the Admission
Register of the Institution.

NOTE 1 : Candidates should note that only the Date of Birth as recorded in the
Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate or an equivalent certificate on the date of
submission of applications will be accepted by the Commission and no subsequent request for its
change will be considered or granted.

NOTE 2 : Candidates should also note that once a Date of Birth has been claimed by them in the
Online Application Form and entered in the records of the Commission for the purpose of
admission to an Examination, no change will be allowed subsequently or at a subsequent
examination on any ground whatsoever.

NOTE 3 : The candidates should exercise due care while entering their date of birth in the
respective column of the Universal Registration Number (URN) profile for the Examination. If on
verification at any subsequent stage any variation is found in their date of birth from the one
entered in their Matriculation or equivalent examination certificate, disciplinary action will be
taken against them by the Commission under the Rules.

(c) Educational Qualifications:

(i) For I.M.A. and Officers’ Training Academy, Chennai — Degree of a recognised University or
equivalent.

(ii) For Indian Naval Academy— Degree in Engineering from a recognised University/Institution
(iii) For Air Force Academy—Degree of a recognised University (with Physics and Mathematics at
10+2 level) or Bachelor of Engineering.
Graduates with first choice as Army/Navy/Air Force are to submit proof of Graduation/provisional
certificates on the date of commencement of the SSB Interview at the SSB.

Candidates who are studying in the final year/semester Degree course and have yet to pass the final
year degree examination can also apply and they will be required to submit proof of passing the
degree examination at the time of commencement of course to reach the IHQ of MoD (Army), Rtg
‘A’, CDSE Entry, West Block III, R. K. Puram, New Delhi-110066 in case of IMA/SSC first choice
candidates and Naval HQ “DMPR” (OI & R Section), Room No. 204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhawan, New
Delhi-110011 in case of Navy first choice candidates Dte of Personnel (Offrs), Kasturba Gandhi
Marg, New Delhi-110001. Phone No. 23010231 Extn. 7645/7646/7610 in case of Air Force first
choice candidates by the following dates failing which their candidature will stand cancelled:

(i) For admission to IMA on or before 1st January 2027 Indian Naval Academy on or before 1st
January 2027 and Air Force Academy on or before 13th November 2026.

(ii) For admission to Officers' Training Academy, Chennai on or before 1st April 2027.

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Candidates possessing professional and technical qualifications which are recognised by
government as equivalent to professional and technical degrees would also be eligible for admission
to the examination.

In exceptional cases the Commission may treat a candidate, who does not possess any of the
qualifications prescribed in this rule as educationally qualified provided that he/she possesses
qualifications, the standard of which in the opinion of the Commission, justifies his/her admission to
the examination.

NOTE I : Candidates, who have yet to pass their degree examination will be eligible only if they
are studying in the final year of degree examination. Those candidates who have yet to qualify in the
final year Degree Examination and are allowed to appear in the UPSC Examination should note that
this is only a special concession given to them. They are required to submit proof of passing the
Degree Examination by the prescribed date and no request for extending this date will be entertained
on the grounds of late conduct of basic qualifying University Examination, delay in declaration of
results or any other ground whatsoever. Candidates who are studying in the final year/semester
degree course are required to submit at the time of SSB interview a bonafide certificate issued by
University/College stating that they will be able to submit their proof of passing the graduation degree
examination by the specified date, failing which their candidature will be cancelled.

NOTE II : Candidates who are debarred by the Ministry of Defence from holding any type of
commission in the Defence Services shall not be eligible for admission to the examination and if
admitted, their candidature will be cancelled.

NOTE III : In the event of Air Force candidates being suspended from Flying training for failure
to learn flying, they would be absorbed in the Navigation/Ground Duty (Non Tech) Branches of the
IAF. This will be subject to availability of vacancies and fulfilling the laid down qualitative
requirements.

(d) Physical Standards:

Candidates must be physically fit according to physical standards for admission to Combined
Defence Services Examination (I), 2026 as per guidelines given in Appendix-III.

4. FEE :

Candidates (excepting Female/SC/ST candidates who are exempted from payment of fee) are
required to pay a fee of Rs. 200/- (Rupees Two Hundred Only) by using Visa/Master/Rupay
Credit/Debit Card/UPI Payment or by using internet banking facility of any Bank.

NOTE-1 : Candidates should note that payment of examination fee can be made only through the
modes prescribed above. Payment of fee through any other mode is neither valid nor acceptable.
Applications submitted without the prescribed fee/mode (unless remission of fee is claimed) shall be
summarily rejected.

NOTE 2 : Fee once paid shall not be refunded under any circumstances nor can the fee be held in
reserve for any other examination or selection.

NOTE 3 : For the applicants in whose case payments details have not been received from the bank,
they will be treated as fictitious payment cases and their applications will be rejected in the first
instance. A list of all such applicants shall be made available on the Commission website within two
weeks after the last day of submission of online application. The applicants shall be required to submit
the proof of their fee payment within 10 days from the date of such communication either by hand or
by speed post to the Commission. On receipt of documentary proof, genuine fee payment cases will
be considered and their applications will be revived, if they are otherwise eligible.

ALL FEMALE CANDIDATES AND CANDIDATES BELONGING TO SCHEDULED
CASTES/SCHEDULED TRIBES ARE NOT REQUIRED TO PAY ANY FEE. NO FEE
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EXEMPTION IS, HOWEVER, AVAILABLE TO OBC CANDIDATES AND THEY ARE
REQUIRED TO PAY THE FULL PRESCREIBED FEE.

5. HOW TO APPLY:

(a) Candidates are required to apply online by using the website https://upsconline.nic.in.
Candidates are advised to go through the General instruction, Profile/Module-wise instructions and
instructions for upload of documents before proceeding to fill up the form. These instructions are
available on the menu bar of the Home page. candidate who is willing to apply for Combined
Defence Services Examination shall be required to apply on-line and submit the requisite information
and supporting documents towards various claims, such as date of birth, educational qualification, etc.
as may be sought by the Commission alongwith the Universal Registration Number (URN), Common
Application Form (CAF) and the fourth module i.e. Examination specific module (including fees and
centre etc). Failure to provide the required information/documents alongwith the Common
Application Form (CAF) will entail cancellation of candidature for the examination.

NOTE 1:- The Commission provides a one-time facility for candidates to update or modify their
Universal Registration Number (URN) profile. Please note that any changes made to the URN Profile
will not be reflected in applications already submitted. The updated information will apply only to
applications submitted after the candidate has made the necessary changes and successfully re-locked
the URN Profile.

NOTE 2- Live Photo Capture for filling up of Common Application Form (CAF):
Applicants are required to upload their photograph and also capture their live photograph while filling
up the Common Application Form (CAF). Applicants must ensure that the uploaded photograph and
the live photograph captured is clear as per instructions given on “Instructions and FAQs > Instruction
for filling the form > Photos and Signature” available on the Commission’s website
https://upsconline.nic.in.

No request for addition/alteration in the preferences already indicated by a candidate in
his/her application will be entertained by the Commission. Further no correction
/alteration/modification in any field(s) of the Universal Registration Number (URN), Common
Application Form (CAF) and Examination specific module is allowed after its submission and closure
of the application window of this Examination.
No queries, representations etc. shall be entertained by the Commission in respect of
correcting details that are required to be filled up by the candidates by exercising due diligence and
caution as the timely completion of examination process is of paramount importance.
All candidates whether already in Government Service including candidates serving in the
Armed Forces, Government owned industrial undertakings or other similar organizations or in private
employment should submit their applications online direct to the Commission.

N.B.I: Persons already in Government Service, whether in permanent or temporary capacity or as
work charged employees other than casual or daily rated employees or those serving under the Public
Enterprises are, however, required to inform their Head of Office/Department in writing that they
have applied for the Examination.

N.B.II: Candidates serving in the Armed Forces are required to inform their Commanding Officer in
writing that they have applied for this examination. They are also required to submit NOC in this
regard at the time of SSB interview.

Candidates should note that in case a communication is received from their employer by the
Commission withholding permission to the candidates applying for/appearing at the examination,
their applications will be liable to be rejected/candidatures will be liable to be cancelled.

10

NOTE: APPLICATIONS WITHOUT THE PRESCRIBED FEE (UNLESS REMISSION OF FEE IS
CLAIMED AS IN PARA 4 ABOVE) OR INCOMPLETE APPLICATIONS SHALL BE
SUMMARILY REJECTED.

No representation or correspondence regarding such rejection shall be entertained under any
circumstances. Candidates are not required to submit alongwith their applications any certificate in
support of their claims regarding age, educational qualifications, Scheduled Caste/Scheduled
Tribe/OBC and fee remission etc.

The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfil all the eligibility
conditions for admission to the examination.

Their admission at all the stages of examination for which they are admitted by the Commission
viz. written examination and interview test will be purely provisional, subject to their satisfying the
prescribed eligibility conditions. If on verification at any time before or after the written examination
or Interview Test, it is found that they do not fulfil any of the eligibility conditions, their candidature
for the examination will be cancelled by the Commission.

Candidates are advised to keep ready the following documents in original alongwith their self
attested copies soon after the declaration of the result of the written part of the examination which is
likely to be declared in the month of May, 2026 for submission to the Army HQ/Naval HQ/Air HQ as
the case may be:

(1) Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate or its equivalent showing date of birth
(2) Degree/Provisional Degree Certificate/Marks sheet showing clearly having passed degree
examination and eligible for award of degree.

In the first instance all qualified candidates eligible for SSB interview will carry their original
Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate as also their Degree/Provisional Degree
Certificate/Marks sheet with them while going to the Services Selection Centres for SSB interview.
Candidates who have not yet qualified the final year Degree examination must carry with them a
certificate in original from the Principal of the College/Institution stating that the candidate has
appeared/is appearing at the final year Degree examination. Candidates who do not carry the above
certificates with them while going to the Services Selection Centres shall not be allowed to appear for
the SSB interview. No relaxation for production of the above certificates in original at the selection
centre is allowed, and candidates who do not carry with them any of these certificates in original will
not be permitted to appear for their SSB test and interview and they will be sent back home at their
own expense.

(1) If any of their claims is found to be incorrect/false/fraud/fabricated they may render themselves
liable to disciplinary action by the Commission in terms of the following provisions:

A candidate who is or has been declared by the Commission to be guilty of :—
(a) Obtaining support for candidature by the following means, namely :—
(i) offering illegal gratification to; or
(ii) applying pressure on; or
(iii) blackmailing, or threatening to blackmail any person connected with the conduct of
the examination; or
(b) impersonation; or
(c) procuring impersonation by any person; or
(d) submitting fabricated/incorrect documents or documents which have been tampered with;
or
(e) uploading irrelevant or incorrect photos/signature in the application form in place of actual
photo/signature.
(f) making statements which are incorrect or false or suppressing material information; or
(g) resorting to the following means in connection with the candidature for the examination,
namely :—
(i) obtaining copy of question paper through improper means;
11

(ii) finding out the particulars of the persons connected with secret work relating to the
examination;
(iii) influencing the examiners; or
(h) being in possession of or using unfair means during the examination; or
(i) writing obscene matter or drawing obscene sketches or irrelevant matter in the scripts; or
(j) misbehaving in the examination hall including tearing of the scripts, provoking fellow
examinees to boycott examination, creating a disorderly scene and the like; or
(k) harassing, threatening or doing bodily harm to the staff employed by the Commission for
the conduct of the examination; or
(l) being in possession of or using any mobile phone, (even in switched-off mode), pager or
any electronic equipment or programmable device or storage media like pen drive, smart
watches etc. or camera or Bluetooth devices or any other equipment or related accessories
(either in working or switched off mode) capable of being used as a communication device
during the examination; or
(m) violating any of the instructions issued to candidates along with their e-Admit card
permitting them to take the examination; or
(n) attempting to commit or, as the case may be, abetting the commission of all or any of the
acts specified in the foregoing clauses;
in addition to being liable to criminal prosecution, shall be disqualified by the
Commission from the Examination held under these Rules; and/or shall be liable to be
debarred either permanently or for a specified period :-
(i) by the Commission, from any examination or selection held by them;
(ii) by the Central Government from any employment under them;
And shall be liable to face disciplinary action under the appropriate rules if already in
service under Government.
Provided that no penalty under this rule shall be imposed except after:—
(i) giving the candidate an opportunity of making such representation in writing as the
candidate may wish to make in that behalf; and
(ii) taking the representation, if any, submitted by the candidate within the period
allowed for this purpose, into consideration.
(2) Any person who is found by the Commission to be guilty of colluding with a candidate(s) in
committing or abetting the commission of any of the misdeeds listed at Clauses (a) to (m) above will
be liable to action in terms of the Clause (n).

Note: If a candidate is found to be in possession or using unfair means, may not be allowed to
continue in the said exam as soon as the incident comes to notice of the Examination functionaries
and the action against the candidates may be taken in consultation with the Commission. Further, the
candidate may also not be allowed in any of the subsequent papers of the said examination.

6. LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATIONS:

The Online Applications can be filled upto 30th December, 2025 till 6:00 PM.

7. CORRESPONDENCE WITH THE COMMISSION/ARMY/NAVAL/AIR HEAD
QUARTERS.

The Commission will not enter into any correspondence with the candidates about their
candidature except in the following cases:

(i)The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card on the last working day of the
preceding week of the date of the examination. The e-Admit Card will be made available in
the UPSC website [https://upsconline.nic.in] for downloading by candidates. No Admit Card
will be sent by post. For downloading the e-Admit Card the candidate must have his/her
details like Application ID & Date of Birth etc.

(ii) If a candidate does not receive his/her e-Admit Card or any other communication regarding
his/her candidature for the examination Seven Days before the commencement of the

12

examination, he/she should at once contact the Commission. Information in this regard can
also be obtained from the Facilitation Counter located in the Commission's Office either in
person or Helpdesk no. 011-24041001. In case no communication is received in the
Commission's Office from the candidate regarding non-receipt of his/her e-Admit Card at
least Seven Days before the examination, he/she himself/herself will be solely responsible for
non-receipt of his/her e-Admit Card.

No candidate will ordinarily be allowed to take the examination unless he/she holds an e-
Admit Card for the examination. On downloading of Admit Card, check it carefully and bring
discrepancies/errors, if any, to the notice of UPSC immediately.

The courses to which the candidates are admitted will be according to their eligibility as per
age and educational qualifications for different courses and the preferences given by the
candidates.

The candidates should note that their admission to the examination will be purely provisional
based on the information given by them in the Application Form. This will be subject to
verification of all the eligibility conditions.

(iii) The decision of the Commission as to the acceptance of the application of a candidate and
his/her eligibility or otherwise for admission to the Examination shall be final.
(iv) Candidates should note that the name in the e-Admit Card in some cases, may be abbreviated
due to technical reasons.
(v) Candidates must ensure that their e-mail IDs & mobile number given in their applications
are valid and active.
IMPORTANT: All communications to the Commission/Army Headquarters should invariably be
made on email- [email protected] and shall contain the following particulars.

1. Name and year of the examination.
2. URN (Universal Registration Number)
3. Application ID
4. Roll Number (if received)
5. Name of candidate (in full and in block letters)
6. Complete Postal Address as given in the application with telephone number, if any.
7. VALID AND ACTIVE registered EMAIL-ID / registered Mobile Number

N.B. (i) Communications not containing the above particulars may not be attended to.

N.B. (ii) If a letter/communication is received from a candidate after an examination has been held
and it does not give his/her full name and Roll number, it will be ignored and no action will be
taken thereon.
N.B. (iii) Candidates recommended by the Commission for interview by the Services Selection
Board who have changed their addresses subsequent to the submission of their application for the
examination should immediately after announcement of the result of the written part of the
examination notify the changed address, along with an unstamped self addressed envelope, also to
IHQ of MoD (Army)/Dte Gen Of Rtg (Rtg A) CDSE Entry Section for males and SSC Women
Entry Section for women candidates, West Block-III, Ground Floor, Wing 1, Rama Krishna Puram,
New Delhi-110066 in case of IMA/SSC first choice candidates and IHQ of MOD(Navy) DMPR
(OI&R Section), Room No. 204, 'C' Wing, Sena Bhawan, New Delhi-110011 in case of Navy first
choice candidates, and Dte of Personnel (Offrs), Kasturba Gandhi Marg, New Delhi-110001. Phone
No. 23010231 Extn. 7645/7646/7610 in case of Air Force first choice candidates. Failure to comply
with this instruction will deprive the candidate of any claim to consideration in the event of his/her
not receiving the summon letter for interview by the Services Selection Board. For all queries
regarding allotment of centres, date of SSB interview, merit list, Joining Instructions, and any other
relevant information regarding selection process, please visit website www.joinindianarmy.nic.in
or contact in case of candidates having IMA or OTA as their first choice IHQ of MOD (NAVY)
13

DMPR (OI&R Section), Room No. 204, 'C' Wing, Sena Bhawan, New Delhi-110011 in the case of
candidates having Navy as first choice and Dte of Personnel (Offrs), Kasturba Gandhi Marg, New
Delhi-110001. Phone No. 23010231 Extn. 7645/7646/7610 in the case of candidates having Air
Force as first choice.
Candidates are requested to report for SSB interview on the date intimated to them in the call up
letter for interview. Requests for postponing interview will only be considered in very genuine
circumstances and that too if it is administratively convenient for which Army Headquarters/Naval
HQ/Air Headquarter will be the sole deciding authority. Such requests should be sent to Selection
Centre/SSB from where the call for SSB interview has been received. Navy candidates can
download their call letters from the naval website www.joinindiannavy.gov.in or send email at
[email protected] three weeks after publication of results.
N.B. In case a candidate does not get the interview call for SSB interview for IMA by 2nd week of
July 2026 and by 2nd week of October 2026 for OTA, he/she should write to IHQ of
MoD(Army)/Rtg. CDSE Entry/SSC Women Entry for Officers Training Academy, West Block-III,
Ramakrishna Puram, New Delhi-110066 regarding non-receipt of the call-up letter. For similar
query by the Navy/Air Force candidates, having first choice as given ibid, should write to Naval
Hqrs. or Air Hqrs. as mentioned in N.B. III (in case of non-receipt of call by by 4th week of August
2026).

8. ANNOUNCEMENT OF THE RESULTS OF THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION,
INTERVIEW OF QUALIFIED CANDIDATES, ANNOUNCEMENT OF FINAL RESULTS
AND ADMISSION TO THE TRAINING COURSES OF THE FINALLY QUALIFIED
CANDIDATES.
The Union Public Service Commission shall prepare a list of candidates who obtain the
minimum qualifying marks in the written examination as fixed by the Commission in their
discretion. Candidates who are declared successful in the written exam will be detailed for
intelligence and personality test at the Service Selection Board based on their preference by the
respective service HQ. CANDIDATES WHO QUALIFY IN THE WRITTEN EXAM AND
GIVEN THEIR FIRST CHOICE AS ARMY (IMA/OTA) ARE REQUIRED TO REGISTER
THEMSELVES ON THE RECRUITING DIRECTORATE WEBSITE
WWW.JOININDIANARMY.NIC.IN IN ORDER TO ENABLE THEM TO RECEIVE CALL UP
INFORMATION FOR SSB INTERVIEW. THOSE CANDIDATES WhO HAVE ALREADY
REGISTERED ON THE RECRUITING DIRECTORATE WEBSITE ARE ADVISED NOT TO
REGISTER AGAIN. The email ID registered with DG Recruiting website i.e.
www.joinindianarmy,nic.in and that given to UPSC must be same and unique to the applicant.
Results of the test conducted by Service Selection Board will hold good for all the courses [i.e.
Indian Military Academy (DE) Course, Dehradun, Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala Course, Air
Force Academy (Pre-Flying) Course, Hyderabad and SSC (NT) Course at OTA, Chennai] for
which the candidate has qualified in the written exam, irrespective of the service HQ conducting it.
Two-stage selection procedure based on Psychological Aptitude Test and intelligence Test has been
introduced at Service Selection Boards. All the candidates will be put to stage one test on first day
of reporting at Selection Centres. Only those candidates who qualify at stage one will be admitted
to the second stage/remaining tests and all those who fail to pass stage one, will be returned. Only
those candidate who qualify at stage two will be required to submit photocopy each of:- (i)
Matriculation pass certificate or equivalent in support of date of birth, (ii) Bachelors
Degree/Provisional Degree alongwith mark sheets of all the years/semesters in support of
educational qualification.

Candidates will appear before the Services Selection Board and undergo the test there at their own
risk and will not be entitled to claim any compensation or other relief from Government in respect
of any injury which they may sustain in the course of or as a result of any of the tests given to them
at the Services Selection Board whether due to the negligence of any person or otherwise.
Candidates will be required to sign a certificate to this effect on the form appended to the
application.

14

To be acceptable, candidates should secure the minimum qualifying marks separately in (i)
written examination and (ii) SSB test as fixed by the Commission and Service Selection Board
respectively in their discretion. The candidates will be placed in the order of merit on the basis of
the total marks secured by them in the written examination and in the SSB tests. The form and
manner of communication of the result of the examination to individual candidates shall be decided
by the Commission in their discretion and the Commission will not enter into correspondence with
them regarding the result.

Success at the examination confers no right of admission to the Indian Military Academy, Indian
Naval Academy, Air Force Academy or the Officers' Training Academy as the case may be. The
final selection will be made in order of merit subject to medical fitness and suitability in all other
respects and number of vacancies available.

NOTE-1: Every candidate for the Air Force and Naval Aviation is given Pilot Aptitude Test only
once. The Grade secured by him at the first test (CPSS and/or PABT) will therefore hold good for
every subsequent interview at the Air Force Selection Board. Those who have failed Indian Navy
Selection Board/Computer Pilot Selection System (CPSS) and/or Pilot Aptitude Battery Test
earlier and those who habitually wear spectacles are not eligible for Air Force.

TEST/INTERVIEW AT AIR FORCE SELECTION BOARDS FOR THOSE CANDIDATES
WHO APPLY FOR AIR FORCE THROUGH MORE THAN ONE SOURCE:- There are three
modes of entry in F(P) course CDSE/NCC/AFCAT. Candidates who fail in Computer Pilot
Selection System (CPSS) will be considered for other preferred services only if it is found that they
have applied through CDS Exam. Candidates who qualify in the written examination for IMA(D.E)
Course and/or Navy (S.E) Course and / or Air Force Academy course irrespective of whether they
have also qualified for SSC Course or not will be detailed for SSB test in August-September 2026
and candidates who qualify for SSC Course only will be detailed for SSB tests in October-
December 2026.

8.1 Rounding off marks and Tie Breaking Principle

The provisions relating to the rounding off of marks, wherever applicable, and the principles for
resolving cases of tie in scores shall be as prescribed below:-

(A) Rounding off marks:

Marks obtained by the candidates shall be rounded off up to two decimal digits, at all stage(s)
of the examination, by applying the standard rounding off principle, wherever applicable.
Accordingly, while applying the tie-breaking principles, the rounded-off marks upto two decimal
digits shall be considered for resolving all tie cases.

(B) Tie Breaking Principle

(i) For IMA/INA/AFA : If the marks in aggregate (Final Marks) are equal, the candidate
securing more marks in written total (“Paper-I : English, Paper-II : General Knowledge and
Paper – III : Elementary Mathematics” put together ) will be ranked higher;

For OTA : If the marks in aggregate (Final Marks) are equal, the candidate securing more
marks in written total (“Paper-I : English and Paper-II : General Knowledge” put together)
will be ranked higher;

(ii) If the marks at (i) above are equal, the candidate securing more marks in “Paper-II : General
Knowledge” will be ranked higher; and

(iii) If the marks at (i) and (ii) above are also equal, the candidate senior in age will be ranked
higher.”

15

(iv) In cases where a tie persists even after applying the above tie-breaking principles, it will be
resolved at the discretion of the Commission.

9. DISQUALIFICATION FOR ADMISSION TO THE TRAINING COURSE:

Candidates who were admitted to an earlier course at the National Defence Academy, Indian
Military Academy, Air Force Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Officers’ Training Academy,
Chennai but were removed there from on disciplinary ground will not be considered for admission
to the Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Air Force Academy or for grant of Short
Service Commission in the Army.

Candidates who were previously withdrawn from the Indian Military Academy for lack of Officer-
like qualities will not be admitted to the Indian Military Academy.

Candidates who were previously selected as Special Entry Naval Cadets but were withdrawn from
the National Defence Academy or from Naval Training Establishments for lack of Officer-like
qualities will not be eligible for admission to the Indian Navy.
Candidates who were withdrawn from Indian Military Academy, Officers’ Training Academy,
NCC and Graduate course for lack of Officer-like qualities will not be considered for grant of Short
Service Commission in the Army.
Candidates who were previously withdrawn from the NCC and Graduates’ course for lack of
Officer-like qualities will not be admitted to the Indian Military Academy.

10. PUBLIC DISCLOSURE OF MARKS SCHEME

As per the decision taken by the Government for increasing the access of unemployed to job
opportunities, the Commission will publically disclose the scores of the candidates (obtained in the
Written Examination and SSB Interview/Personality Test) through the public portals. The
disclosure will be made in respect of only those candidates who will appear in the SSB Interview
for the Combined Defence Services Examination and are not qualified. The information shared
through this disclosure scheme about the unsuccessful candidates may be used by other public and
private recruitment agencies to appoint suitable candidates from the information made available in
the public portal.
Candidates, who will appear for SSB, will be required to give their options when asked by the
Commission. A candidate may opt out of the scheme also and in that case his/her details will not
be published by the Commission.
Besides sharing of the information of the unqualified candidates of this CDS Examination, the
Commission will not assume any responsibility or liability for the method and manner in which
information related to candidates is utilized by other private or public organizations.

11. RESTRICTIONS ON MARRIAGE DURING TRAINING IN THE INDIAN MILITARY
ACADEMY OR IN THE INDIAN NAVAL ACADEMY OR IN THE AIR FORCE ACADEMY
OR OFFICERS TRAINING ACADEMY, CHENNAI:
Candidates for the Indian Military Academy Course or Naval Academy Course or Indian Air Force
Academy Course or Officers' Training Academy, Chennai must undertake not to marry until they
complete their full training. A candidate who marries subsequent to the date of his/her application
though successful at this or any subsequent examination will not be selected for training. A candidate
who marries during training shall be discharged and will be liable to refund all expenditure incurred
on him/her by the Government.
Candidates must undertake not to marry until they complete their full training. A candidate who
marries subsequent to the date of his application, through successful at the written examination or
service Selection Board interview of medical examination will not be eligible for training. A

16

candidate who marries during this period, shall be discharged and will be liable to refund all
expenditure incurred on him by the Government.

12. OTHER RESTRICTIONS DURING TRAINING IN THE INDIAN MILITARY
ACADEMY OR IN THE INDIAN NAVAL ACADEMY OR IN THE AIR FORCE ACADEMY:
After admission to the Indian Military Academy or the Indian Naval Academy or the Air Force
Academy, candidates will not be considered for any other commission. They will also not be
permitted to appear for any interview or examination after they have been finally selected for training
in the Indian Military Academy or the Indian Naval Academy or the Air Force Academy.

(J. K. Mandal)
Under Secretary (Exam)
Union Public Service Commission

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APPENDIX-I

The scheme, standard and syllabus of the examination

A. SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

1. The Competitive examination comprises:

(a) Written examination as shown in para 2 below.

(b) Interview for intelligence and personality test (vide Part ‘B’ of this Appendix) of such
candidates as may be called for interview at one of the Services Selection Centres.
2. The subjects of the written examination, the time allowed and the maximum marks allotted to each
subject will be as follows:

(a) For Admission to Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy and Air Force Academy:—
Subject Code Duration Maximum
Marks
1. English 11 2 Hours 100
2. General Knowledge 12 2 Hours 100
3. Elementary Mathematics 13 2 Hours 100

(b) For Admission to Officers’ Training Academy :—
Subject Code Duration Maximum
Marks
1. English 11 2 Hours 100
2. General Knowledge 12 2 Hours 100

The maximum marks allotted to the written examination and to the interviews will be equal for
each course i.e. the maximum marks allotted to the written examination and to the interviews will be
300, 300, 300 and 200 each for admission to the Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy,
Air Force Academy and Officers’ Training Academy respectively.

3. The papers in all the subjects will consist of objective type questions only. The question papers
(Test Booklets) of General Knowledge and Elementary Mathematics will be set bilingually in Hindi
as well as English.

4. In the question papers, wherever necessary, questions involving the metric system of Weights and
Measures only will be set.

5. Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no circumstances will they be allowed the
help of a scribe to write answers for them.

6. The Commission have discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the subjects of the
examination.

7. The candidates are not permitted to use calculator for answering objective type papers (Test
Booklets). They should not therefore, bring the same inside the Examination Hall.

B. STANDARD AND SYLLABUS OF THE EXAMINATION
STANDARD
The standard of the papers in Elementary Mathematics will be of Matriculation level. The standard
of papers in other subjects will approximately be such as may be expected of a graduate of an Indian
University.

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SYLLABUS
ENGLISH (Code No. 11)
The question paper will be designed to test the candidates’ understanding of English and
workmanlike use of words.

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (Code No. 12)
General Knowledge including knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday
observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person who
has not made a special study of any scientific subject. The paper will also include questions on
History of India and Geography of a nature which candidate should be able to answer without special
study.

ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS (Code No. 13)

ARITHMETIC
Number System—Natural numbers, Integers, Rational and Real numbers. Fundamental operations,
addition, substraction, multiplication, division, Square roots, Decimal fractions. Unitary method, time
and distance, time and work, percentages, applications to simple and compound interest, profit and
loss, ratio and proportion, variation.

Elementary Number Theory—Division algorithm. Prime and composite numbers. Tests of
divisibility by 2, 3, 4, 5, 9 and 11. Multiples and factors. Factorisation Theorem. H.C.F. and L.C.M.
Euclidean algorithm. Logarithms to base 10, laws of logarithms, use of logarithmic tables.

ALGEBRA
Basic Operations, simple factors, Remainder Theorem, H.C.F., L.C.M., Theory of polynomials,
solutions of quadratic equations, relation between its roots and coefficients (Only real roots to be
considered). Simultaneous linear equations in two unknowns—analytical and graphical solutions.
Simultaneous linear inequations in two variables and their solutions. Practical problems leading to
two simultaneous linear equations or inequations in two variables or quadratic equations in one
variable & their solutions. Set language and set notation, Rational expressions and conditional
identities, Laws of indices.

TRIGONOMETRY
Sine ×, cosine ×, Tangent × when 0° < × < 90° Values of sin ×, cos × and tan ×, for × = 0°, 30°,
45°, 60° and 90°
Simple trigonometric identities.
Use of trigonometric tables.
Simple cases of heights and distances.

GEOMETRY
Lines and angles, Plane and plane figures, Theorems on (i) Properties of angles at a point, (ii)
Parallel lines, (iii) Sides and angles of a triangle, (iv) Congruency of triangles, (v) Similar triangles,
(vi) Concurrence of medians and altitudes, (vii) Properties of angles, sides and diagonals of a
parallelogram, rectangle and square, (viii) Circles and its properties including tangents and normals,
(ix) Loci.

MENSURATION
Areas of squares, rectangles, parallelograms, triangle and circle. Areas of figures which can be split
up into these figures (Field Book), Surface area and volume of cuboids, lateral surface and volume of
right circular cones and cylinders, surface area and volume of spheres.

STATISTICS

19

Collection and tabulation of statistical data, Graphical representation frequency polygons,
histograms, bar charts, pie charts etc. Measures of central tendency.

INTELLIGENCE AND PERSONALITY TEST
The SSB procedure consists of two stage Selection process - stage I and stage II. Only those
candidates who clear the stage I are permitted to appear for stage II. The details are:-

(a) Stage I comprises of Officer Intelligence Rating (OIR) tests are Picture Perception* Description
Test (PP&DT). The candidates will be shortlisted based on combination of performance in OIR Test
and PP&DT.

(b) Stage II Comprises of Interview, Group Testing Officer Tasks, Psychology Tests and the
Conference. These tests are conducted over 4 days. The details of these tests are given on the website
www.joinindianarmy.nic.in.

The personality of a candidate is assessed by three different assessors viz. The Interviewing
Officer (IO), Group Testing Officer (GTO) and the Psychologist. There are no separate weightage for
each test. The marks are allotted by assessors only after taking into consideration the performance of
the candidate holistically in all the test. In addition, marks for Conference are also allotted based on
the initial performance of the Candidate in the three techniques and decision of the Board. All these
have equal weightage.

The various tests of IO, GTO and Psych are designed to bring out the presence/absence of Officer
Like Qualities and their trainability in a candidate. Accordingly candidates are Recommended or Not
Recommended at the SSB.

APPENDIX-II
Special Instructions to Candidates for objective type tests
1. Articles permitted inside Examination Hall
Clip board or hard board (on which nothing is written) a good quality Black Ball Pen for marking
responses on the Answer Sheet. Answer Sheet and sheet for rough work will be supplied by the
invigilator.

2. Articles not permitted inside Examination Hall
Do not bring into the Examination Hall any article other than those specified above e.g. any
valuable/costly items, mobile phones, Smart/Digital watches other IT gadgets, books, bags, notes,
loose sheets, electronic or any other type of calculators, mathematical and drawing instruments,
Log Tables, stencils of maps, slide rules, Test Booklets and rough sheets pertaining to earlier
session(s) etc.
Possession (even in Switch off mode)/use of Mobiles, phones, Bluetooth, pagers or any other
communication devices or any other incriminating material (notes on e-admit card, papers,
eraser etc.) are not allowed inside the premises where the examination is being conducted.
Any infringement of these instructions shall entail disciplinary action including ban from
future examinations.
Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned items including
mobile phones/Bluetooth/pagers to the venue of the examination, as no arrangements for
safekeeping will be made at the venue of the examination. Candidates are advised not to
bring any valuable/costly items to the Examination Halls, as no arrangement for safe keeping
of the same will be made at the venue of the examination. Commission will not be
responsible for any loss in this regard.

3. Penalty for wrong Answers
THERE WILL BE PENALTY (NEGATIVE MARKING) FOR WRONG ANSWERS
MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

20

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate. One third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate given more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above for that
question.
(iii) If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.

4. Unfair means strictly prohibited
No candidate shall copy from the papers of any other candidate nor permit his papers to be copied
nor give nor attempt to give nor obtain nor attempt to obtain irregular assistance of any
description.

5. Conduct in Examination Hall
No candidate should misbehave in any manner or create disorderly scene in the Examination Hall
or harass the staff employed by the Commission for the conduct of the examination. Any such
misconduct will be severely penalised.

6. Answer Sheet particulars
(i) Write with Black ball pen your Centre and subject followed by test booklet series (in bracket),
subject code and roll number at the appropriate space provided on the answer sheet at the top.
Also encode your booklet series (A, B, C, or D as the case may be), subject code and roll
number in the circles provided for the purpose in the answer sheet. The guidelines for writing
the above particulars and for encoding the above particulars are given in Annexure. In case
the booklet series is not printed on the test booklet or answer sheet is un-numbered, please
report immediately to the invigilator and get the test booklet/answer sheet replaced.
(ii) Candidates should note that any omission/mistakes/discrepancy in encoding/filling of details
in the OMR answer sheet, especially with regard to Roll Number and Test Booklet Series
Code, will render the answer sheet liable for rejection.
(iii) Immediately after commencement of the examination please check that the test booklet
supplied to you does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items etc., if so, get it
replaced by a complete test booklet of the same series and subject.
7. Do not write your name or anything other than the specific items of information asked for, on the
answer sheet/test booklet/sheet for rough work.
8. Do not fold or mutilate or damage or put any extraneous marking in the Answer Sheet. Do not
write anything on the reverse of the answer sheet.
9. Since the answer sheets will be evaluated on computerised machines, candidates should exercise
due care in handling and filling up the answer sheets. They should use black ball pen only to
darken the circles. For writing in boxes, they should use black ball pen. Since the entries
made by the candidates by darkening the circles will be taken into account while evaluating
the answer sheets on computerised machines, they should make these entries very carefully
and accurately.
10. Method of marking answers
In the ‘OBJECTIVE TYPE’ of examination, you do not write the answers. For each question
(hereinafter referred to as “Item”) several suggested answers (hereinafter referred to as
“Responses”) are given. You have to choose one response to each item. The question paper will
be in the Form of TEST BOOKLET. The booklet will contain item bearing numbers 1, 2,
3.......etc. Under each item, Responses marked (a), (b), (c), (d) will be given. Your task will be
to choose the correct response. If you think there is more than one correct response, then choose
what you consider the best response.
In any case, for each item you are to select only one response, if you select more than one
response, your response will be considered wrong.
21

In the Answer Sheet, Serial Nos. From 1 to 160 are printed. Against each numbers, there are
circles marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). After you have read each item in the Test Booklet and
decided which one of the given responses is correct or the best. You have to mark your
response by completely blackening with black ball pen to indicate your response.
For example, if the correct answer to item 1 is (b), then the circle containing the letter (b) is to be
completely blackened with black ball pen as shown below :- Example : (a) • (c) (d).
11. Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no circumstances will they be allowed
the help of a scribe.
12. Entries in Scannable Attendance List.
Candidates are required to fill in the relevant particulars with black ball pen only against their
columns in the Scannable Attendance List, as given below.
i) Blacken the circle (P) under the column (Present/Absent)
ii) Blacken the relevant circle for Test Booklet Series
iii) Write Test Booklet Serial No.
iv) Write the Answer Sheet Serial No. and also blacken the Corresponding
circles below.
v) Append signature in the relevant column.

13. Please read and abide by the instructions on the cover of Test Booklet. If any candidate
indulges in disorderly or improper conduct he will render himself liable for disciplinary
action and/or imposition of a penalty as the Commission may deem fit.

ANNEXURE

How to fill in the Answer Sheet of objective type tests in the Examination Hall
Please follow these instructions very carefully. You may note that since the answer sheets are to
be evaluated on machine, any violation of these instructions may result in reduction of your score
for which you would yourself be responsible. Before you mark your responses on the Answer
Sheet, you will have to fill in various particulars in it.
As soon as the candidate receives the Answer Sheet, he should check that it is numbered at the
bottom. If it is found un-numbered he should at once get it replaced by a numbered one.
You will see from the Answer Sheet that you will have to fill in the top line, which reads thus:

कें द्र विषय विषय कोड अनुक्रम ांक
Centre Subject S. Code Roll Number

If you are, say, appearing for the examination in Delhi Centre for the Mathematics Paper* and
your Roll No. is 081276, and your test booklet series is ‘A’ you should fill in thus, using black ball
pen.

कें द्र विषय विषय कोड अनुक्रम ांक
0 8 1 2 7 6
Centre- Delhi Subject- English S.Code 1 1 Roll Number

You should write with black ball pen the name of the centre and subject in English or Hindi
The test Booklet Series is indicated by Alphabets A, B, C or D at the top right hand corner of the
Booklet.

Write your Roll Numbers exactly as it is in your e-Admit card with Black ball pen in the boxes
provided for this purpose. Do not omit any zero(s) which may be there.
The next step is to find out the appropriate subject code from the Time Table. Now encode the
Test Booklet Series, Subject Code and the Roll Number in the circles provided for this purpose.
Do the encoding with Black Ball pen. The name of the Centre need not be encoded.
Writing and encoding of Test Booklet Series is to be done after receiving the Test Booklet and
confirming the Booklet Series from the same. For Mathematics *subject paper of ‘A’ Test Booklet
Series you have to encode the subject code, which is 01. Do it thus:
22

पुवतिक क्रम (ए) विषय 0 1
Booklet Series (A) Subject 0 0

A 1 1

2 2

B 3 3

4 4

C 5 5

6 6

D
7 7

8 8

9 9

अनुक्रम ां क
Roll Number
All that is required is to blacken completely the
circle marked ‘A’ below the Booklet Series and 0 8 1 2 7 6
below the subject code blacken completely the
Circles for “0” (in the first vertical column) and “1” 0 0 0 0 0 0

(in the second vertical column). You should then 1 1 1 1 1 1

encode the Roll No.081276. Do it thus similarly:
2 2 2 2 2 2

Important : Please ensure that you 3 3 3 3 3 3

have carefully encoded your subject. 4 4 4 4 4 4
Test Booklet series and Roll Number:
5 5 5 5 5 5

*This is just illustrative and may not 6 6 6 6 6 6

be relevant to your Examination.
7 7 7 7 7 7

8 8 8 8 8 8

9 9 9 9 9 9

APPENDIX-III

GUIDELINES WITH REGARD TO PHYSICAL STANDARDS FOR CANDIDATES FOR
COMBINED DEFENCE SERVICES EXAMINATION.
ARMY
MEDICAL STANDARDS AND PROCEDURE OF MEDICAL EXAMINATION
FOR OFFICER ENTRIES INTO ARMY

1. Aim:

Aim of this literature is to familiarize the general population on medical standards for
enrolment of candidates into Army through various types of entries. This literature also serves
the purpose of placing information in public domain as per the policy of Information
Commission under RTI Act -2005

2. Introduction:

(a) The primary responsibility of the Armed Forces is defending territorial integrity of
the nation. For this purpose Armed Forces should always be prepared for war. Armed
23

Forces personnel undergo rigorous training in preparation for war. Armed Forces also assist
civil authorities if required whenever the need arises like in the case of disasters. To carry out
such tasks Armed Forces requires candidates with robust mental and physical health. Such
candidates should also be capable of withstanding rigorous stress and strain of service
conditions to perform their military duties in adverse terrain and uncongenial climate incl sea
and air, in remote areas, in austere conditions with no medical facilities. A medically unfit
individual due to disease/disability can not only drain precious resources but can also
jeopardize lives of other members of the team during operations. Therefore only medically fit
candidates are selected who emerge fit to be trained for war.

(b) The Armed Forces Medical Services are responsible for ensuring selection of
‘Medically Fit’ individuals into the Armed Forces.

(c) All Armed Forces personnel regardless of occupational specialty, unit assignment, age
or gender should have a basic level of general ‘Medical fitness’ when inducted into service.
This basic level of fitness can then be used as a benchmark to train personnel for further
physically demanding occupational specialties or unit assignments. This will enhance
deployable combat readiness.
(d) Medical examinations are carried out meticulously by Armed Forces Medical
Services Medical Officers. These Medical Officers are well oriented to specific working
conditions of Armed Forces after undergoing basic military training. Medical examinations
are finalized by the Board of Medical Officers. The decision of the Medical Board is final.
In case of any doubt about any disease/disability/injury/genetic disorder etc noticed
during enrolment/ commissioning, the benefit of doubt will be given to State.

Medical Standards.

3. Medical standards described in the following paragraphs are general guidelines. They are not
exhaustive in view of the vast knowledge of disease. These standards are subject to change with
advancement in the scientific knowledge and change in working conditions of Armed Forces due to
introduction of new eqpt/trades. Such changes will be promulgated from time to time by policy letters
by competent authorities. Medical Officers, Spl Medical Officers and Medical Boards will take
appropriate decisions based on following guidelines and principles.

4. To be deemed ‘Medically fit’, a candidate must be in good physical and mental health
and free from any disease/syndrome/disability likely to interfere with the efficient performance
of military duties in any terrain, climate, season incl. sea and air, in remote areas, in austere
conditions with no medical aid. Candidate also should be free of medical conditions which
require frequent visit to medical facilities and use of any aid / drugs.

(a) It will, however, be ensured that candidate is in good health. There should be no evidence of
weak constitution, imperfect development of any system, any congenital deformities/
diseases/syndrome or malformation.

(b) No swelling/s including tumours/cyst/swollen lymph node/s anywhere on the body. No
sinus/es or fistula/e anywhere on the body.

(c) No hyper or hypo pigmentation or any other disease/syndrome/disability of the skin.

(d) No hernia anywhere on the body.

(e) No scars which can impair the functioning and cause significant disfigurement.

(f) No arterio-venous malformation anywhere in/on the body.

24

(g) No malformation of the head and face including asymmetry, deformity from fracture or
depression of the bones of the skull; or scars indicating old operative interference and
malformation like sinuses and fistulae etc.

(h) No impairment of vision including colour perception and field of vision.

(j) No hearing impairment, deformities/disabilities in ears vestibule-cochlear system.

(k) No impediment of speech due to any aetiology.

(l) No disease/disability/ congenital anomaly/syndrome of the bones or cartilages of the nose, or
palate, nasal polyps or disease of the naso-Pharynx, uvula and accessory sinuses. There
should be no nasal deformity and no features of chronic tonsillitis.

(m) No disease /syndrome/disability of the throat, palate tonsils or gums or any disease or injury
affecting the normal function of either mandibular joint.
(n) No disease /syndrome/disability of the heart and blood vessels incl congenital, genetic,
organic incl hypertension, and conduction disorders.

(o) No evidence of pulmonary tuberculosis or previous history of this disease or any other disease
/syndrome/disability chronic disease of the lungs and chest including allergies
/immunological conditions, connective tissue disorders, musculoskeletal deformities of chest.

(p) No disease of the digestive system including any abnormality of the liver, pancreas incl
endocrinal, congenital, hereditary or genetic diseases /syndromes and disabilities.

(q) No diseases/ syndrome/ disability of any endocrinal system, reticuloendothelial system.

(r) No diseases/ syndrome/ disability of genito-urinary system including malformations,
atrophy/hypertrophy of any organ or gland.

(s) No active, latent or congenital venereal disease

(t) No history or evidence of mental disease, epilepsy, incontinence of urine or enuresis.

(u) No disease/deformity/syndrome of musculo-skeletal system and joints incl skull, spine and
limbs.

(v) There is no congenital or hereditary disease/ syndrome/disability.

5. Psychological examinations will be carried out during SSB selection procedure. However,
any abnormal traits noticed during medical examination will be a cause for rejection.

6. Based on the above mentioned guidelines usual medical conditions which lead to rejection
are:-

(a) Musculo-skeletal deformities of spine, chest and pelvis, limbs e.g. scoliosis,
torticollis, kyphosis, deformities of vertebrae, ribs, sternum, clavicle, other bones of skeleton,
mal-united fractures, deformed limbs, fingers, toes and congenital deformities of spine.

(b) Deformities of Limbs: Deformed limbs, toes and fingers, deformed joints like
cubitus valgus, cubitus varus, knock knees, bow legs, hyper mobile joints, amputated toes or
fingers and shortened limbs.

(c) Vision and eye: Myopia, hypermetropia, astigmatism, lesions of cornea,
lens, retina, squint and ptosis.
25

(d) Hearing, ears, nose and throat: Sub standard hearing capability, lesions of pinna,
tympanic membranes, middle ear, deviated nasal septum, and congenital abnormalities of lips,
palate, peri-auricular sinuses and lymphadenitis/adenopathy of neck. Hearing capacity should
be 610 cm for Conversational Voice and Forced Whispering for each ear.

(e) Dental conditions:-

(i) Incipient pathological conditions of the jaws, which are known to be
progressive or recurrent.

(ii) Significant jaw discrepancies between upper and lower jaw which may
hamper efficient mastication and/or speech will be a cause for rejection.

(iii) Symptomatic Temporo-Mandibular Joint clicking and tenderness. A mouth
opening of less than 30 mm measured at the incisal edges, Dislocation of the TMJ on
wide opening.
(iv) All potentially cancerous conditions.

(v) Clinical diagnosis for sub mucous fibrosis with or without restriction of
mouth opening.

(vi) Poor oral health status in the form of gross visible calculus, periodontal
pockets and/or bleeding from gums.

(vii) Loose teeth: More than two mobile teeth will render the candidate unfit.
(viii) Cosmetic or post-traumatic maxillofacial surgery/trauma will be UNFIT for
at least 24 weeks from the date of surgery/injury whichever is later.

(ix) If malocclusion of teeth is hampering efficient mastication, maintenance of
oral hygiene or general nutrition or performance of duties efficiently.

(f) Chest: Tuberculosis, or evidence of tuberculosis, lesions of lungs, heart, musculo
skeletal lesions of chest wall.

(g) Abdomen and genitor-urinary system: Hernia, un-descended testis, varicocele,
organomegaly, solitary kidney, horseshoe kidney & cysts in the kidney/liver, Gall bladder
stones, renal and ureteric stones, lesions/deformities of urogenital organs, piles, sinuses and
lymphadenitis/pathy.

(h) Nervous system: Tremors, speech impediment and imbalance.

(j) Skin: Vitiligo, haemangiomas, warts, corns, dermatitis, skin infections growths and
hyperhydrosis.

7. Height and Weight: Height requirement varies as per the stream of entry. Weight should be
proportionate to height as per the chart given below:-

Minimum
Age: 20+01 Age: 30 + 01 Age: Above
Age (yrs) weight for all Age: 17 to 20 yrs
day - 30 yrs day - 40 yrs 40 yrs
ages
Height
Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg)
(cm)
140 35.3 43.1 45.1 47.0 49.0
141 35.8 43.7 45.7 47.7 49.7
142 36.3 44.4 46.4 48.4 50.4
143 36.8 45.0 47.0 49.1 51.1

26

Minimum
Age: 20+01 Age: 30 + 01 Age: Above
Age (yrs) weight for all Age: 17 to 20 yrs
day - 30 yrs day - 40 yrs 40 yrs
ages
Height
Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg)
(cm)
144 37.3 45.6 47.7 49.8 51.8
145 37.8 46.3 48.4 50.5 52.6
146 38.4 46.9 49.0 51.2 53.3
147 38.9 47.5 49.7 51.9 54.0
148 39.4 48.2 50.4 52.6 54.8
149 40.0 48.8 51.1 53.3 55.5
150 40.5 49.5 51.8 54.0 56.3
151 41.0 50.2 52.4 54.7 57.0
152 41.6 50.8 53.1 55.4 57.8
153 42.1 51.5 53.8 56.2 58.5
154 42.7 52.2 54.5 56.9 59.3
155 43.2 52.9 55.3 57.7 60.1
156 43.8 53.5 56.0 58.4 60.8
157 44.4 54.2 56.7 59.2 61.6
158 44.9 54.9 57.4 59.9 62.4
159 45.5 55.6 58.1 60.7 63.2
160 46.1 56.3 58.9 61.4 64.0
161 46.7 57.0 59.6 62.2 64.8
162 47.2 57.7 60.4 63.0 65.6
163 47.8 58.5 61.1 63.8 66.4
164 48.4 59.2 61.9 64.6 67.2
165 49.0 59.9 62.6 65.3 68.1
166 49.6 60.6 63.4 66.1 68.9
167 50.2 61.4 64.1 66.9 69.7
168 50.8 62.1 64.9 67.7 70.6
169 51.4 62.8 65.7 68.5 71.4
170 52.0 63.6 66.5 69.4 72.3
171 52.6 64.3 67.3 70.2 73.1
172 53.3 65.1 68.0 71.0 74.0
173 53.9 65.8 68.8 71.8 74.8
174 54.5 66.6 69.6 72.7 75.7
175 55.1 67.4 70.4 73.5 76.6
176 55.8 68.1 71.2 74.3 77.4
177 56.4 68.9 72.1 75.2 78.3
178 57.0 69.7 72.9 76.0 79.2
179 57.7 70.5 73.7 76.9 80.1
180 58.3 71.3 74.5 77.8 81.0
181 59.0 72.1 75.4 78.6 81.9
182 59.6 72.9 76.2 79.5 82.8
183 60.3 73.7 77.0 80.4 83.7
184 60.9 74.5 77.9 81.3 84.6
185 61.6 75.3 78.7 82.1 85.6
186 62.3 76.1 79.6 83.0 86.5
187 62.9 76.9 80.4 83.9 87.4
188 63.6 77.8 81.3 84.8 88.4
189 64.3 78.6 82.2 85.7 89.3
190 65.0 79.4 83.0 86.6 90.3
191 65.7 80.3 83.9 87.6 91.2
192 66.4 81.1 84.8 88.5 92.2
193 67.0 81.9 85.7 89.4 93.1
27

Minimum
Age: 20+01 Age: 30 + 01 Age: Above
Age (yrs) weight for all Age: 17 to 20 yrs
day - 30 yrs day - 40 yrs 40 yrs
ages
Height
Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg)
(cm)
194 67.7 82.8 86.6 90.3 94.1
195 68.4 83.7 87.5 91.3 95.1
196 69.1 84.5 88.4 92.2 96.0
197 69.9 85.4 89.3 93.1 97.0
198 70.6 86.2 90.2 94.1 98.0
199 71.3 87.1 91.1 95.0 99.0
200 72.0 88.0 92.0 96.0 100.0
201 72.7 88.9 92.9 97.0 101.0
202 73.4 89.8 93.8 97.9 102.0
203 74.2 90.7 94.8 98.9 103.0
204 74.9 91.6 95.7 99.9 104.0
205 75.6 92.5 96.7 100.9 105.1
206 76.4 93.4 97.6 101.8 106.1
207 77.1 94.3 98.6 102.8 107.1
208 77.9 95.2 99.5 103.8 108.2
209 78.6 96.1 100.5 104.8 109.2
210 79.4 97.0 101.4 105.8 110.3
(a) Weight for height charts given above is for all categories of personnel. This chart is prepared based
on the BMI. The chart specifies the minimum acceptable weight that candidates of a particular height
must have. Weights below the minimum specified will not be acceptable in any case. The maximum
acceptable weight of height has been specified in age wise categories. Weights higher than the acceptable
limit will be acceptable only in the case of candidates with documented evidence of body building,
wrestling, and boxing at the National level. In such cases the following criteria will have to be met.

(i) Body Mass Index should be below 25.

(ii) Waist Circumference should be less than 90 cm for males and 80 cm for females.

(iii) All biochemical metabolic parameters should be within normal limits.

(b) The minimum height required for male candidates for entry into the Armed Forces is 157 cm or as
decided by the respective recruiting agency. Gorkhas and candidates belonging to Hills of North Eastern
region of India, Garhwal and Kumaon, will be accepted with a minimum height of 152 cm.

(c) The minimum height required for female candidates for entry into the Armed Forces is 152 cm.
Gorkhas and candidates belonging to Hills of North Eastern region of India, Garhwal and Kumaon will be
accepted with a minimum height of 148 cm.

8. Following investigations will be carried out for all officer entries and for pre-commission training
academies. However examining medical officer/ medical board may ask for any other investigation deemed
fit.
(a) Complete haemogram
(b) Urine RE
(c) Chest X-ray
(d) USG abdomen and Pelvis.

9. Certain standards vary depending on age and type entry viz stds for vision as follows:-

28

Graduate & Post graduate &
Standards : 10+2 entries, equivalent entries: equivalent entries:
Parameter NDA(Army), TES and CDSE, IMA, OTA, JAG, AEC , APS,
equivalent UES, NCC,TGC & RVC,TA, AMC, ADC,
equivalent SL & equivalent
Uncorrected
vision(max 6/36 & 6/36 6/60 &6/60 3/60 & 3/60
allowed)
BCVA
Rt 6/6 & Lt 6/6 Rt 6/6 & Lt 6/6 Rt 6/6 & Lt 6/6
Myopia < -3.50 D Sph < -5.50 D Sph
< -2.5 D Sph
( including max (including max
( including max astigmatism
astigmatism ≤ +/- 2.0 astigmatism ≤ +/- 2.0 D
≤ +/- 2.0 D Cyl)
D Cyl) Cyl)
Hypermetropia <+3.50 DSph <+3.50 D Sph
<+2.5 D Sph,
( including max (including max
( including max astigmatism
astigmatism ≤ +/- 2.0 astigmatism ≤ +/- 2.0 D
≤ +/- 2.0 D Cyl)
D Cyl) Cyl)
Lasik/equivalent
surgery Not permitted Permitted * Permitted*

Colour perception CP-II CP-II CP-II

*LASIK or Equivalent kerato-refractive procedure
(a) Any candidate who has undergone any kerato-refractive procedure will have a certificate
from the centre where he/she has undergone the procedure, specifying the date and type of
surgery.

Note: Absence of such a certificate will necessitate the Ophthalmologist to make a decision to
reject the candidate with specific endorsement of “Unfit due to undocumented Visual Acuity
corrective procedure”.

(b) In order to be made FIT, the following criteria will have to be met:

(i) Age more than 20 yrs at the time of surgery
(ii) Minimum 12 months post LASIK
(iii) Central corneal thickness equal to or more than 450 µ
(iv) Axial length by IOL Master equal to or less than 26 mm
(v) Residual refraction of less than or equal to +/- 1.0 D incl cylinder, (provided
acceptable in the category applied for).
(vi) Normal healthy retina.
(vii) Corneal topography and ectasia markers can also be included as addl criteria.

Candidates who have undergone radial keratotomy are permanently unfit

10. Form to be used for med board proceedings is AFMSF-2A.

11. Procedure of Medical Examination Board: Medical Examination Board for selection for
officers and pre-commissioning training academies are convened at designated Armed Forces Medical
Services Hospitals near Service Selection Boards (SSB). These Medical Boards are termed as ‘Special
Medical Board’ (SMB). Candidates who clear SSB interview are referred to Armed Forces Medical
Services Hospital with identification documents. Staff Surgeon of Hospital will identify the candidate,
guide the candidate to fill the relevant portions of the AFMSF-2, organize investigations and
examination by Medical, Surgical, Eye, ENT, Dental specialists. Female candidates are examined by
Gynaecology Specialist also. After examination by Specialists, the candidate is brought before
29

Medical Board. Medical Board once satisfied with findings of Specialists will declare fitness of
candidate. If any candidate is declared ‘Unfit’ by SMB, such candidates can request for ‘Appeal
Medical Board’ (AMB). Detailed procedure for AMB will be provided by President SMB.

12. Miscellaneous aspects:

(a) Clinical methods of examinations are laid down by O/O DGAFMS.

(b) Female candidates will be examined by female medical officers and specialists. In
case of non-availability they will be examined by Medical Officerin the presence of female
attendant.

(c) Fitness following surgery: Candidates may be declared fit after surgery. However,
there should not be any complication; scar should be healthy, well healed and attained
required tensilestrength. The candidate shall be considered fit after 01 year of
open/laparoscopic surgeries for hernia and twelve weeks of laparoscopic abdominal surgery
for cholesystectomy. For any other surgery, fitness shall be considered only after 12 weeks of
the laparoscopic surgery and 12 months after an open surgery. Candidate shall be unfit for
any surgeries for injuries, ligament tear, and meniscus tear of any joint, irrespective of
duration of surgery.
NAVY

MEDICAL STANDARD AND PROCEDURE OF MEDICAL EXAMINATION FOR
OFFICER ENTRIES INTO NAVY

PROCEDURE ON CONDUCT OF MEDICAL BOARDS

1. A candidate recommended by the Services Selection Board (SSB) will undergo a medical
examination (Special Medical Board) by a Board of Service Medical Officers. Only those candidates,
who are declared fit by the Medical Board, will be admitted to the Academy. However, the President
of the Medical Board will intimate the candidates declared unfit of their results and the procedure for
an Appeal Medical Board (AMB) to be completed in a Command Hospital or equivalent within 42
days of Special Medical Board.

2. Candidates who are declared unfit by the Appeal Medical Board (AMB) may request for Review
Medical board (RMB) within one day of completion of Appeal Medical Board. The President AMB
will intimate about the procedure of challenging the findings of AMB. The candidates will also be
intimated that sanction for holding of Review Medical Board (RMB) will be granted at the discretion
of DGAFMS based on the merit of the case and that RMB is not a matter of right. The candidate
should address the request for RMB if he/ she so desires to DMPR, Integrated Headquarters Ministry
of Defence (Navy), Sena Bhawan, Rajaji Marg, New Delhi – 110011 and a copy of the same is handed
over to the President of AMB. O/o DGAFMS will inform the date and place (Delhi and Pune only)
where the candidate will appear for a RMB.

3. The following investigations will be carried out mandatorily during Special Medical Board.
However, Medical Officer / Medical Board examining a candidate may ask for any other investigation
as required or indicated :-

(a) Complete Haemogram

(b) Urine RE/ME

(c) X Ray chest PA view

(d) USG abdomen & pelvis

(e) Liver Function Tests
30

(f) Renal Function Tests

(g) X Ray Lumbosacral spine, Anterior-Posterior and Lateral views

(h) Electrocardiogram (ECG)

PHYSICAL STANDARDS FOR OFFICERS (MALE/ FEMALE) ON ENTRY

4. The candidate must be physically fit according to the prescribed physical standards.

(a) The candidate must be in good physical and mental health and free from any disease/ disability
which is likely to interfere with the efficient performance of dutiesboth ashore and afloat, under peace
as well as war conditions in any part of the world.

(b) There should be no evidence of weak constitution, bodily defects or underweight. The candidate
should not be overweight or obese.

5. Weight

Height-Weight Chart : Navy

17 yrs + 1 day 18 yrs + 1 day 20 yrs + 1 day
Height Up to 17 yrs Above 30 yrs
to 18 yrs to 20 yrs to 30 yrs
in
Mtrs Minimum Maximum Minimum Maximum Minimum Maximum Minimum Maximum Minimum Maximum
Weight in Weight in Weight in Weight in Weight in Weight in Weight in Weight in Weight in Weight in
Kg Kg Kg Kg Kg Kg Kg Kg Kg Kg
1.47 37 45 40 45 40 48 40 50 40 52
1.48 37 46 41 46 41 48 41 50 41 53
1.49 38 47 41 47 41 49 41 51 41 53
1.5 38 47 42 47 42 50 42 52 42 54
1.51 39 48 42 48 42 50 42 52 42 55
1.52 39 49 43 49 43 51 43 53 43 55
1.53 40 49 43 49 43 51 43 54 43 56
1.54 40 50 44 50 44 52 44 55 44 57
1.55 41 50 44 50 44 53 44 55 44 58
1.56 41 51 45 51 45 54 45 56 45 58
1.57 42 52 46 52 46 54 46 57 46 59
1.58 42 52 46 52 46 55 46 57 46 60
1.59 43 53 47 53 47 56 47 58 47 61
1.6 44 54 47 54 47 56 47 59 47 61
1.61 44 54 48 54 48 57 48 60 48 62
1.62 45 55 49 55 49 58 49 60 49 63
1.63 45 56 49 56 49 58 49 61 49 64
1.64 46 56 50 56 50 59 50 62 50 65
1.65 46 57 50 57 50 60 50 63 50 65
1.66 47 58 51 58 51 61 51 63 51 66
1.67 47 59 52 59 52 61 52 64 52 67
1.68 48 59 52 59 52 62 52 65 52 68
1.69 49 60 53 60 53 63 53 66 53 69
1.7 49 61 53 61 53 64 53 66 53 69
1.71 50 61 54 61 54 64 54 67 54 70
1.72 50 62 55 62 55 65 55 68 55 71
1.73 51 63 55 63 55 66 55 69 55 72
1.74 51 64 56 64 56 67 56 70 56 73
1.75 52 64 57 64 57 67 57 70 57 74
1.76 53 65 57 65 57 68 57 71 57 74
1.77 53 66 58 66 58 69 58 72 58 75
31

17 yrs + 1 day 18 yrs + 1 day 20 yrs + 1 day
Height Up to 17 yrs Above 30 yrs
to 18 yrs to 20 yrs to 30 yrs
in
Mtrs Minimum Maximum Minimum Maximum Minimum Maximum Minimum Maximum Minimum Maximum
Weight in Weight in Weight in Weight in Weight in Weight in Weight in Weight in Weight in Weight in
Kg Kg Kg Kg Kg Kg Kg Kg Kg Kg
1.78 54 67 59 67 59 70 59 73 59 76
1.79 54 67 59 67 59 70 59 74 59 77
1.8 55 68 60 68 60 71 60 75 60 78
1.81 56 69 61 69 61 72 61 75 61 79
1.82 56 70 61 70 61 73 61 76 61 79
1.83 57 70 62 70 62 74 62 77 62 80
1.84 58 71 63 71 63 74 63 78 63 81
1.85 58 72 63 72 63 75 63 79 63 82
1.86 59 73 64 73 64 76 64 80 64 83
1.87 59 73 65 73 65 77 65 80 65 84
1.88 60 74 65 74 65 78 65 81 65 85
1.89 61 75 66 75 66 79 66 82 66 86
1.9 61 76 67 76 67 79 67 83 67 87
1.91 62 77 67 77 67 80 67 84 67 88
1.92 63 77 68 77 68 81 68 85 68 88
1.93 63 78 69 78 69 82 69 86 69 89
1.94 64 79 70 79 70 83 70 87 70 90
1.95 65 80 70 80 70 84 70 87 70 91

Notes:-

(a) The minimum and maximum weight for height will be standard for all categories of
personnel. Candidates with weight below the minimum specified will not be accepted.

(b) Male candidates with weight higher than specified will be acceptable only in exceptional
circumstances in case of candidates with documented evidence of body building, wrestling, boxing or
muscular build. In such cases, the following criteria are to be met :-

(i) Body Mass Index should not be more than 25.

(ii) Waist : Hip Ratio less than 0.9.

(iii) All biochemical parameters such as blood sugar Fasting and PP, blood urea,
creatinine, cholesterol, HbA1C%, etc are within normal limits.

(c) The fitness can only be given by a Medical Specialist.

(d) The minimum acceptable height is 157 cms. However, relaxation in height is permissible to
candidates holding domicile of areas as mentioned below and talented sports male candidates:-

Sl No Category Minimum Height for Male Candidates

(i) Tribals from Ladhakh Region 155 Cm

(ii) Andaman & Nicobar, Lakshdweep and 155 Cm
Minicoy Islands

(iii) Gorkhas, Nepali, Assamese, Garhwali, 152 Cm
Kumaoni and Uttarakhand

32

(iv) Bhutan, Sikkim &North East Region 152 Cm

(v) Extra talented sports candidates 155 Cm

6. During the medical examination of candidates, the following principal points will be ensured:-

(a) The candidate is sufficiently intelligent.

(b) The hearing is good and that there is no sign of any disease of ear, nose or throat.

(c) Vision in either eye is up to the required standard. His/ her eyes are bright, clear and with
no obvious squint or abnormality. Movements of eye balls should be full and free in all
directions.

(d) Speech is without impediment.

(e) There is no glandular swelling.

(f) Chest is well formed and that his/her heart and lungs are sound.

(g) Limbs of the candidates are well formed and fully developed.

(h) There is no evidence of hernia of any degree or form.

(j) There is free and perfect action of all the joints.

(k) Feet and toes are well formed.

(l) Absence of any congenital malformation or defects.

(m) He/she does not bear traces of previous acute or chronic disease pointing to an impaired
constitution.

(n) Presence of sufficient number of sound teeth for efficient mastication.

(p) Absence of any disease of the Genito-Urinary tract.

7. Major defects for rejection are as under:-

(a) Weak constitution, imperfect development, congenital malformation, muscular wasting.

(b) Malformation of the head including deformity from fracture or depression of the bones of
the skull.

(c) Assessment of Scoliosis. Idiopathic Scoliosis upto 10 degrees for Lumbar Spine and 15
degrees of Dorsal Spine will be acceptable provided.

(i) Individual is asymptomatic

(ii) No history of trauma to spine

(iii) No chest asymmetry/ shoulder imbalance or pelvic obliquity in the lumbar spine.

(iv) There is no neurological deficit

(v) No congenital anomaly of the spine

33

(vi) There is absence of syndromic features

(vii) ECG is normal

(viii) No deformity exists on full flexion of the spine

(ix) No restriction of range of movements

(x) No organic defect causing structural abnormality

(d) Skeletal deformity either hereditary or acquired and disease or impairment of function of
bones or joints.

Note:- Rudimentary cervical rib causing no signs or symptoms is acceptable.

(e) Asymmetry of torso or limbs, abnormality of locomotion including amputation.

(f) Deformity of feet and toes.

(i) Hyperextensible Finger Joints. All candidates shall be thoroughly examined for
hyper-extensible finger joints. Any extension of fingers bending backwards beyond 90
degrees shall be considered hyper-extensible and considered unfit. Other joints like Knee,
Elbow, Spine and Thumb shall also be examined carefully for features of hyper laxity/
hypermobility. Although the individual may not show features of hyper laxity in other
joints, isolated presentation of hyper extensibility of finger joints shall be considered unfit
because of the various ailments that may manifest later if such candidates are subjected to
strenuous physical training as mentioned above.

(ii) Mallet Finger. Loss of extensor mechanism at the distal inter-phalangeal joint
leads to Mallet finger. Chronic mallet deformity can lead to secondary changes in the PIP
and MCP joint which can result in compromised hand function. Normal range of
movement at DIP joints is 0-80 degree and PIP joint is 0-90 degrees in both flexion and
extension. In Mallet finger, candidate unable to extend/ straighten distal phalanx of fingers
completely.

(aa) Candidates with mild condition i.e., less than 10 degrees of extension lag
without any evidence of trauma, pressure symptoms and any functional deficit
should be declared Fit.

(ab) Candidates with fixed deformity of fingers will be declared Unfit.

(iii) Polydactyly. Can be assessed for fitness 12 weeks post-op. Can be declared fit if
there is no bony abnormality (X-Ray), wound is well healed and scar is supple and there is no
evidence of neuroma or clinical examination.

(iv) Simple Syndactyly. Can be assessed for fitness 12 weeks post op. Can be declared
fit if there is no bony abnormality (X-Ray), wound is well healed and scar is supple and
webspace is satisfactory.

(v) Complex Syndactyly. Unfit

(vi) Polymazia. Candidates to be considered fit after 12 weeks of post operative period if
there is no post operative complication with a well healed surgical wound and no residual
disease.

(vii) Hyperostosis Frontalis Interna. Will be considered fit in the absence of any
other metabolic abnormality.

34

(viii) Healed Fractures.

(aa) All intra-articular fractures especially of major joints (Shoulder, elbow,
wrist, hip, knee and ankle) with or without surgery, with or without implant shall
be considered unfit.

(ab) All extra-articular fractures with post-operative implant insitu shall be
considered unfit and will be considered for fitness after minimum of 12 weeks of
implant removal.

(ac) Nine (09) months will be the minimum duration for considering evaluation
following extra-articular injuries of all long bones (both upper and lower limbs) post
injury which have been managed conservatively. Individual will be considered fit if
there is:-

(i) No evidence of mal-alignment/mal-union

(ii) No neuro-vascular deficit

(iii) No soft tissue loss

(iv) No functional deficit

(v) No evidence of osteomyelitis/ sequestra formation

(viii) Cubitus Recurvatum. >10 degrees is Unfit

(ix) Cubitus Valgus.

(aa) Measurement of Carrying Angle. The carrying angle at the elbow is
assessed conventionally with the elbow in full extension using a protractor
goniometer to measure the axes from the surface margin of the arm and forearm.
However, variations in the development of the soft tissues in the arm and forearm
generally lead to inconsistencies in the measured results. So far, there is no
uniform method to measure the carrying angle of the elbow. However, measuring
the carrying angle of the elbow through identification of bony landmarks on the
acromion, medial and lateral epicondyles of the humerus, and the distal radial and
ulnar styloid processes is recommended. Carrying angle is measured by a manual
goniometer with two drawing axes of the arm and forearm. The axis of the arm is
defined by the lateral border of the cranial surface of the acromion to the midpoint
of the lateral and medial epicondyles of the humerus. The axis of the forearm is
defined by the midpoint of the lateral and medial epicondyles of the humerus to
the midpoint of the distal radial and ulnar styloid processes.

(ab)Cubitus valgus should be primarily a clinical diagnosis. The suggested
indications to perform a radiographic evaluation include:-

(i) History of trauma

(ii) Scar around elbow

(iii) Asymmetry of angles

(iv) Distal neurovascular deficit

(v) Restricted range of motion

(vi) If deemed necessary by Orthopaedic Surgeon
35

(x) Hyperextension at Elbow Joint. Individuals can have naturally hyperextended
elbow. This condition is not a medical problem, but can be a cause of fracture or chronic
pain especially considering the stress and strains military population is involved in. Also,
the inability to return the elbow to within 10 degrees of the neutral position is impairment
in the activities of daily living.

(aa) Measurement modality. Measured using a Goniometer

(ab) Normal elbow extension is 0 degrees. Up to 10 degrees of hyperextension
is within normal limits if the patient has no history of trauma to the joint.
Anyone with hyperextension more than 10 degree should be unfit.

8. Eye.
(a) Deformity or morbid condition of the eye or eyelids that is liable for aggravation or
recurrence.
(b) Manifest squint of any degree.
(c) Active trachoma or its complication or sequelae.
(d) Visual acuity below prescribed standards.
Notes:-
1. Visual standards for CDSE entry are as follows :-
Criteria CDSE
Uncorrected Vision 6/12 6/12
Corrected Vision 6/6 6/6
Limits of Myopia -1.0D Sph
Limits of Hypermetropia + 2.0D Cyl
Astigmatism (within limits of myopia and hypermetropia) ±1.0D Sph / Cyl
Binocular Vision III
Colour Perception CP Pass *

* Colour Perception defect will be assessed by combination of Ishihara and
Anomaloscope/MLT test during SMB. Ishihara and Anomaloscope (MLT if available) will be
used during AMB. Ishihara and Anomaloscope and MLT will be used during RMB for
confirmation, as applicable.

2. Kerato Refractive Surgery. Keratometry will be performed for candidates at SMB for
detecting undeclared refracto-corrective procedures like PRK/LASIK/SMILE, etc. Values for
the same will be endorsed in SMB.Candidates who have undergone any Refractory Surgery
(PRK/LASIK/SMILE) can be considered fit in all branches (except submarine, diving and
MARCO cadre) subject to the following conditions:-

(a) Surgery should not have been carried out before 20 yrs of age.

(b) Uncomplicated surgery at least 12 months before examination (Certificate
mentioning the type of refractive surgery, date of surgery and pre-operative refractive
error from concerned eye centre is to be produced by the candidate at the time of
recruitment medical examination).

Post LASIK Standards. Candidate will be considered Fit if Axial Length by IOL Master
is equal to or less than 26 mm by IOL Master or A Scan and Central Corneal Thickness by
is Pachymeter equal to or more than 450 microns

36

(c) Residual refraction less than or equal to +1.0 D Sph or Cyl, provided within the
permissible limit for the category applied for. However, for Pilot and Observer entries, the
residual refraction should be nil.

(d) Pre-operative refractive error not more than +/- 6.0 D

(e) Normal retinal examination.

3. Kerato-Refractory Surgery (PRK, LASIK, SMILE) is not acceptable for special
cadres such as submarine, diving and MARCO.Candidates who have undergone Radial
Keratotomy are permanently unfit for all branches.

(i) Ptosis. Candidate will be considered fit post-operative provided there is no
recurrence one year after surgery, visual axis is clear with normal visual fields and upper
eyelid is 02 mm below the superior limbus. Candidates, who have not undergone surgery
for the condition, would be considered fit if they meet any of the following criteria:-

(aa) Mild ptosis

(ab) Clear visual axis

(ac) Normal visual field

(ad) No sign of aberrant degeneration/ head tilt

(ii) Exotropia. Unfit

(iii) Anisocoria. If size difference between the pupils is >01mm, candidate will be
considered unfit.

(iv) Heterochromia Iridum. Unfit

(v) Sphincter Tears. Can be considered fit is size difference between pupils is
<01mm, pupillary reflexes are brisk with no observed pathology in cornea, lens or
retina.

(vi) Pseudophakia. Unfit

(vii) Lenticular Opacities. Any lenticular opacity causing visual deterioration, or is in
the visual axis or is present in an area of 07 mm around the pupils, which may cause glare
phenomenon, should be considered Unfit. The propensity of the opacities not to increase
in size or number should also be a consideration when deciding fitness. Small stationery
lenticular opacities in the periphery like congenital blue dot cataract, not affecting the
visual axis/ visual field may be considered by specialist (Should be less than 10 in number
and central area of 04 mm to be clear).

(viii) Optic Nerve Drusen. Unfit

(ix) High Cup Disc Ratio. Candidates will be declared unfit if any of the following
conditions exist:-

(aa) Inner eye symmetry in cup disc ratio is > 0.2.

(ab) Retinal Nerve Fibre Layer defect seen by RNFL analysis on OCT.

(ac) Visual field defect by Visual Field Analyser.

(x) Keratoconus. Unfit
37

(xi) Lattice.

(aa) The following lattice degenerations will render a candidate Unfit:-

(i) Single circumferential lattice extending more than two clock hours in
either or both eyes.

(ii) Two circumferential lattices each more than one clock hour in extent in
either or both eyes.

(iii) Radial lattices.

(iv) Any lattice with atrophic hole/ flap tears (Unlasered).

(v) Lattice degenerations posterior to equator.

(ab) Candidates with lattice degeneration will be considered Fit under the following
conditions:-

(i) Single circumferential lattice without holes of less than two clock hours in
either or both eyes.

(ii) Two circumferential lattices without holes each being less than one clock
hour in extent in either or both eyes.

(iii) Post Laser delimitation single circumferential lattice, without holes/ flap
tear, less than two clock hours extent in either or both eyes.

(iv) Post Laser delimitation two circumferential lattices, without holes/ flap
tear, each being less than one clock hour extent in either or both eyes.

9. Ear, Nose and Throat.

(a) Ear. History or recurrent ear ache, tinnitus or vertigo, impairment of hearing, disease of
the external meatus including atresia, exostosis or neoplasm which prevent a thorough examination
of the drum, unhealed perforation of the tympanic membrane, aural discharge or sign of acute or
chronic suppurative otitis media, evidence of radical or modified radical mastoid operation.

Notes:-

1. A candidate should be able to hear forced whisper at a distance of 610cms with each ear
separately with back to the examiner.

2. Otitis Media. Current Otitis Media of any type will entail rejection. Evidence of healed
chronic otitis media in the form of tympanosclerosis/ scarred tympanic membrane affecting less than
50% of Pars Tensa of tympanic membrane will be assessed by ENT Specialist and will be acceptable
if Pure Tone Audiometry (PTA) and Tympanometry are normal. All cases of Tympanoplasty and
Myringoplasty/Myringotomy for choronic Otitis Media will entail permanent rejection.

(i) The fwg conditions would render a candidate Unfit:-

(aa) Residual perforation

(ab) Residual hearing loss on Free Field Hearing and/or PTA

38

(ac) Any other type of tympanoplasty (other than Type 1 Tympanoplasty) or
middle ear surgery (including ossiculoplasty, stapedotomy, canal wall down
mastoidectomy, atticotomy, attico-antrostomy etc)

(ad) Any implanted hearing device (eg. cochlear implant, bone conduction
implant, middle ear implants etc).

(b) Bony Growth of External Auditory Canal. Any candidate with clinically evident bony
growth of external auditory canal like exostosis, osteoma, fibrous dysplasia etc. will be declared
Unfit. Assessment of operated cases will be done after minimum period of 4 weeks. Post-
surgeryhistopathology report and HRCT temporal bone will be mandatory. If the histo-pathological
report is suggestive of a neoplasia or HRCT temporal bone is suggestive of partial removal or deep
extension it would entail rejection.

(c) Nose. Disease of the bones or cartilages of the nose, marked nasal allergy, nasal polyps,
atrophic rhinitis, disease of the accessory sinuses and nasopharynx.

Septal Perforation. Nasal septal perforation can be anterior cartilaginous or posterior bony perforation.
Any septal perforation greater than 01 cm in the greatest dimension is a ground for rejection. A septal
perforation which is associated with nasal deformity, nasal crusting, epistaxis and granulation
irrespective of the size is a ground for rejection.

Nasal Polyposis. It is also known as Chronic Rhinosinusitis with polyposis (CRSwNP). Nasal
polyposis is mostly associated with allergy, asthma, sensitivity to NSAIDs and infection i.e.
bacterial and fungal. Most of these patients have high chances of recurrence and require long term
management with nasal/ oral steroids and are unfit for extremes of climate and temperature
conditions. Any individual detected to have nasal polyposis on examination or with history of
having undergone surgery for nasal polyposis will be rejected.

(d) Throat. Disease of throat palate, tongue, tonsils, gums and disease or injury affecting the
normal function of either mandibular joints.

Note: Simple hypertrophy of the tonsils without associated history of attacks of tonsillitis is
acceptable.

(e) Disease of the larynx and impediment of speech. Voice should be normal. Candidates
with pronounced stammer will not be accepted.

10. Dental Condition. It should be ensured that a sufficient number of natural and sound teeth are
present for efficient mastication.

(a) A candidate must have a minimum of 14 dental points to be acceptable in order to assess
the dental condition of an individual. Dental points less than 14 are a cause of rejection. The dental
points are allotted as under for teeth in good opposition with corresponding teeth in the other jaw:-

(i) Central incisor, lateral incisor, canine, 1st Premolar, 2nd Premolar and under
developed third molar with 1 point each.

(ii) 1st molar and 2nd molar and fully developed 3rd molar with 2 points each.

(iii) When all 32 teeth are present, there will be a total count of 22 or 20 pints
according to whether the third molars are well developed or not.

(b) The following teeth in good functional apposition must be present in each jaw:-

(i) Any 4 of the 6 anteriors.
39

(ii) Any 6 of the 10 posteriors.

All these teeth must be sound/ repairable.

(c) Candidates suffering from severe pyorrhea will be rejected. Where the state of pyorrhea is
such that in the opinion of the Dental Officer, it can be cured without extraction of teeth, the
candidates may be accepted. A note about the affected teeth is to be inserted by the Medical/
Dental Officer in the medical documents.

(d) Artificial dentures are not to be included while counting the dental points.

11. Neck.

(a) Enlarged glands, tubercular or due to other diseases in the neck or other parts of the body.

Note:- Scars of operations for the removal of tubercular glands are not a cause for rejection
provided there has been no active disease within the preceding five years and the chest is clinically
and radiologically clear.

(b) Disease of the thyroid gland.

12. Chest. The following are criteria for rejection:-

(a) Deformity of chest, congenital or acquired.

(b) Expansion less than 5 cms.

(c) Significant bilateral/ unilateral Gynaecomastia in male. Candidates to be considered fit after 12
weeks op post operative period if:

(i) There is a well healed surgical wound with no residual disease
(ii) No post operative complication.
(iii) Surgical scar should be sufficiently matured and unlikely to cause any problems
during military training,
(iv) Normal general physical examination
(v) Endocrine workup is normal

13. Skin and Sexually Transmitted Infection (STI).

(a) Skin disease unless temporary or trivial.

(b) Scars which by their extent or position cause or are likely to cause disability/ or marked
disfigurement.

(c) Hyperhydrosis - Palmar, plantar or axillary.

(d) Congenital, active or latent sexually transmitted diseases.

Note:- In cases with old healed scar over the groin or penis/ vagina suggestive of past STI,
blood will be tested for STI (Including HIV) to exclude latent Sexually Transmitted Disease.

40

14. Respiratory System.

(a) History of chronic cough or Bronchial Asthma.

(b) Evidence of pulmonary Tuberculosis.

(c) Evidence of diseases of bronchi, lungs or pleurae detected on radiological examination of the
chest will disqualify the candidate.

Note:- An X-Ray examination of the chest will be carried outunder following circumstances:-

(i) On entry into the service as a cadet or direct entry.

(ii) At the time of grant of permanent commission in case of short service commissioned
officer.

15. Cardio-Vascular System.

(a) Functional or organic disease of the heart or blood vessels, presence of murmurs or clicks on
auscultation.

(b) Tachycardia (Pulse Rate persistently over 96/min at rest), bradycardia (Pulse Rate
persistently below 40/ min at rest), any abnormality of peripheral pulse.

(c) Blood Pressure. Candidate with Blood Pressure consistently greater than 140/90mm Hg will
be rejected. All such candidates shall undergo a 24 hour Ambulatory Blood Pressure
Monitoring (24 h ABPM) to differentiate between white coat hypertension and persistent
hypertension. Wherever feasible, candidates will be evaluated by a Cardiologist at AMB.
Those with normal 24 h ABPM and without any target organ damage can be considered fit
after evaluation by a cardiologist.

(d) Electrocardiogram (ECG). Any ECG abnormality detected at SMB will be a ground for
rejection. Such candidates will be evaluated by a cardiologist during AMB with
echocardiography for structural abnormality and stress test if deemed necessary. Benign ECG
abnormalities like incomplete RBBB, T wave inversion in inferior leads, T inversion in V1-
V3 (persistent juvenile pattern), LVH by voltage criteria (due to thin chest wall) may exist
without any structural heart disease. Echocardiography should be performed in all such cases
to rule out an underlying structural heart disease and opinion of Senior Adviser (Medicine)/
Cardiologist should be obtained. If echocardiography and stress tests (if indicated) are
normal, the individual can be considered fit.

16. Abdomen.

(a) Evidence of any disease of the gastro-intestinal tract, enlargement of liver, gall bladder or
spleen, tenderness on abdominal palpation, evidence/ history of peptic ulcer or previous
history of extensive abdominal surgery. All officer entry candidates are to be subjected to the
Ultra Sound Examination of the abdominal and pelvic organs for detecting any abnormalities
of the internal organs.

(b) Hyperbilirubinemia of any nature is Unfit except for Unconjugated Hyperbilirubinemia
where genetic studies confirm Gilbert’s Syndrome as the etiological factor meeting criteria
fulfilled below:-

(i) Unconjugated Hyperbilirubinemia with Total Serum Bilirubin < 3mg/dl, normal
transaminases, PT/INR and Albumin.

(ii) HBs Ag and Anti HCV should be negative.

41

(iii) No abnormality on PBS, Reticulocyte count, lactate dehydrogenase levels, (LDH), Vit
B12 and Hb electrophoresis.

(iv) Normal Ultrasonogram of the liver and FIBROSCAN.

(v) Diagnosis of Gilbert’s Syndrome by genetic analysis of UGT1A1 gene.

(c) Post-op Assessment. Post-op duration for assessment of fitness in common conditions:-

(i) Hernia. Those who have been operated for hernia may be declared fit provided:-

(aa) 24 weeks have elapsed since the operation for Anterior Abdominal Wall hernia.
Documentary proof to this effect is to be produced by the candidate.

(ab) General tone of the abdominal musculature is good.

(ac) There has been no recurrence of hernia or any complication connected with the
operation.

(ii) Other Conditions. Those who have been operated for below mentioned conditions may
be declared fit provided:-

(aa) Open Cholecystectomy. 24 weeks (In the absence of Incisional Hernia)

(ab) Laparoscopic Cholecystectomy. 08 weeks (Normal LFT, Normal histopathology).

(ac) Appendicectomy.

(i) Laparoscopic Appendectomy will be assessed for post operative fitness
after a minimum period of 04 weeks. Candidates will be considered fit if:-

(aa) Post site scars have healed well
(ab) Scars are supple
(ac) Histo-pathological report of acute appendicitis is available
(ad) USG confirmation of absence of port site incisional hernia

(ii) Open Appendectomy with muscle split approach will be assessed for post
op fitness after a minimum period 12 weeks. Candidates will be considered fit if:-

(aa) Wound has healed well
(ab) Scar is supple and non tender
(ac) Histo-pathological report of acute appendicitis is available
(ad) USG confirmation of absence of surgical site incisional hernia

(iii) Open Appendectomy with muscle cut approach will be assessed for post
op fitness after a minimum period 06 months. Candidates will be considered fit if:-

(aa) Wound has healed well
(ab) scar is supple and non tender
(ac) Histo-pathological report of acute appendicitis is available
(ad) USG confirmation of absence of surgical site incisional

(ad) Pilonidal Sinus. 12 weeks

(ae) Fistula-in-Ano, Anal Fissure and Grade IV Hemorrhoids.12 weeks post-op with
satisfactory treatment and recovery.

42

(af) Hydrocele and Varicocele. 08 weeks post-op with satisfactory treatment and
recovery.

(ag) Urachal cyst. 08 weeks post-op with satisfactory treatment and absence of any
remnant.

(ah) Fistula in anus, anal fissures and Hemorrhoids unless satisfactory to treatment has
been carried out.

(d) Hepatic Calcification

(I) FIT:-
(aa) Solitary calcification < 3cm or Multiple pin point or small calcification
up to 5 in number and not involving more than 2 contiguous segments of liver.
Cluster with total diameter not exceeding 3 cm along with no symptoms (Pain,
Fever, Wt loss)
(ab) No history/features of TB, parasitic infections, or chronic liver disease.
(ac) No other organ involvement (e.g., lung/ Spleen calcifications).
(ad) Benign imaging features (smooth, well-defined, no mass effect)
(ae) Normal Serum Calcium, AFP, Serum Calcium, IGRA and Hydatid
serology and any other clinically relevant test as per Physician discretion.

(II) UNFIT:-

(aa) Solitary size > 3 cm.
(ab) Multiple calcification or cluster size > 3 cm
(ac) Calcification within a mass (irregular, enhancing, or necrotic appearance).
(ad) Active Cystic lesion with wall/daughter cyst calcifications with positive
hydatid serology).
(ae) Associated findings (e.g., liver abscess, biliary obstruction, vascularn
aneurysm).
(af) Active TB/fungal infection (e.g., lung/spleen calcifications + symptoms).
(ag) Abnormal Serum Calcium levels.
(ah) Relevant laboratory tests to be done on case-to-case basis as per Physician
discretion.

(e) Hepatic Hemangioma
(i) FIT:-
(aa) Solitary Hemangioma in liver upto size of < 2.5 cm along with normal
echotexture of liver and normal values of PT/INR, Platelets, Alpha Feto Protein
and PIVKA or DCP in select cases.

(ii) UNFIT:-

(aa) Hemangioma greater than 2.5 cm
(ab) Multiple Hemangiomas
(ac) Atypical Hemangioma (Radiological diagnosis on CT Scan) of any size
(ad) Subcapsular Haemangioma of any size or number
(ae) Any size or number of Haemangioma in spleen

(f) Splenic Calcification and SOL

(i) FIT:-

(aa) Solitary calcification < 2cm or Multiple with total size not exceeding 2cm
along with No symptoms (pain,fever,weight loss)

43

(ab) No history/features of TB, parasitic infections, or chronic liver diseases
(ac) No other organ involvement (e.g., lung/liver calcifications)
(ad) Benign imaging features (smooth, well-defined, no mass effect)
(ae) Normal IGRA, Hb electrophoresis, Vasculitic work up and Hydatid
serology and any other clinically relevant test as per Physician discretion

(ii) UNFIT:-

(aa) Solitary Size > 2cm
(ab) Multiple calcification or cluster size >2cm
(ac) Calcification within a mass (irregular, enhancing, or necrotic appearance)
(ad) Active Cystic lesion with wall/daughter cyst calcifications with positive
hydatid serology)
(ae) Associated finding (e.g., splenic abscess, biliary obstruction, vascularn
aneurysm)
(af) Active TB/fungal infection
(ag) Relevant laboratory tests to be done on case-to-case basis as per Physician
discretion.

(g) Agenesis of Gall Bladder. Will be considered fit in the absence of any other abnormality of
the biliary tract. MRCP will be done for all such cases.

17. Genito-Urinary System.

(a) Any evidence of disease of genital organs.

(b) Bilateral undescended testis, unilateral undescended testis retained in the inguinal canal or at
the external abdominal ring unless corrected by operation.

Note:- Absence of one testis is not a cause for rejection unless the testis has been removed
on account of disease or its absence has affected the physical or mental health of the
candidate.

(c) Disease or malformation of the kidneys or urethra.

(d) Incontinence of urine and nocturnal enuresis.

(e) Any abnormality on examination of urine including albuminuria or glycosuria.

(f) The following are criteria for rejection:-

(aa) Renal Calculi. Irrespective of size, numbers, obstructive or non-obstructive. History of
renal calculi (History or radiological evidence) will render a candidate Unfit.

(ab) Calyecdasis

(ac) Bladder Diverticulum

(ad) Simple Renal Cyst. > 1.5Cm

18. Central Nervous System.

(a) Organic disease of Central Nervous System.

(b) Tremors.

(c) Candidates with history of fits and recurrent attacks of headache/ migraine will not be
accepted.
44

19. Psychiatric Disorders. History or evidence of mental disease or nervous instability in the
candidate or his family.

20. Block Vertebrae

(a) FIT:-
(i) Single level Complete Block Vertebra of Dorsal spine be considered Medically Fit.

(ii) Fit in absence of any neuro-deficiency/anomaly.
(b) UNFIT:-
(i) Complete/Incomplete Blocked Cervical Vertebrae

(ii) Blocked dorsal vertebrae at more than one level.

Lab Investigation (Hematology).

(a) Polycythemia. Hemoglobin more than 16.5g/dL in males and more than 16g/dL in females
will be considered as Polycythemia and deemed Unfit.

(b) Monocytosis. Absolute monocyte counts greater than 1000/cu mm or more than or equal to
10% of total WBC counts is to be deemed Unfit.

(c) Eosinophilia. Absolute eosinophil counts greater than or equal to 500/ cu mm is deemed
Unfit.

21. Acceptable Defects on Entry. Candidates for the Navy with the following minor defects may be
accepted. These defects are however to be noted in the medical forms on entry.

(a) Knock Knees with a separation of less than 5 cm at the internal malleoli.

(b) Mild curvature of legs not affecting walking or running. Intercondylar distance should
not be over 7 cm.

(c) Mild stammering not affecting expression.

(d) Mild degree of varicocele.

(e) Mild degree of varicose veins.

Note:- Remedial operations wherever required are to be performed prior to entry. No
guarantee is given about ultimate acceptance and it should be clearly understood by a
candidate that the decision whether an operation is desirable or necessary is one to be
made by their private medical advisor. The Government will accept no liability regarding
the result of operation or any expenses incurred.

(f) Any other slight defect which produces no functional disability and which in the opinion
of medical officer/ medical board will not interfere with the individual’s efficiency as an officer.

45

AIR FORCE

MEDICAL STANDARD AND PROCEDURE OF MEDICAL EXAMINATION FOR
OFFICER ENTRIES INTO AIR FORCE

General Instructions

1. In this section, standardized guidelines for the physical assessment of candidates for
commissioning through CDSE into flying duty branches in the IAF are elaborated. The purpose of
these guidelines is to lay down uniform physical standards and to ensure that the candidates are free of
health conditions that may hamper or limit their performance in the respective branch. The guidelines
enumerated in this section are meant to be applied in conjunction with the standard methods of
clinical examination.

2. All candidates during their induction should meet the basic physical fitness standards which
will enable them to proficiently undergo the training and the subsequent service in varied climatic and
work environments. A candidate will not be assessed physically fit unless the complete examination
shows that he/ she is physically and mentally capable of withstanding the severe physical and mental
strain for prolonged periods. The requirements of medical fitness are essentially the same for all
branches, except for aircrew in whom the parameters for visual acuity, anthropometry and certain other
physical standards are more stringent.

3. The medical standards spelt out pertain to initial entry medical standards. Continuation of
medical fitness during training will be assessed during the periodic medical examinations held at AFA
prior to commissioning. They are not exhaustive, in view of the vast spectrum of diseases. These
standards are subject to change with the advancement in the scientific knowledge and change in
working conditions of Armed Forces.

4. Laboratory and Radiological Investigations for Special Medical Board

(a) Hematology: Complete Haemogram (Haemoglobin estimation, Total Leucocyte
Count with Differential Leucocyte Count, Platelet Count).
(b) Hb Electrophoresis will be carried out in candidates for commissioning to exclude
Haemoglobinopathies.
(c) Biochemistry: Liver function test (LFT), Renal Function Test (RFT), Blood glucose
estimation (Fasting and two hours after 75 g anhydrous glucose/82.5 g glucose monohydrate
loading), Lipid profile.
(d) Urine Routine Examination (RE) and Microscopic Examination (ME).
(e) ECG.
(f) Radiology: -
(i) Radiograph Chest PA view in all candidates.
(ii) Radiograph Lumbosacral Spine: AP and Lateral views in all candidates.
(iii) In addition to the above radiographs, Cervical Spine - AP and Lateral views,
Dorsal Spine - AP and Lateral views will be carried out in all candidates being
assessed for flying duties.
(iv) USG Abdomen and Pelvis.
(v) Any other additional investigation deemed necessary will be conducted
during the Appeal stage.

General Physical Assessment

5. Every candidate, to be fit for the Air Force, must conform to the minimum standards laid
down in the succeeding paragraphs. The physical parameters should fall within the acceptable ranges
and should be proportionate.

6. The residual effects of old fractures/ injuries are to be assessed for any functional limitation.
If there is no effect on function, the candidate can be assessed fit. Following categories should be
meticulously assessed:
46

(a) Spine Injuries. Cases of old fractures of spine are unfit. Any residual deformity of
spine or compression of a vertebra will be cause for rejection.

(b) Nerve Injuries. Injuries involving the trunks of the larger nerves, resulting in loss of
function, or neuroma formation, which causes pain significant tingling, indicate unsuitability
for employment in flying duties.

(c) Keloids. The presence of large or multiple keloids will be a cause for rejection.

(d) Surgical Scars. Minor well-healed scars for e.g as resulting from any superficial
surgery do not, per se, indicate unsuitability for employment. Extensive scarring of a limb or
torso that may cause functional limitation or unsightly appearance should be considered unfit.

(e) Birth Marks. Abnormal pigmentation in the form of hypo or hyper-pigmentation is
not acceptable. Localized, congenital mole/ naevus, however, is acceptable provided its size is
<10 cm. Congenital multiple naevi or vascular tumours that interfere with function or are
exposed to constant irritation are not acceptable.

(f) Subcutaneous Swellings. Lipoma will be considered fit unless the lipoma is causing
significant disfigurement/ functional impairment due to the size/ location. Neurofibroma, if
single will be considered fit. Multiple neurofibromas associated with significant Café-au-lait
spots (more than 1.5 cm size or more than one in number) will be considered unfit.

(g) Cervical Rib. Cervical rib without any neuro-vascular compromise will be accepted.
Meticulous clinical examination to rule out neuro-vascular compromise should be performed
in such cases. This should be documented in the Medical Board proceedings.

(h) Cranio-facial Deformities. Asymmetry of the face and head or uncorrected
deformities of skull, face or mandible which will interfere with proper fitting of oxygen mask,
helmet or military headgear will be considered unfit. Major deformities even after corrective
surgery will be considered unfit.

(i) History relating to Operations. A candidate who has undergone an abdominal
operation involving extensive surgical intervention or partial/ total excision of any organ is, as
a rule, unfit for service. Operation involving the cranial vault with any residual bony defect
will be unfit. Major thoracic operations will make the candidate unfit.

Measurements and Physique

7. Chest Shape and Circumference. The chest should be well proportioned and well
developed. Any chest deformity likely to interfere with physical exertion during training and
performance of military duties or adversely impact military bearing or are associated with any cardio-
pulmonary or musculoskeletal anomaly are to be considered unfit. Minimum acceptable chest
circumference in male candidates for commissioning is 77 cm. The chest expansion must be at least
05 cm for all categories of candidates. For the purpose of documentation, any decimal fraction lower
than 0.5 cm will be ignored, 0.5 cm will be recorded as such and 0.6 cm and above will be recorded as
01 cm.

8. Height.

(a) Ground Duty Branches. The minimum height for entry into ground duty branches is
as follows: -

(i) Male – 157 cm.
(ii) Female - 152 cm.

47

Note 1:-In case of candidates of Lakshadweep ethnicity, the minimum acceptable height is
reduced by 02 cm (155 cm for males and 150 cm for females). For Gorkhas and individual
belonging to North-Eastern regions of India and hilly regions of Uttarakhand, the minimum
acceptable height will be 05 cm less (152 cm for males and 147 cm for females).

Note 2:- Candidates of North East and Hilly states ethnicity includes Gorkhas, Kumaonis,
Garhwalis, Assamese and those belonging to the states of Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram,
Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Tripura, Sikkim and hilly areas of Uttarakhand.

(b) Flying Duty Branches. The minimum height (both male and female) for entry into
flying duty branches is as follows: -

(i) Pilots, Flight Test Engineers (FTE) and WSO of Su 30 MKI - 162 cm.
(ii) Officers and airmen who apply for aircrew duties, other than F(P), FTE duties
and WSO of Su-30 MKI - 157 cm.

9. Sitting Height, Leg Length and Thigh Length. Acceptable measurements of leg length,
thigh length and sitting height for such aircrew will be as under: -

(a) Sitting height Minimum - 81.5 cm
Maximum - 96.0 cm
(b) Leg Length Minimum - 99.0 cm
Maximum - 120.0 cm
(c) Thigh Length Maximum - 64.0 cm

10. Body Weight Parameters

(a) The acceptable weight range for candidates is given at Appendix A (Male candidates)
to this guidelines. Candidates outside the given weight range for their age and height will not
be acceptable.

Appendix A
(Refer para 8 &10 )
WEIGHT FOR HEIGHT CHART: MALES (AT ENTRY)
Maximum Weight (Kg)
Height Minimum Age at last Age at last
Age at last birthday
(cm) Weight (Kg) birthday birthday
20 to 25 yrs
Below 20 yrs Above 25 yrs
152 40 53 55 58
153 40 54 56 59
154 40 55 57 59
155 41 55 58 60
156 41 56 58 61
157 42 57 59 62
158 42 57 60 62
159 43 58 61 63
160 44 59 61 64
161 44 60 62 65
162 45 60 63 66
163 45 61 64 66
164 46 62 65 67
165 46 63 65 68
166 47 63 66 69
167 47 64 67 70
48

Maximum Weight (Kg)
Height Minimum Age at last Age at last
Age at last birthday
(cm) Weight (Kg) birthday birthday
20 to 25 yrs
Below 20 yrs Above 25 yrs
168 48 65 68 71
169 49 66 69 71
170 49 66 69 72
171 50 67 70 73
172 50 68 71 74
173 51 69 72 75
174 51 70 73 76
175 52 70 74 77
176 53 71 74 77
177 53 72 75 78
178 54 73 76 79
179 54 74 77 80
180 55 75 78 81
181 56 75 79 82
182 56 76 79 83
183 57 77 80 84
184 58 78 81 85
185 58 79 82 86
186 59 80 83 86
187 59 80 84 87
188 60 81 85 88
189 61 82 86 89
190 61 83 87 90
191 62 84 88 91
192 63 85 88 92
193 63 86 89 93
194 64 87 90 94
195 65 87 91 95
196 65 88 92 96
197 66 89 93 97
198 67 90 94 98
199 67 91 95 99
200 68 92 96 100

Cardiovascular System

11. Pulse. Persistent sinus tachycardia (> 100 bpm) as well as persistent sinus bradycardia (< 60
bpm) are unfit. In case bradycardia is considered to be physiological, the candidate can be declared fit
after evaluation by Medical specialist/cardiologist.

12. Blood pressure. An individual with systolic blood pressure greater than or equal to 140
mmHg and/or diastolic blood pressure greater than or equal to 90 mmHg shall be rejected.

13. Cardiac Murmurs. Evidence of organic cardiovascular disease will be cause for rejection.
Diastolic murmurs are invariably organic. Short systolic murmurs of ejection systolic nature and not
associated with thrill and which diminish on standing, especially if associated with a normal ECG and
chest radiograph, are most often functional.

49

14. ECG. Any ECG abnormality detected at SMB/Recruitment Medical Examination will be a
ground for rejection. Benign ECG abnormalities like incomplete RBBB, T wave inversion in inferior
leads, T inversion in V1 to V3 (persistent juvenile pattern), LVH by voltage criteria (due to thin chest
wall) may exist without any structural heart disease. Echocardiography should be performed in all
such cases to rule out an underlying structural heart disease and opinion of Senior Advisor
(Medicine)/Cardiologist should be obtained.

15. Congenital Cardiac Anomalies. All congenital cardiac anomalies will be declared unfit.

16. Cardiac surgery and interventions. Candidates with history of cardiac surgery/ intervention
in the past will be considered unfit.

Respiratory System

17. Pulmonary Tuberculosis. Any residual scarring in pulmonary parenchyma or pleura, as
evidenced by a demonstrable opacity on chest radiogram will be a ground for rejection. Old treated
cases with no significant residual abnormality can be accepted if the diagnosis and treatment was
completed more than two years earlier.

18. Pleurisy with Effusion. Any evidence of pleural thickening will be a cause for rejection. At
the time of appeal, these cases will be subjected to detailed evaluation with appropriate investigations
by Pulmonologist/Medical Specialist.

19. Bronchitis. History of repeated attacks of cough/wheezing/bronchitis may be manifestations
of chronic bronchitis or other chronic pathology of the respiratory tract. Such cases will be assessed
unfit and will be subjected to detailed evaluation with appropriate investigations at the time of appeal
by Pulmonologist/Medical Specialist.

20. Bronchial Asthma. History of repeated attacks of bronchial asthma/wheezing/ allergic
rhinitis will be a cause for rejection.

21. Radiographs of the Chest. Definite radiological evidence of disease of the lungs,
mediastinum and pleurae are criteria for declaring the candidate unfit.

22. Thoracic Surgery. Candidate with history of any major surgery of the thorax will be
considered unfit.

Gastrointestinal System

23. Head to toe examination. Presence of any sign of liver cell failure (e.g. loss of hair,
parotidomegaly, spider naevi, gynaecomastia, testicular atrophy, flapping tremors etc) and any
evidence of malabsorption (pallor, nail and skin changes, angular cheilitis, pedal edema) will entail
rejection.

24. Gastro-Duodenal Disabilities.Any past surgical procedure involving partial or total loss of
an organ (other than vestigial organs/gall bladder) will entail rejection.

25. Diseases of the Liver. If past history of jaundice is noted or any abnormality of the liver
function is suspected, full investigation is required for assessment. Candidates suffering from viral
hepatitis or any other form of jaundice will be rejected. Such candidates can be declared fit after a
minimum period of 6 months has elapsed provided there is full clinical recovery; HBV and HCV
status are both negative and liver functions are within normal limits. History of recurrent jaundice and
hyperbilirubinemia of any nature is unfit.

26. Disease of the Spleen. Candidates who have undergone partial/ total splenectomy are unfit,
irrespective of the cause for operation.

50

27. Anterior abdominal wall hernia including femoral hernia. (i) Fit. After 24 weeks of
surgery (open as well as laparoscopic) provided there is no recurrence or post-op complications (ii)
Unfit. (a) All current or operated cases of incisional hernia (b) All cases of current anterior abdominal
wall hernia.

Inguinal Hernia. (i) FIT. After 24 weeks of hernia repair surgery (open as well as laparoscopic)
provided there is no recurrence or post-op complications (ii) Unfit. All cases of current inguinal
hernia

28. Abdominal Surgery. A candidate with well-healed scar post conventional abdominal surgery
(except appendicectomy through right iliac fossa incision, refer para 36.2) will be considered fit after
24 weeks provided there is no potential for any recurrence of the underlying pathology, no evidence
of incisional hernia and the condition of the abdominal wall musculature is good.

29. Anorectal Conditions. The examiner should do a digital rectal examination and rule out
haemorrhoids, sentinel piles, anal skin tags, fissures, sinuses, fistulae, prolapsed rectal mass or polyps.

(a) Fit.

(i) After rectal surgery for polyps, haemorrhoids, fissure, fistula, ulcer or
pilonidal sinus, provided there is no residual/recurrent disease.
(aa) Anal Fissure, Hemorrhoids: After 12 weeks of surgery.
(ab) Pilonidal Sinus: After 12 weeks of surgery.

(b) Unfit.
(i) Rectal prolapse even after surgical correction.
(ii) Active anal fissure/External Skin tags.
(iii) Hemorrhoids (external or internal).
(iv) Anal Fistula.
(v) Anal or rectal polyp.
(vi) Anal stricture.
(vii) Fecal incontinence.

30. Ultrasonography of Abdomen

(a) Liver.

Fit.

(i) Normal echo-anatomy of the liver, CBD, IHBR, portal and hepatic veins with
liver span not exceeding 15 cm in the mid- clavicular line.
(ii) Solitary simple cyst (thin wall, anechoic) upto 2.5 cm diameter provided that
the LFT is normal and hydatid serology is negative.
(iii) Hepatic calcifications to be considered fit if solitary and less than 01 cm with
no evidence of active disease like tuberculosis, sarcoidosis, hydatid disease or liver
abscess based on relevant clinical examinations and appropriate investigations.

Unfit.

(i) Hepatomegaly more than 15 cm in mid-clavicular line.
(ii) Fatty liver.
(aa) Grade 1 Fatty liver with abnormal LFT.
(ab) Grade 2 and 3 Fatty Liver.
(iii) Solitary cyst > 2.5 cm.
(iv) Solitary cyst of any size with thick walls, septations, papillary projections,
calcifications and debris.
(v) Multiple hepatic calcifications or cluster greater than 01 cm.
(vi) Multiple hepatic cysts of any size.
51

(vii) Any haemangioma irrespective of the size and location.
(viii) Portal vein thrombosis.
(ix) Evidence of portal hypertension (Portal Vein >13 mm, collaterals, ascites).

31. Gall Bladder.

(a) Fit.

(i) Normal echo-anatomy of the gall bladder.
(ii) Post Laparoscopic Cholecystectomy. After eight weeks, provided LFT and
histopathology are within normal limits.
(iv) Post Open Cholecystectomy. After 24 weeks, provided LFT and
histopathology are within normal limits and in the absence of incisional hernia as
confirmed on USG Abdomen.

(b) Unfit.

(i) Cholelithiasis or biliary sludge.
(ii) Choledocolithiasis.
(iii) Polyp of any size and number.
(iv) Choledochal cyst.
(v) Gall bladder mass.
(vi) Gall bladder wall thickness > 05 mm.
(vii) Septate gall bladder.
(viii) Persistently contracted gall bladder on repeat USG.
(ix) Incomplete Cholecystectomy.

(c) Non-visualized Gall Bladder on USG. Will be considered unfit. They will be
considered fit during appeal, if agenesis of gall bladder is confirmed on Magnetic Resonance
Cholangio-Pancreatography (MRCP), in the absence of any other abnormality of the biliary
tract.

32. Spleen.

(a) Unfit.
(i) Spleen more than 13 cm in longitudinal axis (or if clinically
palpable).
(ii) Any Space Occupying Lesion in the spleen.
(iii) Asplenia.
(iv) Candidates who have undergone partial/ total splenectomy are unfit,
irrespective of the cause of operation.
33. Pancreas.

(a) Unfit

(i) Any structural abnormality.

(ii) Any Space Occupying Lesion/ Mass lesion.

(iii) Features of chronic pancreatitis (calcification, ductal abnormality, atrophy)

34. Peritoneal Cavity.

(a) Unfit.
(i) Ascites.
(ii) Solitary mesenteric or retroperitoneal lymph node > 01 cm. (Single
retroperitoneal LN < 01 cm and normal in architecture may be considered
fit).
52

(iii) Two or more lymph nodes of any size
(v) Any mass or cyst.

35. Major Abdominal Vasculature (Aorta/ IVC). Any structural abnormality, focal ectasia,
aneurysm and calcification will be considered as unfit.

36. Appendicectomy.

(a) Laparoscopic Appendicectomy will be assessed for post-operative fitness after a
minimum period of four weeks. Candidates will be considered fit if:-
(i) Post-operative site scars are well healed.
(ii) Scars are supple.
(iii) Histopathological report of appendix is available.
(iv) USG confirmation of absence of port site incisional hernia.

(b) Open Appendicectomy (appendicectomy through right iliac fossa incision only) will
be assessed for post-op fitness after a minimum period 12 weeks. Candidates will be
considered fit,
if :-
(i) Wound has healed well.
(ii) Scar is supple and non-tender.
(iii) Histopathological report of appendix is available.
(iv) USG confirmation of absence of surgical site incisional hernia.

Urogenital System

The fitness criteria to be followed are as follows:-

37. Undescended testis (UDT)/ Orchidectomy.
(a) Unfit.
(i) If the testis cannot be palpated (unilateral or bilateral) even after examination
of the candidate in squatting position.
(ii) Bilateral orchidectomy due to any cause such as trauma, torsion or infection
is unfit.

(b) Fit.
(i) Operatively corrected UDT at least four weeks after surgery, provided after
surgical correction, the testis is normal in location and the wound has healed well.
(ii) Unilateral orchidectomy for benign cause, provided other testis is normal in
size, fixation and location.

38. Atrophic Testis.
(a) Unfit. Bilateral atrophied testis.
(b) Fit. Unilateral atrophic testis for benign cause, provided other testis is normal in size,
fixation and location.

39. Varicocele.
(a) Unfit. All grades of current varicocele.

(c) Fit. Post-operative cases of varicocele with no residual varicocele and no post-op
complications or testicular atrophy after eight weeks of surgery.

40. Hydrocele.
(a) Unfit. Current hydrocele on any side.
(b) Fit. Operated cases of hydrocele after eight weeks of surgery, if there are no post-op
complications and wound has healed well.

53

41. Epididymal Cyst/ Mass, Spermatocele.
(a) Unfit – Current presence of cyst / mass.
(b) Fit. After 08 Weeks of Post-operative well healed cases with no recurrence and only
when benign on histopathology report.

42. Epididymitis/ Orchitis.
(a) Unfit – Presence of current orchitis or epididymitis/ tuberculosis.
(b) Fit After treatment, provided the condition has resolved completely.

43. Epispadias/ Hypospadias.
(a) Unfit – All are unfit, except glanular variety of hypospadias and epispadias, which is
acceptable.
(b) Fit – Post-operative cases at least 08 weeks after successful surgery, provided recovery is
complete and there are no complications.

44. Penile Amputation. Any amputation will make the candidate unfit.

45. Phimosis.
(a) Unfit – Current phimosis, if tight enough to interfere with local hygiene and voiding
and/ or associated with Balanitis Xerotica Obliterans.
(b) Fit – Operated cases will be considered fit after 04 weeks of surgery, provided wound
is fully healed and no post-op complications are seen.

46. Meatal Stenosis

(a) Unfit – Current disease, if small enough to interfere with voiding.
(b) Fit – Mild disease not interfering with voiding and post-operative cases after a period of
04 weeks of surgery with adequately healed wound and no Post Operative complications.

47. Stricture Urethra, Urethral Fistula. Any history of / current cases or post-op cases are unfit.

48. Sex reassignment surgery/ Intersex condition. Unfit

49. Nephrectomy. All cases, irrespective of the type of surgery (Simple/ radical/ donor/ partial/
RFA/ cryo-ablation) are unfit.

50. Renal Transplant Recipients. Unfit

51. Urachal Cyst :08 Weeks (To be declared fit in the absence of any remnant)

52. Cases of Bladder diverticulum will be declared as Unfit.

53. Urine Examination.

(a) Proteinuria. Proteinuria will be a cause for rejection, unless it proves to be orthostatic.
(b) Glycosuria. When glycosuria is detected, a blood sugar examination (fasting and after
75 g glucose) and glycosylated Hb is to be carried out, and fitness decided as per results.
Renal glycosuria is not a cause for rejection.
(c) Urinary Infections. When the candidate has history or evidence of urinary infection it
will entail full renal investigation. Persistent evidence of urinary infection will entail
rejection.
(d) Haematuria. Candidates with history of haematuria will be subjected to full renal
investigation.

54. Glomerulonephritis.
(a) Acute: In this condition there is a high rate of recovery in the acute phase, particularly
in childhood. A candidate who has made a complete recovery and has no proteinuria may be
assessed fit, after a minimum period of one year after full recovery.
54

(b) Chronic:- Candidate with chronic glomerulonephritis will be rejected.

55. Renal Calculi: Irrespective of size, numbers, obstructive or non-obstructive, history of renal
calculi (history or radiological evidence) will render a candidate Unfit.

56. Sexual Transmitted Diseases and Human Immuno Deficiency Virus (HIV). Seropositive
HIV status and/ or evidence of STD will entail rejection.

57. Ultrasonography of the Abdomen - Urogenital System

58. Kidneys, ureters and urinary bladder

(a) Unfit

(i) Congenital structural abnormalities of kidneys or urinary tract
(aa) Unilateral renal agenesis.
(ab) Unilateral or bilateral hypoplastic/ contracted kidney of size less than 08 cm.
(ac) Malrotation of kidney.
(ad) Horseshoe kidney.
(ae) Ptosed kidney.
(af) Crossed fused/ ectopic kidney.
(ii) Simple single renal cyst of more than 1.5 cm size in one kidney.
(iii) Complex cyst/ polycystic disease/ multiple or bilateral cysts.
(iv) Renal/ ureteric/ vesical mass.
(v) Hydronephrosis or Hydroureteronephrosis.
(vi) Calculi - Renal/ Ureteric/ Vesical.
(vii) Calyectasis

(b) Fit

(i) Solitary, unilateral, simple renal cyst <1.5 cm provided the cyst is
peripherally located, round/ oval, with thin smooth wall and no loculations, with
posterior enhancement, no debris, no septa and no solid component.

Endocrine System.

59. Any history suggestive of endocrine disorders will be a cause for rejection.

60. Clinical Examination. Any clinical evidence of endocrine disease will be unfit.

61. All cases of thyroid swelling are unfit. Fitness of such cases will be decided during appeal
medical board after evaluation with appropriate investigations.

62. Candidates detected to have Diabetes Mellitus will be rejected. A candidate with a family
history of Diabetes Mellitus will be subjected to blood sugar (Fasting and after two hours of 75 g of
anhydrous / 82.5 g monohydrate Glucose load) and HbA1c evaluation, which will be recorded.

Dermatological System.

63. Relevant History and Examination. Candidates who give history of sexual exposure to a
Commercial Sex Worker (CSW) and have evidence of healed penile sore in the form of a scar must be
declared permanently unfit, even in absence of an overt STD, as these candidates are likely ‘repeaters’
with similar indulgent promiscuous behavior.

64. Assessment of Diseases of the Skin. Acute non-exanthematous and non-communicable
diseases, which ordinarily run a temporary course, need not be a cause of rejection. Diseases of a
trivial nature, and those, which do not interfere with general health or cause incapacity, do not entail
rejection.
55

65. Certain skin conditions are apt to become active and incapacitating under tropical conditions.
An individual is unsuitable for service if he has a definite history or signs of chronic or recurrent skin
disease. Some of such conditions are described below:-

66. Palmoplantar Hyperhydrosis. Some amount of Palmoplantar Hyperhydrosis is
physiological, considering the situation that recruits face during medical examination. However,
candidates with significant Palmoplantar Hyperhydrosis should be considered unfit.

67. Acne vulgaris Mild (Grade I) acne consisting of few comedones or papules, localized only to
the face may be acceptable. However, moderate to severe degree of acne (nodulocystic type with or
without keloidal scarring) or involving the back should be considered unfit.

68. Palmoplantar Keratoderma Any degree of palmoplantar keratoderma manifesting with
hyperkeratotic and fissured skin over the palms, soles and heels should be considered unfit.

69. Ichthyosis vulgaris Ichthyosis involving the upper and lower limbs, with evident dry, scaly,
fissured skin should be considered unfit. Mild xerosis (dry skin) could be considered fit.

70. Candidates having any keloid should be considered unfit.

71. Clinically evident onychomycosis of finger and toe-nails should be declared unfit, especially
if associated with nail dystrophy. Mild degree of distal discoloration involving single nail without any
dystrophy may be acceptable.

72. Giant congenital melanocytic naevi, greater than 10 cm should be considered unfit, as there is
a malignant potential in such large sized naevi.

73. Single corns/ Warts/ Callosities will be considered fit, three months after successful treatment
and no recurrence. However, candidates with multiple warts/ corns/ callosities on palms and soles or
diffuse palmoplantar mosaic warts, large callosities on pressure areas of palms and soles should be
rejected.

74. Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition known to relapse and/or recur and hence should be
considered unfit.

75. Vitiligo. Those having vitiligo must be made unfit. On appeal, segmental vitiligo under the
covered parts may be accepted.

76. A history of chronic or recurrent episodes of skin infections will be cause for rejection.
Folliculitis or sycosis barbae from which there has been complete recovery may be considered fit.

77. Individuals who have chronic or frequently recurring episodes of a skin disease of a serious or
incapacitating nature e.g. eczema are to be assessed as permanently unfit and rejected.

78. Any sign of Leprosy will be a cause for rejection. All peripheral nerves should be examined
for any thickness of the nerves and any clinical evidence suggestive of leprosy is a ground for
rejection.

79. Naevus depigmentosus and Beckers naevus may be considered fit. Intradermal naevus,
vascular naevi are to be made unfit.

80. Pityriasis Versicolor is to be made unfit. They can be made fit on appeal, if completely
treated.
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81. Any fungal infection of any part of the body will be unfit. They can be made fit on appeal, if
completely treated.

82. Scrotal Eczema may be considered fit on recovery.

83. Canities (premature graying of hair) may be considered fit if mild in nature and no systemic
association is seen.

84. Intertrigo may be considered fit on recovery.

85. All STDs are unfit.

86. Scabies may be considered fit only on recovery.

87. Alopecia areata single and small (<2 cm in diameter) lesion on scalp can be accepted.
However if multiple, involving other areas or having scarring, the candidate should be rejected.

88. Gynaecomastia: Candidates to be considered fit after 12 weeks of post-operative period if: -
(a) There is a well healed surgical wound with no residual disease.
(b) No Post Operative complication.
(c) Surgical scar should be sufficiently matured and unlikely to cause any problems
during military training.
(d) Normal general physical examination.
(e) Endocrine workup is normal

89. Polymazia Candidates to be considered fit after 12 weeks of Post-Operative period if thethere
is no Post Operative complication with a well healed surgical wound and no residual disease.

Musculoskeletal System and Physical Capacity

90. Spinal Conditions: Past medical history of disease or injury of the spine or sacroiliac
joints, either with or without objective signs, which has prevented the candidate from successfully
following a physically active life, is a cause for rejection for commissioning. History of recurrent
lumbago/ spinal fracture/ prolapsed intervertebral disc and surgical treatment for these conditions will
entail rejection.

91. Clinical Examination. Normal thoracic kyphosis and cervical/ lumbar lordosis are barely
noticeable and not associated with pain or restriction of movement.

(a) If clinical examination reveals restriction of spine movements, deformities,
tenderness of the spine or any gait abnormalities, it will be considered unfit.
(b) Gross kyphosis, affecting military bearing/ restricts full range of spinal movements
and/or expansion of chest is unfit.
(c) When scoliosis is noticeable or any pathological condition of the spine is suspected,
radiographic examination of the appropriate part of the spine needs to be carried out. Scoliosis
is unfit, if deformity persists on full flexion of the spine, when associated with restricted range
of spine movements or when due to an underlying pathological cause.
(d) Spina Bifida. The following markers should be looked for, on clinical examination
and corroborated with radiological evaluation:-
(i) Congenital defects overlying the spine eg, hypertrichosis, skin dimpling,
haemangioma, pigmented naevus or dermal sinus.
(ii) Presence of lipoma over spine.
(iii) Palpable spina bifida.
(iv) Abnormal findings on neurological examination.

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92. Castellvi Classification for Lumbosacral Transitional Vertebra (LSTV).

Castellvi Classification for LSTV

(a) Type I. Enlarged and dysplastic transverse process (at least 19 mm in width in
craniocaudal dimension).

(i) I a. Unilateral.

(ii) I b. Bilateral.

(b) Type II. Pseudoarticulation of the transverse process and sacrum with incomplete
lumbarisation/sacralistion (enlargement of the transverse process with pseudoarthrosis).

(i) II a. Unilateral.

(ii) II b. Bilateral.

(c) Type III. Transverse process fuses with the sacrum and there is complete
lumbarisation or sacralisation (enlarged transverse process with complete fusion).

(i) III a. Unilateral.

(ii) III b. Bilateral.

(d) Type IV. Type II on one side and type III on the contralateral side.
93. Spinal Conditions Unfit for Air Force Duties (Both Flying and Ground Duties)
(a) Congenital/Developmental Anomalies.

(i) Wedge Vertebra.

(ii) Hemivertebra.

(iii) Anterior Central Defect.

(iv) Cervical Ribs (Unilateral/Bilateral) with demonstrable neurological or
circulatory deficit.

(v) Spina Bifida. All types are unfit except in sacrum and LV5 (if completely
sacralised).

(vi) Loss of Cervical Lordosis with neurological deficit.
(vii) Assessment of Scoliosis. Idiopathic scoliosis upto 10 degrees for Lumbar
Spine and 15 degrees for Dorsal Spine will be acceptable provided:-

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(aa) Individual is asymptomatic.

(ab) No history of trauma to spine.

(ac) No chest asymmetry/shoulder imbalance or pelvic obliquity in the
lumbar spine.

(ad) There is no neurological deficit.

(ae) No congenital anomaly of the spine.

(af) There is absence of syndromic features.

(ag) ECG is normal.

(ah) No deformity exists on full flexion of the spine.

(aj) No restriction of range of movements

(ak) No organic defect causing structural abnormality.

(vii) Atlanto-occipital and Atlanto-axial anomalies.

(ix) Incomplete block vertebra at any level.

(x) Complete block vertebra at more than one level. (Single level is acceptable.
Annotation is to be made in AFMSF-2).

(xi) Lumbosacral Transitional Vertebra (LSTV). Unilateral sacralisation or
lumbarisation (complete or incomplete) and Bilateral incomplete sacralisation or
lumbarisation (LSTV- Castellvi Type II a and b, III a and IV).

Bilateral Complete Sacralisation of LV5 and Bilateral Complete Lumbarisation of
SV1, LSTV Castellvi Type III b, Type I a and b are acceptable (Annotation is to be
made in AFMSF-2).

(xii) Spondylolysis/Spondylolisthesis.

(xiii) Intervertebral Disc Prolapse.

(xiv) Schmorl’s Nodes at more than one level.

(b) Traumatic Conditions

(i) Spondylolysis/ Spondylolisthesis

(ii) Compression fracture of vertebra

(iii) Intervertebral Disc Prolapse

(iv) Schmorl’s Nodes at more than one level

(c) Infective

(i) Tuberculosis and other Granulomatous disease of spine (old or active)

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(ii) Infective Spondylitis

(d) Autoimmune

(i) Rheumatoid Arthritis and allied disorders

(ii) Ankylosing spondylitis

(iii) Other rheumatological disorders of spine e.g Polymyositis, SLE and
Vasculitis

(e) Degenerative

(i) Spondylosis

(ii) Degenerative Joint Disorders

(iii) Degenerative Disc Disease

(iv) Osteoarthrosis/ osteoarthritis

(v) Scheuerman’s Disease (Adolescent Kyphosis)

(f) Any other spinal abnormality, if so considered by the specialist.

Conditions affecting the assessment of upper limbs

94. Amputations and Deformities of Upper limbs. Deformities of the upper limbs or their parts
will be cause for rejection. Candidate with an amputation of a limb or any part of limb including
fingers will not be accepted for entry.

95. Fingers and Hands. Deformities and limitations to movements will be considered unfit.
(a) Polydactyly. Can be declared fit 12 weeks post- operative, if there is no bony
abnormality on radiograph, wound is well healed, scar is supple and there is no evidence of
neuroma on clinical examination.
(b) Simple Syndactyly. Can be declared fit 12 weeks post-operative, if there is no bony
abnormality on radiograph, wound is healed, scar is supple and webspace is satisfactory.
(c) Complex syndactyly. Unfit.

(d) Hyperextensible finger joints. All candidates shall be thoroughly examined for
hyperextensible finger joints. Any extension of fingers bending backwards beyond 90 degrees
shall be considered hyperextensible and considered unfit. Other joints like knee, elbow, spine
and thumb shall also be examined carefully for features of hyper-laxity/hypermobility.
Although the individual may not show features of hyperlaxity in other joints, isolated
presentation of hyperextensibility of finger joints shall be considered unfit because of the
various ailments that may manifest later, if such candidates are subjected to strenuous
physical training.

(e) Mallet Finger. Loss of extensor mechanism at the distal interphalangeal joint leads to
Mallet finger. Chronic mallet deformity can lead to secondary changes in the proximal inter-
phalangeal (PIP) and metacarpo-phalangeal (MCP) joint which can result in compromised
hand function. Normal range of movement at distal
inter-phalangeal (DIP) joints is 0-80 degree and PIP joint is 0-90 degree in both flexion and
extension. In Mallet finger, the candidate is unable to extend/straighten distal phalanx of
fingers completely.

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