Karnataka Diploma CET 2017 Question Paper Biotechnology

DIPLOMA - COMMON ENTRANCE TEST-2017
COURSE DAY : SUNDAY DATE : 02-07-2017
B BIOTECHNOLOGY TIME : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
MAXIMUM MARKS TOTAL DURATION MAXIMUM TIME FOR ANSWERING
180 200 MINUTES 180 MINUTES

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A- 1 234009
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BT-A 1 11111111111111111111

PART - A

APPLIED SCIENCE

1. The S.I. unit of Coefficient of Viscosity is
(A) Poise (B) NSm-'2
(C) NS-I m2 (D) NS - I m-2

The prefix used for I09 is
(A) Mega (B) Tera
(C) Giga (D) Hecta

3. The physical quantity which has the dimensional formula [ML()T-2] is
(A) Force (B) Surface tension
(C) Viscosity (D) Work

4. The least count of slide callipers is given by
(A) 1 MSD + I VSD (B) 1 MSD x I VSD
1 MSD
(C) 1 MSD - 1 VSD (D)
1 VSD

5. The product of force and time is
(A) Momentum (B) Moment
(C) Impulse (D) Acceleration

6. The change in position of a particle in a particular direction is referred to as
(A) Speed (B) Displacement
(C) Velocity (D) Acceleration

2 BT

7. The equation of motion of a body for distance travelled ' S,, ' in the ' n th ' second is given by

a
(A) = u + - (2n -1) (B) St, = u -1)

(C) St, = u +(2n +1) (D) Sn = u - ay-2n +1)

8. A bullet of mass 0.01 kg is fired with a velocity of 960 ms-1 from a rifle of mass 3 kg, the
velocity of recoil of rifle is

(A) -3?0 ms-1 (B) - 0.32 ms-1

(C) ms 1 (D) -32 ms-1

9. One of the following is not a scalar quantity :
/A1 /iass (B) Density

(C) Force (D) Speed

10. If a body fixed about a point rotates in clockwise direction, the moment of force is measured
as

(A) Positive (B) Negative

(C) Zero (D) Equal

11. The resultant magnitude of two forces P and Q acting in same line and in same direction is

(A) P - Q (B) P + Q

) P
(C) Q-P (D —

BT 3 A-1

P. The resultant magnitude of two forces 6 N and 8 N acting at right angles to each other is
(A) 100 N (B) 10 N

(C) 48 N (D) 14 N

13. The value of resultant magnitude of two forces acting at a point is maximum, when the
angle between the two forces is

(A) 0° (B) 90°

(C) 180° (D) 45°

14. Rise of liquid in a capillary tube is due to

(A) Energy (B) Viscosity

(C) Surface tension (D) Pressure

15. The ratio of volume stress to volume strain is called

(A) Bulk modulus (B) Young's modulus

(C) Rigidity modulus (D) Poisson's ratio

16. The reciprocal of bulk modulus of elasticity is called

(A) Compressibility (B) Rigidity

(C) Plasticity (D) Modulus of elasticity

17. The force of cohesion is maximum in

(A) Solids (B) Gases

(C) Liquids (D) Plasma

A-1 4 BT

18. The value of surface tension is 80 dyne/cm. What will be its value in Nm -1 ?

(A) 8 x102 Nm-1 (B) 80 Nin-I

(C) 8 x 10-2 Nm-1 (D) 8 x103 Mit - I

19. Pressure at the bottom of a container having base area of 10 in2 filled with water to a height
of 10 m is

(A) 9.8 x 104 Pa (B) 980 x 104 Pa

(C) 9.8 x 10-4 Pa (D) 980 x 10-4 Pa

20. 100 °C when expressed in absolute scale is

(A) 100 K (B) 0 K

(C) 273 K (D) 373 K

21. Gas law which gives the relation between pressure and volume changes is

(A) Boyle's law (B) Charles' law

(C) Gay-Lussac's law (D) Hooke's law

22. Amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one gram of water through 1 °C is

(A) Heat capacity (B) Conductivity

(C) Calorie (D) Joule

23. An example of longitudinal wave is

(A) Sound waves (B) Waves on the surface of water
(C) Light waves (D) Electromagnetic waves

BT 5 A-1

24. The relation between velocity of sound v, and absolute temperature T is

(A) v T (B) v ---
T

(C) v (D) v T

25. The distance between a node and the next antinode in a stationary wave is equal to
(A) one wavelength (B) half wavelength
(C) twice wavelength (D) one fourth wavelength

26. Damage caused by marching military columns to the suspension bridge is due to
(A) Echo (B) Resonance
(C) Beats (D) Interference

27. During forced vibrations, if the forced frequency is F1 and natural frequency is F, , the body
resonates if

(A) F1 > F, (B) F, >

(C) = 2.5 F, (D)

28. The fundamental frequency of transverse vibrations of the stretched string is inversely
proportional to
(A) tension (B) length of string
(C) square root of tension (D) square root of length of string

29. Minimum length of a hall to produce an echo is
(A) 50 m (B) 34 m
(C) 25 m (D) 17 m

A-1 6 BT

30. The property of light that Huygen's wave theory could explain is
(A) Polarisation (B) Photoelectric effect

(C) Interference (D) Compton effect

31. The spectrum of black body radiation is successfully explained by
(A) Newton's corpuscular theory of light

(B) Huygen's wave theory of light

(C) Maxwell's electromagnetic theory of light

(D) Planck's quantum theory of light

32. For constructive interference of light, the path difference should be

?nk
(A) (B) (211+ 1) 3-
2_

(C) (2n + I ) (D) (2n+1)
3 4

33. Two very close objects are just resolved if the central maximum of one object is on
(A) central maximum of another
(B) first minimum of another
(C) beyond second minimum of another
(D) between central maximum and first minimum of another

34. The light is incident at polarising angle 0 and the angle of refraction is r, then

(A) Op+ r = 0° (B) 0 + r = 90°

(C) 0 + r = 1800 (D) 0p+ r = 360°

BT 7 A-1

35. Minimum energy required to remove an electron from the metal surface is called
(A) Kinetic energy (B) Potential energy
(C) Work function (D) Energy function

36. When the size of the scattering particle is small, the intensity of scattered light is inversely
proportional to
(A) fourth power of wavelength (B) square of wavelenuth
(C) square root of wavelength (D) cube of wavelength

37. Time for which an atom stays in metastable state is of the order of
(A) Seconds (B) Milli-seconds
(C) Micro-seconds (D) Nano-seconds

38. If an element emits n-ray then its atomic number
(A) i ncronQpc: by one (B) decreases by one
(C) remains same (D) decreases by two

39. If the concentration of H i- ions is more than 10-7 gm ion per litre, the solution is
(A) Base (B) Acid
(C) Neutral (D) Both Acid and Base

40. A galvanic cell is one in which
(A) chemical energy produce electric energy
(B) electric energy produce chemical energy
(C) chemical energy will not produce electric energy
(D) electric energy will not produce chemical energy

A-1 8 BT

PART - B
APPLIED MATHEMATICS

1 2 3
41. The value of x if 2 x 3 = 0 is
3 4 3
(A) 0 (B) -3

(C) 3 (D) 18

42. The value of x, if 4x + y = 7, 3y + 4z, = 5 and 3z + 5x = 2 is

(A) 0 (B) 1

(C) 3 (D) -1

r.
43. If A= , then A-1 is
3 -4

1 -4 - 3 1 -4 11
(A) -- (B) --
5 1 5 L-3 2 J

-4 -4
(C) - (D) -1
Il 1 2 11 -3 2

2 -1-
44. The characteristic equation of the matrix A = is
5 -6

(A) A2 +SA-7I=0 (B) A2 + 4A - 1 71= 0

(C) A2 +4A+71= 0 (D) A2 + 4A - 71 = 0

BT 9 A-1

_ I
45. If +A , then A is
1 2 3 ")

3 3 _
(A) (B)
0
0 -
r_ 2 3 0
(D)
L - 0

24
- )
46. The middle term of the expansion of x -- is
x,
(A) 24ciol iox12 24 1 11
(B) C] 1 x
(C) 24011210 3:10 (D) 24 01, -)1212

47. The term independent of x inl v2 - is
I-

(A) 9 C6 (4)6

(4
\ 3/

48. If 3i - 2j + k, i - 3j + 5k, 2i + j - 4k arc the sides of a triangle, then the triangle is
(A) Right angled triangle (B) Equilateral triangle
(C) Isosceles triangle (D) Isosceles right angled triangle

-- -3 -3 ->
49. If a - (2, -1, 4) and b = (2, -3, 4), then projection of a on b is
2_ -,
(A) 23 (B) 3
-\/21 -vc29
13
(C) (D)
129 ' Nill

A-1 10 BT

50. The sine of the angle between the vectors (2i — 2j + k) and 2i + j + 2k is
I65 , V65
(A) (B)
3 VT;

V65
(C) (D) Nr6- .
9

tan245 + cot-1710
51. If x sin- 45 = then the value of x is
sin-45 + cos-45
(A) 4 (B) 2
(C) 6 (D) 8

4 7, 7c 3 II .
52. The value of —sec`
— --cosec- -+— tan" -- 2 — is
3 3 6 4 4 3
11
(A) (B) 53
12 12
7 7
(C) (D)
12 12

53. The value of
( "irt
sec +0
sin (90 —0) \2 tan (180-0) is
cos (360-0) cosec (7r +0) tan (-0)
(A) 1 (B) —1
(C) 3 (D)

54. The value of cosec 43 cot 43 cot 47 cos 47
(B) 0
(D) 2

11 A-1

tan 69° + tan 66°
55. The value of
1- tan 69° tan 66°
(A) 1 (B) -1
(C) 0 (D) cc

56. If tan A = x then sin A + tan A is
7
4x 4x
(A) (B)
1- ,- +x2
4x 4x
(C) (D)
± 1- .1.4
57. The value of sin 70° - sin 50° - sin 10° is
(A) 1 (B) 0
1
(C) -1 , (D) -

58. sin-1 .v is also equal to

(A) cosec--1( 7 (B) cosec x

1
(C) cosec I x (D) —
sin x

59. Centroid divides the median in the ratio
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2
(C) 1 : 1 (D) 1 : 4

60. The co-ordinates of a point which divides the line join of the points (a + b, a - b) and
(a - b, a + b) in the ratio 2 : 3 is
5a + 5b 5a - 5b a +b a - b
(A) (B)
5 5 5
5a + b 5a - b 5a - b a + 5b
(C) (D)
5 5 5 5

A-1 12 BT

61. The equation of straight line whose intercepts are 3 and 5 on the axes is
(A) 5x — 3y = 15 (B) 5x + 3y = 15
(C) 5x + 3y I (D) 15x + 15y = 1

62. The angle between the lines whose slopes are V3 and respectively is
NF3

1

(D)

63. The equation of the straight line passing through (2. 3) and x intercept is twice its y intercept
is
(A) + 2y = 8 (B) — 2y = 8
(C) +y4 (D) 2x + 2y = 8

64. The equation to the line passing through the point (-6, 7) and parallel to the line joining
(3, 4) and (6, —8) is
(A) 4x + y + 31 = 0 (B) + 4y,, — 1 = 0
(C) x— 4y+ 1 =0 (D) 4x + y + 17 = 0

65. lim (sec 0 — tan 0) is equal to
O -*
(A) 0 (B) 1

(C) 2 (D)

—4
66. lim is equal to
4 3 _ 3 _x

(A) 3 (B) 9
(C) 6 (D) 0

BT 13 A-1

67. If y = (1+ logs)' , then dyis
(Ix

(A) 5(logx)4 (B) 5 (1+ logx

(C) 5(1 + log x)4 (D) 5x4 logx

68. — ens- t and y = sin t, then dy rs
dx
(A) (B) 1
1
(C) (D) 2
2-V1 -

69. If y =xlog y, thendy
-- is
dl
log x log y'
(B)
x—y x—y

log y" log yY
(C) (D)
x—y Yx

70. If y = x +1 , then d--3-1-is
x+2 dx
2x +3
(A) (B)
(x + 2)2 (x + 2)2
lx —3
(C) (D)
(x + 2)2 (x + 2)2

71. The equation of tangent to the curve y2 — 4x at (1, 2) is
(A) x + y 3 = 0 (B) x — y + 1 =0
(C) 2x — y = 0 (D) 2.v + y — 4 = 0

A-1 14 BT

72. The maximum value of 7 — 8x — 2x2 is
(A) 15 (B) —4
(C) —2 (D) 31

73. The value of flog 2x di is
(A) x log 2x + x + C (B) x log 2x
I
(C) -- + C (D) — +C
2x

74. The value of fsec4 x • tan x clx

see4x
(A) +C (B) 4 scc4x + C
4

tan4X C
(C) 'sec2x +C (D)
4

75. The value of x log x dx is

(A) log x +C (B) log x + +C

2
X X X
(C) logx +C (D) log x + +C
4 4

a/4
I
76. tan -x dx is equal to

7c rc
(A) — —1 (B) 1 —
4 4

7/ -
(C) (D) 16 — 1
16

HT 15 A-1

-

77. The value of — dx is
0

(A) — (B) 0
3

(C) (D)
3

78. The volume generated by revolving the line y = x + 1 about the x-axis between the ordinates
x = 0 and x = 2

26 10 7t
(A) units (B) units
3 3

, 26
-- units (D) 4 units

3
2 dy
79. The degree and order of the differential equation d y = 1+ are
dx dx )

(A) 2 and 1 (B) 1 and 2

(C) 3 and 2 (D) 2 and 3

dy
80. The solution of differential equation — + y tan x = see x is
dx

(A) y sec x = tan x + C

(B) y sin x = sec x + C

(C) log(sec x) = tan x + C

(D) y sec x = —cot x + C

A-1 16 BT

PART — C

BIOTECHNOLOGY

81. An example for a neutral buffer is
(A) ammonium hydroxide and ammonium chloride
(B) acetic acid and ammonium hydroxide
(C) acetic acid and sodium acetate
(D) citric acid and sodium citrate

82. Noble gases are generally unreactive because they
(A) have stable outer electron shells (B) are not abundant
(C) have large atomic size (D) are monatomic

83. Chemical bond implies
(A) attraction
(B) attraction or repulsion
(C) repulsion
(D) attraction or repulsion balanced at a particular distance

84. The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a quantum shell is

(A) n (B) n

(C) 2n2 (D) n(n + 1)

85. Which of the following organic compounds answers to both iodoforni test and Fehling's
test ?
(A) Ethanol (B) Methanol
(C) Propanone (D) None

BT 17 A-1

86. The first amino acid in a polypeptide chain is
(A) Serine (B) Valine
(C) Alanine (D) Methionine

87. a-maltose consists of
(A) one a-D-glucopyranose unit and one P-D-glucopyranose unit with 1-2 glycosidic
linkage
(B) two a-D-glucopyranose units with 1-2 glycosidic linkage
(C) two P-D-glucopyranose units with 1-4 glycosidic linkage
(D) two a-D glucopyranose units with 1-4 glycosidic linkage

88. If position of functional group varies in each of its isomer then it is
(A) position isomerism (B) functional group isomerism
(C) chain isomerism (D) All of them

89, A chemical substance that acts ac an immediate source of energy for ninny biological
reactions is
(A) Protein (B) Glucose
(C) Adenosine triphosphate (D) Adenosine monophosphate

90. A Kinase is an enzyme that
(A) removes phosphate groups of substrates
(B) uses ATP to add a phosphate group to the substrate
(C) uses NADH to change the oxidation state of the substrate
(D) removes water from double bond

91. Globular proteins is present in
(A) Blood (B) Milk
(C) Eggs (D) All of these

A-1 18 BT

92. Phagocytosed food is digested with the help of enzyme are present in
(A) Ribosome (B) Lysosome
(C) Mitochondria (D) Golgi complex

93. During meiosis, chiasmata are observed at
(A) Pachytene (B) Diplotene
(C) Leptotene (D) Diakinesis

94. Gene mutation occurs at the time of
(A) DNA repair (B) DNA replication
(C) Cell division (D) RNA transcription

95. Downs syndrome is characterised by
(A) 19 trisomy (B) 21 trisomy
(C) only one X chromosome (D) two X and one Y chromosome

96. The membrane bound organell present in both Eukaryotes and Prokaryotes is/are
(A) Endoplasmic reticulum (B) Ribosome
(C) Nucleus (D) Golgi apparatus

97. Corn flour-sugar solutions are example for type of fluids.
(A) Pseudoplastic (B) Thixotropic
(C) Dilatent (D) Rheopectic

98. If the vapour pressure of benzene is 108.12 kPa and vapour pressure of toluene is
41.863 kPa at 355.9 K, then relative volatility is
(A) 2.18 (B) 2.38
(C) 2.58 (D) 2.78

BT 19 A-1

99. Tendency of the liquid to segregate towards the walls and to flow along the walls is termed
as
(A) flooding (B) weeping
(C) channeling (D) condensing

100. Colburn analogy shows the relation between
(A) heat transfer; mass transfer (B) heat transfer; fluid friction
(C) mass transfer; fluid friction (D) heat transfer; momentum transfer

101. Water enters the heat exchanger at 328 K & leaves at 358 K. Hot gases enter at 578 K &
leave at 433 K. If the total heat transfer area is 500 m' and the overall heat transfer co-
efficient is 700 W/m- K, total heat transfered for counter current flow of two fluids is

(A) 60 x W (B) 58.7 x 10' W
r'\ c„r no All
vy in\An
-Tv._ „ n6 \1/
vv

102. Introduction of DNA into cells by exposing to high voltage electric pulse is
(A) electrofusion (B) electrofission
(C) electrolysis (D) electroporation

103. Among the two strands of DNA, the one that contains gene is called the coding strand. The
other one, which is complementary to the coding strand is called the template strand. The
template strand directs the synthesis of complementary strand of RNA, called the messenger
RNA. This process is called
(A) translation (B) transcription
(C) replication (D) mutation

104. Which of the following is a thermostable DNA polymerase ?
(A) Taq polymerase (B) Vent polymerase
(C) Pfu polymerase (D) All of these

A-1 20 BT

105. Each of the following events involves recombination of DNA except
(A) Conjugation
(B) Transduction of a chromosomal gene
(C) Transposition of a mobile genetic element
(D) Integration of a temperate bacteriophage

106. Which of the following biomolecule has self repair mechanism ?
(A) DNA, RNA and Protein (B) DNA and RNA
(C) DNA only (D) DNA and proteins

107. Which of the following bacterium is considered as a `natural genetic engineer' ?
(A) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (B) Agrobacterium radiobactor
(C) Pseudomonas putida (D) Thermus aquaticus

108. The role of a metabolite that controls a repressible operon is to
(A) bind to the promoter region and decrease the affinity of RNA polymerase for the
promoter.
(B) bind to the operator region and block the attachment of RNA polymerase to the
promoter.
(C) bind to the repressor protein and inactive it.
(D) bind to the repressor protein and activate it.

109. This protein is produced by a regulatory gene :
(A) Inducer (B) Promoter
(C) Repressor (D) Corepressor

110. Components with small -'k' value have greater affinity towards
(A) mobile phase (B) stationary phase
(C) no phase (D) both mobile & stationary phase

BT 21 A-1

111. In SDS-PAGE, separation is based on
(A) Molecular weight (B) Shape
(C) Charge (D) All of these

112. Technique electrophoresis for the separation of charged particles was developed by
(A) Tswett (B) Svedberg
(C) Tiselius (D) Sanger

113. Common type of gel used for DNA separation is
(A) Agar (B) Polyacrylamide
(C) Agarose (D) All of these

114. Electrophoresis of histones and myoglohin under denaturing conditions (pH-7) results in
(A) both proteins migrate to the anode.
(B) histories migrate to the anode & myoglobin migrates to the cathode.
(C) histones migrate to the cathode & the myoglohin migrates to the anode.
(D) both proteins migrate to the cathode.

115. Bacterial chromosome is
(A) single stranded and circular (B) double stranded and circular
(C) single stranded and linear (D) double stranded and linear

116. Which of the following methods will not sterilize ?
(A) Aqueous glutaraldehyde for 10 hours
(B) Dry heat at 171 °C for 1 to 2 hrs.
(C) 121 °C at 15 lb/in pressure for 15 to 20 minutes.
(D) 100 °C boiling water for 30 minutes

117. Fungi are virtually the only organisms capable of breaking down
(A) Cellulose (B) Lignin
(C) Chitin (D) Starch

A-1 22 BT

118. Cell wall shows
(A) Semi permeability (B) Complete permeability
(C) Differential permeability (D) Impermeability

119. The formation of mating pair during the process of conjugation in E. coli requires
(A) Transfer of both strands of DNA (B) Sex pilus
(C) Restriction endonuclease (D) Lysis of the donor

120. Fungi are different from plants because fungi
(A) are heterotrophs (B) have cellwall made of chitin
(C) have filamentous bodies (D) All of these

121. Most light microscope contain a/an that converges the light beam so that it passes
through the specimen.
(A) ocular lens (B) objective lens
(C) condenser (D) iris diaphragm

122. Blue Green algae are used as biofertilizer in
(A) rice field (B) sugarcane field
(C) wheat field (D) coconut plants

123. The process of converting environmental pollutants into harmless products by naturally
occurring microbes is called
(A) exsitu bioremediation (B) intrinsic bioremediation
(C) extrinsic bioremediation (D) None of these

124. Chemical substances used to destroy weeds in crops
(A) herbicides (B) monoxides
(C) carbo-oxides (D) pesticides

BT 23 A-1

125. The form of nitrogen that is most usable in plants is
(A) Nitrate (B) Nitrite
(C) Molecular nitrogen (D) Ammonia

126. All the following are examples of negative symbiosis except
(A) amensalism (B) competition
(C) predation (D) commensalism

127. Fluoride is also added to water, which helps prevent
(A) infection (B) sickness
(C) fever (D) tooth decay

128. Azolla is used as biofcrtilizer as it has
(A) Rhizobium (B) Cyanobacteria
(C) Mycorrhiza (D) Large quantity of humus

129. Mast cells have receptor for
(A) Ig E (B) Ig A
(C) Ig G (D) Ig M

130. Which antibody is known to responsible for allergic reaction ?
(A) Ig M (B) Ig A
(C) Ig E (D) Ig D

131. Haematopoietic stem cells are found in
(A) skin (B) spleen
(C) bone marrow (D) payers patches

132. Innate immunity involves all except
(A) Anatomic barriers (B) Phagocytic
(C) Inflammatory mechanism (D) Antibody production

A-1 24 BT

133. Kupffer cells are macrophages found on
(A) Lungs (B) Bones
(C) Nephrons (D) Liver

134. The bonds involved in Antigen-antibody reaction are
(A) weak hydrogen bonds and van der Waals forces
(B) strong covalent bonds
(C) strong disulphide bonds
(D) All of these

135. When energy depleted elements associated with a proton are accepted by an organic
molecule, the process is known as
(A) Fermentation (B) Respiration
(C) Anabolism (D) Catabolism

136. Final electron acceptor .in lactic acid fermentation is
(A) Oxygen (B) Lactic acid
(C) Pyruvate (D) NAD

137. Biomass determination methods includes
(A) Turbidometric method (B) Measurement of dry weight
(C) Estimation of cell constituents (D) All of these

138. Growth rate is the reciprocal of
(A) generation time (B) number of generations per time
(C) doubling rate (D) All of these

139. Erythromycin is produced by a strain of
(A) Streptomyces lincolensis (B) Streptomyces erythreus
(C) Streptococcus pyogenes (D) Streptococcus aureus

RT 25 A-1

140. Load cells arc used for the measurement of
(A) stress (B) strain
(C) weight (D) velocity

141. Rate constant of a first order reaction depends on
(A) time ( B) temperature
/ concentration of reactant (D) concentration of product

142. Food spoilage is due to
(A) Growth of micro organisms like bacteria, fungus or insects
(B) Autolysis
(C) Oxidation by air that causes rancidity or colour changes
(D) All of these

143. Before drying, vegetables should be
(A) blanched (B) salted
(C) sulfured (D) autoclaved

144. Food additive that prevents colour and flavour loss
(A) enzyme (B) ascorbic acid
(C) yeast (D) fruit butter

145. Most spoilage bacteria grows at
(A) Acidic pH (B) Alkaline pH
(C) Neutral pH (D) Any of the pH

146. Yoghurt is made from
(A) Lactobacillus bulgaricus (B) Streptococcus thermophillus
(C) S. Cremoris (D) Mixed culture of (A) 8z, (B)

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147. Milk contains 87% water & rest is solids & fats. Which of the following is not included as
milk solid ?
(A) Protein (B) Water
(C) Carbohydrate (D) Milk fat

148. Primary milk carbohydrate is
(A) Leiicine (B) Sucrose
(C) Arginine (D) Lactose

149. Ocular administration involves the treatment of
(A) Skin (B) Eyes
(C) Ears (D) Lungs

150. Lactose is used as
(A) Diluent (B) Glidant
(C) Lubricant (D) Disintegrant

151. Name two different types of inhaler.
(A) MDI & API (B) IV & SC
(C) DPI & MDI (D) GIT & ATP

152. Nasal Administration is commonly used for the relief of
(A) Head ache (B) Cough
(C) Sore throat (D) Congestion

153. Which of the following polymer is widely used in film coating of tablets ?
(A) Acacia (B) Syrup
(C) HPMC (D) Starch

BT 27 A-1

154. Sweetening agent commonly used in chewable tablet formula is
(A) Sucrose (B) Mannitol
(C) Lactose (D) Saccharin Sodium

155. Lamination is
(A) separation of a tablet into two or more distinct layers
(B) process of sub-coating of tablets
(C) Both separation of a tablet into two or more distinct layers & process of sub-coating
of tablets
(D) None of these

156. In sugar coating of tablets, sealcoat is done
(A) to prevent moisture deposition
(B) to round the edge & build tablet size
(C) to smoothen the surface
(D) to prevent the tablet from breaking due to vibration

157. Pure carbon monoxide with 100% excess air is completely burned at constant pressure.
Reactants was initially at 400 K. Standard heat of reaction at 298 K is 283.028 kJ per mole
carbon dioxide burned. Mean specific heats applicable in the temperature range are 29.1,
29.7, 29.1 & 41.45 Jimol K for CO, O, , N, and CO, . If the products leave at 600 K,
difference in the heat is
(A) + 240.15 kJ (B) — 240.15 kJ
(C) + 250.14 kJ (D) — 250.14 kJ

158. A reactor is supplied with 10 moles of CH 4 and 10 moles of 0„ if the extent of reaction is
3, what is the moles of CO2 produced ?

(A) 3 (B) 6
(C) 8 (D) 12

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159. 20 kg of sodium hydroxide is dissolved in 1000 kg of water, mole percent of sodium
hydroxide is
(A) 1% (B) 0.5%
(C) 0.89% (D) 0.7%

160. Assuming that carbon dioxide obeys the perfect gas law, density of carbon dioxide in
kg; m3 at 536 K & 202.6 kPa is
(A) I (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

161. Ideal gas law is applicable at
(A) low T, low P (B) high T, high P
(C) low T, high P (D) high T, low P

162. Cell lysis is an important operation if product is
(A) Extracellular (B) Heat labile
(C) Toxic (D) Intracellular

163. In case of mammalian cell culture, transformation means
(A) uptake of new genetic material
(B) phenotypic modifications of cells in culture
(C) both uptake of new genetic material & phenotypic modifications of cells in culture
(D) release of genetic information

164. Application of extraction in bioprocessing
(A) Purification of antibodies (B) Lipids
(C) DNA (D) All of these

165. Ethanol is oxidized to acetic acid aerobically by
(A) Acetobacter
(B) Gluconobacter
(C) Both Acetobacter & Gluconobacter
(D) Lactobacillus

BT 29 A-1

166. Rate of centrifugation is specified by
(A) Angular velocity (B) Linear velocity
(C) Downward velocity (D) None of these

167. Product enrichment techniques includes
(A) Use of salts (B) Organic solvents
(C) Polyelectrolytes (D) All of these

168. Purification and recovery of product after fermentation is by
(A) upstream processing (B) downstream processing
(C) surface fermentation (D) submerged fermentation

169. Methods of precipitation follows
(A) Polyethylene glycol (B) Triazine dyes
(C) Ammonium & sodium sulphate (D) All of these

170, Enzyme that joins the ends of two strands of nucleic acid is
(A) Polymerase (B) Ligase
(C) Synthetase (D) Helicase

171. Which of the following is employed for the repeated use of enzymes in bioprocess '?
(A) Polymerization (B) Immobilization
(C) Ligation (D) Isomerization

172. After electrophoresis, protein or peptide bonds are visualized using
(A) Coomassive Brilliant blue (B) FC reagent
(C) DNS reagent (D) All of these

173. Adsorption of cell or enzyme on supporting medium is due to
(A) Electrostatic force (B) Hydrophobic interactions
(C) Bonding to specific ligand (D) All of these

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174. Rate of chemical reaction generally doubles for every increase in temperature.
(A) 10 °C (B) 20 °C
(C) 30 °C (D) 40 °C

175. Enzymes are
(A) Thermophile (B) Thermolabile
(C) Thennostable (D) All of these

176. Specificity of protein in enzyme action depends on
(A) active site (B) Km constant
(C) linear sequence of amino acids (D) turn over number

177. Factors affecting velocity of enzymatic reactions
(A) Enzyme concentration (B) Temperature & pH
(C) Viscosity (D) All of these

178. The first published completed gene sequence was of
(A) M,, phage (B) Ta phage

(C) x 174 (D) Lambda phage

179. BLAST programme is used in
(A) DNA sequencing (B) Amino acid sequencing
(C) DNA barcoding (D) Bioinfonnatics

180. Which of the following is a nucleotide sequence data base ?
(A) EMBL (B) SWISS PROT
(C) PROSITE (D) TREMOL

BT 31 A-1

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