MAHA SET 2018 Question Paper 2 Psychology

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A
PSYCHOLOGY
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2

Psychology
Paper II

II
Time Allowed : 75 Minutes] [Maximum Marks : 100
Note : This paper contains Fifty (50) multiple choice questions, each carrying
Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.
(50) (2)

1. Aguesia is the inability to 1.

recognize :

(A) Tastes (A)

(B) Colours (B)

(C) Odors (C)

(D) Shapes (D)

2. Two-factor theory, that is a 2.
combination of classical conditioning

and operant conditioning, is one of

the explanations of :
(A)
(A) Generalization

(B)
(B) Discrimination

(C) Shaping (C)

(D) Avoidance learning (D)

3 [P.T.O.

3. Memory disruption that occurs due 3.
to information presented after the
material that is to be remembered
is known as :
(A)
(A) Positive transfer
(B)
(B) Negative transfer

(C) Zero transfer (C)

(D) Retroactive interference (D)

4. A common logical error that people 4.
make is to seek information that
supports their ideas rather than
evidence that would invalidate those
ideas. This is known as :
(A)
(A) Deductive reasoning

(B) The confirmatory bias (B)

(C) Affirming the consequent (C)

(D) Affirming the antecedent (D)

5. Which part of the brain is 5.
responsible for biologically driven
motivational processes ?
(A)
(A) Thalamus
(B)
(B) Hippocampus
(C)
(C) Limbic system

(D) Hypothalmus (D)

4

6. Match Column-I and Column-II by 6. -I -II
using the codes given below :

Column-I Column-II
-I -II
(Psychologists) (Concepts/

Scales)

(P) Cattell (1) Masculinity

(Q) Hathaway & (2) Intelligence (P) (1)

McKinley Quotient (Q) (2)

(R) Holland (3) Mental (R) (3)
ability (S) (4)
(S) Binet (4) Enterprising

Codes :
(P) (Q) (R) (S)
(P) (Q) (R) (S)
(A) (4) (3) (2) (1)
(A) (4) (3) (2) (1)
(B) (2) (4) (1) (3)
(B) (2) (4) (1) (3)

(C) (1) (2) (3) (4) (C) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(D) (3) (1) (4) (2) (D) (3) (1) (4) (2)

7. The ego attempts to mediate 7.
demands of id in relation to real
work according to :

(A) The pleasure principle (A)
(B) The reality principle (B)
(C) The primary process principle (C)
(D) Both (A) and (C) are correct (D) (A) (C)
5 [P.T.O.

8. Which of the following data 8.
collection technique is not well suited
for studying attitude ?
(A)
(A) Questionnaire
(B)
(B) Direct observation
(C) Psychological tests (C)

(D) Physiological recordings (D)

9. Match List-I with List-II and select 9. -I -II
the correct answer by using the
codes given below :
-I -II
List-I List-II

(P) Summated (1) Osgood (P) (1)

rating scale

(Q) Successive (2) Stephenson (Q) (2)
intervals
method
(R) (3)
(R) Semantic (3) Likert

differential (4)

(S) Q-sort (4) Thurston

Codes : (P) (Q) (R) (S)
(P) (Q) (R) (S)
(A) (3) (4) (1) (2)
(A) (3) (4) (1) (2)
(B) (3) (1) (4) (2)
(B) (3) (1) (4) (2)
(C) (4) (2) (1) (3)
(C) (4) (2) (1) (3)

(D) (1) (3) (2) (4) (D) (1) (3) (2) (4)

6

10. Match List-I with List-II and select 10. -I -II
the correct answer by using the
codes given below :
List-I List-II
Types of Modality -I -II

Cutaneous Best
Receptors Handled
(P) Pacinian (1) Pressure
(P) (1)
corpuscle
(Q) Ruffini ending (2) Pain and (Q) (2)

temperature (R) (3)
(R) Merkel ending (3) Touch
(S) (4)
(S) Free nerve (4) Vibration
ending
Codes : (P) (Q) (R) (S)

(P) (Q) (R) (S) (A) (1) (4) (2) (3)
(A) (1) (4) (2) (3)
(B) (2) (3) (1) (4)
(B) (2) (3) (1) (4)
(C) (4) (1) (3) (2)
(C) (4) (1) (3) (2)
(D) (3) (2) (4) (1) (D) (3) (2) (4) (1)

11. Divided attention tasks require 11.
the subject to :
(A) Respond quickly to one among (A)
many stimuli
(B) Attend to multiple stimuli (B)
(C) Search for missing features (C)
(D) Concentrate on the task (D)
7 [P.T.O.

12. In a variable ratio schedule :
12.
(A) Brief pause in response occurs
(A)
immediately after reinforce-
ment
(B)
(B) Negligible responding immedi-
ately after reinforcement (C)

(C) Rapid stable rate maintained
between reinforcements
(D)
(D) Generally lower rate of respond-
ing

13. The capacity of short-term memory 13.
is assumed to be :

(A) 10 ± 2 (A) 10 ± 2

(B) 5 ± 2 (B) 5 ± 2

(C) 6 ± 2 (C) 6 ± 2

(D) 7 ± 2 (D) 7 ± 2

14. Which of the following is not a 14.
theory of reasoning ?

(A) Mental models (A)

(B) Mental logic (B)

(C) Prospect theory (C)

(D) Probabilistic approach (D)
8

15. Pancreas releases the following 15.
chemical during and just after a
meal :
(A)
(A) Insulin
(B)
(B) Glycogen
(C)
(C) Pepsin
(D) Glucagon (D)

16. Match List-I with List-II and select 16. -I -II
the correct answer by using the
codes given below :
List-I List-II
(Theorists) (Concepts) -I -II

(P) Sternberg (1) Convergent
thinking
(P) (1)
(Q) Cattell (2) Performance
(Q) (2)
intelligence
(R) Guilford (3) Contextual (R) (3)

intelligence (S) (4)
(S) Wechsler (4) Crystalized
intelligence
(P) (Q) (R) (S)
Codes :
(P) (Q) (R) (S) (A) (3) (4) (1) (2)
(A) (3) (4) (1) (2)
(B) (2) (3) (4) (1)
(B) (2) (3) (4) (1)
(C) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(C) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(D) (4) (1) (2) (3) (D) (4) (1) (2) (3)

9 [P.T.O.

17. When a test ‘appears’ to measure 17.
what it is supposed to measure,
then it has :

(A) Face validity (A)

(B) Split-half validity (B)

(C) Construct validity (C)

(D) Concurrent validity (D)

18. Which of the following is the 18.
best example of an operational
definition ?
(A)
(A) Hypotheses are educated
guesses that can be confirmed
or rejected by evidence

(B) Class participation is the (B)

number of times a student
raises his or her hand in class

(C) Cognitive processes include
(C)
perception, remembering,
problem solving and
understanding.

(D) Reading ability can be used to (D)

predict success in introductory
psychology classes
10

19. Item analysis of an aptitude test 19.
could be performed by using :
(1) Alpha coefficient (1)
(2) Item discrimination index (2)
(3) Item difficulty level (3)
(4) KR-20 (4) -20
Select the correct option from the
codes given below :
(A) (1) only (A) (1)
(B) (2) and (3) (B) (2) (3)
(C) (3) and (4) (C) (3) (4)
(D) (2), (3) and (4) (D) (2), (3) (4)
20. The circle of Willis is : 20.
(1) Named after English anatomist (1)
Thomas Willis.

(2) Formed by anterior branches of
(2)
internal carotid artery.

(3) Formed by anterior and
posterior communicating artery. (3)

(4) Formed by posterior cerebral (4)
branches of basilar artery.

Codes :
(A) (1) (2)
(A) (1) and (2) only
(B) (1) (3)
(B) (1) and (3) only

(C) (1), (2) and (3) only (C) (1), (2) (3)

(D) (1), (2), (3) and (4) (D) (1), (2), (3) (4)
11 [P.T.O.

21. Choose the correct sequence that 21.
occurs during transmission of a
nerve impulse :
(1)
(1) Action potential
(2)
(2) Refractory period
(3)
(3) Resting potential

Codes :
(A) (3) (1) (2)
(A) (3) (1) (2)

(B) (1) (2) (3) (B) (1) (2) (3)

(C) (3) (2) (1) (C) (3) (2) (1)

(D) (1) (3) (2) (D) (1) (3) (2)

22. The projective test that has been 22.
used a great deal to measure
affiliation need is the :

(A) TAT (A)

(B) MMPI (B)

(C) Sarason Sociability Scale (C)

(D) RIBT (D)

23. In experimental research, the data 23.
collected by the researcher are the :

(A) Primary variable (A)

(B) Secondary variable (B)

(C) Independent variable (C)

(D) Dependent variable (D)
12

24. Which of the following is a correct 24.

order of steps in test construction ?

(1) Development of norms (1)

(2)
(2) Identification of construct
(3)
(3) Item analysis
(4)
(4) Validity analysis
(5)
(5) Test-retest reliability analysis

Codes :

(A) (2) (3) (5) (4) (1) (A) (2) (3) (5) (4) (1)

(B) (3) (4) (5) (2) (1) (B) (3) (4) (5) (2) (1)

(C) (2) (5) (3) (1) (4) (C) (2) (5) (3) (1) (4)

(D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

25. Approaches to perception that 25.
involve direct reception of
information from environment are

called :
(A)
(A) Constructivist approaches
(B)
(B) Computational approaches

(C) Ecological approaches (C)

(D) Feature analytical approaches (D)

13 [P.T.O.

26. When reinforcement is contingent 26.

upon number of responses given by

respondent it is :
(1)
(1) Fixed interval schedule
(2)
(2) Fixed ratio schedule
(3)
(3) Variable ratio schedule
(4)
(4) Variable interval schedule

Codes :

(A) (2) and (3) only (A) (2) (3)

(B) (3) and (4) only (B) (3) (4)

(C) (1) and (2) only (C) (1) (2)

(D) (1) and (4) only (D) (1) (4)

27. Information in long-term memory is 27.
primarily stored in :

(A) Sensory form (A)

(B) Semantic form (B)

(C) Acoustic form (C)

(D) Tactile form (D)
14

28. The wrong representation can 28.
hinder your ability to solve a
problem, especially if you become
stuck on that one interpretation.
This barrier is called :
(A)
(A) The representational problem

(B) Algorithm interference (B)

(C) A blocked solution path (C)

(D) Functional fixedness (D)

29. Selection of moderately challenging 29.
tasks characterized the behaviour of
people who have :

(A) Fear of failing (A)

(B) High need for achievement (B)

(C) Fear of success (C)

(D) Low need for achievement (D)

30. DIQ is a measure of :
30.
(A) Deviation in personality
disorder (A)

(B) Deviation in intelligence
(B)
disorder

(C) Intelligence in standard scores (C)

(D) Intelligence in the form of
(D)
ratio I.Q.

15 [P.T.O.

31. In a phantom hand experience there 31.
is a : (A)
(A) Visual and auditory mismatch (B)
(B) Visual and tactile mismatch (C)
(C) Proprioceptive and auditory
mismatch (D)
(D) Visual and proprioceptive
mismatch 32.
32. Stimulus similar to original CS will
elicit similar response is called :
(A) Generalization (A)
(B) Discrimination (B)
(C) Shaping (C)
(D) Substitution (D)
33. Concepts are learned through 33.
psychological processes. That are :
(1) generalisation (1)
(2) classification (2)
(3) categorization (3)
(4) discrimination (4)
Select the correct option from the
codes given below :
(A) (1) and (3) only (A) (1) (3)
(B) (2) and (3) only (B) (2) (3)
(C) (1) and (4) only (C) (1) (4)
(D) (3) and (4) only (D) (3) (4)
16

34. Which of the following monitors the 34.

internal states of the body ?

(A) Drive (A)

(B) Homeostasis (B)

(C) Hemoglobin (C)

(D) Needs (D)

35. Spearman’s two-factor theory defines 35.

intelligence as :

(A) Composed of multiple abilities (A)

(B) A global, unitary ability (B)

(C) Composed of 120 unique (C)

combinations

(D) A set of primary abilities (D)

36. A person is asked to respond to 36.

vague/ambiguous stimuli when

taking a :

(A) Pencil and paper test (A)

(B) Projective test (B)

(C) Personality inventory (C)

(D) Behavioural assessment (D)

17 [P.T.O.

37. A researcher tries to make sure that 37.
subjects in the experimental and
control groups are very similar to
each other in order to reduce the
effects of : (A)
(A) Extraneous variable
(B)
(B) Random variable
(C)
(C) Dependent variable
(D) Independent variable (D)
38. Match Column-I with Column-II by 38. -I -II
using the codes given below :
Column-I Column-II
-I -II
(Types of Norms) (Features)
(P) Age Norms (1) Scores are
expressed in (P) (1)

SD units
(Q) Percentile (2) Sequential
Norms formation of (Q) (2)
concepts and
motor skills
(R) Ordinal Norms (3) Mental
(R) (3)
development
(S) Standard Score (4) Unequal (S) (4)
Norms units of
measurement
Codes : (P) (Q) (R) (S)
(P) (Q) (R) (S)
(A) (3) (4) (2) (1)
(A) (3) (4) (2) (1)
(B) (2) (1) (3) (4)
(B) (2) (1) (3) (4)
(C) (1) (2) (4) (3) (C) (1) (2) (4) (3)

(D) (4) (3) (1) (2) (D) (4) (3) (1) (2)
18

39. Fill in the correct numbers in the 39.
blanks, from the choices given
below :
There are ..................... segments in
the human spinal cord : .....................
cervical, ..................... thoracic,
..................... lumbar, .....................
sacral & ..................... coccygeal.
(A) 35 : 10, 10, 12, 1, 2 (A) 35 : 10, 10, 12, 1, 2

(B) 31 : 8, 12, 5, 5, 1 (B) 31 : 8, 12, 5, 5, 1

(C) 30 : 10, 10, 7, 1, 2 (C) 30 : 10, 10, 7, 1, 2

(D) 33 : 9, 11, 6, 4, 3 (D) 33 : 9, 11, 6, 4, 3
40. Gibson’s theory of direct perception 40.
implies that :
(1) Perception is used to adapt to (1)
environment
(2) Perception is used to control (2)
action
(3) When observer moves, optic (3)
array changes
(4) Sensory systems are perceptual (4)
systems
Codes :
(A) (1) and (2) only (A) (1) (2)
(B) (1) and (3) only (B) (1) (3)
(C) (1), (2) and (3) only (C) (1), (2) (3)
(D) (1), (2), (3) and (4) (D) (1), (2), (3) (4)
19 [P.T.O.

41. When an operant response is 41.

built by method of successive

approximation it is called :

(A) Higher order conditioning (A)

(B) Reinforcement (B)

(C) Shaping (C)

(D) Generalization (D)

42. The ........................ model of memory 42.

proposes physical, acoustic and

semantic parts.

(A) Structural model (A)

(B) Connectionist model (B)

(C) Processing model (C)

(D) Non-declarative model (D)

43. The activated portion of long-term 43.

memory is called :

(A) Declarative memory (A)

(B) Working memory (B)

(C) Sensory memory (C)

(D) Procedural memory (D)

20

44. In attempting to find and purchase 44.

high-quality cosmetics, Hema

reminds herself that most expensive

brands are the best. Hema’s self-

reminder illustrates the use of :

(A) An algorithm (A)

(B) A heuristic (B)

(C) The farming effects (C)

(D) Functional fixedness (D)

45. A substance that can act directly 45.

on brain receptors to stimulate

thirst is :
(A)
(A) Angiotensin
(B)
(B) Endorphin

(C)
(C) Lipoprotein

(D)
(D) Acetylcholine

21 [P.T.O.

46. Galton attempted to measure 46.
intelligence in order to demonstrate
that intelligence was determined
by :
(A)
(A) Heredity
(B)
(B) Experience

(C) Neither heredity nor experience (C)

(D) Both heredity and experience (D)

47. Which of the following test is most 47.
similar to Rorschach ?

(A) TAT (A)

(B) 16 PF (B)

(C) TMAS (C)

(D) MMPI (D)

48. Which of the following is not a 48.
descriptive/correlational research
method ?
(A)
(A) Survey
(B)
(B) Experiment
(C)
(C) Case Study

(D) Naturalistic Observation (D)

22

49. Match Column-I with Column-II 49. -I -II
and give your answer with the help
of codes given below :
-I -II
Column-I Column-II
(Psychologist) (Terms/
Concepts)
(P) Guilford (1) Measure of (P) (1)
‘g’ factor
(Q) Cattell (2) Performance
(Q) (2)
factor
(R) (3)
(R) Wechsler (3) Fluid
(S) (4)
intelligence
(S) Binet (4) Content and
operations
Codes : (P) (Q) (R) (S)
(P) (Q) (R) (S)
(A) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(B) (3) (4) (1) (2)
(B) (3) (4) (1) (2)
(C) (4) (3) (2) (1)
(C) (4) (3) (2) (1)
(D) (2) (1) (4) (3) (D) (2) (1) (4) (3)

50. The following is not a structure 50.
included in the meninges :
(A)
(A) Mastoid process
(B)
(B) Piamater
(C) Arachnoid membrane (C)

(D) Duramater (D)

23 [P.T.O.

ROUGH WORK

24