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Class 12 Sample Paper 2026 Geography

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Page 1

2026
SAMPLE / MODEL
PAPERS
NCERT BASED
PRACTICE PAPERS
DOWNLOAD PDF

FOR
CBSE BOARD
AND
STATE BOARDS

Page 2

GEOGRAPHY CODE 029
ANNUAL PRACTICE QUESTION PAPER
CLASS XII (2025-26)
Time allowed: 3 hours: Maximum marks: 70

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them:

1. This question paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2. Question paper is divided into five Sections - Section A, B, C, D and E.
3. Section A - Question Nos. 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice (MCQ) type questions. Each question
carries 1 mark.
4. Section B - Question Nos. 18 and 19 are Source based questions. Each question carries 3 marks.
5. Section C - Question Nos. 20 to 23 are Short Answer (SA) type questions. Each question carries 3
marks. Answer to these questions shall be written in 80 to 100 words.
6. Section D - Question Nos. 24 to 28 are Long Answer (LA) type questions. Each question carries 5
marks. Answer to these questions shall be written in 120 to 150 words.
7. Section E - Question Nos. 29 and 30 are Map based questions. Each question carries 5 marks.
8. In addition to this, NOTE that a separate question has been provided for Visually Impaired
Candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map etc. Such questions are to be
attempted by Visually Impaired Candidates only.

9. There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been
provided in a few questions in all sections, except Section A.

SECTION A
Question Nos. 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice Type Questions. (17 x 1 = 17)

Question 1

Study the following table showing population density of selected states in India (2011 Census):

State Population Density (per sq km)
Bihar 1102
Kerala 859
Punjab 551
Rajasthan 201

Which state has a population density closest to the national average of India

(A) Kerala

(B) Punjab

(C) Rajasthan

(D) Bihar

Page 3

Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Question No. 1:

According to the 2011 Census, which northern state of India has the highest population density?

(A) Haryana

(B) Punjab

(C) Uttar Pradesh

(D) Bihar

Question 2

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Mediterranean agriculture?

(A) Cultivation of citrus fruits and olives

(B) Dependence on summer rainfall

(C) Use of irrigation techniques

(D) Production of grapes for wine-making

Question 3

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements
carefully and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A): Neo-determinism suggests that human beings can modify their environment within
certain limits without causing environmental damage.

Reason (R): The philosophy of neo-determinism allows unlimited exploitation of natural resources for
economic development.

Options:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

Question 4

Which of the following factors is LEAST influential in determining the location of a steel industry?

(A) Proximity to coal and iron ore deposits

(B) Availability of skilled labour

(C) Access to international airports

(D) Availability of water for cooling purposes

Page 4

Question 5

Study the following data showing India's decadal population growth rate:

Census Year Growth Rate (%)
1921 -0.31
1951 13.31
1981 24.66
2011 17.64

Which period is referred to as the "population explosion" phase in India?

(A) 1901-1921

(B) 1921-1951

(C) 1951-1981

(D) 1981-2011

Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Question No. 5:

What is the primary reason for improvement in India's sex ratio from 2001 to 2011?

(A) Increased male migration
(B) Awareness campaigns and gender-sensitive policies
(C) Decline in agricultural employment
(D) Urbanization

Question 6

Which international waterway connects the Mediterranean Sea with the Red Sea?

(A) Panama Canal

(B) Suez Canal

(C) Rhine Waterway

(D) St. Lawrence Seaway

Question 7

Match the following types of agriculture with their characteristics:

Type of Agriculture Characteristic
1. Plantation Agriculture a. Practiced in areas with low population density
2. Intensive Subsistence b. Single crop cultivation for export
3. Extensive Commercial Grain c. High labor input on small land holdings
4. Cooperative Farming d. Collective ownership and profit sharing
Option:

(A) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d
(B) 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a

Page 5

(C) 1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c
(D) 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b

Question 8

A country has achieved the following indicators: Life expectancy at birth = 78 years, Mean years of
schooling = 12 years, and GNI per capita = $45,000. According to the Human Development Index (HDI),
this country would most likely be classified as:

Option:

(A) Low human development

(B) Medium human development

(C) High human development

(D) Very high human development

Question 9

Which of the following is an example of a quinary economic activity?

(A) Teaching geography in a school

(B) Conducting cancer research in a laboratory

(C) Formulating national education policy at governmental level

(D) Providing software technical support services

Question 10

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements
carefully and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A): The Green Revolution in India led to increased production of wheat and rice but also
resulted in regional disparities in agricultural development.

Reason (R): The Green Revolution technologies were adopted more successfully in regions with assured
irrigation facilities like Punjab and Haryana.

Options:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

Page 6

Question 11

Which of the following statements about India's transport network is INCORRECT?

(A) The Golden Quadrilateral connects Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata

(B) Indian Railways is the second largest rail network in Asia

(C) National Highways constitute about 2% of road length but carry 40% of traffic

(D) Inland waterways are the cheapest mode of transport in India

Question 12

The concept of 'footloose industries' refers to industries that:

(A) Are dependent on specific raw material locations
(B) Can be located in a wide variety of places
(C) Require coastal locations for operations
(D) Are always located in rural areas

Question 13

Which mineral belt of India is known as the 'Ruhr of India' due to its rich coal and iron ore deposits?

(A) Chotanagpur belt

(B) Gujarat-Rajasthan belt

(C) Karnataka belt

(D) Maharashtra-Goa belt

Question 14

The picture shows people engaged in a particular economic activity. Name the activity ?

Page 7

(A) Secondary

(B) Primary

(C)Tertiary

(D) Quiranry

Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Question No. 14:

Which state is the largest producer of wheat in India?

(A) Punjab

(B) Uttar Pradesh

(C) Haryana

(D) Madhya Pradesh

Question 15

The Trans-Canadian Railway connects which two terminal cities?

(A) Vancouver and Montreal

(B) Halifax and Vancouver

(C) Toronto and Calgary

(D) Montreal and Halifax

Question 16

Which of the following is NOT a problem faced by slum dwellers in Indian cities?

(A) Inadequate water supply and sanitation

Page 8

(B) Lack of proper housing and overcrowding

(C) Easy access to quality healthcare facilities

(D) Vulnerability to diseases and health hazards

Question 17

The World Trade Organization (WTO) was established in which year?

(A) 1948

(B) 1975

(C) 1995

(D) 2001

SECTION B

Question Nos. 18 and 19 are Source Based Questions. (2 x 3 = 6)

Question 18

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Commercial livestock rearing is one of the most important economic activities practiced in several
regions of the world where environmental conditions favor the rearing of animals on a large scale. This
type of livestock farming is characterized by large-scale commercial operations where animals are
reared primarily for meat, wool, dairy products, and hides. Unlike nomadic herding which involves
constant movement of herds in search of pastures, commercial livestock rearing is a sedentary and
organized activity practiced on permanent ranches or farms. The regions most suitable for this activity
typically have vast stretches of natural grasslands, a temperate climate with moderate rainfall, sparse
human population density, and well-developed infrastructure for transportation and marketing. Major
regions where commercial livestock rearing is extensively practiced include the Prairies of North
America where cattle ranching is a major enterprise, the Pampas of Argentina famous for beef
production, the Velds of South Africa, the Canterbury Plains of New Zealand known for sheep rearing,
and the extensive grasslands of Australia. Modern commercial ranches employ scientific breeding
techniques to improve the quality of livestock, provide systematic veterinary care to prevent diseases,
use mechanized operations for feeding and handling animals, and maintain proper record-keeping
systems. The products obtained from commercial livestock rearing, including meat, wool, leather, and
dairy products, are mainly exported to international markets, making it an important component of
global food trade and contributing significantly to the economies of these regions. This form of animal
husbandry requires substantial capital investment in land, infrastructure, and technology, and is closely
integrated with food processing industries and international trade networks.

(18.1) What are the two main differences between nomadic herding and commercial livestock rearing?
(1 mark)

(18.2) Name any two regions of the world where commercial livestock rearing is practiced and mention
what they are famous for. (1 mark)

(18.3) Why is commercial livestock rearing considered an important component of global food trade? (1
mark)

Page 9

Question 19

Study the following data showing India's export composition (2020-21) and answer the questions:

Commodity Group Percentage of Total Exports
Engineering Goods 24.5%
Petroleum Products 13.8%
Gems and Jewellery 11.2%
Chemicals 10.6%
Textiles 9.4%
Agriculture Products 8.7%
Others 21.8%

(19.1) Which commodity group constitutes the largest share of India's exports? 1

(19.2) What is the combined percentage of exports from Petroleum Products and Chemicals? 1

(19.3) Suggest one reason why engineering goods have become a major export item for India in recent
years. 1

Note: The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Question No. 19:

(19.1) Name two major export items of India in the manufacturing sector. 1

(19.2) Why has India's export of petroleum products increased in recent years despite limited domestic
oil production? 1

(19.3) What role does India's IT and software sector play in international trade? 1

SECTION C
Question Nos. 20 to 23 are Short Answer Type Questions. (4 x 3 = 12)

Question 20

Water conservation is essential for sustainable development in India. Justify this statement by
explaining any three water conservation techniques practiced in India. 3

Question 21

Distinguish between high-tech industries and traditional industries with suitable examples from India.
3

OR

Explain how the development of small-scale industries has contributed to rural development and
employment generation in India. 3

Page 10

Question 22

Rural-urban migration creates both opportunities and challenges for urban areas. Analyze this
statement with reference to Indian cities. 3

Question 23

Describe the geographical conditions favorable for the cultivation of coffee in India. Why is it mainly
grown in the southern states? 3

OR

Explain the importance of jute industry in India. Why has it faced competition from synthetic fibers? 3

SECTION D
Question Nos. 24 to 28 are Long Answer Type Questions. (5 x 5 = 25)

Question 24

Examine the role of transport and communication networks in the economic development of a country.
Illustrate your answer with examples from different modes of transport. 5

OR

Explain the concept of Trade Blocs. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of Regional Trade Blocs
with suitable examples from the world. 1+2+2=5

Question 25

Agriculture in India is largely dependent on monsoon, making it vulnerable to climate variability. In light
of this statement, suggest five measures that can be adopted to make Indian agriculture more resilient
and sustainable. 5

Question 26

Analyze the spatial pattern of population distribution in India. Discuss any five factors that are
responsible for uneven population distribution across different states. 1+1+1+1+1+1=5

OR

What is meant by population composition? Explain the significance of age composition and sex ratio in
understanding the demographic characteristics of a country. 2+3=5

Question 27

Discuss the distribution and economic importance of mineral resources in India. Explain why
conservation of minerals is essential and suggest five effective measures for sustainable mineral
resource management. 2+3=5

OR

Examine the role of manufacturing industries in the economic development of India. Discuss
the major problems faced by Indian industries and suggest measures to overcome them. 5

Page 11

Question 28

Planned development of hill areas requires special consideration of their unique geographical and socio-
economic characteristics. Evaluate this statement with reference to the Hill Area Development
Programme in India. Suggest measures for sustainable development of hill areas 3+2=5

OR

Critically analyze the problems faced in the development of Drought Prone Areas Programme (DPAP) in
India. Suggest strategies for effective drought management and rural livelihood security. 5

SECTION E
Question Nos. 29 and 30 are Map Based Questions. (2 x 5 = 10)

Question 29

On the given political map of the World, seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E,
F, and G. Identify any FIVE with the help of the following information and write their correct names.

(5 x 1 = 5)

A. Name the terminal station of Trans-Australian Railway in the west.
B. Name a major seaport of North America located on the Pacific coast.
C. Name an area of mixed farming in Europe.
D. Name the canal that connects the Atlantic Ocean with the Pacific Ocean.
E. Name a major airport in Africa.
F. Name an area of nomadic herding in Central Asia.
G. Name a major seaport of Asia located in India.

Page 12

Note: The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Question No. 29.
Answer any FIVE questions:

A. Name the terminal cities of Trans-Siberian Railway.

B. Name one major seaport each from Europe and Asia.

C. Name the waterway that connects the North Sea with the Atlantic Ocean.

D. Name two areas of extensive commercial grain farming in the world.

E. Name one major international airport each from Europe and Asia.

F. In which continent is the Rhine waterway located?

G. Name two areas of commercial livestock rearing in the world.

Question 30

Locate and label any FIVE of the following geographical features on the Political Outline Map of India
with appropriate symbols: (5 x 1 = 5)

A. A major Iron ore mine in Karnatka
B. Second Major sea Seaport in Tamilnadu
C. Oil refinery in Uttar Pradesh
D. Leading tea producing state of Indian
E. Copper mine in Rajashtan
F. An International airport in Karnatka
G. Coal mine in West-Bengal

Page 13

Note: The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Question No. 30.
Attempt any FIVE:

A. Name one important iron ore mining area in Karnataka.

B. Name the westernmost major seaport of India.

C. Name one oil refinery located in Bihar.

D. Name the state with the lowest population density in India.

E. Which state is the leading producer of sugarcane in India?

F. Name the international airport located in West Bengal.

G. Name one important bauxite mining area in Chhattisgarh.

Page 14

2026
SAMPLE / MODEL
PAPERS
NCERT BASED
PRACTICE PAPERS
DOWNLOAD PDF

FOR
CBSE BOARD
AND
STATE BOARDS

Page 15

029

XII (2025-26)
म :3 म : 70

म

औ :

1. इस - 30 स
2. - च ज - - , , ग, घ ङ
3. - स 1 स 17 1
4. - स 18 19 - 3
5. ग- स 20 स 23 घ- 3
इ 80 स 100 ज च
6. घ- स 24 स 28 घ- 5
इ 120 स 150 ज च
7. ङ- स 29 30 च 5
8. इस , च च
ग इ

9. - स ग , - छ
च ग

-

स 1 स 17 (17 x 1 = 17)

1

ज ज च ज स घ (2011
ज ग ) :

( म)
1102
859
ज 551
ज 201

Page 16

औस स स ज स घ स ?

( )

( ) ज

(ग) ज

(घ)

: स 1

2011 ज ग स , स स स ज स घ ?

( )

( ) ज

(ग)

(घ)

2

सग स स ?

( ) औ ज

( )

(ग) सच ग

(घ) ग

3

च ग (A) औ (R)
औ स च ज :

(A): - स स च छ
स स स

(R): - स सस स

Page 17

:

( ) (A) (R) स औ (R), (A) स

( ) (A) (R) स , (R), (A) स

(ग) (A) स , (R) ग

(घ) (A) ग , (R) स

4

इ ग स स स स ?

( ) औ

( )

(ग) च

(घ)

5

ज ज ज स :

(%)
1921 -0.31
1951 13.31
1981 24.66
2011 17.64
स "ज स "च स ज ?

( ) 1901-1921

( ) 1921-1951

(ग) 1951-1981

(घ) 1981-2011

Page 18

: 5

2001 स 2011 ग स ?

( ) स

( )जग औ ग-स

(ग) जग ग

(घ)

6

स ज ग सग सग सज ?

( )

( ) ज

(ग) इ ज ग

(घ) स सस ग

7

सस ज :

1. ग a. ज स घ ज
2. ग b. स
3. ज c. छ ज इ
4. स d. स औ स

:

( ) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d

( ) 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a

(ग) 1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c

(घ) 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b

Page 19

8

स :ज स ज = 78 , औस
= 12 ,औ GNI = $45,000 स सच (HDI) स ,
इस स ग ज ग?

:

( ) स

( ) स

(ग) स

(घ) स

9

स स च ग ?

( ) ग

( ) ग स स

(ग) स

(घ) स स स

10

च ग (A) औ (R)
औ स च ज :

(A): ग औ च स
स

(R): ग स सच स जस ज औ
स ग

Page 20

:

( ) (A) (R) स औ (R), (A) स

( ) (A) (R) स , (R), (A) स

(ग) (A) स , (R) ग

(घ) (A) ग , (R) स

11

स स ग ?

( )ग , ,च औ ज

( ) स स स

(ग) ज गस ग ग 2% 40%

(घ) ज ग स सस स

12

' ज ग' ग स ज:

( )

( ) स

(ग) सच

(घ)

13

स ज इस स औ '
' ज ज ?

( )छ ग

( ) गज - ज

(ग)

(घ) -ग

Page 21

14

च ग स ग स ? इस ग इ

( )

( )

(ग)

(घ) च

: 14

ग स स स ?

( ) ज

( )

(ग)

(घ)

Page 22

15

स- ज ?

( ) औ

( ) औ

(ग) औ ग

(घ) औ

16

स स ज स स स
?

( ) ज औ

( ) च स औ

(ग) ग स स स च

(घ) औ च

17

सग (WTO) स ?

( ) 1948

( ) 1975

(ग) 1995

(घ) 2001

Page 23

-

स 18 19 - (2 x 3 = 6)

18

औ स च ग :

च स स ग स
ज इस
सच ज स स,
ऊ , औ ज च स च जस च ग
ग , च
ज औ सग ग इस ग स स
घस , स स ज ,
ज स घ ,औ औ स स
च ज स च ,
ज , ज सज ग स
स , स, ज ज
ज ज ,औ घस च
ग स ज ग ज ,
च ज , औ स
सच ग ज ,औ च - ग स ज
स , ज स, ऊ , च औ ,
स ज ज , जसस
घ ज औ इ ग
इस , चऔ ग ज ,औ
स ग औ स स

(18.1) च स च औ च ? 1

(18.2) ज ज औ
इ स स 1

(18.3) घ ज ? 1

Page 24

19

ज ज स च (2020-21) औ
ज :

म
इज गस 24.5%
13.8%
औ 11.2%
स 10.6%
9.4%
8.7%
21.8%

(19.1) स स स स ? 1

(19.2) औ स स स ? 1

(19.3) इज गस ग , इस
स इ 1

: 19

(19.1) 1

(19.2) स घ ज
? 1

(19.3) IT औ स ? 1

Page 25

-
20 23 - (4 x 3 = 12)

20

स स ज स च ज स
इस च इ 3

21

स - ग औ ग ग च
ज 3

सऔ जग सज घ- ग स स ग
, ज 3

22

- स स औ च
स इस ज 3

23

ग ज स
ग ज ? 3

ज ग ज इस स स
? 3

Page 26

-
24 28 - (5 x 5 = 25)

24

स स औ सच ज
स स ज 2+3=5

(Trade Blocs) ज स
औ चच ज 1+2+2=5

25

स , ज इस ज
स इस , च औ ऊ
ज स च स ज 5

26

ज स ज स
ज स च चच ज 1x5=5

ज स स च स ? स ज स स
स च औ ग ज 2+3=5

27

ज सस औ चच ज ज ज
स औ ऊ ज सस च
स ज 2+3=5

स ग ज ग
स ज स चच ज औ स इ 5

Page 27

28

ज स ग औ स ज -
स स इस
ज स स स इ 3+2=5

स स (DPAP) स स च
ज स औ ज स स इ 5

-ङ
29 30 म (2 x 5 = 10)

29

ग ज च स ग A, B, C, D, E, F, औ G
च ग ज स स च च ज
औ स (5 x 1 = 5)

[ म ]

Page 28

A. स-

B. स ग

C.

D. सग सग सज

E.

F. च स च

G. स ग

: 29
:

A. स-स इ

B. औ स - स ग

C. सग सग सज ज ग

D. ज

E. औ स -

F. इ ज ग स ?

G.

Page 29

30

ज च स च ग
स औ ज : (5 x 1 = 5)

[ म ]

Page 30

A.

B. स स ग

C.

D. च

E. ज

F.

G. ग

: 30
:

A.

B. स स स ग

C.

D. स स ज स घ

E. स ग स स ?

F. ग

G. छ सग इ

Document Details

Board / OrgAglasem
ExamClass 12
TypeSample Paper
Pages30
Updated24 Sep 2026