UPSC NDA NA II 2026 Notification

NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY AND NAVAL ACADEMY EXAMINATION-II, 2026

EXAMINATION NOTICE NO.10/2026-NDA-II
Date of Notification of Examination 20.05.2026
Last date for filling up of Application 09.06.2026
Date of Examination 13.09.2026

(The Commission's website - https://upsc.gov.in)

IMPORTANT INFORMATION FOR THE CANDIDATES
The Online Application Portal of Union Public Service Commission for
registration and filling up of application form online has four cards/modules, three
of which namely, Account creation, Universal Registration and Common
Application Form are common to all examination applications and can be filled
anytime by the candidate while the fourth card/module is examination specific
and can be filled during the time period allowed in notification of an examination.
Applicants are required to apply online by using the website
https://upsconline.nic.in.

Once a candidate has registered on the Online Application Portal, a
Universal Registration Number (URN) is generated which is common for all the
examinations of the Commission. After filling up of the Examination Specific
Form, an Application Number is generated which is examination specific and is to
be retained by the applicant alongwith the URN for any future communication
with the Commission. The URN has to be registered only once in a lifetime. While
the URN will be unique and will remain constant, the Application Number will be
dynamic in nature and will vary from examination to examination.

Detailed instructions are available on the home page of the portal as well as
with all profiles/modules to guide the candidates for filling up of the application
form and uploading the documents. Candidates are advised to first go through
these Instructions carefully and prepare requisite documents in advance to have a
smooth flow during filling up of form and document uploading.

Applicants are strongly advised to use their Aadhaar Card as ID documents
for easy, effortless and seamless verification and authentication of ID and other
details.

1. CANDIDATES TO ENSURE THEIR ELIGIBILITY FOR THE
EXAMINATION:

All the candidates are requested to carefully read the Rules of National
Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination-II, 2026 notified by the
Government (Ministry of Defence) and this Notice of Examination derived from
these Rules. Candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they
fulfill all the eligibility conditions for admission to the Examination. Their
admission at all the stages of the examination will be purely provisional
subject to satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. Mere issue of e-
Admit Card to the candidate will not imply that his/her candidature has
been finally cleared by the Commission. Verification of eligibility
conditions with reference to original documents will be taken up only after

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the candidate has qualified for Interview/Personality Test.

2. HOW TO APPLY

Candidates are required to apply online by using the Commission’s website
https://upsconline.nic.in. Candidates are advised to go through the General
instructions, Profile/Module wise instructions and instructions for uploading of
documents before proceeding to fill up the form. These instructions are available on the
menu bar of the Home page. A candidate who is willing to apply for National Defence
Academy and Naval Academy Examination-II, 2026 shall be required to submit the
requisite information and supporting documents towards various claims, such as date of
birth, educational qualification, etc. as may be sought by the Commission along with the
Universal Registration Number (URN), Common Application Form (CAF) and the fourth
module i.e. Examination Specific Module (including fees and centre etc.). Failure to
provide the required information/documents along with the Common Application Form
(CAF) will entail cancellation of candidature for the examination.

NOTE 1:- ONE-TIME EDIT FACILITY FOR URN PROFILE:

The Commission provides a one-time facility for candidates to update or modify
their Universal Registration Number (URN) profile. Please note that any changes made to
the URN Profile will not be reflected in applications already submitted. The updated
information will apply only to applications submitted after the candidate has made the
necessary changes and successfully re-locked the URN Profile.

NOTE 2:- LIVE PHOTO CAPTURE FOR FILLING UP OF COMMON APPLICATION FORM
(CAF):

Applicants are required to upload their photograph and also capture their live
photograph while filling up the Common Application Form (CAF). Applicants must
ensure that the uploaded photograph and the live photograph captured are clear as per
instructions given on “Instructions and FAQs > Instruction for filling the form > Photos
and Signature” available on the Commission’s website https://upsconline.nic.in.

NOTE 3:- UPLOADING OF SIGNATURE:

Applicants are required to sign three times (one below the other) on a plain white
paper using black ink and upload the same while filling up the Common Application
Form (CAF). The uploaded signatures should be clear and legible. The candidates are
advised to refer to the instruction for uploading the signature available under the header
“Instructions and FAQs” on the Commission’s website: https://upsconline.nic.in.

NOTE 4 :- UPLOADING OF PHOTOGRAPH:

Please follow the Instruction in respect of uploading of Photograph as elaborated
in the Instructions to upload documents in the home page of the online application portal.

2.1 WITHDRAWAL OF APPLICATION:

The candidate will not be allowed to withdraw his/her applications after the
submission of the same. Further, no correction/alteration/modification in any field(s) of
the Application Form is allowed after submission.

2.2 The candidate should also have details of one photo ID viz. Aadhaar Card/ Voter
Card(EPIC)/ PAN Card/ Passport/ Driving License/ School Photo ID/Any other Photo ID
Card issued by the State/Central Government. The details of this Photo ID Card will have
to be provided by the candidate while filling up the Universal Registration Number (URN)
Profile. This Photo ID Card will be used for all future reference and the candidate is

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advised to carry this ID Card while appearing for Examination/SSB.

2.3 Applicants are strongly advised to use their Aadhaar Card as ID document for
easy, effortless and seamless verification and authentication of ID and other details.

3. LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION:

The Online Application can be filled upto 06:00 P.M. of 9th June 2026.

4. ISSUANCE OF e-ADMIT CARD:

The eligible candidates will be issued an e-Admit Card on the last working day
of the preceding week of the date of the examination. The e-Admit Card will be made
available on the Commission’s website (https://upsconline.nic.in) for downloading by the
candidates. No Admit Card will be sent by post or email. All the applicants are requested
to provide valid and active email ID while creating account as the Commission may use
electronic mode for contacting them.

5. MARKING ANSWERS IN THE OMR SHEET:

For both writing and marking answers in the OMR sheet (Answer Sheet),
candidates must use black ball pen only. Pen of any other colour is not permitted. Do
not use Pencil or Ink pen. Candidates should note that any
omission/mistake/discrepancy in encoding/filling of details in the OMR answer sheet
especially with regard to Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code will render the answer
sheet liable for rejection. Candidates are further advised to read carefully the “Special
Instructions” contained in Appendix- II of the Notice.

6. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS:

Candidates should note that there will be penalty (Negative Marking) for wrong
answers marked by a candidate in the Objective Type Question Papers.

7. ONLINE REPRESENTATION PORTAL FOR QUESTION PAPER &
PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEYS:-

The Commission will be providing an opportunity to the appeared candidates to
make representations to the Commission on the questions asked in the Papers of the
Examination and on the Provisional Answer Keys of the Objective Type Question Paper(s)
of the National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination in a time frame of five
(05) days i.e. from the 3rd day of the Examination date to 06.00 P.M. of the 7th day. The
appeared candidates may login to the Commission’s website: https://upsconline.nic.in
and submit their representation(s), if any, under the header ‘Examinations >
Representations on Question Paper & Provisional Answer Keys’. No representation by
email/post/hand or by any other mode shall be accepted and the Commission shall not
involve into any correspondence with the candidates in this regard. No representation
shall be accepted under any circumstances after this window of five (05) days is over.

8. HELPDESK FOR CANDIDATE:

The Commission has established a dedicated helpline to assist the
candidates during the application process. Candidates seeking clarification,
guidance, or assistance related to the application process or examination
details can contact the helpline no. 011-24041001/011-40303444 or email
ID – [email protected]. The helpline will be operational from 10:00 A.M. to
5:30 P.M. on all working days during the application window i.e. from
20.05.2026 to 09.06.2026. Applicants may utilize this service for any issues
relating to the application process, including fee payment, uploading of

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documents, etc.

9. MOBILE PHONES BANNED:

(a) The use of any mobile phone (even in switched off mode), pager or any
electronic equipment or programmable device or storage media like pen drive, smart
watches etc. or camera or Bluetooth devices or any other equipment or related
accessories either in working or switched off mode capable of being used as a
communication device during the examination is strictly prohibited. Any infringement of
these instructions shall entail disciplinary action including ban from future
examinations.

(b) Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned
item including bags, mobile phones or any valuable/costly items to the venue of the
examination, as no arrangement for safe-keeping will be made at the venue of the
examination. The Commission will not be responsible for any loss in this regard.

10. REPORTING AT EXAMINATION VENUE:

The entry of the candidates into the venue of the Examination
shall be closed 30 minutes prior to the commencement of the
Examination in each session. No candidates shall be allowed entry into
the examination venue after closure of entry under any circumstance.

11. FACE AUTHENTICATION FOR CANDIDATES AT THE EXAMINATION
VENUE :

In order to ensure a secure and smooth examination process, all
candidates will be required to undergo face authentication at the
examination venue mandatorily. Candidates are advised to enter the
examination venue well in time for face authentication/identity
verification and frisking.

CANDIDATES ARE REQUIRED TO APPLY ONLINE AT https://upsconline.nic.in ONLY.
NO OTHER MODE IS ALLOWED FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION.

GOVERNMENT STRIVES TO HAVE A WORKFORCE WHICH REFLECTS GENDER
BALANCE AND WOMEN CANDIDATES ARE ENCOURAGED TO APPLY.

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F.No. 7/01/2026.E.1(B): National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination-
II, 2026 will be conducted by the Union Public Service Commission on 13th September,
2026 for admission to the Army, Navy and Air Force wings of the NDA for the 158th
Course and for the 120th Indian Naval Academy Course (INAC) commencing from 1st
July, 2027.

The date of holding the examination as mentioned above may be changed if so
required, at the discretion of the Commission.

The approximate number of vacancies to be filled on the basis of results of this
examination will be as under:—

Vacancies
Academy Service Total
Male Female
National Defence Army 198 10 208
Academy Navy 37 05 42 (All Executive branch)
Air Force
(i) Flying 90 02 92
(ii) Ground Duties (Tech) 16 02 18
(iii) Ground Duties (Non-Tech) 08 02 10
Naval Academy (10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme) 21 03 24 (All Executive Branch)
Total 370 24 394

Note : Indian Army Publishes the vacancies for Men and Women separately for various services
and Entries keeping into account the operational and administrative needs of the force as envisaged
in the existing and future scenarios. Though the vacancies for men and women categories for all
services of NDA/Naval Academy are being notified through common Notification and tested
through a common written examination for administrative purpose, NDA/Naval Academy men and
women are separate entries and selection for both these categories is done separately but in a gender
pure manner as per vacancies notified. THE PREPARATION OF WRITTEN RESULTS AND
FINAL MERIT LISTS FOR MEN AND WOMEN IN NDA/NAVAL ACADEMY FOR THESE
CATEGORIES WILL ALSO BE DONE SEPARATELY AS PER VACANCY NOTIFIED.
Vacancies are provisional and may be changed depending on the availability of
training capacity of National Defence Academy and Indian Naval Academy.

N.B. (i) Candidates are required to specify clearly in the Examination Specific module, the Services
for which he/she wishes to be considered in the order of his/her preference [1 to 4]. He/She is also
advised to indicate as many preferences as he/she wishes to opt so that having regard to his/her
rank in the order of merit due consideration can be given to his/her preferences when making
appointments.

(ii) Candidates should note that they will be considered for appointment to those services
only for which they express their preferences and for no other service(s). No request for
addition/alteration in the preferences already indicated by a candidate in his application will be
entertained by the Commission. Further, in view of multiple reconfirmations of information
submitted during the application process, the Commission has decided not to extend the facility of
making any correction(s) in any field(s) of the application form after its submission and closure of
the application window of this Examination. It is mandatory for a candidate to exercise at least one
preference to be considered for service allocation.

(iii) Admission to the above courses will be made on the basis of results of the written
examination to be conducted by the Commission followed by intelligence and personality test by
the Services Selection Board of candidates who qualify in the written examination.

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2. CENTRES OF EXAMINATION:
The Examination will be held at the following Centres :
1 AGARTALA 30 GORAKHPUR 59 NASIK

2 AGRA 31 GURUGRAM 60 NAVI MUMBAI
3 AHMEDABAD 32 GWALIOR 61 PANAJI (GOA)
4 AIZAWL 33 HISAR 62 PATNA
SRI VIJAYA PURAM
5 AJMER 34 HYDERABAD 63
(PORT BLAIR)
6 ALIGARH 35 IMPHAL 64 PRAYAGRAJ (ALLAHABAD)
7 ALMORA (UTTARAKHAND) 36 INDORE 65 PUDUCHERRY
8 ALWAR 37 ITANAGAR 66 PUNE
ANANTHAPURAMU (ANDHRA
9 38 JABALPUR 67 RAIPUR
PRADESH)
CHHATRAPATI
10 SAMBHAJINAGAR 39 JAIPUR 68 RAJKOT
[AURANGABAD (MAHARASHTRA)]
11 BAREILLY 40 JAMMU 69 RANCHI

12 BENGALURU 41 JODHPUR 70 SAMBALPUR

13 BHOPAL 42 JORHAT 71 SHILLONG

14 BHUBANESWAR 43 KANNUR 72 SHIMLA
15 BILASPUR (CHHATTISGARH) 44 KANPUR 73 SILIGURI
16 CHANDIGARH 45 KARGIL 74 SRINAGAR
17 CHENNAI 46 KOCHI 75 SRINAGAR (UTTARAKHAND)
18 COIMBATORE 47 KOHIMA 76 SURAT
19 CUTTACK 48 KOLKATA 77 THANE
KOZHIKODE
20 DEHRADUN 49 78 THIRUVANANTHAPURAM
(CALICUT)
21 DELHI 50 LEH 79 TIRUCHIRAPALLI
22 DHARAMSHALA 51 LUCKNOW 80 TIRUPATI
23 DHARWAD 52 LUDHIANA 81 UDAIPUR
24 DISPUR 53 MADURAI 82 VARANASI
MANDI
25 FARIDABAD 54 (HIMACHAL 83 VELLORE
PRADESH)
26 GANGTOK 55 MEERUT 84 VIJAYAWADA
27 GAUTAM BUDDH NAGAR 56 MUMBAI 85 VISAKHAPATNAM
HANUMAKONDA
28 GAYA 57 MYSURU 86
(WARANGAL URBAN)
29 GHAZIABAD 58 NAGPUR

Applicants should note that there will be a ceiling on the number of candidates allotted to each
of the Centres except Chennai, Dispur, Kolkata and Nagpur. Allotment of Centres will be on the
first-apply-first- allot basis and once the capacity of a particular Centre is attained, the same will be
frozen. Applicants, who cannot get a Centre of their choice due to ceiling, will be required to choose
a Centre from the remaining ones. Applicants are, thus, advised that they may apply early so that
they could get a Centre of their choice. If any candidate appears at a venue other than the one
indicated by the Commission in his/her e-Admit Card, such candidate will not be allowed to take the
examination.
N.B. : Notwithstanding the aforesaid provision, the Commission reserves the right to change the
Centres at their discretion if the situation so demands.
Candidates admitted to the examination will be informed of the time table and place or places
of examination. Candidates should note that no request for change of Examination Centre will be
entertained.

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3. CONDITIONS OF ELIGIBILITY:

(a) Nationality: A candidate must be unmarried male / female and must
be :
(i) a citizen of India, or
(ii) a subject of Nepal, or
(iii) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka and
East African Countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania,
Zambia, Malawi, Zaire and Ethiopia or Vietnam with the intention of
permanently settling in India.

Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii) and (iii) above shall be a
person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of
India.
Certificate of eligibility will not, however, be necessary in the case of candidates
who are Gorkha subjects of Nepal.

(b) Age Limits, Sex and Marital Status:
Only unmarried male/female candidates born not earlier than 01st January 2008
and not later than 01st January 2011 are eligible.

The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in the Matriculation
or Secondary School Leaving Certificate or in a certificate recognised by an Indian
University as equivalent to Matriculation or in an extract from a Register of Matriculates
maintained by a University which must be certified by the proper authority of the
University or in the Secondary School Examination or an equivalent examination
certificates. No other document relating to age like horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts
from Municipal Corporation, service records and the like will be accepted. The
expression Matriculation/ Secondary School Examination Certificate in this part of the
instruction includes the alternative certificates mentioned above.

NOTE 1: Candidates should note that only the date of birth as recorded in the
Matriculation/ Secondary School Examination Certificate available or an equivalent
certificate on the date of submission of applications will be accepted by the Commission
and no subsequent request for its change will be considered or granted.

NOTE 2: Candidates should also note that once a date of birth has been submitted by them
in the Online Application Form and entered in the records of the Commission for the
purpose of admission to an Examination, no change will be allowed subsequently or at
any subsequent examination on any ground whatsoever.

NOTE 3 : The candidates should exercise due care while entering their date of birth in the
respective column of the Universal Registration Number (URN) profile for the
Examination. If on verification at any subsequent stage any variation is found in their date
of birth from the one entered in their Matriculation or equivalent Examination certificate,
disciplinary action will be taken against them by the Commission under the Rules.

NOTE 4 : The candidates should also note that no addition/deletion/changes are allowed
in the online application form in the NDA & NA Examination in any circumstances once it
is submitted. However, the Commission provides a one-time facility for candidates
to update or modify their Universal Registration Number (URN) Profile. Please note
that any changes made to the URN Profile will not be reflected in applications
already submitted. The updated information will apply only to applications
submitted after the candidate has made the necessary changes and successfully re-

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locked the URN Profile.

NOTE 5 : Candidates must undertake not to marry until they complete their full training.
A candidate who marries subsequent to the date of his/her application though successful
at this or any subsequent Examination will not be selected for training. A candidate who
marries during training shall be discharged and will be liable to refund all expenditure
incurred on him/her by the Government.

(c) Educational Qualifications:
(i) For Army Wing of National Defence Academy: - 12th Class pass of the 10+2
pattern of School Education or equivalent examination conducted by a State
Education Board or a University.
(ii) For Air Force and Naval Wings of National Defence Academy and for the
10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme at the Indian Naval Academy:- 12th Class pass
with Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics of the 10+2 pattern of School
Education or equivalent conducted by a State Education Board or a University.

Candidates who are appearing in the 12th Class under the 10+2 pattern of School
Education or equivalent examination can also apply for this examination.

Such candidates who qualify the SSB interview but could not produce
Matriculation/10+2 or equivalent certificate in original at the time of SSB interview
should forward duly self-attested Photocopies to ‘Directorate General of Recruiting, Army
HQ, West Block.III, R.K. Puram, New Delhi-110066’ and for Naval Academy candidates to
‘Naval Headquarters, DMPR, OI&R Section, Room No. 204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhavan, New
Delhi-110011’ by 10th June 2027 failing which their candidature will be cancelled. All other
candidates who have produced their Matriculation and 10+2 pass or equivalent
certificates in original at the time of attending the SSB interview and have got the same
verified by the SSB authorities are not required to submit the same to Army HQ or
Naval HQ as the case may be. Certificates in original issued by the Principals of the
Institutions are also acceptable in cases where Boards/Universities have not yet issued
certificates. Certified true copies/photostat copies of such certificates will not be
accepted.
In exceptional cases the Commission may treat a candidate, who does not possess
any of the qualifications prescribed in this rule as educationally qualified provided that
he/she possesses qualifications, the standard of which in the opinion of the
Commission, justifies his/her admission to the examination.

NOTE 1 : Candidates appearing in the 11th class exam are not eligible for this
examination.
NOTE 2 : Those candidates who have yet to qualify in the 12th class or equivalent
examination and are allowed to appear in the UPSC Examination should note that this is
only a special concession given to them. They are required to submit proof of passing the
12th class or equivalent examination by the prescribed date (i.e. 10th June 2027) and no
request for extending this date will be entertained on the grounds of late conduct of
Board/University Examination, delay in declaration of results or any other ground
whatsoever.

NOTE 3 : Candidates who are debarred by the Ministry of Defence from holding any type
of Commission in the Defence Services shall not be eligible for admission to the
examination and if admitted, their candidature will be cancelled.
NOTE 4 : Those candidates, who have failed CPSS/PABT (Computerized Pilot Selection
System/Pilot Aptitude Battery Test) earlier,are now eligible for Air Force in Ground Duty

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branches if they fill their willingness in the Exam Specific Form available at the Commission’s
website and also at the Selection Centres.

(d) Physical Standards:
Candidates must be physically fit according to physical standards for
admission to National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination (II), 2026 as
per guidelines given in Appendix-III.

(e) A candidate who has resigned or withdrawn on disciplinary grounds from any of
the training academies of Armed Forces is not eligible to apply.

4. FEE :

Candidates (except SC / ST candidates / female candidates / Wards of
JCOs/NCOs/ORs as specified in Note 2 below, who are exempted from payment of fee) are
required to pay a fee of Rs. 100/- (Rupees one hundred only) either by using net banking
facility of any bank or by using Visa/Master/RuPay Credit/Debit Card/UPI Payment for
appearing in the National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination-II, 2026.

N.B. 1 : Candidates should note that payment of examination fee can be made only
through the modes prescribed above. Payment of fee through any other mode is neither
valid nor acceptable. Applications submitted without the prescribed fee/mode (unless
remission of fee is claimed) shall be summarily rejected.

N.B. 2 : Fee once paid shall not be refunded under any circumstances nor can the fee
be held in reserve for any other examination or selection.

NOTE-1 : Candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes and those
specified in Note 2 below are not required to pay any fee. No fee exemption is, however,
available to OBC/EWS candidates and they are required to pay the full prescribed fee.

NOTE-2 : The Wards of serving/ex-Junior Commissioned Officers/Non-Commissioned
Officers/Other Ranks of Army and equivalent ranks in the Indian Navy/Indian Air Force
are also not required to pay the prescribed fee if they are studying in Military School
(formerly known as King George's School)/Sainik School run by Sainik Schools Society.

[N.B. : A certificate of eligibility for fee exemption is required to be obtained by
all such candidates from the Principals concerned individually and produced for
verification at the time of SSB Test/Interview by the candidates who are declared
qualified for the SSB Test/Interview.]

5. HOW TO APPLY:

(a) Candidates are required to apply online by using the Commission’s website
https://upsconline.nic.in. Candidates are advised to go through the General instructions,
Profile/Module-wise instructions and instructions for uploading of documents before
proceeding to fill up the form. These instructions are available on the menu bar of the
Home page. A candidate who is willing to apply for National Defence Academy and Naval
Academy Examination shall be required to submit the requisite information and
supporting documents towards various claims, such as date of birth, educational
qualification, etc. as may be sought by the Commission alongwith the Universal
Registration Number (URN), Common Application Form (CAF) and the fourth module i.e.
Examination Specific Module (including fees and centre etc.). Failure to provide the
required information/documents alongwith the Common Application Form (CAF) will entail
cancellation of candidature for the examination.

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NOTE-1: ONE-TIME EDIT FACILITY FOR URN PROFILE:

The Commission provides a one-time facility for candidates to update or modify
their Universal Registration Number (URN) profile. Please note that any changes made to
the URN Profile will not be reflected in applications already submitted. The updated
information will apply only to applications submitted after the candidate has made the
necessary changes and successfully re-locked the URN Profile.

NOTE 2: LIVE PHOTO CAPTURE FOR FILLING UP OF COMMON APPLICATION FORM
(CAF):
Applicants are required to upload their photograph and also capture their live
photograph while filling up the Common Application Form (CAF). Applicants must ensure
that the uploaded photograph and the live photograph captured are clear as per
instructions given on “Instructions and FAQs > Instruction for filling the form > Photos
and Signature” available on the Commission’s website https://upsconline.nic.in.

NOTE -3: UPLOADING OF SIGNATURE:
Applicants are required to sign three times (one below the other) on a plain white
paper using black ink and upload the same while filling up the Common Application Form
(CAF). The uploaded signatures should be clear and legible. The candidates are advised
to refer to the instruction for uploading the signature available under the header
“Instructions and FAQs” on the Commission’s website: https://upsconline.nic.in .

NOTE 4 :- UPLOADING OF PHOTOGRAPH:

Please follow the Instruction in respect of uploading of Photograph as elaborated
in the Instructions to upload documents in the home page of the online application portal.

NOTE-5: WITHDRAWAL OF APPLICATION:

The candidates will not be allowed to withdraw their applications after the
submission of the same. Further no correction /alteration/modification in any field(s) of
the Application Form is allowed after submission.

NOTE-6: No queries, representations etc. shall be entertained by the Commission in
respect of correcting details that are required to be filled up by the candidates by
exercising due diligence and caution as the timely completion of examination process is
of paramount importance.

NOTE-7: Candidate should also have details of one Photo ID viz. Aadhaar Card/ Voter
Card (EPIC)/ PAN Card/ Passport/ Driving License/School Photo ID/Any other Photo ID
Card issued by the State/Central Government. The details of this photo ID will have to be
provided by the candidate while filling up Universal Registration Number (URN) Profile.
This Photo ID will be used for all future references and the candidate is advised to carry
this ID while appearing for examination/SSB.

Applicants are strongly advised to use their Aadhaar Card as ID documents for
easy, effortless and seamless verification and authentication of ID and other details.

NOTE-8: All candidates whether already in Government Service including candidates
serving in the Armed Forces, Sailors (including boys and artificers apprentices) of the
Indian Navy, Cadets of Rashtriya Indian Military College (previously known as Sainik
School, Dehradun), Students of Rashtriya Military Schools (formerly known as Military
Schools) and Sainik Schools run by Sainik Schools Society, Government owned industrial
undertakings or other similar organizations or in private employment should apply online
directly to the Commission.

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(a) Persons already in Government Service, whether in permanent or temporary
capacity or as work charged employees other than casual or daily rated employees or those
serving under the Public Enterprises; (b) Candidates serving in the Armed Forces, Sailors
(including boys and artificers apprentices) of the Indian Navy; and (c) Cadets of Rashtriya
Indian Military College (previously known as Sainik School, Dehradun), Students of
Military Schools formerly known as King George's Schools and Sainik Schools run by
Sainik Schools Society are required to inform their Head of Office/Department,
Commanding Officer, Principals of College/School concerned, as the case may be, in
writing that they have applied for this examination. Candidates should note that in case
a communication is received by the Commission from their employer/authority concerned
withholding permission to the candidates applying for/appearing at the examination, their
applications will be liable to be rejected/candidatures will be liable to be cancelled.

NOTE-9: While filling in the Exam Specific Module, the candidate should carefully
decide about his/her choice of the centre for the examination.

If any candidate appears at a centre other than the one indicated by the
Commission in his/her e-Admit Card, the papers of such a candidate will not be
valued and his/her candidature will be liable to cancellation.

NOTE-10: Applications without the prescribed fee (unless remission of fee is claimed
as in para 4 above) or incomplete applications shall be summarily rejected. No
representation or correspondence regarding such rejection shall be entertained
under any circumstances. Candidates are not required to submit along with their
applications any certificate in support of their claims regarding age, educational
qualifications, scheduled castes/ scheduled tribes / other backward classes and fee
remission etc. except the photo ID card. They should therefore, ensure that they fulfil
all the eligibility conditions for admission to the examination. Their admission to the
examination will also therefore be purely provisional. If on verification at any later
date it is found that they do not fulfil all eligibility conditions, their candidature will
be cancelled. The result of the written part of the examination is likely to be declared
in the month of October, 2026. All the candidates who have successfully qualified in
the written examination are required to register themselves online on Directorate
General of Recruiting website www.joinindianarmy.nic.in, with the same E- mail ID as
provided to UPSC while filling UPSC online application. Candidates must ensure that
their e-mail IDs given in their online applications are valid and active. These
candidates would then be allotted Selection Centres through the aforesaid website. In
case of any problem/query, candidates should contact Directorate General of
Recruiting on the telephone numbers given on their website or through feedback /
query module after logging on to their profile.

NOTE-11: Candidates who have passed written test are not required to submit their
original certificate of age and educational qualification either to Directorate General
of Recruiting, Army HQ, West Block-III, RK Puram, New Delhi-110066 or to Naval
Headquarters, DMPR, OI&R Section, 'C' Wing, Sena Bhawan, New Delhi-110011.

All candidates called for SSB interview must carry their original matriculation
certificate or equivalent examination certificate to the Services Selection Board (SSB).
Originals will have to be produced by the candidates who qualify at the SSB Interview
soon after the interview. The originals will be returned after verification. Those
candidates who have already passed 10+2 examination must carry their original 10+2
pass certificate or marks sheet for the SSB Interview.

(1) If any of their claims is found to be incorrect they may render themselves liable
to disciplinary action by the commission in terms of the following provisions:

11

A candidate who is or has been declared by the Commission or respective service HQ
to be guilty of :—
(a) Obtaining support for candidature by the following means, namely :—
(i) offering illegal gratification to; or
(ii) applying pressure on; or
(iii) blackmailing, or threatening to blackmail any person connected with the
conduct of the examination; or
(b) impersonation; or
(c) procuring impersonation by any person; or
(d) submitting fabricated/incorrect documents or documents which have been
tampered with; or
(e) uploading irrelevant or incorrect photos/signature in the application form in
place of actual photo/signature.
(f) Making statements which are incorrect or false or suppressing material
information; or
(g) resorting to the following means in connection with the candidature for the
examination, namely :—
(i) obtaining copy of question paper through improper means;
(ii) finding out the particulars of the persons connected with secret work
relating to the examination;
(iii) influencing the examiners; or
(h) being in possession of or using unfair means during the examination; or
(i) writing obscene matter or drawing obscene sketches or irrelevant matter in
the scripts; or
(j) misbehaving in the examination hall including tearing of the scripts,
provoking fellow examinees to boycott examination, creating a disorderly scene
and the like; or
(k) harassing, threatening or doing bodily harm to the staff employed by the
Commission for the conduct of their examination; or
(l) being in possession of or using any mobile phone, (even in switched-off mode),
pager or any electronic equipment or programmable device or storage media like pen
drive, smart/Digital watches etc. or camera or bluetooth devices or any other
equipment or related accessories (either in working or switched off mode) capable of
being used as a communication device during the examination; or
(m) violating any of the instructions issued to candidates along with their e-Admit
Card permitting them to take the examination; or
(n) attempting to commit or, as the case may be, abetting the Commission of all or
any of the acts specified in the foregoing clauses;
In addition to being liable to criminal prosecution/appropriate legal action as
deemed fit under the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024,
as amended from time to time, the candidate, shall be disqualified by the
Commission from the Examination held under these Rules, and /or shall be liable
to be debarred either permanently or for a specified period:-
(i) by the Commission, from any examination or selection held by them;
(ii) by the Central Government from any employment under them;

12

And shall be liable to face disciplinary action under the appropriate rules if
already in service under Government: Provided that no penalty under this rule
shall be imposed except after:—
(i) giving the candidate an opportunity of making such representation in writing
as the candidate may wish to make in that behalf; and
(ii) taking the representation, if any, submitted by the candidate within the
period allowed for the purpose, into consideration.

(2) Any person who is found by the Commission or respective Service HQ to be guilty of
colluding with a candidate (s) in committing or abetting the Commission of any of the
misdeeds listed at Clauses (a) to (m) above will be liable to action in terms of the Clause
(n) above.

Note: If a candidate is found to be in possession or using unfair means, he/she may not
be allowed to continue in the said exam as soon as the incident comes to notice of the
Examination functionaries and the action against the candidates may be taken in
consultation with the Commission. Further, the candidate may also not be allowed in any
of the subsequent papers of the said examination.

6. LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION:
(i) The Online Application can be filled upto 9th June, 2026 till 6:00 P.M. after which
the link will be disabled.
(ii) The candidates will not be allowed to withdraw their applications after the
submission of the same.

7. TRAVELLING ALLOWANCE:
Candidates appearing for SSB interview for the first time for a particular type of
Commission i.e. Permanent or Short Service, shall be entitled for AC III Tier to and fro
railway fare or bus fare including reservation cum sleeper charges within the Indian
limits. Candidates who apply again for the same type of Commission will not be entitled
to travelling allowance on any subsequent occasion.

8. CORRESPONDENCE WITH THE COMMISSION/ ARMY / NAVAL /AIR
HEADQUARTERS:

The Commission will not enter into any correspondence with the candidates
about their candidature except in the following cases:

(i) The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card on the last working
day of the preceding week of the date of the examination. The e-Admit Card will
be made available on the Commission’s website [https://upsconline.nic.in] for
being downloaded by candidates. No Admit Card will be sent by post or e-mail.

(ii) If a candidate does not receive his/her e-Admit Card or any other
communication regarding his/her candidature for the examination Seven days
before the commencement of the examination, he/she should at once contact the
Commission.

Information in this regard can also be obtained from the Facilitation Counter
located in the Commission’s Office either in person or via Helpdesk No. 011-
24041001/011-40303444. In case no communication is received in the
Commission’s Office from the candidate regarding non-receipt of his/her e-Admit
Card at least three days before the examination, he/she himself/herself will be

13

solely responsible for non-receipt of his/her e-Admit Card.
(iii) No candidate will ordinarily be allowed to take the examination unless
he/she holds an e-Admit Card for the examination. On downloading of e-Admit
Card, the candidates are requested to check it carefully and bring
discrepancies/errors, if any, to the notice of the Commission immediately.

The mere fact that an e-Admit Card to the Examination has been issued to
a candidate, will not imply that his/her candidature has been finally cleared by
the Commission or that entries made by the candidate in his/her Universal
Registration Number (URN), Common Application Form (CAF) and Exam Specific
Module for the National Defence Academy And Naval Academy Examination have
been accepted by the Commission as true and correct. Candidates may note that
the Commission takes up the verification of eligibility conditions of a candidate,
with reference to original documents, only after the candidate has qualified for
SSB/Interview/Personality Test on the basis of the results of the Written
Examination. Unless candidature is formally confirmed, it continues to be
provisional.

The courses to which the candidates are admitted will be according to their
eligibility as per educational qualifications for different courses and the
preferences given by the candidates.

The candidates should note that their admission to the examination will
be purely provisional based on the information given by them in the Application
Form. This will be subject to verification of all the eligibility conditions.

(iv) If a candidate receives an e-Admit Card in respect of some other candidate
on account of processing error, it should be notified to the Commission with a
request to issue the correct e- Admit Card. Candidates may note that they will
not be allowed to take the examination on the strength of an e-Admit Card
issued in respect of another candidate.

(v) The decision of the Commission as to the acceptance of the application of
a candidate and his/her eligibility or otherwise for admission to the Examination
shall be final.

(vi) Candidates should note that the name in the e-Admit Card in some cases,
may be abbreviated due to technical reasons.

(vii) Candidates must ensure that their e-mail ID & mobile number given in
their online applications are valid and active as the Commission may use
electronic mode of communication while contacting them at different stages of
examination process.

IMPORTANT : All Communications to the Commission should invariably be made on
email – [email protected] and shall contain the following particulars.

1. Name, Course Number and year of the examination.
2. Universal Registration Number (URN)
3. Application Number
4. Roll Number (if received).
5. Name of candidate (in full and in block letters).
6. Complete Postal Address as given in the application.
7. Valid and active registered e-mail ID and registered Mobile Number.

14

N.B. (i) : Communications not containing the above particulars may not be attended
to.

N.B. (ii) : If a letter/communication is received from a candidate after an examination has
been held and it does not give his/her full name and roll number, it will be ignored and
no action will be taken thereon.

AFTER HAVING CLEARED THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION, THE CANDIDATES
SHOULD LOG ON TO THE FOLLOWING WEBSITES FOR THEIR SSB CENTRE & DATE OF
INTERVIEW:-

www.joinindianarmy.nic.in
www.joinindiannavy.gov.in

The candidate with Air Force as first choice are also to register on
www.joinindianarmy.nic.in for AFSB and date selection.

Candidates whose names have been recommended for interview by the Services
Selection Board should address enquiries or requests,if any, relating to their interview
or visit website of respective service headquarters after 20 days from the announcement
of written results as follows :—

For candidates with Army as first choice—Army Headquarters, AG’s Branch,
RTG (NDA Entry), West Block-III, Wing-1, R.K. Puram, New Delhi – 110 066, Phone
No. 20862673 (Extn. 201) or www.joinindianarmy.nic.in

For candidates with Navy/Naval Academy as first choice—Naval
Headquarters, Directorate of Manpower & Recruitment, O.I. & R. Section, Room No.
204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhavan, New Delhi-110011,Phone No. 23011282/23010151 Email
: [email protected] or www.joinindiannavy.gov.in

For candidates with Air Force as first choice—Dte of Personnel (Officers), Air
Headquarters, (VB) Room No 838. `A’ Block, Defence Offices Complex, Kasturba Gandhi
Marg, New Delhi-110001 Phone No. 23010231 Extn. 7645/7646/7610.

Candidates are required to report for SSB interview on the date intimated to
them in the call up letter for interview. Requests for postponing interview will only be
considered in exceptional circumstances and that too if it is administratively
convenient for which Army Headquarters will be the sole deciding authority. Such
requests should be addressed to the Administrative Officer of the Selection Centre
from where the call letter for interview has been received. No action will be taken on
letters received by Army/Navy/Air HQs. SSB interview for the candidates qualified in
the written examination is likely to be held during the months of December 2026 to
January 2027 or as suitable to Recruiting Directorate. For all queries regarding Merit
list, joining instructions and any other relevant information regarding selection process,
please visit website www.joinindianarmy.nic.in.

9. ANNOUNCEMENT OF THE RESULTS OF THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION,
INTERVIEW OF QUALIFIED CANDIDATES, ANNOUNCEMENT OF FINAL RESULTS
AND ADMISSION TO THE TRAINING COURSES OF THE FINALLY QUALIFIED
CANDIDATES:

The Union Public Service Commission shall prepare a list of candidates who
obtain the minimum qualifying marks in the written examination as fixed by the

15

Commission at their discretion. Such candidates shall appear before a Services
Selection Board for Intelligence and Personality Test where candidates for the
Army/Navy wings of the NDA and 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme of Indian Naval Academy
will be assessed on Officers Potentiality and those for the Air Force in addition to the
above will have to qualify Computerised Pilot Selection System (CPSS).

Candidates who have opted for the Air Force as one of their choices shall undergo
the CPSS if they qualify the SSB and express their willingness. For this purpose, they are
required to submit an Undertaking Form indicating their willingness or unwillingness to
undergo the CPSS at the selection centre before the commencement of the medical
examination.

In case a candidate is either declared failed in CPSS or not tested due to being in
the Habitual Wearing of Glasses (HWG) category, he can be considered for Air Force
Ground Duties, if willing.

10. TWO-STAGE SELECTION PROCEDURE:

Two-stage selection procedure based on Psychological Aptitude Test and
Intelligence Test has been introduced at Selection Centres/Air Force Selection
Boards/Naval Selection Boards. All the candidates will be put to stage-one test on first
day of reporting at Selection Centres/Air Force Selection Boards/Naval Selection Boards.
Only those candidates who qualify at stage one will be admitted to the second
stage/remaining tests. Those candidates who qualify stage II will be required to submit
the Original Certificates along with one photocopy each of: (i) Original Matriculation pass
certificate or equivalent in support of date of birth, (ii) Original 10+2 pass certificate or
equivalent in support of educational qualification.

Candidates who appear before the Services Selection Board and undergo the test
there, will do so at their own risk and will not be entitled to claim any compensation or
other relief from Government in respect of any injury which they may sustain in the
course of or as a result of any of the tests given to them at the Services Selection Board
whether due to the negligence of any person or otherwise. Parents or guardians of the
candidates will be required to sign a certificate to this effect.

To be acceptable, candidates for the Army/Navy/Naval Academy and Air Force
should secure the minimum qualifying marks separately in (i) Written examination as
fixed by the Commission at their discretion and (ii) Officer Potentiality Test as fixed by
the Services Selection Board at their discretion. Over and above candidates for the Air
Force, and all the SSB qualified candidates as per their willingness, eligibility and
preference for flying branch of Air Force, should separately qualify the CPSS.

N.B.: EVERY CANDIDATE FOR THE FLYING BRANCH OF AIR FORCE IS
GIVEN COMPUTERISED PILOT SELECTION SYSTEM (CPSS) (PILOT APTITUDE
TEST) ONLY ONCE. THE GRADES SECURED BY HIM/HER AT THE FIRST TEST
WILL THEREFORE HOLD GOOD FOR EVERY SUBSEQUENT INTERVIEW HE/SHE
HAS WITH THE AIR FORCE SELECTION BOARD. A CANDIDATE WHO FAILS IN THE
CPSS CANNOT APPLY FOR ADMISSION TO THE NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY
EXAMINATION FOR THE FLYING BRANCH OF AIR FORCE WING OR GENERAL
DUTIES (PILOT) BRANCH OR NAVAL AIR ARM.

Candidates who have been given the Computerised Pilot Selection System (CPSS)
for any previous NDA course should submit their application for this examination for the
Air Force Wing only if they have been notified as having qualified in CPSS. In case a

16

candidate has failed in CPSS/not tested for CPSS for being HWG (Habitual Wearer of
Glasses), the candidate would be considered for Ground Duty branch of IAF, Navy, Army
and NAVAC as per his/her choices.

The form and manner of communication of the result of the examination to
individual candidates shall be decided by the Commission at their discretion and the
Commission will not enter into correspondence with them regarding the result.

Success in the examination confers no right of admission to the Academy. A
candidate must satisfy the appointing authority that he/she is suitable in all respects
for admission to the Academy.

10.1 ROUNDING OFF MARKS AND TIE BREAKING PRINCIPLES:
The provisions relating to the rounding off of marks, wherever applicable, and the
principles for resolving cases of tie in scores shall be as prescribed below:-

(A) Rounding off marks :
Marks obtained by the candidates shall be rounded off up to two decimal digits, at
all stage(s) of the examination, by applying the standard rounding off principle, wherever
applicable. Accordingly, while applying the tie-breaking principles, the rounded-off
marks upto two decimal digits shall be considered for resolving all tie cases.

(B) Tie Breaking Principles:

(i) If the marks in aggregate (Final Marks) are equal, the candidate securing more
marks in written total will be ranked higher.

(ii) If the marks at (i) above are equal, the candidate securing more marks in “Paper-
II : General Ability Test” will be ranked higher;
(iii) If the marks at (i) and (ii) above are also equal, the candidate senior in age will
be ranked higher; and
(iv) In cases where a tie persists even after applying the above tie-breaking
principles, it will be resolved at the discretion of the Commission.

11. ADMISSION TO THE TRAINING COURSES OF THE FINALLY QUALIFIED
CANDIDATES:

Subject to these conditions, the qualified candidates will then be placed in a single
combined list on the basis of total marks secured by them in the Written Examination and the
Services Selection Board Tests. The final allocation/selection for admission to the Army, Navy, Air
Force of the National Defence Academy and 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme of Indian Naval Academy
will be made upto the number of vacancies available subject to eligibility, medical fitness and merit-
cum-preference of the candidates. The candidates who are eligible to be admitted to multiple
Services/Courses will be considered for allocation/selection with reference to their order of
preferences and in the event of their final allocation/ selection to one Service/Course, they will not
be considered for admission to other remaining Services/Courses.

The eligible candidate will be issued a joining letter through the online portal (profile),
specifying the reporting date. After receiving the joining letter, candidates must download the

17

Joining Instructions for the course from www.joinindianarmy.nic.in and comply with the guidelines
provided. Candidates who fail to report to the academy within seven (7) days of the specified
reporting date, without submitting a prior written intimation or request, will have their candidature
liable for cancellation. No correspondence in this regard will be entertained thereafter.

12. DISQUALIFICATION FOR ADMISSION TO THE TRAINING COURSE:

Candidates who were admitted to an earlier course at the National Defence
Academy, or to the 10 + 2 Cadet Entry Scheme of Indian Naval Academy but were removed
therefrom for lack of officer-like qualities or on disciplinary grounds will not be admitted
to the Academy.

Candidates who were previously withdrawn from the National Defence
Academy or Indian Naval Academy on medical grounds or left the above Academy
voluntarily are however, eligible for admission to the Academy provided they satisfy the
medical and other prescribed conditions.

13. The details regarding (a) the scheme and syllabus of the examination, (b) Special
Instructions to candidates for objective type tests, (c) Physical standards for admission
to the National Defence Academy and Naval Academy and (d) Brief particulars of the
service etc., for candidates joining the National Defence Academy and Naval Academy are
given in Appendices I, II, III and IV respectively.

NOTE: BEFORE APPLYING, CANDIDATES MUST GO THROUGH THE INSTRUCTIONS GIVEN IN
THE NOTIFICATION VERY CAREFULLY. THE NOTICE OF EXAMINATION IS PUBLISHED BOTH IN
ENGLISH AND IN HINDI. IN CASE OF ANY DISPUTE, THE ENGLISH VERSION WILL PREVAIL.

(J. K. Mandal)
Under Secretary (Examination)
Union Public Service Commission

18

APPENDIX-I

(The Scheme and Syllabus of Examination)

A. SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

1. The subjects of the written examination, the time allowed and the maximum marks
allotted to each subject will be as follows:—

Subject Code Duration Maximum
Marks
Mathematics 01 2½ Hours 300
General Ability Test 02 2½ Hours 600
Total 900
SSB Test/Interview: 900

2. THE PAPERS IN ALL THE SUBJECTS WILL CONSIST OF OBJECTIVE TYPE
QUESTIONS ONLY. THE QUESTION PAPERS (TEST BOOKLETS) OF MATHEMATICS
AND PART “B” OF GENERAL ABILITY TEST WILL BE SET BILINGUALLY IN HINDI
AS WELL AS ENGLISH.

3. In the question papers, wherever necessary, questions involving the metric system of
Weights and Measures only will be set.

4. Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no circumstances will they be
allowed the help of a scribe to write answers for them.

5. The Commission has discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the subjects at the
examination.

6. The candidates are not permitted to use calculator or Mathematical or logarithmic table
for answering objective type papers (Test Booklets). They should not, therefore, bring the same
inside the Examination Hall.

B. SYLLABUS OF THE EXAMINATION

PAPER-I

MATHEMATICS
(Code No. 01)
(Maximum Marks-300)
1. ALGEBRA

Concept of set, operations on sets, Venn diagrams. De Morgan laws, Cartesian product,
relation, equivalence relation.

Representation of real numbers on a line. Complex numbers— basic properties,
modulus, argument, cube roots of unity. Binary system of numbers. Conversion of a number
in decimal system to binary system and vice-versa. Arithmetic, Geometric and Harmonic
progressions. Quadratic equations with real coefficients. Solution of linear inequations of two
variables by graphs. Permutation and Combination. Binomial theorem and its applications.
Logarithms and their applications.

19

2. MATRICES AND DETERMINANTS:

Types of matrices, operations on matrices. Determinant of a matrix, basic properties of
determinants. Adjoint and inverse of a square matrix, Applications-Solution of a system of
linear equations in two or three unknowns by Cramer’s rule and by Matrix Method.

3. TRIGONOMETRY:

Angles and their measures in degrees and in radians. Trigonometrical ratios.
Trigonometric identities Sum and difference formulae. Multiple and Sub-multiple angles.
Inverse trigonometric functions. Applications-Height and distance, properties of triangles.

4. ANALYTICAL GEOMETRY OF TWO AND THREE DIMENSIONS:

Rectangular Cartesian Coordinate system. Distance formula. Equation of a line in
various forms. Angle between two lines. Distance of a point from a line. Equation of a circle
in standard and in general form. Standard forms of parabola, ellipse and hyperbola. Eccentricity
and axis of a conic. Point in a three dimensional space, distance between two points. Direction
Cosines and direction ratios. Equation two points. Direction Cosines and direction ratios.
Equation of a plane and a line in various forms. Angle between two lines and angle between
two planes. Equation of a sphere.

5. DIFFERENTIAL CALCULUS:

Concept of a real valued function–domain, range and graph of a function. Composite
functions, one to one, onto and inverse functions. Notion of limit, Standard limits—examples.
Continuity of functions—examples, algebraic operations on continuous functions. Derivative
of function at a point, geometrical and physical interpretation of a derivative—applications.
Derivatives of sum, product and quotient of functions, derivative of a function with respect to
another function, derivative of a composite function. Second order derivatives. Increasing and
decreasing functions. Application of derivatives in problems of maxima and minima.

6. INTEGRAL CALCULUS AND DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS:

Integration as inverse of differentiation, integration by substitution and by parts, standard
integrals involving algebraic expressions, trigonometric, exponential and hyperbolic functions.
Evaluation of definite integrals—determination of areas of plane regions bounded by curves—
applications.

Definition of order and degree of a differential equation, formation of a differential
equation by examples. General and particular solution of a differential equations, solution of
first order and first degree differential equations of various types—examples. Application in
problems of growth and decay.

7. VECTOR ALGEBRA:

Vectors in two and three dimensions, magnitude and direction of a vector. Unit and null
vectors, addition of vectors, scalar multiplication of a vector, scalar product or dot product of
two vectors. Vector product or cross product of two vectors. Applications—work done by a
force and moment of a force and in geometrical problems.

20

8. STATISTICS AND PROBABILITY:

Statistics: Classification of data, Frequency distribution, cumulative frequency
distribution— examples. Graphical representation— Histogram, Pie Chart, frequency
polygon— examples. Measures of Central tendency— Mean, median and mode. Variance and
standard deviation— determination and comparison. Correlation and regression.

Probability: Random experiment, outcomes and associated sample space, events,
mutually exclusive and exhaustive events, impossible and certain events. Union and
Intersection of events. Complementary, elementary and composite events. Definition of
probability—classical and statistical—examples. Elementary theorems on probability—simple
problems. Conditional probability, Bayes’ theorem—simple problems. Random variable as
function on a sample space. Binomial distribution, examples of random experiments giving
rise to Binominal distribution.

PAPER-II

GENERAL ABILITY TEST
(Code No. 02)
(Maximum Marks—600)

Part ‘A’—ENGLISH (Maximum Marks—200)

The question paper in English will be designed to test the candidate’s understanding of
English and workmanlike use of words. The syllabus covers various aspects like: Grammar
and usage, vocabulary, comprehension and cohesion in extended text to test the candidate’s
proficiency in English.

Part ‘B’—GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (Maximum Marks—400)

The question paper on General Knowledge will broadly cover the subjects: Physics,
Chemistry, General Science, Social Studies, Geography and Current Events.

The syllabus given below is designed to indicate the scope of these subjects included
in this paper. The topics mentioned are not to be regarded as exhaustive and questions on topics
of similar nature not specifically mentioned in the syllabus may also be asked. Candidate’s
answers are expected to show their knowledge and intelligent understanding of the subject.

Section ‘A’ (Physics)

Physical Properties and States of Matter, Mass, Weight, Volume, Density and Specific
Gravity, Principle of Archimedes, Pressure Barometer.

Motion of objects, Velocity and Acceleration, Newton’s Laws of Motion, Force and
Momentum, Parallelogram of Forces, Stability and Equilibrium of bodies, Gravitation,
elementary ideas of work, Power and Energy.

Effects of Heat, Measurement of Temperature and Heat, change of State and Latent
Heat, Modes of transference of Heat.

Sound waves and their properties, Simple musical instruments.

21

Rectilinear propagation of Light, Reflection and refraction. Spherical mirrors and
Lenses, Human Eye.

Natural and Artificial Magnets, Properties of a Magnet, Earth as a Magnet.

Static and Current Electricity, conductors and Non-conductors, Ohm’s Law, Simple
Electrical Circuits, Heating, Lighting and Magnetic effects of Current, Measurement of
Electrical Power, Primary and Secondary Cells, Use of X-Rays.
General Principles in the working of the following:

Simple Pendulum, Simple Pulleys, Siphon, Levers, Balloon, Pumps, Hydrometer,
Pressure Cooker, Thermos Flask, Gramophone, Telegraphs, Telephone, Periscope, Telescope,
Microscope, Mariner’s Compass; Lightning Conductors, Safety Fuses.

Section ‘B’ (Chemistry)

Physical and Chemical changes. Elements, Mixtures and Compounds, Symbols,
Formulae and simple Chemical Equations, Law of Chemical Combination (excluding
problems). Properties of Air and Water.

Preparation and Properties of Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen and Carbon dioxide,
Oxidation and Reduction.

Acids, bases and salts.

Carbon—different forms.

Fertilizers—Natural and Artificial.

Material used in the preparation of substances like Soap, Glass, Ink, Paper, Cement, Paints,
Safety Matches and Gun-Powder

Elementary ideas about the structure of Atom, Atomic Equivalent and Molecular Weights,
Valency.

Section ‘C’ (General Science)

Difference between the living and non-living.

Basis of Life—Cells, Protoplasms and Tissues.
Growth and Reproduction in Plants and Animals.

Elementary knowledge of Human Body and its important organs.

Common Epidemics, their causes and prevention.

Food—Source of Energy for man. Constituents of food, Balanced Diet.

The Solar System—Meteors and Comets, Eclipses.

Achievements of Eminent Scientists.

22

Section ‘D’ (History, Freedom Movement etc.)

A broad survey of Indian History, with emphasis on Culture and Civilisation.

Freedom Movement in India.

Elementary study of Indian Constitution and Administration.

Elementary knowledge of Five Year Plans of India.

Panchayati Raj, Co-operatives and Community Development.

Bhoodan, Sarvodaya, National Integration and Welfare State, Basic Teachings of Mahatma
Gandhi.

Forces shaping the modern world; Renaissance, Exploration and Discovery; War of American
Independence. French Revolution, Industrial Revolution and Russian Revolution. Impact of
Science and Technology on Society. Concept of one World, United Nations, Panchsheel,
Democracy, Socialism and Communism. Role of India in the present world.

Section ‘E’ (Geography)

The Earth, its shape and size. Latitudes and Longitudes, Concept of time. International
Date Line. Movements of Earth and their effects.

Origin of Earth. Rocks and their classification; Weathering—Mechanical and
Chemical, Earthquakes and Volcanoes.

Ocean Currents and Tides.

Atmosphere and its composition; Temperature and Atmospheric Pressure, Planetary
Winds, Cyclones and Anti-cyclones; Humidity; Condensation and Precipitation; Types of
Climate, Major Natural regions of the World.

Regional Geography of India—Climate, Natural vegetation. Mineral and Power
resources; location and distribution of agricultural and Industrial activities.

Important Sea ports and main sea, land and air routes of India. Main items of Imports
and Exports of India.

Section ‘F’ (Current Events)

Knowledge of Important events that have happened in India in the recent years. Current
important world events.

Prominent personalities—both Indian and International including those connected with cultural
activities and sports.

NOTE :
Out of maximum marks assigned to part ‘B’ of this paper, questions on Sections ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’,
‘D’, ‘E’ and ‘F’ will carry approximately 25%, 15%, 10%, 20%, 20% and 10% weightages
respectively.

23

INTELLIGENCE AND PERSONALITY TEST

The SSB procedure consists of two stage Selection process - stage I and stage II. Only
those candidates who clear the stage I are permitted to appear for stage II. The details are :

(a) Stage I comprises Officer Intelligence Rating (OIR) tests and Picture Perception and
Description Test (PP&DT). The candidates will be shortlisted based on combination of
performance in OIR Test and PP&DT.

(b) Stage II comprises Interview, Group Testing Officer Tasks, Psychology Tests and the
Conference. These tests are conducted over 4 days. The details of these tests are given on the
website www.joinindianarmy.nic.in.

The personality of a candidate is assessed by three different assessors viz. The
Interviewing Officer (IO), Group Testing Officer (GTO) and the Psychologist. There are no
separate weightage for each test. The marks are allotted by assessors only after taking into
consideration the performance of the candidate holistically in all the tests. In addition, marks
for Conference are also allotted based on the initial performance of the Candidate in the three
techniques and decision of the Board. All these have equal weightage.

The various tests of IO, GTO and Psych are designed to bring out the presence/absence
of Officer Like Qualities and their trainability in a candidate. Accordingly, candidates are
Recommended or Not Recommended at the SSB.
APPENDIX– II
SPECIAL INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES FOR OBJECTIVE TYPE TESTS

1. ARTICLES PERMITTED INSIDE EXAMINATION HALL:
Clip board or hard board (on which nothing is written), a good quality Black
Ball Pen for marking responses on the Answer Sheet. Answer Sheet and sheet for
rough work will be supplied by the invigilator.

2. ARTICLES NOT PERMITTED INSIDE EXAMINATION HALL:
 Do not bring into the Examination Hall any article other than those specified
above e.g. any valuable/costly items, mobile phones, Smart/Digital watches,
other IT Gadgets, books, bag, notes, loose sheets, electronic or any other type of
calculators, mathematical and drawing instruments, Log Tables, stencils of
maps, slide rules, Test Booklets and rough sheets pertaining to earlier
session(s) etc.

 Possession (even in switched off mode)/use of Mobiles phones, Bluetooth,
pagers or any other communication devices or any other incriminating
material (notes on e-Admit Card, papers, eraser etc.) are not allowed
inside the premises where the examination is being conducted. Any
infringement of these instructions shall entail disciplinary action
including ban from future examinations.

 Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the
banned items including mobile phones/Bluetooth/pagers to the venue of
the examination, as NO arrangements for safekeeping will be made at the
venue of the examination. Candidates are advised not to bring any
valuable/costly items to the Examination Halls, as NO arrangement for
safe keeping of the same will be made at the venue of the examination.

24

Commission will not be responsible for any loss in this regard.

3. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY (NEGATIVE MARKING) FOR WRONG ANSWERS
MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each
question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one third
(0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate has given more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong
answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same
penalty as above for that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will
be no penalty for that question.

4. UNFAIR MEANS STRICTLY PROHIBITED:

No candidate shall copy from the papers of any other candidate nor permit
his/her papers to be copied nor give nor attempt to give nor obtain nor attempt to
obtain irregular assistance of any description.

5. CONDUCT IN EXAMINATION HALL:

No candidate should misbehave in any manner or create disorderly scene in the
Examination Hall or harass the staff employed by the Commission for the conduct
of the examination. Any such misconduct will be severely penalised.

6. ANSWER SHEET PARTICULARS:

(i) Write with Black ball pen your Centre and subject followed by test booklet
series (in bracket), subject code and roll number at the appropriate space
provided on the answer sheet at the top. Also encode your booklet series (A, B,
C or D as the case may be), subject code and roll number in the circles provided
for the purpose in the answer sheet. The guidelines for writing the above
particulars and for encoding the above particulars are given in Annexure. In
case the booklet series is not printed on the test booklet or answer sheet is un-
numbered, please report immediately to the invigilator and get the test
booklet/answer sheet replaced.

(ii) Candidates should note that any omission/mistake/discrepancy in encoding/
filling of details in the OMR answer sheet, especially with regard to Roll
Number and Test Booklet Series Code, will render the answer sheet liable for
rejection.

(iii) Immediately after commencement of the examination, please check that the
test booklet supplied to you does not have any unprinted or torn or missing
pages or items etc., if so, get it replaced by a complete test booklet of the same
series and subject.

7. Do not write your name or anything other than the specific items of
information asked for, on the answer sheet/test booklet/sheet for rough work.

8. Do not fold or mutilate or damage or put any extraneous marking in the

25

Answer Sheet. Do not write anything on the reverse of the answer sheet.

9. Since the answer sheets will be evaluated on computerised machines,
candidates should exercise due care in handling and filling up the answer sheets.
They should use black ball pen only to darken the circles. For writing in boxes,
they should use black ball pen. Since the entries made by the candidates by
darkening the circles will be taken into account while evaluating the answer
sheets on computerised machines, they should make these entries very
carefully and accurately.

10. METHOD OF MARKING ANSWERS:

In the ‘OBJECTIVE TYPE’ of examination, you do not write the answers. For
each question (hereinafter referred to as “Item”) several suggested answers
(hereinafter referred to as “Responses”) are given. You have to choose one response
to each item. The question paper will be in the Form of TEST BOOKLET. The booklet
will contain item bearing numbers 1, 2, 3.......etc. Under each item, Responses marked
(a), (b), (c), (d) will be given. Your task will be to choose the correct response. If you
think there is more than one correct response, then choose what you consider the
best response.

In any case, for each item you are to select only one response. If you select
more than one response, your response will be considered wrong.
In the Answer Sheet, Serial Nos. From 1 to 160 are printed. Against each
numbers, there are circles marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). After you have read each item
in the Test Booklet and decided which one of the given responses is correct or the
best. You have to mark your response by completely blackening with black ball
pen to indicate your response.

For example, if the correct answer to item 1 is (b), then the circle containing
the letter (b) is to be completely blackened with black ball pen as shown below :-

Example: (a) • (c) (d)
11. ENTRIES IN SCANNABLE ATTENDANCE LIST:

Candidates are required to fill in the relevant particulars with black ball pen
only against their columns in the Scannable Attendance List, as given below:

i) Blacken the circle (P) under the column (Present/Absent)
ii) Blacken the relevant circle for Test Booklet Series
iii) Write Test Booklet Serial No.
iv) Write the Answer Sheet Serial No. and also blacken the Corresponding
circles below.
v) Append signature in the relevant column.

12. Please read and abide by the instructions on the cover of Test Booklet. If any
candidate indulges in disorderly or improper conduct, he/she will render
himself/herself liable for disciplinary action and/or imposition of a penalty as the
Commission may deem fit.

26

ANNEXURE

HOW TO FILL IN THE ANSWER SHEET OF OBJECTIVE TYPE TESTS IN THE
EXAMINATION HALL
Please follow these instructions very carefully. You may note that since the
answer sheets are to be evaluated on machine, any violation of these instructions
may result in reduction of your score for which you would yourself be responsible.
Before you mark your responses on the Answer Sheet, you will have to fill in various
particulars in it.

As soon as the candidate receives the Answer Sheet, he/she should check that
it is numbered at the bottom. If it is found un-numbered, he/she should at once get
it replaced by a numbered one.

You will see from the Answer Sheet that you will have to fill in the top line,
which reads thus:

कें द्र विषय विषय कोड अनुक्रम क
ां
Centre Subject Subject Code Roll Number

If you are, say, appearing for the examination in Delhi Centre for the
Mathematics Paper* and your Roll No. is 081276, and your test booklet series is
‘A’ you should fill in thus, using black ball pen.

कें द्र विषय विषय कोड अनुक्रम क
ां
Centre Subject Subject Code Roll Number
Delhi Mathematics 0 1 0 8 1 2 7 6

You should write with black ball pen the name of the centre and subject in
English or in Hindi.

The test Booklet Series is indicated by Alphabets A, B, C or D at the top right
hand corner of the Booklet.

Write your Roll Numbers exactly as it is in your e-Admit Card with Black ball
pen in the boxes provided for this purpose. Do not omit any zero(s) which may be
there.

The next step is to find out the appropriate subject code from the Time Table.
Now encode the Test Booklet Series, Subject Code and the Roll Number in the circles
provided for this purpose. Do the encoding with Black Ball pen. The name of the
Centre need not be encoded.

Writing and encoding of Test Booklet Series is to be done after receiving the
Test Booklet and confirming the Booklet Series from the same. For Mathematics
*subject paper of ‘A’ Test Booklet Series, you have to encode the subject code which
is 01. Do it thus:

27

विषय
पुवतिक क्रम (अ) Subject
Booklet Series (A) 0 1
0
A 1
B 2 2
3 3
C 4 4
D 5 5
6 6
7 7
8 8
9 9

अनुक्रम क
ां
Number

All that is required is to blacken
completely the circle marked ‘A’
below the Booklet Series and below 0 8 1 2 7 6
the subject code blacken completely 0 0 0 0 0
the Circles for “0” (in the first
vertical column) and “1” (in the 1 1 1 1 1
second vertical column). You should 2 2 2 2 2
then encode the Roll No.081276. Do
it thus similarly: 3 3 3 3 3 3
Important: Please ensure that
4 4 4 4 4 4
you have carefully encoded your 5 5 5 5 5 5
Subject, Test Booklet Series and
6 6 6 6 6
Roll Number
7 7 7 7 7
* This is just illustrative and may not
8 8 8 8 8
be relevant to your Examination.
9 9 9 9 9 9

28

APPENDIX – III
GUIDELINES FOR PHYSICAL STANDARDS FOR ADMISSION TO THE
NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY.

NOTE: CANDIDATES MUST BE PHYSICALLY AND MENTALLY FIT ACCORDING
TO THE PRESCRIBED PHYSICAL STANDARDS. MEDICAL FITNESS CRITERIA
GIVEN BELOW ARE AS PER EXISTING GUIDELINES AS ON DATE OF
PUBLICATION AND THESE GUIDELINES ARE SUBJECT TO REVISION.

A NUMBER OF QUALIFIED CANDIDATES ARE REJECTED SUBSEQUENTLY
ON MEDICAL GROUNDS. CANDIDATES ARE THEREFORE ADVISED IN THEIR
OWN INTEREST TO GET THEMSELVES MEDICALLY EXAMINED BEFORE
SUBMITTING THEIR APPLICATIONS TO AVOID DISAPPOINTMENT AT THE FINAL
STAGE.

1. Candidates are also advised to rectify minor defects/ailments in order to speed up
finalisation of medical examination conducted at the Military Hospital after being
recommended at the SSB.

2. Few of such commonly found defects/ailments are listed below:
(a) Wax (Ears)
(b) Deviated Nasal Septum
(c) Hydrocele/Phimosis
(d) Overweight/Underweight
(e) Under Sized Chest
(f) Piles
(g) Gynaecomastia
(h) Tonsillitis
(i) Varicocele
NOTE: Permanent body tattoos are only permitted on inner face of forearm i.e. from inside of
elbow to the wrist and on the reverse side of palm/back (dorsal) side of hand/Permanent body
tattoos on any other part of the body are not acceptable and candidates will be barred from
further selection. Tribes with tattoo marks on the face or body as per their existing custom and
traditions will be permitted on a case to case basis. Comdt Selection Centre will be competent
authority for clearing such cases.

3. Civilian candidates appearing for all types of commission in the Armed Forces will be
entitled to out-patients treatment from service sources at public expense for injuries sustained
or diseases contracted during the course of their examination by the Selection Board. They will
also be entitled to in-patient treatment at public expense in the Officer’s ward of a hospital
provided—

(a) the injury is sustained during the tests or,
(b) the disease is contracted during the course of the examination by selection board
and there is no suitable accommodation in local civil hospital or it is impracticable to
remove the patient to the civil hospital; or,
(c) the medical board requires the candidate’s admission for observation.

NOTE: They are not entitled to special nursing.

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4. Medical Procedure

A candidate recommended by the Services Selection Board will undergo a medical
examination by a Board of Service Medical Officers. Only those candidates will be admitted
to the academy who are declared fit by the Medical Board. The proceedings of the Medical
Board are confidential and will not be divulged to anyone. However, the candidates declared
unfit will be intimated by the President of the Medical Board and the procedure for request for
an Appeal Medical Board will also be intimated to the candidate. Candidates declared unfit
during Appeal Medical Board will be intimated about the provision of Review Medical Board.

MEDICAL STANDARDS AND PROCEDURE FOR MEDICAL EXAMINATION OF
OFFICERS IN THE ARMED FORCES

The medical standards and procedures for the medical examination of candidates for
entry as officers into the Armed Forces (Army, Navy and Air Force) shall be governed by the
“Joint Order Manual of Medical Standards for Entry into Armed Forces (1st Edition)”.

This document is available on the official website of the Indian Army and can be
accessed at www.joinindianarmy.nic.in under: Home Page → Policies → Policies: Officer
Selection → Medical Standards for Entry into Armed Forces (1st Edition).

APPENDIX- IV
(BRIEF PARTICULARS OF THE SERVICE ETC.)

1. Before a candidate joins the Academy, the parent or guardian will be required to sign :-

(a) A certificate to the effect that he/she fully understands that he/she or his/her son
or ward shall not be entitled to claim any compensation or other relief from the
Government in respect of any injury which his/her son or ward may sustain in the course
of or as a result of the training or where bodily infirmity or death results in the course
of or as a result of a surgical operation performed upon or anaesthesia administered to
him/her for the treatment of any injury received as aforesaid or otherwise.

(b) A bond to the effect that if, on account of his/her dismissal or discharge or
withdrawal from National Defence Academy for knowingly furnishing false particulars
or suppressing material information in his/her application for admission to the said
National Defence Academy or in the event of his/her being voluntarily resigning from
the said National Defence Academy or for any reason not beyond the control of the
cadet, he/she does not complete the prescribed period of training, or he/she, the cadet,
does not accept a Commission if offered as conventated above, then the Guarantors and
the cadet shall jointly and severally be liable to pay forthwith to Government in cash
sums as the Government shall fix but not exceeding such expenses as shall have been
incurred by the Government on account of the Cadet on his/her training and all the
money received by the Cadets as pay and allowance from the Government together with
interest on the said money calculated at the rate in force for Government loans.

2. The cost of training including accommodation, books, uniforms, boarding and medical
treatment will be borne by the Government. Parents or guardians of cadets, will, however, be
required to meet their pocket and other private expenses. Normally these expenses are not
likely to exceed Rs. 3000.00 p.m. If in any case a cadet’s parents or guardian is unable to meet
wholly or partly even this expenditure financial assistance of Rs. 2,500/- per month for the

30

period of training may be granted by the Government whose parents income is less than Rs.
45,000/- per month. Cadet whose parent’s or guardian’s income exceeds Rs. 45,000/- per
month will not be liable for the assistance. If more than one son/ward simultaneously
undergoing training at NDA, IMA, OTA and corresponding training establishment in the Navy
and Air Force, then BOTH would be eligible for the financial assistance.

2.1 Existing Rate of Allowances. Allowances mentioned at para 10(b)(iii), [(iv) – except
Tech Allowance Tier –I & II], (v), (viii) & (ix) are DA indexed.

The parent/guardian of a candidate desirous of having financial assistance from the
Government should immediately after his/her son/ward having been finally selected for
training at the National Defence Academy submit an application through the District
Magistrate of his/her District who will forward the application with his/her recommendation to
the Commandant, National Defence Academy, Khadakwasla, Pune – 411023.

3. Candidates finally selected for training at the Academy will be required to deposit the
following amount with the Commandant, National Defence Academy, on their arrival there :—

Pocket allowance for five months Rs. 20,000.00
(a) @ Rs.4000.00 per month.
For items of clothing and equipment
(b) (Cost of clothing and equipment for candidates will be
intimated subsequently at the time of Joining Instructions)
(c) Army Group Insurance Fund Rs. 7,200.00
Clothing items required at the time of joining (Cost of clothing
(d) and equipment for candidates will be intimated subsequently at
the time of Joining Instructions)
(e) Incidental Expenditure during 1st Semester Rs. 14,295.00

Total (less Ser (b) & (d) to be added later) Rs. 41,495.00
Out of the amount mentioned above, the following amount is refundable to the
candidates in the event of financial aid being sanctioned to them:—

(a) Pocket Money Allowance @ Rs. 2,500/- Per Month.
(b) For items of clothing and equipment
(Brought at the time of joining)

4. The following Scholarships/Financial Assistance are tenable at the National Defence
Academy.

(1) PARASHURAM BHAU PATWARDHAN SCHOLARSHIP— This
Scholarship is granted to cadets overall first in Academics of Passing out Course. One
time scholarship amount is Rs. 5000/-.

(2) COLONEL KENDAL FRANK MEMORIAL SCHOLARSHIP— This
scholarship is of the value of Rs. 4800.00 per annum and awarded to a MARATHA
cadet who should be the son of an ex-serviceman. The scholarship is in addition to any
financial assistance from the Government.

31

(3) ASSAM GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIP—Two scholarships will be
awarded to the cadets from ASSAM. The value of each scholarship is Rs. 30.00 per
mensem and is tenable for the duration of a cadet’s stay at the National Defence
Academy. The scholarships will be awarded to the two best cadets from ASSAM
without any reference to the income of their parents. The cadets who are granted this
scholarship will not be entitled to any other financial assistance from the Government.

(4) UTTAR PRADESH GOVERNMENT INCENTIVE SCHEME—Uttar
Pradesh Sainik Punarvas Nidhi, a Trust under Hon’ble Governor of Uttar Pradesh has
started an incentive scheme for cadets joining NDA/IMA/OTA/AF Academy/Naval
Academy/Female Entry who are wards of ex-Servicemen/widows upto JCO rank and
are domicile of State of Uttar Pradesh in which there is a provision of one time grant of
Rs 50,000/- for each cadet selected as a special incentive.

(5) KERALA GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIPS— All male/female cadets
irrespective of gender and without any pre conditions to all Kerala state cadets who are
admitted to OTA, NDA, IMA, Naval Academy, Air force Academy, Armed Forces
Medical College, RIMC Schools, as a consolation shall be granted Rs. 2,00,000/- only
and those who get admission to Military, Naval and Air force Nursing Schools shall be
granted as a consolation Rs. 1,00,000/-.

(6) BIHARI LAL MANDAKINI PRIZE— This is cash prize of Rs. 500.00
available for the best BENGALI boy in each Course of the Academy. Application
Forms are available with the Commandant, National Defence Academy.

(7) ORISSA GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIPS— These scholarships, one for
the Army, one for the Navy and the other for the Air Force of the value of Rs. 80.00
each per month will be awarded by the Government of Orissa to the cadets who are
permanent residents of the State of ORISSA. Two of these scholarships will be awarded
on the basis of merit-cum-means of the cadets whose parent’s or guardian’s income
does not exceed Rs. 5,000/- per annum and the other one will be given to the best cadet
irrespective of his/her parent’s or guardian’s income.

S.No State Government Amount Eligibility
(8) West Bengal (i) The cadet must be Indian
*Income Citizen and the cadet and/or
Low Middle High his/her of/or permanently
Initial Lump sum
domiciled in the State of
grant 5000/- 3750/ 2500/-
West Bengal.
Scholarship per
1800/- 1350/- 900/-
semester (ii) The Cadet is not in
receipt of any other financial
*Table Income group assistance / grant from the
Low - up to Rs. 9000/-pm Govt. of India and/or the
Middle - Rs. 9001/- to Rs. 18000/-pm State Government or any
High - Above 18000/-pm other authority excepting
scholarship or stipend
received on merit.

32

(9) Goa (i) The income limit of the
Rs. 1000/- per month during the period of cadet's parent/guardian shall
training (subject to a maximum of 24 months or not exceed Rs. 15,000/- pm
duration of the course whichever is less) & one (Rs. 1,80,000/- per annum).
time outfit allowance of Rs. 12,000/-
(ii) The income limit of
those belonging to
SC/ST/OBC should not
exceed Rs. 37,500/- per
month (Rs. 4,50,000/- per
annum).

(iii) He/She should not be
receiving financial
assistance/ freeship from any
other source.

(10) Nagaland Rs. 1,00,000/- one-time payment Should be domicile of
Nagaland State.
(11) Manipur Rs. 1,00,000/- one-time payment Should be domicile of
Manipur State.
(12) Arunachal Scholarship Rs.1,000/- pm One Should be domicile of
Pradesh time outfit Arunachal Pradesh State.
Allowance Rs. 12,000/-

(13) Gujarat Scholarship Rs. 6,000/- per To the ward of Serving/Ex-
annum servicemen (incl Ex/Serving
Officer) of Native/Domicile
of Gujarat.
(14) Uttarakhand

(a) Pocket Money Rs. 250/- pm for NDA Cadets of Uttarakhand domicile is
paid to father/guardian of cadets (Ex-Servicemen/Widow, through
respective Zilla Sainik Kalyan Officers.)

(b) Cash Award of Rs. 50,000/- for NDA Cadets of Uttarakhand domicile is
paid to father/guardian of cadets through Directorate of Higher Education,
Haldwani.

(15) Punjab Rs. 1,00,000/-(one-time Should be domicile of Punjab
payment) State.

(16) Sikkim Rs.1.5 lakhs for all Offrs entry Award for successful
schemes candidates of Sikkim for all
Officer’ sentry schemes.

(17) Fg Officer Anuj Nanchal Memorial Scholarship. (One-time payment) to the
first and second best all round Air Force cadets of VIth term amounting to Rs
1500/- and Rs 1000/- respectively.

33

(18) HIMACHAL PRADESH GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIP— Four
scholarships will be awarded to cadets from HIMACHAL PRADESH. The value of
each scholarship is Rs. 30.00 per month during the first two years of training and Rs.
48.00 per month during the third year of training. These scholarships will be available
to those cadets whose parent’s income is below Rs. 500.00 per month. No cadet in
receipt of financial assistance from the Government will be eligible for this scholarship.

(19) TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIP—The Government of
Tamil Nadu has instituted at NDA one scholarship per course of the value of Rs. 30/-
per month plus an outfit allowance of Rs. 400/- (one only during the entire period of
cadet’s training) to be awarded to a cadet belonging to the State of TAMIL NADU
whose parent’s/guardian’s monthly income does not exceed Rs. 500/-. The application
by an eligible cadet can be made to the Commandant, National Defence Academy on
their arrival.

In addition to the existing Scholarships, Directorate of Ex-Servicemen Welfare,
Chennai under Tamil Nadu Government has sanctioned a one-time grant of
Rs.1,00,000/- (Rupees One Lakh Only) to the eligible children of Ex-Servicemen who
join NDA/IMA/Naval or Air Force Academy as Permanent Commissioned Officers.

(20) KARNATAKA GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIPS— The Govt. of
Karnataka has awarded scholarships to cadets from Karnataka State who join the
National Defence Academy. The value of the scholarship shall be Rs.1,500/- (Rupees
One Thousand Five Hundred only) per month and outfit allowance in first term
Rs.18,000/- per annum.

(21) ALBERT EKKA SCHOLARSHIP—The Government of Bihar has instituted
at NDA 25 Merit Scholarships at Rs. 50/- per month for entire period of six terms at the
NDA and Rs. 650/- one time towards clothing and equipment. The cadet awarded the
above merit scholarship would not be eligible for any other scholarship or financial
assistance from the Government. The application by an eligible cadet can be made to
the Commandant, National Defence Academy on their arrival.

(22) FG OFFICER DV PINTOO MEMORIAL SCHOLARSHIP— Gp Capt. M
Vashishta has instituted 3 scholarships of Rs.125/- each per month at NDA for one term
to be awarded to the first three cadets in the order of merit on completion of their first
semester till end of second term. The cadets in receipt of Govt. Financial Assistance
will not be eligible for the above scholarships. The application for eligible cadets can
be made to the Commandant, NDA on arrival.

(23) FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE TO WARDS OF EX-SERVICEMEN—
MAHARASHTRA STATE— The wards of Maharashtrian ex-service officers/men
who are undergoing training as cadets at NDA will be given Rs.1,00,000/- as one time
incentive.

The parents/guardians of the wards should submit their applications to their
respective Zilla Sainik Welfare Office along with the certificates obtained from the
Academy. Terms and conditions governing these scholarships are obtainable from the
Commandant, National Defence Academy, Khadakwasla, Pune – 411 023.

34

(24) AWARD OF FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE TO CANDIDATES OF
HARYANA DOMICILE UNDER TRAINING AT NDA— The Haryana State Govt.
has declared a cash award of Rs. 1,00,000/- (Rupees one lakh) to every individual who
successfully completes the training at NDA/IMA/OTA and other Defence Academies
of National Status and domicile of State of Haryana.

(25) INCENTIVE GRANT TO CADETS DOMICILE OF UT, CHANDIGARH
UNDER TRAINING AT NDA— Chandigarh Administration has introduced the
scheme for grant of one time incentive of Rs. 1,00,000/- (Rupees one lakh only) to the
cadets who are resident of UT, Chandigarh and joined NDA.

(26) SCHOLARSHIP/GRANT FOR NCT DELHI — The cadets undergoing
training at NDA and who are bonafide residents of NCT Delhi will get a monthly grant
of Rs. 2000/-. A bonafide resident would means those cadets whose permanent home
address recorded in the documents at the time of joining NDA is that of National Capital
Territory of Delhi ( and does not include NCR). This would be needed to be supported
with a copy of the residence proof (Aadhaar Card, Voter Identity Card, Service Records
of their parent etc.)

TRAINING

5. The selected candidates for the three services viz., Army, Navy and Air Force are given
preliminary training both academic and physical for a period of 3 years at the National Defence
Academy which is an Inter-Service Institution. The training during the first two and half years
is common to the cadets of three wings. All the cadets on passing out will be awarded degrees
from Jawaharlal Nehru University Delhi as under:-

(a) Army Cadets - B.Sc./ B.Sc. (Computer)/ B.A
(b) Naval Cadets - B. Tech Degree*
(c) Air Force Cadets - B. Tech Degree* /B.Sc./B.Sc. (Computer)

Note* : All the cadets undergoing B.Sc/B.SC(Computer)/BA Degree programme shall
be awarded the degree on the successful completion of Academics, Physical and
Service Training at NDA. All the cadets undergoing B Tech programme shall be
awarded the B.Tech degree on the subsequent Pre Commissioning Training Academies/
Institutions/ Ships/ Air Craft.

The selected candidates of the Naval Academy will be given preliminary training both
academic and physical, for a period of 04 years at Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala. The cadets
of 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme will be awarded a B. Tech Degree on successful completion of
training.
6. On passing out from the National Defence Academy, Army Cadets go to the Indian
Military Academy, Dehradun, Naval Cadets to Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala and Air Force
cadets and Ground Duty-Non Tech streams to Air Force Academy, Hyderabad and Air Force
cadets of Ground Duty–Tech stream to Air Force Technical College, Bengaluru.

7. At the I.M.A., Army Cadets are known as Gentlemen/Lady Cadets and are given
strenuous military training for a period of one year aimed at turning them into officer capable
of leading infantry Sub-units. On successful completion of training Gentlemen/Lady Cadets
are granted Permanent Commission in the rank of Lt. subject to being medically fit in "SHAPE"
one.

35

8. (a) The Naval cadets are selected for the Executive Branch of the Navy, on passing
out from the National Defence Academy and are given further training at Indian Naval
Academy, Ezhimala for a period of one year on successful completion of which they are
promoted to the rank of Sub-Lieutenants.

(b) Selected candidates for the Naval Academy under (10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme)
will be inducted as Cadets for four year B.Tech course in Applied Electronics &
Communication Engineering (for Executive Branch), Mechanical Engineering (for
Engineering Branch including Naval Architect specialization) or Electronics &
Communication Engineering (for Electrical Branch) as per Naval requirements. On completion
of the course, B. Tech Degree will be awarded by Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU).

9. (a) Air Force Flying Branch Cadets receive flying training for a period of one and
a half years. On successful completion of one year of basic flying training (Pilots), they are
granted Permanent Commission (on probation) in the rank of Flying Officer, for a period of six
months. Permanent Commission is then confirmed in respect of those officers who successfully
complete the flying training conversion course for pilots lasting for a period of approximately
six months..

(b) Air Force Ground Duties Branch Cadets are granted Permanent Commission
(on probation) in the rank of Flying Officer, for six months on successful completion of training
at AFA. On successful completion of the probationary period of approximately six months,
the Permanent Commission is then confirmed.

(c) Selected candidates for Naval Academy under (10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme) will
be inducted as Cadets for four year B.Tech course in Applied Electronics & Communication
Engineering (for Executive Branch only). On completion of the course, B.Tech Degree will be
awarded by Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU).

TERMS AND CONDITIONS OF SERVICES

10. Army Officers and equivalent ranks in Air Force and Navy

(a) Fixed Stipend for Cadet Training:-

Stipend to male/female Cadets during the entire Rs. 56,100/-p.m.*
duration of training in Service academies i.e. (Starting pay in Level
during training period at IMA. 10)
*On successful commissioning, the pay in the Pay matrix of the Officer commissioned
shall be fixed in first Cell of Level 10 and the period of training shall not be treated as
commissioned service and arrears on account of admissible allowances, as applicable,
for the training period shall be paid to cadets.

(b) Pay
(i) Rank Pay Level (in Rs.)
Lt. to Maj. Lt. - Level 10 (56,100 – 1,77,500)/-
Capt. - Level 10 B (61,300-1,93,900)/-
Maj. - Level 11 (69,400 – 2,07,200)/-

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Lt. Col. to Maj. Gen. Lt. Col. - Level 12A (1,21,200 – 2,12,400)/-
Col. - Level 13 (1,30,600 – 2,15,900)/-
Brig. - Level 13A (1,39,600 – 2,17,600)/-
Maj. Gen. - Level 14 (1,44,200 – 2,18,200)/-
Lt. Gen. (HAG Scale) Level 15 (1,82,200 – 2,24,100)/-

Lt. Gen. (HAG+ Level 16 (2,05,400 – 2,24,400)/-
Scale)
VCOAS/Army Cdr/ Level 17 (2,25,000/-) (fixed)
Lt. Gen.
COAS Level 18 (2,50,000/-) (fixed)

(ii) MSP to the officer is as follows:-

Military Service Pay(MSP) to the officers Rs. 15,500 p.m. fixed
from the rank of Lt to Brig

(iii) Depending upon rank and area of posting, officers posted to Field Areas will be
eligible for the following Field Area Allowances:-

RH Max Hardship
Offr – Rs.
42500/-* High Medium Low
Siachen
Allowance
HIGH R1H1 R1H2 R1H3
Offrs – Rs. 25000* Offr – Rs. 16900* Offrs – Rs. 5300*
 Flying allowance
 MARCOS & Chariot  HAFA Allowance  Hosp Patient Care
Allowance  CI (fd) Allowance (CI Allowance (HPCA)
 Special Forces Allowance Mod Fd @77% of CI  Patient Care Allowance
 Submarine Allowance Fd) (PCA)
 COBRA Allowance  Test Pilot and Fit Engr
 High Altitude Allowance- Allowance
Cat III

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MED R2H1 R2H2 R2H3
Offrs – Rs. 16900* Offr – Rs. 10500* Offrs – Rs. 3400*

Nil  Fd Area Allowance Nil
(Mod Fd Area @60%
of Fd allowance)
 CI (Peace) allowance
 Sea going allowance
 Free Fall Jump instr
allowance
 Para Jump Instr
allowance
 Para allowance

LOW R3H1 R3H2 R3H3
Offrs – Rs. 5300* Offr – Rs. 3400* Offrs – Rs. 1200*

 High altitude allowance –  High altitude Tough location
Cat II allowance- Cat I allowance-III
 Tough location  Tough location  Cooking allowance
allowance-I allowance-II  Hardlying money (full
 Boiler watch keeping  Project allowance rate)
allowance  Compensatory (Const  Health and malaria
 Submarine duty or Svy) allowance allowance
allowance  Hydro Svy allowance  Special LC Gate
(except non- allowance
surveyors)  Submarine Tech
allowance
 Hydro Svy allowance
(for non-surveyors)
* The rate of DA index Allowances will be calculated at enhanced rate of 25% as the rate of DA
crossed 50% w.e.f. 01.01.2024.

(iv) Other allowance:-

Dearness Allowance Admissible at the same rates and under the same
conditions as are applicable to the civilian
personnel from time to time.

Para Allce Rs. 10,500/-* pm
Para Reserve Allce Rs. 2,625/-* pm
Para Jump Instructor Allce Rs. 10,500/-* pm
Project Allce Rs. 3,400/-* pm
Special Forces Allce Rs. 25,000/-* pm
Technical Allce (Tier-I) Rs 3,000/- pm
Technical Allce (Tier-II) Rs 4,500/- pm

(v) Dress Allowance. 20,000/-* per year. (Rate will be enhanced by 25% each time
DA is increased by 50%)

(vi) Ration in Kind. In peace and Field areas

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(vii) Transport Allowance (TPTA)
Pay Level Higher TPTA Cities Other Places
(Rs. Per month) (Rs. Per month)

Officers Rs. 7200+DA thereon Rs. 3600+DA
thereon
(viii) Children Education Allowance. Rs.2,250/-* per month per child for two eldest
surviving only. CEA is admissible from Nursery to 12th Class.
(ix) Hostel Subsidy. Rs.6,750/-* per month per child for two eldest surviving only.
Hostel Subsidy is admissible from Nursery to 12th Class.

(x) The following monetary benefits are available to the Cadets (Direct)/NoKs in
the event of invalidment on medical grounds/death of a Cadet (Direct) due to causes
attributable to or aggravated by military training:

(I) IN CASE OF DISABLEMENT
(i) Monthly Ex-gratia amount of Rs. 9,000/- per month.
(ii) Ex-gratia disability award @ Rs. 16200/- per month shall be payable in
addition for 100% of disability during period of disablement subject to
prorata reduction in case the degree of disablement is less than 100%. No
disability award shall be payable in cases where the degree of disablement
is less than 20%.
(iii) Constant Attendant Allowance (CAA) @ Rs 6750/- per month for
100% disabled on the recommendation of Invaliding Medical Board (IBM).

(II) IN CASE OF DEATH
(i) Ex-gratia amount of Rs. 12.5 lakhs to the NoK.
(ii) Monthly Ex-gratia amount of Rs. 9000/- per month to the NoK.
Note: 1. The Ex-gratia awards to Cadets (Direct) / NoK, shall be
sanctioned purely on ex-gratia basis and the same shall not be treated as
pension for any purpose.
2. Dearness Relief at applicable rates shall be granted on monthly ex-gratia
as well as ex-gratia disability award.

* The rate of DA index Allowances will be calculated at enhanced rate of 25% as the rate of
DA crossed 50% w.e.f. 01.01.2024.

11. (a) Army Group Insurance Fund provides insurance cover of Rs. 30 lakh on
payment of one time non-refundable premium of Rs. 14,000/- (subject to revision from time to
time) by cadets from the date of joining for pre-commission training i.e. for 3 years. If a cadet
is relegated an additional premium of Rs. 2,635/- (subject to revision from time to time) per
relegated term will be paid. For those who are invalidated out by IMB on account of disability
and not entitled to any pension will be provided Rs. 25 lakhs for 100 per cent disability. This
will be proportionately reduced to Rs. 5 lakhs for 20 per cent. However, for less than 20 percent
disability, only an Ex-Gratia Grant of Rs. 50,000/- for first two years of training and Rs. 1 lakh
during the third year of training will be paid. Disability due to alcoholism, drug addiction and
due to the diseases of pre-enrolment origin will not qualify for disability benefit and Ex-Gratia

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Grant. In addition, cadets withdrawn on disciplinary grounds, expelled as undesirable or
leaving the Academy voluntarily will also not be eligible for disability benefits and Ex-Gratia.
There is no saving component under the scheme.

(b) The Lady/Gentlemen Cadets during pre-commission trg when in receipt of
stipend are insured for Rs. 1.25 Cr as applicable to officers of the regular Army. Monthly
AGIF subscription of Rs. 12,500/- per month will be deducted directly by PCDA (O), Pune.
For those who are invalidated out by Invalidated Medical Board (IMB) on account of disability
and not entitled to any pension will be provided Rs 25 lakh for 100 percent disability. This
will be proportionately reduced to Rs 5 lakh for 20 percent disability. However, for less than
20 percent disability, an ex-gratia grant of Rs. 50,000/- only will be paid. Disability due to
alcoholism, drug addiction and due to the diseases of pre-enrolment origin will not qualify for
disability benefit and Ex-Gratia Grant. In addition, Lady/Gentleman Cadets withdrawn on
disciplinary grounds, expelled as an undesirable or leaving the Academy voluntarily will not
be eligible for disability benefits and Ex-Gratia.

12. PROMOTIONAL AVENUES:

Minimum
Reckonable
Commissioned
S.No. Army Navy Air Force Service required for
Substantive
Promotion
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
(a) Lieutenant Sub Lieutenant Flying Officer On Commission
(b) Captain Lieutenant Flight Lieutenant 02 Years
(c) Major Lt. Commander Squadron Leader 06 years
(d) Lieutenant Colonel Commander Wing 13 years
Commander
(e) Colonel Captain Group Captain On Selection
(Selection) (Selection) (Selection)
(f) Colonel Captain Group Captain 26 years
(Time Scale) (Time Scale) (Time Scale)
(g) Brigadier Commodore Air Commodore On Selection
(h) Major General Rear Admiral Air Vice Marshal On Selection
(i) Lieutenant General Vice Admiral Air Marshal On Selection
(j) General Admiral Air Chief Marshal On Selection

13. RETIREMENT BENEFITS

Pension, gratuity and casualty pensionary award will be admissible in accordance with
the rules in force from time to time.

14. LEAVE

Leave will be admissible in accordance with the rules in force from time to time.

*****

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