Kerala LLM Entrance 2026 Answer Key (Final)

FOR KERALA LLM ENTRANCE EXAM PREPARATION

Kerala LLM Entrance
2026
Answer Key (Final)
EXAM YEAR TYPE

Kerala LLM Entrance 2026 Answer Key (Final)

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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as FINAL ANSWER KEY a g
Question Paper Code: 21/2026/OL
Exam:LLM 2026
Date of Test: 26-07-2026

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Match List – I with List – II and identify the correct answer from the codes given below:

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List – I (Case) List – II (Amendment challenged)
I. Indira Gandhi v. RajoNarain
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. of India
1. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
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1.
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e v. Zachilhu l a s
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II. Minerva Mills v. Union 2. 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985

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III. Kihoto Hollohan 3. 39th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975

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IV. P.Sambamurthy v. State of A.P. 4. 32nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1973
A) I-1, II-3, III-4, IV-2
B) I-2, II-3, III-1, IV-4
C) I-4, II-2, III-3, IV-1
D) I-3, II-1, III-2, IV-4

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The Supreme Court of India has set a timeline for the Governor of a State regarding giving

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assent to a bill duly passed by the Legislative Assembly. Which of the following statements is
correct in this regard?
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I. In case of either withholding of assent or reservation of the bill for the consideration of the
President, upon the aid and advice of the State council of Ministers, the Governor is
expected to take such action forthwith, subject to a maximum period of one month.

II. In case of withholding of assent, contrary to the advice of the State Council of Ministers,
the Governor must return the bill together with a message within a maximum period of three
2. months.

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III. In case of reservation of bills for the consideration of the President, contrary to the advice

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of the State Council of Ministers, the Governor shall make such reservation within a

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maximum period of three months.

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gla a period of one month.
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the Governor must grant assent forthwith, subject to a maximum

Correct code is:
A) Only I and II are correct
B) Only II and III are correct
C) Only I is correct
D) Only II is correct.

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Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled

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Page 1 of 45

Consider the following statements regarding Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule of
the Indian Constitution.

I. If an area in a State is declared as a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule, the State
Government loses its executive power, and a local body assumes total administration of
3. such areas.

II. The Union Government can take over total administration of such areas under certain
circumstances on the recommendation of the Governor.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
A) I only
B) II only
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II

Consider the following statements regarding the Electoral Bonds Case (2024):

I. The Supreme Court upheld the electoral bonds scheme.
4. II. The judgement emphasized transparency in political funding.
III. It is considered an example of judicial activism.

Which of the above statement(s) are correct?
A) I and II are correct
B) II and III are correct
C) I and III are correct

D)
I is correct

Correct Answer : Option B

Match the following:
List – I List -II
a. Article 129 of the Constitution of India 1. Binding precedent
5. b. Article 141 of the Constitution of India 2. Contempt power
c. Article 142 of the Constitution of India 3. Complete justice
d. Article 144 of the Constitution of India 4. Aid to the Supreme Court
A) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
B) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
C) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4
D) a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3

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as 6. ag for how many months (except
In the Indian Parliamentary system, ‘Vote on Account’ is valid
the year of election)?
A) 2 Months
B) 3 Months
C) 6 Months
D) 9 Months

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c. oprovision need a special majority in Parliament?
7. Which of the following
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Change in Fundamental
Creation of a
A)
B)
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Abolitiongof Legislative Councils in State
New States
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C)
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D)
Rules and Procedure in Parliament

8. Who is the custodian of Contingency fund of India?

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A) The Prime Minister

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B) The Judge of the Supreme Court

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The President
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C)

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D)
The Finance Minister

Correct Answer : Option C

Who among the following were the member of the ‘Drafting Committee of the Indian
9. Constitution’?
A) Sardar Vallabhai Patel

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B) Jawaharlal Nehru

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Alladi Krishnaswamy Aiyer
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C)
Rajendra Prasad
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D)

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a 10. Which of the following fundamental rights was described by B.R. Ambedkar as ‘the Heart
and Soul of the Constitution’ –
A) Right To Equality
B) Life and Personal Liberty
C) Right Against Exploitation
D) Right to Constitutional Remedies

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Page 3 of 45

11. The term District Judge is mentioned in which of the following Article of the Constitution?
A) Article 230
B) Article 231
C) Article 232
D) Article 233

12. Which of the following is not provided by the Constitution of India?
A) Election Commission
B) Finance Commission
C) Union Public Service Commission
D) NITI Aayog

Which Constitutional Amendment Act discontinued the Anglo-Indian reserved seats in the
13. Parliament and State Legislature?
A) 104th Constitutional Amendment Act
B) 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act

C)
102nd Constitutional Amendment Act
D) 101st Constitutional Amendment Act

Fundamental Rights provided by which of the following groups of Articles are granted only to
14. ‘Citizens’ of India?
A) Articles 14, 20, 23 & 30
B) Articles 15, 21, 25 & 28
C) Articles 20, 21, 25 & 30
D) Articles 15, 16, 19 & 30

In which year it was inserted in the Constitution of India that the State shall secure free legal
15. aid to any citizens by reason of economic or other disabilities?
A) 1978
B) 1976
C) 1975
D) 1979

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as Correct Answer : Option B
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16. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the election of the President of India?

The President of India is elected by the members of an Electoral College consisting of
A) (i) the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and

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(ii) the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the states and union territories with

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Legislative Assembly.

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Value of the vote for each of the members of the Electoral College is decided based on the
B)
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population census of 1971 and it will continue to be so till population of the first census taken
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after the year 2026 have been published.

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The elections are held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by
C)
means of single transferable vote.

Every elected members of the Legislative Assembly of a State shall have as many votes as
D)
there are multiples of one hundred in the quotient obtained by dividing the population of the
state by the total members of the elected members of the Assembly.

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The Supreme Court of India set a timeline for the Governor of a State regarding giving

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assent to a bill duly passed by the Legislative Assembly. Which of the following statements is

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correct in this regard?

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(a) In case of either withholding of assent of reservation of the bill for the consideration of the
President, upon the aid and advice of the State Council of Ministers, the Governor is
expected to take such action forthwith, subject to a maximum period of one month.

(b) In case of withholding of assent, contrary to the advice of the State Council of Ministers,
the Governor must return the bill togetyher with a message within a maximum period of three
17. month.

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(c) In case of reservation of bills for the consideration of the President, contrary to the advice

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of the State Council of Ministers, the Governor shall make such reservation within a

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em (d) In case of presentation of bill after reconsideration, in accordance
a with thr first proviso,
maximum period of three months.

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gla a period of one-month.
a
the Governor must grant assent forthwith subject to a maximum

Correct code is:
A) Only (a) and (b)
B) Only (b) and (c)
C) Only (a)

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D)

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All (a), (b), (c) and (d)

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Page 5 of 45

Consider the following statements about Lokpal:

(i) The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public
servants posted outside India.

(ii) The Chairperson of a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of
the Legislature of any State or Union Territory and only the Chief Justice of India, whether
18. incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.

(iii) The Chairperson of a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age
on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.

(iv) Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of
India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) (i) and (iii) only
B) (ii) and (iii) only
C) (i) and (iv) only
D) (i) and (ii) only

Correct Answer : Option B

Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:

I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
19.
II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.

Which of the statements given above/is are correct?
A) Only I
B) Only II
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II

20. Consider the following statements:

I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office
until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.

II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the
People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.

III.The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a

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as a g of all the then Members of the
resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority
House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless atleast fourteen days’ notice has
been given.

Which of the statements give above are correct?
A) I and II only
B) II and III only

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C) I and III only

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D) I, II and III.

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Correct Answer : Option C
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Consider the following statements:

I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become
subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance
21. with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.

II. There is no mention of the word ‘Political Party’ in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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A) I only
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B) II only
C) Both I and II
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Neither I nor II
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D)

Which Constitutional Amendment Act introduced 33% reservation for women in the Lok
22. Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies?
A) 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act
B) 104th Constitutional Amendment Act

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C) 105th Constitutional Amendment Act

o m 106th Constitutional Amendment Act
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D)

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gla 23. Which Constitutional Amendment Act introduced 10% reservation
a for Economically Weaker
a Sections:
A) 101st Constitutional Amendment Act
B) 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act
C) 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act
D) 104th Constitutional Amendment Act

Correct Answer : Option C
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Page 7 of 45

Consider the following statements regarding Parliamentary privileges:

1. They are codified in detail in the Constitution.

24. 2. They are necessary for the functioning of Parliament.

3. The Court cannot inquire into proceedings of Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : Option B

Consider the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of
India:

1. CAG is appointed by the President.
25. 2. CAG audits the account of both Union and State Governments.

3. CAG can question the policy decisions of the Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements:

‘Pure theory of law’ propounds that:

1. State and law are inseparable

26. 2. there is no difference between public law and private law.

3. law is a primary norm which stipulates sanction

4. legal duties are the essence of law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct:
A) 1, 2 and 3
B) 2, 3 and 4

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as C) 1, 3 and 4
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D) 1, 2 and 4

27. Which one of the following jurists was hostile to the Natural Law School?
A) Immanuel Kant

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B) Jeremy Bentham

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C) Stammler

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D) John Rawls

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Correct Answer : Option B
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Which one out of the following statements is not correct with reference to Savigny’s theory of
28. ‘Volksgeist’?
A) Law cannot be universal or general in character
B) Law is found and not made.
C) Law grows with the growth and strengthens with the strength of people.
D) Law is an instrument of social change and social reform.

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29. The concept of ‘Grundnorm’ is associatedsewith:
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A)
B)
John Rawls
Jeremy Bentham
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C) Salmond
D) Hans Kelsen

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Which of the following are correct combinations

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1. Bentham and Natural Law

30. . co 2. Austin Positivism
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3. Roscoe Pound and Sociological School of Jurisprudence
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4. Henry Maine and Philosophical School of Jurisprudence

ag Select the correct answer using the code given below
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 3 and 4 only
D) 1, 2 and 3.

Correct Answer : Option B

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31. Who prefer to call Austin’s Analytical School as “Imperative School”?
A) Paton
B) Holland
C) Salmond
D) C.K. Allen

32. The Historical School of Jurisprudence is mainly associated with:
A) Austin
B) Kelsen
C) Bentham
D) Savigny

33. The basic concept of Duguit’s theory is
A) Individual social solidarity
B) Collective solidarity
C) Basic solidarity
D) Social solidarity

Assertion (A): A finder of thing has title to it.

34. Reason (R): The finder’s title to a thing is superior to that of the true owner.

Codes:
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Correct Answer : Option C

35. Primary and Secondary rights are also known as-
A) Social and Legal Rights
B) Natural and Protected Rights
C) Antecedent and Remedial Rights

D)
Fundamental and General Rights

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as Correct Answer : Option C
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Which theory of legal personality contemplate that corporate bodies have legal personality to
36. the extent granted by law?
A) Concession theory
B) Realist theory

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Fiction theory

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C)

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D) Bracket theory

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a a Lists:
Match List lI with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
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LIST- I(Jurist) LIST – II(Theory)
a. Ihering 1. Social Solidarity
b. Bentham 2. Social Engineering
37.
c. Roscoe Pound 3. Social control
d. Duguit 4. Pleasure pain

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Code:

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A) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4

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a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1
a
B)
C) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
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D) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
a
Correct Answer : Option C

38. Who introduced the concept of Pure theory of Law?
A) Holland
B) Salmond
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C) Austin
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D) Hans Kelson

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la 39. The most prominent philosophy of law in the 18th Century wasa …….

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A) Sociological School
B) Positive School
C) Realistic School
D) Analytical School

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40. In civil criminal justice wrongs are divisible into ………..
A) Good and bad
B) Punishable and non-punishable
C) Public and private
D) Enforceable and non-enforceable

Correct Answer : Option C

41. Rights are classified ……..
A) Rights in repropria and rights in realiena
B) Proprietary rights and personal rights
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) Neither (A) nor (B)

Correct Answer : Option C

Eugen Ehrlich is a well-known jurist of sociological school of jurisprudence. Which one of the
42. following statements may not be attributed to the theory propounded by him?
A) Law is derived from social facts
B) Law depends on social compulsion
C) There is a ‘living law’ underlying the formal rule of the legal system.
D) State law has significant influence on shaping and development of living law.

43. Corporeal possession is the possession of a ……….
A) Material object
B) Essential object
C) Anything but a Material object
D) Abstract object

44. …………..theory is being adopted in the case of juvenile offenders.
A) Reformative
B) Preventive
C) Deterrent
D) Retributive

45. Assertion (A): Savigny was Darwinian before Darwin.

Reason (R): Savigny applied the theory of evolution to law before the enunciation of the

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as doctrine of evolution by Darwin.
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Codes:
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

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‘Law is found, it cannot be made’. This formation has been made by ………..

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Reaslitice School of Law
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A)
B) Natural School of Law
C) Historical School of Law
D) Positive School of Law

Correct Answer : Option C

47. Who was the author of the book ‘The Concept of Law’?

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A) Kelsen
Salmond
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B)

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C) Savigny
D) H.L.A. Hart
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48. Law is the instrument of social solidarity and cohesion. This formation was made by:
A) Enrich
B) Polland
C) Holland

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D) Kelson
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em Who has made a distinction between “Law Property So-called”gand

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gla 49. called”? a
a A) Jeremy Bentham
B) G.W. Paton
C) John Austin
D) Oliver Wendell Holmes

Correct Answer : Option C

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Austin’s theory of law can be found in this work titled ‘Province of Jurisprudence
50. Determined’, through which he meant to convey the ideal that
A) the subject matter of Jurisprudence was large till then
B) the applicability of laws differed from province to province
C) the subject matter of divine laws etc. do not fall within the purview of jurisprudence.

D)
the subject matter of divine laws etc fall within the purview of jurisprudence.

Correct Answer : Option C

‘X’ and ‘Y’ go to murder ‘Z’. ‘X’ stood on guard with a spear in hand but did not hit ‘Z’ at all.
51. ‘Y’ killed ‘Z’. Who is/are guilty?
A) ‘X’ and ‘Y’ both are liable for murder of ‘Z’.
B) Only ‘Y’ is liable for murder of ‘Z’.
C) ‘X’ is also liable as he did not perform any overt act
D) Both (A) and (C)

‘A’ being executor to the will of a deceased person, dishonestly disobeys the law which
52. directs him to divide the assets according to the will, and appropriates the assets to his own
use. ‘A’ commits:
A) Criminal Breach of Trust
B) Cheating
C) Theft
D) Forgery

‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’, ‘D’ and ‘E’, while carrying away property obtained by theft commtted in a house,
53. fired shots in the air with a view to scare away the inmates from pursuing them. They are
guilty of:
A) Theft
B) Extortion
C) Robbery
D) Dacoity

54. ‘A’ causes ‘Z’ to go within a walled space and locks ‘Z’ in. ‘A’ has committed the offence of:
A) Wrongful restraint
B) Force
C) Wrongful confinement
D) Criminal Force

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as Correct Answer : Option C
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55. The Maxim, ‘actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea’ means:
A) Criminal intention by itself constitutes an offence.
B) A person may be criminally liable even without a guilty mind.
C) Every guilty mind necessarily results in a crime.

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D) An act alone does not constitute guilt unless accompanied by a guilty mind.

Correct Answer : Option cDo
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56. In which
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of
lahouse-trespass by entering ‘Z’s house through the door, having lifted aa latch by
the following cases, the offence of ‘house-breaking’ is committed:

A) a
‘A’ commits
putting a wire through a hold in the door.
‘A’ finds the key of ‘Z’s house-door, which ‘Z’ had lost, and commits house-trespass, by
B)
entering ‘Z’s house through that key.
‘Z’ the doorkeeper of ‘Y’, is standing in ‘Y’s doorway. ‘A’ commits house-trespass by entering
C)
the house, having deterred ‘Z’ from opposing him by threatening to beat him.
D) All these.

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‘X’ added potassium cyanide into ‘Y’s drinkem
to sip from ‘Y’s glass. They both died.lThea s medical
intending to kill hi,. However, ‘Z’ also happened

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57. cardiac arrest, as the poisonous substance
report claimed that ‘Y’ actually died of a
administered with insufficient to cause his death.
In addition, ‘Z’ died due to the effect of the poison. So:
A) ‘X’ is liable for the death of ‘Y’ and not for the death of ‘Z’.
B) ‘X’ is not liable for the death neither of ‘Y’ nor of ‘X’
C) ‘X’ is liable for the death of both ‘Y’ and ‘X’
D) ‘X’ is liable for the death of ‘Z’ only.

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58. .cThe
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o law of contempt is exercise in case of: m
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la C ) Contempt
committed in facie curiae.

ag Contempt committed in ultra vires.
D) Contempt committed in ad hoc.

‘A’ a Spanish citizen, who was residing in Paris, instigated the commission of an offence
59. which in consequence was committed in India. He

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is liable as the offence was committed in India
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Page 15 of 45

B) is liable since the BNS Act also extends to extra-territorial acts.
C) can be held liable because the offence was to be committed in India
D) cannot be held liable because instigation was not given on Indian territory.

“An act committed or omitted in violation of a public law forbidding or commanding it is
60. crime.” It has been said by:
A) Stephen
B) William Blackstone
C) Henry Maine

D)
Kenny

‘X’ armed with a loaded pistol and ‘Y’ empty handed go to ‘X’ shop in furtherance of their
61. common intention to commit robbery. ‘X’ enters the shop and on being resisted in carrying
away property shoots ‘Z’ with pistol. ‘Z’ dies at once. For what acts of ‘X’, ‘Y’ is liable:
A) Dacoity with murder
B) Extortion and culpable homicide not amounting to murder
C) Attempt to commit robbery when armed with deadly weapon.
D) Robbery and Murder

62. “Death sentence should be awarded in rarest of rare cases” was held in –
A) Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab
B) Rameshwar v. State of U.P.
C) T.V. Vaitheeswaran v. State of Tamil Nadu
D) State of U.P. v. M.K. Antony

Assertion (A): ‘A’ a solder fires on a mob by the order of his superior officer, in conformity
with the commands of law. ‘A’ has committed no offence.

Reason (R) : Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is bound by law do do
63. it.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

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as D)
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
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64. Which one of the following correctly distinguishes BNS from the IPC framework?
A) Explicit recognition of terrorism within substantive criminal law

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B) Removal of all offences relating to women

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Elimination of offences against religion
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C)
D)

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Abolition of Life imprisonment
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a
a the influence of unsoundness attempt to kill ‘B’. ‘B’ in attempting to defend himself
‘A’ under
65. caused grievour hurt to ‘A’. Here
A) ‘A’ is liable for attempt to murder and ‘B’ is liable for causing hurt.
B) ‘A’ commits no offence and ‘B’ is liable for grievous hurt.
C) ‘B’ commits no offence and ‘A’ is liable for attempt to murder
D) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are excused from liability

m
c. o
m relating to the deference of
Which of the following case lays down theeprinciples
66. unsoundness of mind?
l a s
A) R v. Prince ag
B) Mc Naughten case
C) R v. Dudley and Stephen

D)
Mahboob Shah v. Emperor

Correct Answer : Option B

m
m c. o
c. oWhere the person is incapable of knowing the nature of the act sem
67. The defence of intoxication is not available:

eBm) Where the intoxication is voluntary l a
A)

s
la C ) Where the person is incapable of knowing that what he is doing g
a is wrong
ag D) Where the person is incapable of knowing that what he is doing is contrary to law.

Correct Answer : Option B

Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the maxim ‘de minims non curat
68. lex’?
Necessity knows no law
c
A)

m .
c. o m
B) Nothing is an offence done by a child under 7 years of age.

m s e
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C) Every person is liable for his own acts
D) Trifling acts do not constitute an offence.

The Law Commission of India in its 262nd Report recommended that the death penalty may
69. be abolished for all crimes, other than:
A) Passive Euthanasia
B) Abolition of Death Penalty
C) Rape and Murder
D) Amendment in Juvenile Justice Act.

Correct Answer : Option B

70. Which of the following is a newly recognized punishment under BNS Act?
A) Deportation
B) Solitary Confinement
C) Community service
D) Property attachment

Correct Answer : Option C

71. Mob-lynching under BNS generally refers to:
A) State sponsered violence
B) Group based murder on specified identity grounds
C) Violence during elections only
D) Any unlawful assembly

Correct Answer : Option B

Consider the following statements:

1. Sedition as contained in IPC Section 124A has been retained verbatum in BNS.
72. 2. BNS introduces a provision concerning acts endangering sovereignty and integrity of
India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : Option B

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co m .
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as Consider the following statements:
a g
(A) BNS seeks to align criminal law with contemporary forms of crime

73. (B) Cyber-enabled organized crimes may fall within the ambit of organized crime provisions

(C) BNS abolishes offences relating to counterfeiting currency.

m
co
Which of the statements given above are correct?

om .
1 and 2 only
m
A)
2 and 3 only
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B)
C) 1 and 3 only
s e g l a
D)
g
1, 2 and 3.
l a a
a

Consider the following statements regarding organized crime provisions under BNS:

(A) Organized crime provisions broaden criminal liability beyond isolated individual acts.
74. (B) Economic gain is a relevant component in organized crime.
(C) Organized crime provisions are confined exclusively to violent offences.
m
Which of the statements given above are correct?
. co
A) 1 and 2 only
s em
B) 2 and 3 only
g l a
C)
D)
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3.
a

Which one of the following best explains the significance of recognizing “petty organized
75. crime” separately?

m
to constitutionalize preventive detention.

c. o
A)

m
to criminalize only political protests

c. o
B)

e m
s
C) to address recurring low-level organized criminal activities systematically.

s eDm) to replace conventional theft provisions entirely. la
gla ag
a Correct Answer : Option C

Which one of the following is NOT an essential element of a valid contract under the Indian
76. Contract Act, 1872?
A) Free consent
B) Lawful object

m c
Social obligation
.
C)

c. o e m
D) Competency of parties

m a s
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Correct Answer : Option C

Consider the following statements regarding consideration:

1. Consideration may move from the promisee only.
77. 2. Consideration may be past, present or future.
3. Stranger to consideration may sue.

Which statements are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3.

Correct Answer : Option B

78. Which case is the leading Indian authority on frustration?
A) Hadley v. Baxendale
B) Carlil v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
C) Satyabrata Ghose v. Mugneeram Bangur & Co.
D) Donoghue v. Stevenson

Correct Answer : Option C

79. Quantum meruit means:
A) As much as earned
B) As much as promised
C) As much as deserved
D) As much as possible.

Correct Answer : Option C

80. Which one is a quasi-contractual obligation?
A) Wagering Agreement
B) Finder of lost goods
C) Illegal Agreement
D) Agreement by coercion

Correct Answer : Option B

81. The ‘doctrine of frustration’ is embodied in:
A) Section 52
B) Section 56

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co m .
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as C) Section 73
a g
D) Section 124

Correct Answer : Option B

82. Which of the following is a contingent contract?
A) Contract of sale

m
co
B) Insurance contract

c om m .
C) Bailment contract

m . s e
a
D) Agency contract

s e g l
g l a
Correct Answer : Option B
a
a
83. A wagering agreement is:
A) Illegal
B) Void
C) Voidable
D) Void ab initio

m
co
Correct Answer : Option B

.
84. Bailment involves:
s em
Transfer of ownership
g l a
a
A)
B) Delivery of goods for specific purpose
C) Transfer of title permanently
D) Mortgage of goods.

Correct Answer : Option B

85. Which of the following correctly explains “consensus ad idem”?
m
m c. o
A) Agreement by coercion

C) . co
B) Meeting of minds upon same thing in same sense
e m
eDm)
Promise without consideration
la s
s
la Correct Answer : Option B
Agreement enforceable in equity only
ag
ag
Assertion (A): Mere silence amounts to fraud.

86. Reason (R): Every party is legally bound to disclose all material facts.

Select the correct answer:
Both (A) and (R) are true
m . c
c. o
A)
(A) is true, (R) is false
e m
s
B)

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C) (A) is false, (R) is true
D) Both (A) and (R) are false

87. The Maxim “Caveat Emptor” means:
A) Let the seller beware
B) Let the buyer beware
C) Let the Agent beware
D) Let the Court beware

Correct Answer : Option B

88. The relationship between banker and customer is primarily that of:
A) Bailor and Bailee
B) Trustee and Beneficiary
C) Debtor and Creditor
D) Principal and Agent only

Correct Answer : Option C

89. A Pawnee may:
A) Use pledged goods freely
B) Mix pledged goods with own goods
C) Retain goods until debt repayment
D) Become owner immediately

Correct Answer : Option C

90. Which doctrine prevents a stranger from suing upon a contract?
A) Doctrine of Frustration
B) Doctrine of Privity
C) Doctrine of Estoppel
D) Doctrine of Caveat Emptor

Correct Answer : Option B

91. A person usually of unsound mind may enter into a valid contract when:
A) Guardian consents
B) Court grants permission
C) He is of sound mind at the time of contract
D) Consideration is adequate.

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co m .
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as Correct Answer : Option C
a g
92. Communication of a proposal is complete when:
A) Proposal is accepted.
B) Proposal is written and signed
C) Proposal comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made

m
om . co
D)
Consideration is paid

.c e m
e m l a s
s g
Correct Answer : Option C

a
l the Indian Contract Act means:
93. Novation gunder a
A)
a
Cancellation without substitution
B) Substitution of existing contract with new contract
C) Mere alteration of consideration

D)
Waiver of damages only

o m
Correct Answer : Option B

c
. good faith (uberrimae fidei)?
94. Which of the following contracts is based onmutmost
s e
A) Insurance contract
g l a
B)
C)
Bailment contract
Agency contract only
a
D)
Wagering contract

m
95. In a contract of bailment, the bailee is bound to:

o
A)
m
Use goods negligently
c. o
. c e m
s
Take reasonable care of goods bailed
m
B)

s e la
ag
C) Sell goods immediately

gla D ) Mix goods compulsorily
a
Correct Answer : Option B

96. A finder of goods has right to:
A) Appropriate goods absolutely
B) Sue owner for ownership declaration immediately

m . c
c. o
C) Retain goods against certain charges

e m
s
Destroy goods at discretion.
m
D)

se
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Correct Answer : Option C

97. Which one of the following correctly distinguishes void agreement from illegal agreement?
A) Both are identical in effect
B) Illegal agreement is punishable; void agreement merely unenforceable
C) Void agreement creates collateral rights
D) Illegal agreement is enforceable between parties.

Correct Answer : Option B

98. Which one of the following statements regarding pledge is correct?
A) Pledge requires transfer of ownership
B) Pledge is bailment as security for debt
C) Pledge cannot involve movable goods

D)
Pawnee becomes owner immediately

Correct Answer : Option B

99. Which one of the following best explains “privity of consideration” under Indian law?
A) Consideration must always move from promisee only
B) Consideration may move from promisee or any other person
C) Consideration is unnecessary for contracts

D)
Third parties can always sue on contract

Correct Answer : Option B

Which doctrine applies when a person accepts benefit under transaction and later rejects
100. corresponding burden?
A) Doctrine of Election
B) Doctrine of Frustration
C) Doctrine of Severability
D) Doctrine of Waiver

101. What is the meaning of ‘Jus cogens’:
A) Ruled developed from a bilateral treaty which has found universal.
Rules of ancient customary International law which are rendered redundant in modern
B)
times.
C) Abrogation of a rule in a treaty by a subsequent treaty.
D) Peremptory norms of general International law from which no derogation is permissible.

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as Correct Answer : Option D
a g
The effect of de jure recognition is that the state has been recognised in law. Such
102. recognition can be withdrawn:
A) in legal sense
B) when the recognized state becomes a member of UNO

m
when the recognized state declares war against the recognizing state

co
C)

om .
D) on non-fulfilment of condition for the grant of de jure recognition

.c e m
e m l a s
s

a
lof the following is the law-making treaty? a g
g
Shimlaapact 1971 between India and Pakistan
103. Which one
A)
B) Treaty between India and Sri Lanka 1987 for solving Sir Lanka’s ethnic problem
C) Indo-Soviet Friendship Treaty
D) Pact of Paris, 1928

m United Nations?
104. Which one of the following is not the objective ofothe
m.c
A) Maintenance of International Peace and Security
s e
B) Ensuring respect for Treaty Obligations
g l a
C)
a
Establishment of democratic governments throughout the world.

D)
Promotion of better standards of life

Correct Answer : Option C

The right of self-defence provided in the United Nations Charter is subject to the judgement
105. of the:
m
m c. o
A) General Assembly

C) . co
B) Security Council
e m
eDm)
International Court of Justice
la s
las Secretary-General of the United Nations
ag
ag Correct Answer : Option B

Article 26 of the International Court of Justice Statute provides for the formation of a
chamber composed of five judges at the request of the parties of the dispute. This procedure
106. was adopted for the first time in the case of:
Select the correct answer:

m . c
c. o
A) United Nations Diplomatic and Consular Staff in Tehran (Hostages case), 1980

e m
s
B) Military and Para-Military activities in and against Nicaragua (1984-86)
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C) Electronica Sicula S.P.A. case (1989)
D) The Delimitation of the Maritime Boundary in the Gulf of Maine Area (1984)

Consider the following statements:

According to the Naturalist School of International Law:

i. Rules of International law denote the ideal law founded on the nature of man as
reasonable being.
ii. Rules of International Law are the body of rules which nature dictates to human reason.
107. iii. International Law derived its binding force from the fact that it was mere application to
particular circumstances of the “law of nature”.
iv. The concept of International law and Natural law is identical as both are based on reason
and justice.

Select the correct answer:
A) ii and iv are correct
B) i, ii, iii & iv are correct

C)
i and iii are correct
D) i, ii and iii are correct

108. “pacta sunt servanda” means:
A) Treaties are not binding
B) Treaties are revocable
C) Treaties are irrevocable
D) Treaties are accepted in good faith

109. Which one of the following is relatively the most important source of International Law?
A) Treaties
B) Judicial Decisions
C) Custom
D) The General Principle of Law

“The rule of state succession in International Law was incorporated by Grotius which he had
110. adopted from Roman Law.” This was stated by:
A) Charles Fenwick

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co m .
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as B) Schwarzenbergar
a g
C) J.G. Starke
D) L.Oppenheim

111. Which of the following statement is correct?
m
co
The decision of the International Court of Justice has binding force on all the members of

om .
A)
the United Nations.

.c e m
m s
B) The decision of the International Court of Justice has binding force on all states of the world.

se
The decisions of the International Court of Justice shall not have any binding force on any
g l a
l a a
ag
C) member as its decision are the only subsidiary means for determining rules of International
law.

D) The decisions of the International Court of Justice shall not have a binding force except upon
the parties to a dispute, and only in respect of a particular dispute between them.

“International Law may be defined as a form of rules accepted by civilized states as
m
co
112. determining their conduct towards each other and towards each other subjects”. It was held
in:
.
A) West Rand Central Gold Mining Co. Ltd v. The King
s em
B) S.S. Lotus Case
g l a
C)
D)
Queen v. Keyn
Corfu Channel case
a

113. Which theory holds that International Law and Municipal law form a single legal system?
A) Dualism

m
c. o
B) Monism

o m m
c
. Realism e
C)

Dm s
Positivism

s e la
la Correct Answer : Option B ag
)

ag
114. Opino juris is associated with:
A) Treaty reservation
B) State succession
C) Customary Intrnational Law
Recognition of Belligerency
c
D)

m .
c. o s e m
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Correct Answer : Option C

115. Article 51 of the UN Charter recognizes:
A) Right to Asylum
B) Right of Self-defence
C) Right to Neutrality
D) Right to Recognition

Correct Answer : Option B

Which of the following jurists defined International law as “a body of rules binding upon
116. civilized states in their relations with one another”?
A) Austin
B) Oppenheim
C) Hugo Grotius
D) Holland

Correct Answer : Option B

117. The Nuremberg Trials are associated with:
A) Refugee protection
B) International criminal responsibility
C) State succession
D) Treaty reservations.

Correct Answer : Option B

118. The concept of “Common Heritage of Mankind” is associated mainly with:
A) Air space
B) Deep seabed resources
C) Territorial waters
D) Diplomatic law

Correct Answer : Option B

119. The Chorzow Factory case is famous for the principle of:
A) Diplomatic Asylum
B) State Succession
C) Treaty reservations
D) Reparations for wrongful acts

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co m .
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as 120. Which convention governs consular relations? a g
A) Vienna Convention on Consular Relations, 1963
B) Geneva Convention, 1949
C) Hague Convention, 1907
D) Chicago Convention, 1944.

m
om . co
c m
Which one of the following statements is true in respect of A.V. Dicey’s formulation of the
. e
121. Rule of Law?

em l a s
s g
The rule of law is synonymous with social justice
a
A)

l a
ag
The rule of law is based on supremacy of law over arbitrary and wide discretionary power,
B)
equal subjection to the law and the origins of constitutional law in private law.
C) The Rule of Law is purely a political concept
D) The separation of powers is part of the rule of law.

Correct Answer : Option B

“Administrative law is the law relating to the control of governmental power”. This statement
122. was given by:
m
A) Austin
. co
em
Salmond
s
B)
C) M.P. Jain
g l a
a
D) Wade

Assertion (A): The Principle of natural justice ensure fair hearing.

123. Reason (R): It requires unbiased judge to decide after hearing all parties.

m
c. o
Codes:

o m Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is good explanation of (A).
m
c
A)

Cm
.B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not a good explanation of (A).
s e
s eD ) la
ag
(A) is true, but (R) is false.

la
)

g
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
a Correct Answer : Option A

Article 323-A and Article 323-B have been inserted by which Parliament has been authorized
124. to constitute administrative tribunals for settlement of disputes and adjudication of matter
specified therein.
A) by Constitution Thirty-Eighth Amendment Act, 1975

m . c
B) by Constitution Forty-Second Amendment Act, 1976
C)
c. o
by Constitution Forty-fourth Amendment Act, 1978
s e m
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D) by Constitution Forty-sixth Amendment Act, 1983

Correct Answer : Option B

125. The institution of Ombudsman originated in ________ in 1809.
A) India
B) New Zealand
C) Finland
D) Sweden

Who said “delegated legislation is that which proceeds from any authority other than the
126. sovereign power and therefore, is dependent for its continued existence and validity on
some superior or supreme authority.”
A) Austin
B) Salmond
C) Allen
D) Dicey

Correct Answer : Option B

“The gun and the gun powder is provided by the legislature and the administrative authority
127. is only required to pull the trigger” in true in respect of:
A) Delegated Legislation
B) Sub-delegated Legislation
C) Sub-ordinate Legislation
D) Conditional Legislation

God himself did not pass sentence upon Adam before he was called upon to make his
defence. ‘Adam’ (says God), ‘where art thou; Hast thou not eaten the fruit of the tree whereof
128. I commanded thee that thou shouldest not eat?’ and the same question was put to Eve also’.
The statement manifests:
A) the principle of natural justice
B) Des Pouvoirs
C) Droit Administratiff
D) Rule of Law

Lord Hewart C.J. brought into common parlance the off-quoted aphorism “not only must
129. justice be done, it must also be seen to be done” in the case of:
A) Earl of Derby’s case

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co m .
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as B) R v. Sussex Justices, ex-parte McCarthy
a g
C) Panama Refining Company v. Ryan
D) Dr. Bonham’s case

Delegated legislation may be upheld as constitutionally valid in which one of the following
130. situations?
m
A)

om
When the parent Act itself is unconstitutional
. co
.c e m
s
B) When the delegated legislation is vitated by malafide exercise of power

e m l a
s
When the delegated legislation is unconstitutional
g
C)

a
l Act delegates only incidental or ancillary legilative functions. a
When thegparent
a
D)

Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List - II
(i) Abuse of discretion (a) Rule of law

m
c. o
(ii) Equality before law (b) Lack of power
131.

em (d) Ultra-vires
(iii) Delegated Legislations (c) Checks and Balance
(iv) Separation of powers
l a s
Codes: a g
A) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
B) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c
C) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
D) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled

m
Who defines Administrative law as “the law relating to administration, It determines the

c. o
132. organization, powers and duties of administrative authorities.
m
c. oA) A.V. Dicey
s e m
em la
Kenneth Davis
s
B)

la ag
C) Upendra Baxi

ag D) Sir Ivor Jennings

133. The Privy Council applied the doctrine of conditional legislation in the matter of:
A) Jatindranath Gupta v. Province of Bihar (1949)
B) Harishankar Banga v. State of M.P., (1954)

m . c
c. o
C) King Emperor v. Benoari Lal Sharma (1945)

e m
s
D) Narendra Kumar v. Union of India (1960)
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Correct Answer : Option C

134. “Henry VIII Clause” in Administrative law refers to:
A) Judicial review of legislation
B) Clause enabling executive modification of parent legislation
C) Financial emergency provisions
D) Doctrine of Eclipse.

Correct Answer : Option B

135. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 primarily seeks to:
A) Regulate the conduct of Parliamentary and State elections
Establish independent anti-corruption ombudsman institutions at the Union and State
B)
levels.
C) Provide for appointment and transfer of judges to the higher judicairy
Create a statutory mechanism for inquiry and prosecution in cases involving corruption by
D)
public functionaries.

Correct Answer : Option B

136. Which of the following is a quasi-judicial function?
A) Framing of taxation policy
B) Granting Licence after hearing objections
C) Conduct of census
D) Issuing political manifesto

Correct Answer : Option B

137. The doctrine of excessive delegation implies that:
A) Essential legislative functions cannot be delegated
B) Delegated legislation is always invalid
C) Judiciary can legislate directly
D) Executive powers cannot be regulated.

138. The rule against bias is expressed through the maxim:
A) Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea.
B) Audi alteram partem
C) Nemo judex in causa sua
D) Ubi jus ibi remedium

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as Correct Answer : Option C
a g
139. The doctrine of legitimate expectation operates as:
A) A restriction upon judical review

B)
A ground for challenging arbitrary administrative action.

m
co
C) A substitute for legislation

om .
A Criminal law principle
c m
D)

m . s e
s e
Correct Answer : Option B
g l a
g a
l principle is associated with: a
A)
a
140. The Wednesbury
Separation of powers
B) Judicial review of Administrative discretion
C) Natural justice
D) Parliamentary privilege

Correct Answer : Option B

m
c. o
Which of the following is nearest to meaning of the phrase ‘English Mortgaged’ as defined by
m
141. the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
Where on payment of certain sum by these
A)

g l aat the start of mortgage with the condition that after
mortgagee the property passes to him.

the mortgage amount is paid back,athe property will sold back.
Where there are two sales made, one
B)

C) Where the mortgage gets the possession of the property with the rights of profits, rents etc.
D) Where the mortgage is made by submitting the title deed.

Correct Answer : Option B

m
Which of the following is true regarding the ‘right of subrogation’ as defined under the
142. Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
m c. o
c. o m
Any person redeeming the property under provisions of section 91 of the Act, has the same

s e
A)

eBm) la
rights as the mortgagor against the mortgagee.

s
la C ) ag
Any person redeeming the property under provisions of section 91 of the Act, has the same

g
right as the mortgagee against the mortgagor.
a D)
Either (A) or (B) depending on the facts of the case
Neither (A) nor (B)

Correct Answer : Option B

Under Section 122 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, which of the following transactions
143. would constitute a valid gift?

m . c
c. o s e m
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Transfer of an interest in a residential house by a donor to a donee subject to payment of
A) ₹30,000 per month by the donee to the donor, where the monthly rental value of the property
is ₹26,000.
Transfer of land valued at ₹33,000 by a donor to a donee in exchange for a stone necklace
B)
valued at ₹3,000.
Transfer of a flower of nominal value by a donor to a donee purely out of love, affection, and
C)
personal regard, without any material consideration.

D) A transfer made in consideration of any economic benefit, irrespective of the adequacy of
consideration.

Correct Answer : Option C

Which of the following section of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, deals with the
144. appointment of a receiver?
A) Section 68
B) Section 68A
C) Section 69
D) Section 69A

Which of the following statements is true regarding suit for redemption of mortgaged
145. property under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
A) Only mortgagor can bring the suit
B) Any creditor of he mortgagor who has obtained a decree, can bring the suit.
C) Any creditor irrespective of decree for the same, can bring the suit.
D) Any surety for the payment of the mortgagor debt, can bring the suit.

‘C’ and ‘B’ are two brothers living as joint family. They decided to have a partition. In the
146. partition deed the house with well fell on ‘C’ and ‘B’was allowed to take water from the well
out of brotherly love. The right to take water will be in form of:
A) Easement
B) Revocable licence
C) Irrevocable license
D) interest in the property

Correct Answer : Option C

In case a lease is made for a certain period mentioning that it is terminable before its
147. expiration, without mentioning at whose option:
A) only lessee will have the option of termination
B) only lessor will have the option of termination

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as C)
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the lease will be terminable only in case of mutual agreement
D) Both lessor and lessee will have option of terminating the lease

148. The basic ingredients of the doctrine of lis pendens are:
A) The suit should be collusive

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B) Property should have been transferred or otherwise dealt with

c om m .
C) A litigation should be pending in a court of competent jurisdiction.

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a
D) The suit must not be related to a specific immovable property.

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Correct Answer : Option C
a
a
149. The English rule against perpetuities deals with:
A) Interests to arise in future
B) Interests in proesenti
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) Neither (A) nor (B)

m
c. o
Correct Answer : Option C

e m of Property Act, 1882 can:
s
150. The forfeiture under Section 111(g) of the Transfer

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Not be waived off, except by express declaration of the same
Can be waived off by acceptance a
A)
of rent becoming due after forfeiture, after the suit to eject
B)
lessee has been initiated.
Can be waived off by accepting of rent becoming due after forfeiture, in case lessor is not
C)
aware that forfeiture has incurred.
Can be waived off by accepting of rent becoming due after forfeiture, as long as lessor
D)
knows that forfeiture has incurred.

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. om of Spes Succession is:
cValid
151. Transfer
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eBm) Void la s
s ag
A)

gla C ) Voidable
a
D)
Either (A) or (B).

Correct Answer : Option B

152. ‘Marshalling by subsequent purchaser’ is provided under Transfer of Property Act in:
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c. o
A) Section 55

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s
Section 56
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B)

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Page 35 of 45

C) Section 57
D) Section 58

Correct Answer : Option B

Within the meaning of provision under Section 39 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 a
153. woman is entitled to maintenance not only from the husband, but also from sons who are
members of joint family. This was decided in case of:
A) S.Periaswami v. Chellawal, (1980)1Mad LJ 46
B) Raghvan v. Nagammal, (1979) 1 Mad LJ 172.
C) Chandramma v. Maniam Vankettareddy, AIR 1991 AP 396
D) Baudev Dey Sarkar v. Chhaya Dey Sarkar, AIR 1991 Cal.399.

154. Which of the following statement is correct?
A) An easement can be transferred apart from the dominant heritage.
B) A mere right to sue cannot be transferred
C) A right to future maintenance can be transferred
D) The salary of public officer after it has become payable can be transferred.

Correct Answer : Option B

155. Which of these cannot be lawfully transferred as per Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
A) Salary of public officer
B) Machinery attached to land
C) Property yielding income
D) Paddy field

156. ‘Rule against double possibilities’ was recognized in which one of the following cases?
A) Girijesh Dutt v. Dutadin
B) Whitby v. Mitchell
C) Ardeshiv v. Dadabhoy
D) Sopher v. Administrator General of Bengal

Correct Answer : Option B

157. Section 36 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is related to
A) Doctrine of Election
B) Doctrine of Cy-pres
C) Doctrine of accretion

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as D) Doctrine of Apportionment
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158. The case of Jayadayal Poddar v. Bibi Hazra is related to:
A) Doctrine of Election
B) Doctrine of part performance

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C) Transfer by unauthorized person

c om m .
D) Ostensible owner

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Correct Answer : Option D
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a a
l equity must do equity’ is the juristic basis of which one of the following
159. Sectionsag
‘He who seeks
of the Transfer of Property Act?
A) Section 49
B) Section 50
C) Section 51
D) Section 53

o m
Correct Answer : Option C

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e
160. What act does not constitute part performance:m
l a s
g
A) Delivery of possession
B)
C)
a
Act done in performance of the contract
An unequivocal act which is referable to no other contract than alleged.
D) Acts introductory to and previous to the agreement.

161. Which of the following statements is not true?
m
c. o
A) A company is an artificial person created by law.

o m A company can do every act like a natural person except the acts which are purely of
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. c e
B)

s
personal nature.

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s ag
C) A company can be held liable for violation of the statutory provisions of the Companies Act.

gla D ) A company can be imprisoned for violation of such provision which attract penalty by way of

a imprisonment only.

162. Which of the following is not the characteristic of a public company?
A) it has a separate legal entity
B) It has a perpetual succession

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c. o
C) It has a common seal and separate property

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s
Its shares are non-transferable.
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D)

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Page 37 of 45

163. In case of a company limited by guarantee, the liability of the members can be enforced:
A) At any time when the company so decides
B) Only at the time of winding up of the company
C) Only by an order of court
D) Only by an order of Registrar of Companies.

Correct Answer : Option B

The doctrine relating to the “lifting” or “piercing” of the corporate veil was first judicially
164. recognized in which of the following cases?
A) Salomon v. Salomon & Co. Ltd.
B) Lee v. Lee’s Air Farming Ltd.
C) Dhulia-Amalner Motor Transport Ltd. case
D) In Re Kondoli Tea Co. Ltd.

What is the qualification prescribed for appointment as the President of the National
165. Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) under the Companies Act, 2013?
A) He/She must be a person who is or has been a Judge of a High Court for five years.
B) He/She must be a person who is or has been a Judge of a High Court for three years.
C) He/She must be a person who is or has been a District Judge for five years.
D) He/She must be a person who has been an advocate for ten years.

Under the Companies Act, 2013, the expression “winding up” includes which of the
following?

1. Winding up under the Companies Act, 2013
166. 2. Dissolution of a company
3. Liquidation proceedings under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, wherever
applicable.
Codes:
A) Only 1 and 2
B) Only 1 and 3
C) Only 2 and 3
D) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : Option B

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as gof a company cannot ordinarily be
167. challenged by an individual shareholder” was laid downain which of the following celebrated
The rule that “matters relating to the internal management

cases?
A) Bharat Insurance Co. Ltd. v. Kanhaiya Lal
B) Brown v. British Abrasive Wheel Co.
C) Foss v. Harbottle
D) Lagunas Nitrate Co. v. Lagunas Syndicate

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Correct Answer : Option C
om . co
c m
m. of the Doctrine of Ultra Vites?
168. What is the purpose
e l a s e
l a s a g
ag
A) To restrict the power of the government
B) To prevent companies from going bankrupt
C) To ensure companies operate within their legal authority
D) To encourage corporate secrecy.

Correct Answer : Option C

According to Justice Shah in A.Laksmanaswami Mudaliar v. LIC., when can a company
169. make charitable contributions?
m
A) At anytime without restriction
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em
Only with the unanimous consent of shareholders
s
B)
C)
l a
When the contributions are related to the company’s business interests
g
a
D) When it is expressly prohibited by the Memorandum of Association

Correct Answer : Option C

170. What is the primary purpose of the doctrine of “constructive notice” in relation to a company?
A) to protect the company from outsiders
B) to protect outsiders dealing with the company

m
c. o
C) to provide internal regulation for the company

o m
D) to prevent shareholders from accessing company information.

. c e m
em l a s
s

g
la 171. When can the doctrine of “indoor management” be invoked byaa person dealing with the
ag company?
A) only when the memorandum and articles are fully read and understood
B) When the person has no knowledge of the company’s internal affairs
C) When the person is aware of the company’s internal irregularities
D) When the company has exercised its authority correctly.

m . c
Correct Answer : Option B

c. o s e m
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What is the effect of Section 6 of the Companies Act, 2013, in relation to the Memorandum
172. and Articles of a company?
A) It gives overriding force to the memorandum and articles
B) It renders the memorandum and articles void.
C) It requires government approval for any amendment

D)
It validates any provision in the memorandum and articles.

In what situations have courts found it necessary to disregard the separate personality of a
173. company?
A) Whenever a company is involved in a lawsuit.
B) When shareholders are not satisfied with company performance.
C) When acts of a corporation are allegedly opposed to justice or public interest
D) When the company’s annual report is inaccurate.

Correct Answer : Option C

Who described a company as “an association of many persons who contribute money or
174. money’s worth to a common stock”?
A) Lord Justice Lindley
B) Chief Justice Marshall
C) Justice James
D) Lord Denning

In which famous case did Lord Cairn state that the Memorandum of Association of a
175. company is its charter and denies the limitations of the company’s powers?
A) Ashbury Railway Carriage & Iron Co. Ltd v. Riche
B) Re Attorney General v. Great Eastern Railway
C) Egyptian Salt and Soda Co. Ltd v. Port Said Salt Association Ltd.
D) Bell Houses Ltd v. City Wall Properties Ltd.

What do ‘Voting Rights of Equity Shareholders’ means under Section 47 of the Companies
176. Act, 2013?
A) Equity shareholders have the right to vote on any resolution placed before the company.
B) Equity shareholders cannot vote on any resolution
C) Equity shareholders can only vote on financial resolutions.
D) Equity shareholders can vote on resolutions related to preference

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co m .
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as Correct Answer : Option A
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177. A company, being an artificial legal person having perpetual succession, implies that:
A) The company ceases to exist on the death of its members.
B) The existence of the company depends upon the life of its shareholders.
The company is created by operation of law and can be dissolved only through a legal

m
C)

co
process.

om .
The company has no separate legal existence apart from its members.
c m
D)

m . s e
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Correct Answer : Option C
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l up of a company signifies: a
A)
a
178. The winding
immediate dissolution of the company
B) conversion into partnership
C) process by which the affairs of the company are settled and assets realized.
D) compulsory nationalization of the company

Correct Answer : Option C

m
co intended to:
179. The Annual General Meeting of a company is primarily
.
e m
s
approve criminal prosecutions
a
A)
B)
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enable shareholders to participate in corporate governance
C)
D)
dissolve the company automatically
appoint creditors as directors
a
Correct Answer : Option B

A company limited by shares may issue:

m
1. Equity shares

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180. 2. Preference shares
c. Select m
3. Sweat Equity shares

m s e
e
s A ) 1 and 2 only la
ag
the correct answer:

l a
ag BC )) 21 and 3 only
and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3.

When two provisions of the same enactment appear to be inconsistent with each other,

m
181. courts ordinarily interpret them in a manner that gives effect to both provisions, if possible.
. c
This principle is known as:
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A) Rule of Harmonious Construction
B) Rule of Reasonable Construction
C) Rule of Ejusdem Generis
D) Rule of Strict Construction

182. The maxim Contemporanea Expositio Est Optima et Fortissima in Lege signifies that:
A) penal statutes must be strictly construed
B) contemporaneous exposition is the strongest aid in law
C) statutes must always receive liberal interpretation
D) judicial precedents override statutes

Correct Answer : Option B

183. What is the Mischief rule?
In interpreting statutes, judges should look at the ‘mischief’ which the Act was passed to
A)
prevent.
B) There must be no mischief in court
C) In interpreting statutes, judges should interpret the words literally
D) In interpreting statutes, judges should interpret the words as they see fit.

184. A non obstante clause in a statute generally begins with the expression:
A) “Provided that”
B) “Subject to”
C) “Notwithstanding anything contained…”
D) “Save as otherwise provided”

Correct Answer : Option C

185. The rule of Ejusdem Generis applies where:
A) general words precede specific words
B) general words follow specific words belonging to a common class.
C) words are interpreted literally
D) penal statutes are interpreted strictly

Correct Answer : Option B

186. Under the Literal Rule of interpretation, words in a statute are ordinarily understood in their:
A) technical meaning alone
B) equitable sense

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as C) natural, ordinary and grammatical meaning.
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D) judicially preferred meaning

Correct Answer : Option C

187. Which among the following is regarded as an external aid to statutory interpretation?
A) Marginal notes

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B) Interpretation clause

c om m .
C) Parliamentary history

m . s e
a
D) Preamble

s e g l
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Correct Answer : Option C
a
a
188. Which of the following is treated as an internal aid to statutory interpretation?
A) Foreign decisions
B) Historical background
C) Long title

D)
Parliamentary debates

m
. co
em
Correct Answer : Option C

asto:
189. A proviso is primarily inserted in a statute
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A)
B)
repeal earlier legislation
create substantive rights independently
a
C) qualify or except special cases from the general provision
D) override constitutional provisions

Correct Answer : Option C

m
c. o
The decision in Pepper v. Hart is significant because it permitted courts in limited
190. circumstances to refer to:
o m m
. c Newspaper reports
s e
m
A)

e
s C ) Hansard or Parliamentary Debates la
ag
B) Foreign judgements

l a
ag D ) Law Commission Report only.
Correct Answer : Option C

Tortious liability arises from breach of duty, primarily fixed by law, this duty is towards
191. persons generally and it breach is redressable by an action for unliquidated damages.” This
definition is given by:

m . c
A) Winfield

c. o e m
B) Salmond

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C) Flemmings

D)
Goodheart

192. Which of the following legal maxim is not related to the Law of Tort?
A) ubi jus ibi remedium
B) ex turpi causa non oritur action
C) res ipsa loquitur

D)
consensus ad idem

193. The case of Reyland v. Fletcher has laid down the principle of:
A) Negligence
B) Vicarious Liability
C) Strict Liability
D) Nuisance

Correct Answer : Option C

194. Kasthurilala v. State of U.P. is related to:
A) Vicarious Liability
B) Absolute Liability
C) Conractual Liability
D) Strict Liability

195. The tort of negligence requires which of the following elements?
A) Duty, Breach and Damage
B) Contract, Intent and Performance
C) Agreement, Consideration and Offer
D) Malice, Intent and Privilege

196. What is the primary distinciton between Libel and Slander?
A) Libel is written, slander is spoken
B) Libel requires intent, slander does not
C) Libel is criminal, slander is civil

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as D) Libel involves property, slander involves contracts.
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197. ‘No fault liability’ means:
A) Liability for damage caused through negligence
B) Liability for damage caused through fault

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co
C) Absolute liability even without any negligence or fault

c om m .
D) Freedom from liability.
. s e
s em C
Correct Answer : Option
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Considerg lafollowing statements regarding the tort of conspiracy: a
a the

(A) A husband and wife are considered a single legal entity and therefore incapable of
198. conspirign together in tort.
(B) In the tort of conspiracy, liability hinges on actual pecuniary loss caused to the claimant.
(C) The tort requires an overt act in furtherance of the conspiracy that causes harm.
Which of the statements given above is/or correct?
A) I and II only

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B) II and III only
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C) I and III only

a s
D) I, II and III.

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Correct Answer : Option B
a
199. Which of the following is not a defence in tort law?
A) Consent
B) Act of God
C) Vicarious Liability
Private defence
m
D)

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c. o m
Correct Answer : Option C

m Damnum sine injuria means: s e
e
s A ) Damage with legal injury la
ag
200.
l a
ag B ) Legal injury without damage.
C) Damage without legal injury
D) Both damage and legal injury.

Correct Answer : Option C

m . c
c. o s e m
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