Kerala CEE LLM 2019 Question Paper with Answers

Kerala CEE LLM 2019 Question Paper
with Answers
PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY

Exam: LLM2019
Date of Test: 18-02-2020

Question1:-Who propounded the theory ‘Natural law with a variable content’?
A:-Stammler
B:-Salmond
C:-Allen
D:-Duguit
Question2:-Right in re propria relates to:
A:-Possession
B:-Easement
C:-Ownership
D:-Title
Question3:-Which of the theory mentioned below does not come under corporate personality?
A:-Purpose theory
B:-Pure theory
C:-Bracket theory
D:-Fiction theory
Question4:-Which among the following is not an essential feature of a valid custom?
A:-Immemorial
B:-Reasonable
C:-Continuous
D:-Contrary to statutory law
Question5:-According to Hohfield’s analysis of right, jural opposite of power is:
A:-Duty
B:-Immunity
C:-Disability
D:-Privilege
Question6:-“Law should always confirm to the popular consciousness. It discourages creative activities and legal reformâ€. Which school of
jurisprudence emphasises this statement?
A:-Philosophical School
B:-Historical School
C:-Sociological School
D:-Analytical School
Question7:-Interest theory is related to:
A:-Ownership
B:-Possession
C:-Right
D:-Person
Question8:-Which of the following is an example for executive legislation?
A:-Ordinance promulgated by the Governor
B:-Notification by the Government regarding the application of an act
C:-Bye laws
D:-Rules made by university
Question9:-‘Liability to pay penalty’ is:
A:-Natural justice
B:-Distributive justice
C:-Criminal justice
D:-Civil justice
Question10:-In some cases, the court may make no pronouncement on a point with regard to which there was no argument and yet the decision of
the case as whole assumes a decision with regard to the particular point. Such decisions are called:
A:-Decisions sub silentio
B:-Decisions per incuriam
C:-Deductive decisions
D:-Inductive decisions
Question11:-Who propounded Fiction theory?
A:-Austin
B:-Savigny
C:-Ehrlich
D:-Paton
Question12:-Who is known as the father of modern sociological jurisprudence?
A:-Gray
B:-Salmond
C:-Roscoe Pound
D:-Ihering

Question13:-Which of the following is an imperfect right?
A:-Right arising out of contract
B:-Right to reputation
C:-Right to physical integrity
D:-Time barred debt
Question14:-Who defined jurisprudence as the ‘formal science of positive law’?

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A:-Stone
B:-Friedmann
C:-Holland
D:-Maine
Question15:-Who among the following jurists support legislative theory of precedent?
A:-Justice Cardozo
B:-Blackstone
C:-Salmond
D:-Lord Esher
Question16:-Which theory of punishment states ‘evil should be returned by evil’?
A:-Preventive theory
B:-Retributive theory
C:-Reformative theory
D:-Deterrent theory
Question17:-Who is the exponent of Vienna School of jurisprudence?
A:-Hans Kelsen
B:-Hegel
C:-Holmes
D:-Holland
Question18:-The relation between two owners is such that one of them is under an obligation to use his ownership for the benefit of other. What is
this type of ownership called?
A:-Trust ownership
B:-Beneficial ownership
C:-Legal ownership
D:-Equitable ownership
Question19:-Which of the following statements is not true regarding precedent?
A:-Operation of precedent is based on the legal presumption that judicial decisions are correct.
B:-A precedent is purely constitutive
C:-Precedents are based on custom and practice
D:-Judicial precedent is a source of law
Question20:-Which of the following is an example for right in personam?
A:-Right to reputation
B:-Right of way
C:-Right to own
D:-Right to marry
Question21:-The maxim via trita via tuta is related to:
A:-Custom
B:-Precedent
C:-Possession
D:-Liability
Question22:-Who said that possession includes corpus possessionis and animus domini?
A:-Salmond
B:-Savigny
C:-C K Allen
D:-Hall
Question23:-The principle of social solidarity is propounded by:
A:-Eugen Ehrlich
B:-Ihering
C:-Roscoe Pound
D:-Leon Duguit
Question24:-Who is the exponent of ‘pure theory of law’?
A:-H L A Hart
B:-Lord Lloyd
C:-Hans Kelsen
D:-Lauterpacht
Question25:-Commercial goodwill is an example of:
A:-Incorporeal property
B:-Corporeal property
C:-Real property
D:-Personal property
Question26:-The constitutionality of the Anti-Defection law has been upheld by the Supreme Court in the case of:
A:-S R Bommai v. Union of India
B:-KihotaHollohon v. Zachilhu
C:-Keshav Singh v. Speaker
D:-S P Gupta v. Union of India
Question27:-The power to summon a House of Parliament to meet is formally vested in

A:-President
B:-Speaker
C:-Prime Minister
D:-Vice- President
Question28:-The provision in the Constitution regulating criminal appeals to Supreme Court
A:-Article 136
B:-Article 141

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C:-Article 134
D:-Article 132
Question29:-The President of India is to appoint a person to be the Attorney General for India who is qualified to be appointed a
A:-High Court Judge
B:-Supreme Court Judge
C:-Either (a) or (b)
D:-Member of Parliament
Question30:-Article 123 of the Constitution empowers the President to promulgate ordinances when:
A:-Emergency is declared
B:-RajyaSabha not in session
C:-LokSabha is not in session
D:-Both Houses of Parliament are not in session
Question31:-Which of the writs calls upon the holder of a public office to show to the Court under what authority he is holding that office?
A:-Prohibition
B:-Quo Warranto
C:-Certiorari
D:-Mandamus
Question32:-Which is the constitutional provision relevant for solving questions of repugnancy between a Central law and a State law?
A:-Article 254
B:-Article 234
C:-Article 245
D:-Article 243
Question33:-In which case the Supreme Court laid down that the creamy layer has to excluded from the backward class?
A:-M R Balaji v. State of Mysore
B:-Valsamma Paul v. Cochin University
C:-IndraSawhney v. Union of India
D:-Inder Singh v. State of Rajasthan
Question34:-Article 19(1)(b) guarantees to the citizens of India the right to:
A:-Speech and expression
B:-Form association
C:-Trade and profession
D:-Assemble peacefully and without arms
Question35:-The maxim Nemodebetbisvexari relates to
A:-Ex post facto laws
B:-Double jeopardy
C:-Self incrimination
D:-Post Constitutional laws
Question36:-Who appoints the Chairman and other members of the Union Public Service Commission?
A:-President of India
B:-Prime Minister
C:-President of India in consultation with Chief Justice
D:-Cabinet
Question37:-Which amendment to the Constitution deleted Right to Property from fundamental rights?
A:-42nd Amendment
B:-44th Amendment
C:-46th Amendment
D:-48th Amendment
Question38:-Which Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes?
A:-7th Schedule
B:-6th Schedule
C:-5th Schedule
D:-4th Schedule
Question39:-Which of the following Articles remain suspended during the proclamation of emergency?
A:-Article 19 and 21
B:-Article 14 and 19
C:-Article 14, 19 and 21
D:-Article 19 only
Question40:-Which Committee recommended for the inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Constitution?
A:-L M Singhvi Committee
B:-Swaran Singh Committee
C:-Ashok Mehta Committee
D:-Swaminathan Committee
Question41:-Who makes rules to determine the conditions of service and tenure of office of the Election Commissioners?
A:-President subject to the law made by the Parliament
B:-President subject to the law made by LokSbha
C:-Parliament subject to the control of President

D:-Speaker
Question42:-The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is stated under:
A:-Article 141
B:-Article 131
C:-Article 231
D:-Article 226

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Question43:-Which one of the following is not a state within the meaning of Article 12 of the Constitution?
A:-Electricity board
B:-Industrial Development Bank of India
C:-National Council of Educational Research and Training
D:-Oil and Natural Gas Corporation
Question44:-The Parliament has power to legislate with respect to a matter in the State list in the national interest if the resolution is supported by:
A:-Two third members of Council of States
B:-One third members of Council of States
C:-Half of the members of Council of States
D:-Both houses of the Parliament
Question45:-The power of Parliament to make any law with respect to matters not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List is:
A:-Extra territorial power
B:-Concurrent power
C:-Legislative power
D:-Residuary power
Question46:-The Chairperson of the National Commission for Scheduled Caste is appointed by the President by:
A:-Notice
B:-Warrant
C:-Oath
D:-Either of the above
Question47:-The 9th Schedule of the Constitution was added by:
A:-42nd Amendment
B:-1st Amendment
C:-76th Amendment
D:-86th Amendment
Question48:-Which provision of the Constitution of India deals with the supervisory jurisdiction of the High Court?
A:-Article 226 A
B:-Article 226
C:-Article 227
D:-Article 228
Question49:-Which House of the Parliament prefers charge for impeachment of the President?
A:-House of People
B:-Council of States
C:-Either House of Parliament
D:-Both Houses of Parliament
Question50:-Which of the following is not an exception to right to freedom of religion?
A:-Public Order
B:-Morality
C:-Health
D:-Security of nation
Question51:-Which of the following cases relates to general offers?
A:-Lalman v. GauriDutt
B:-R V. Clarke
C:-State of Kerala v. K D Thomas
D:-McGregor v. McGregor
Question52:-A proposal when accepted becomes:
A:-Contract
B:-Consideration
C:-Promise
D:-Agreement
Question53:-What is meant by Privity of contract?
A:-Minor’s contract is void
B:-Stranger to a contract can sue
C:-Contract with a stranger is void
D:-Stranger to contract cannot sue
Question54:-The principle of promissory estoppel was first applied by the US Court in the case of:
A:-Hughes v. Metropolitan Railway Co.
B:-Foakes v. Beer
C:-Couldery v. Bartrum
D:-Scotson v. Pegg
Question55:-If an infant obtains property or goods by misrepresenting his age, he can be compelled to restore it, but only so long as the same is
traceable in his possession. This is known as:
A:-Doctrine of impossibility
B:-Doctrine of estoppel
C:-Doctrine of good faith
D:-Doctrine of restitution

Question56:-‘Free consent’ as an essential requirement of a contract is defined under:
A:-S.14
B:-S.15
C:-S.16
D:-S.17
Question57:-“Fraud is proved when it is shown that a false representation has been made knowingly or without belief in its truth or recklessly
careless whether it is true or falseâ€. This was observed by Lord Herscell in the case of:

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A:-Eyre v. Measday
B:-Philips v. Brooks
C:-Derry v. Peek
D:-Sowler v. Potter
Question58:-The right to retain any property until the charges due in respect of property are paid is called:
A:-Right to compensation
B:-Right to lien
C:-Right to expenses
D:-Right to retain
Question59:-Who is a person employed to do any act for another, or to represent another in dealings with third person?
A:-Agent
B:-Legal representative
C:-Bailor
D:-Pawnor
Question60:-Which of the following pledge is invalid?
A:-Pledge made by the owner
B:-Pledge made with owner’s authority
C:-Pledge made by mercantile agent in the ordinary course of business
D:-Pledge made by the servant on temporary absence of the owner
Question61:-The rule in Hadley v. Baxendale relates to:
A:-Part performance
B:-Anticipatory breach
C:-Specific relief
D:-Remoteness of damage
Question62:-An agreement to do an act impossible is:
A:-Valid
B:-Illegal
C:-Void
D:-Voidable
Question63:-What are the position where an alternative promise one branch of which is legal and the other illegal?
A:-The legal branch alone can be enforced
B:-Both branches cannot be enforced
C:-Both branches can be enforced
D:-Both remains invalid
Question64:-Which among the following is not an exception to wagering contract?
A:-Horse race
B:-Card game
C:-Cross word competition
D:-Lottery
Question65:-A agrees to sell B ‘a hundred tons of oil’. The agreement is:
A:-Valid
B:-Void for illegal restraint
C:-Void for uncertainty
D:-Voidable
Question66:-Which provision of the Indian Contract Act states “Unlawful Agreement�
A:-S.22
B:-S.23
C:-S.24
D:-S.25
Question67:-A continuing guarantee may be revoked at any time by the surety as to future transactions:
A:-By notice to the debtor
B:-Without notice
C:-By informing the creditor in writing
D:-By notice to the creditor
Question68:-A contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself or by the
conduct of any other person is called:
A:-Contract of guarantee
B:-Contract of indemnity
C:-Contract of bailment
D:-Contract of pledge
Question69:-What is meant by novation?
A:-Substituting existing contract with a new one
B:-Alteration of existing contract
C:-Revoking of contract
D:-Rescinding of contract
Question70:-Which of the following is not an essential feature of contract?

A:-Free consent of the parties
B:-Competency to contract
C:-Contract must be in writing
D:-Lawful consideration and lawful object
Question71:-A, a lunatic sold property worth Rs 25 lakhs for Rs 5 lakhs only. His mother proved that he was lunatic and incapable of understanding
the transaction. The sale is:
A:-Valid

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B:-Void
C:-Voidable
D:-Unlawful
Question72:-An advertisement showing ‘stock of books to sell’ is:
A:-Offer
B:-Promise
C:-Invitation to treat
D:-Agreement
Question73:-An obligation which law creates in the absence of an agreement is called:
A:-Quasi contract
B:-Lawful contract
C:-Legal obligation
D:-Implied contract
Question74:-Under Indian Contract Act, liquidated damages are provided under which of the following provisions?
A:-S.75
B:-S.72
C:-S.73
D:-S.74
Question75:-P contracts to pay Q Rs 1 lakh if Q’s field is burnt. This type of contracts are called:
A:-Unlawful contract
B:-Void contracts
C:-Contingent contract
D:-Wagering contracts
Question76:-Which of the following is not an essential ingredient to constitute ‘Common intention’ under Article 34 of Indian Penal Code?
A:-Prior meeting of minds
B:-Prior conspiracy or pre-meditation
C:-Everyone indulged in overt act
D:-Acting in pursuance of the plan
Question77:-Movable property obtained without consent amounts to:
A:-Extortion
B:-Theft
C:-Robbery
D:-Either theft or extortion
Question78:-The essential requirement of criminal breach of trust include:
A:-Movable property
B:-Contractual obligation
C:-Entrustment
D:-Fraudulent dispossession
Question79:-Whoever causes bodily pain, disease or infirmity to any person is said to cause:
A:-Grievous hurt
B:-Voluntarily causing hurt
C:-Force
D:-Hurt
Question80:-Which of the following provisions under Indian Penal Code deals with ‘Attempt to Murder’?
A:-Section 307
B:-Section 309
C:-Section 300
D:-Section 299
Question81:-A makes a false entry in his shop book for the purpose of using it as corroborative evidence in a court of justice. A has committed the
offence of:
A:-Giving false evidence
B:-Fabricating false evidence
C:-Cheating
D:-Furnishing false information
Question82:-The rule in Durham v. United States is related to:
A:-Drunkenness
B:-Necessity
C:-Unsoundness of mind
D:-Infancy
Question83:-The doing of certain acts which would bring the Government established by law in India into hatred or contempt or create disaffection
against it amounts to:
A:-Sedition
B:-Waging war against Government of India
C:-Creating enmity between nations
D:-Committing depredation
Question84:-Which provisions of Indian Penal Code extends to extra territorial offences?

A:-Section 2
B:-Section 5
C:-Section 2 and 3
D:-Section 4
Question85:-Which of the following is not an essential ingredient of criminal conspiracy?
A:-There must be two or more persons
B:-There must be an agreement

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C:-The offence must have been committed
D:-The agreement must be to do an illegal act
Question86:-The offence of abetment may be committed in which of the following ways:
A:-By instigating the commission of the offence
B:-By commission of the offence
C:-By preparation to commit the offence
D:-By knowledge of the commission of the offence
Question87:-Any man who monitors the use by a woman of the internet, email or any other form of electronic communication commits the offence
of:
A:-Voyeurism
B:-Stalking
C:-Sexual harassment
D:-Outraging modesty of woman
Question88:-When two or more persons by fighting in public place disturb public peace they are said to commit the offence of:
A:-Thug
B:-Unlawful assembly
C:-Affray
D:-Rioting
Question89:-Which of the following offences is not related to elections?
A:-Bribery
B:-Making or publishing false statements
C:-Illegal payment
D:-Forgery
Question90:-“People are not deterred from murder by the sight of the murderers dangling from a gibbet.†Who made this statement related to
deterrent theory?
A:-Hobhouse
B:-Paton
C:-Salmond
D:-Locke
Question91:-Whoever voluntarily obstruct any person to prevent that person from proceeding in any direction in which that person has a right to
proceed is said to have committed the offence of:
A:-Wrongful restraint
B:-Criminal force
C:-Assault
D:-Wrongful confinement
Question92:-To constitute the offence of trafficking of person, which of the following ingredients are not essential?
A:-Use of threat
B:-Abduction
C:-Consent of the victim
D:-Transportation
Question93:-An act done with the intention to annoy or to do something illegal constitute:
A:-House trespass
B:-Criminal trespass
C:-Trespass
D:-Mischief
Question94:-Which provision under IPC states defamation?
A:-Section 498
B:-Section 499
C:-Section 399
D:-Section 299
Question95:-A threat to injure the reputation of any deceased person in whom the person threatened is interested constitute:
A:-Criminal intimidation
B:-Intentional insult
C:-Conspiracy
D:-Annoyance
Question96:-“Culpable homicide is the genus and murder is its species and all murders are culpable homicides but all culpable homicides are not
murdersâ€. This was observed in the case of:
A:-Rampal Singh v. State of UP
B:-Banta Singh v. State of Punjab
C:-Prabhu v. State of MP
D:-State of AP V. RayavarpuPunayya
Question97:-When a person is induced by another by force or by any deceitful means to go from any place, that another is said to commit:
A:-Trafficking
B:-Kidnapping
C:-Procuration
D:-Abduction
Question98:-In order to constitute the offence of decoity there must be:

A:-Two or more persons
B:-Four or more persons
C:-Five or more persons
D:-Seven or more persons
Question99:-Who propounded the maxim ‘ream linguam non facit nisi mensrea’?
A:-Lord Denning

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B:-Goodhart
C:-Lord Macaulay
D:-Coke
Question100:-In case of gang rape, the fine imposed on the accused by the court shall be paid to:
A:-Legal Services Authority
B:-Victim
C:-Court
D:-Either of the above
Question101:-What is meant by ‘juscogens’ under international law?
A:-Peremptory norm of international law from which derogation is not possible
B:-Customary international law followed by courts
C:-Rules developed through treaties
D:-Precedents of international courts
Question102:-Who defined international law as “the body of general principles and specific rules which are binding upon the members of the
international community in their mutual relations�
A:-Gray
B:-Oppenheim
C:-Charles G Fenwick
D:-Hackworth
Question103:-The doctrine of Pactasuntservanda relates to:
A:-Custom
B:-Treaties
C:-Precedent
D:-Juristic opinions
Question104:-Who remarked international law as the vanishing point of jurisprudence?
A:-Hugo Grotius
B:-Hall
C:-Holland
D:-J G Starke
Question105:-Which of the following is not a source of international law?
A:-Decisions of judicial or arbitral tribunal
B:-General principles of law recognised by civilized nations
C:-Juristic works
D:-Authoritative journals
Question106:-The decision of International Court of Justice:
A:-Binds on all state parties of Statute of ICJ
B:-Binds on the parties in respect of that particular case
C:-Acts as precedent
D:-Binds to national courts
Question107:-When was the United Nations established?
A:-October 24, 1945
B:-November 24, 1945
C:-October2, 1945
D:-November 14, 1945
Question108:-Which of the following is not a function of the Security Council?
A:-Elective functions
B:-Constituent functions
C:-Deliberative functions
D:-Supervisory functions
Question109:-Which Convention codifies the declarative theory of statehood as accepted as part of customary international law?
A:-Vienna Convention 1815
B:-Geneva Convention 1929
C:-Treaty of Versailles 1919
D:-Montevideo Convention 1933
Question110:-Auto-limitation theory was propounded by:
A:-Brierly
B:-Jellinck
C:-Anzilotti
D:-Triepel
Question111:-In the case of Diversion of Water from the Meuse, the Permanent Court of International Justice applied the principle of:
A:-Res judicata
B:-Estoppels
C:-Subrogation
D:-Right and justice
Question112:-Which of the following cases relates to ‘Retroactive effect of Recognition’?
A:-Civil Air Transport Inc v. Central Air Transport Crpn.

B:-Corfu Channel case
C:-Island of Palma’s case
D:-Queen v. Keyn
Question113:-The doctrine of incorporation of international law into national law has exhaustively discussed by the Supreme Court of India in the
case of:
A:-Gramophone Company of India Ltd v. BirendraBahadurPandey& Ors.
B:-Right of Passage over Indian Territory (Portugal v. India)

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C:-D K Basu v. State of West Bengal
D:-M C Mehta v. Union of India(Tanneries case)
Question114:-Who elect the judges of the International Court of Justice?
A:-General Assembly
B:-Security Council
C:-Economic and Social Council
D:-General Assembly and Security Council
Question115:-A state which is completely under the suzerainty of another state is called:
A:-Confederation
B:-Protectorate
C:-Vassal State
D:-Condominium
Question116:-Which of the following theories relate to State recognition?
A:-Transformation theory
B:-Constitutive theory
C:-Dualistic theory
D:-Delegation theory
Question117:-The Passive Personality Principle relates to:
A:-State succession
B:-State jurisdiction
C:-State territory
D:-Nationality
Question118:-The transfer of sovereignty over State territory by the owner of State to another State is:
A:-Prescription
B:-Annexation
C:-Accretion
D:-Cession
Question119:-A new state is admitted into the United Nations by:
A:-General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council
B:-Security Council on the recommendation of General Assembly
C:-General Assembly in consultation with other principal organs
D:-Security Council
Question120:-The Principle of Non Refoulement is related to:
A:-State jurisdiction
B:-State responsibility
C:-Protection of refugees against expulsion
D:-Territorial asylum
Question121:-Which of the following is not a source of administrative law?
A:-Constitutional law
B:-Customary law
C:-Case laws
D:-Ordinances
Question122:-What is ‘Conseild’Etat?
A:-French administrative law
B:-Committee on Minister’s power
C:-French administrative court
D:-Ombudsman system
Question123:-Who originated the principle of ‘rule of law’?
A:-Garner
B:-K C Davis
C:-Wade
D:-Sir Edward Coke
Question124:-Which doctrine placed serious impediments in the path of the development of administrative law?
A:-Separation of powers
B:-Rule of law
C:-Legitimate expectation
D:-Ultra vires
Question125:-The movements of the judiciary to probe into the inner functioning of the other organs of the Government is called:
A:-Judicial review
B:-Judicial activism
C:-Judicial law making
D:-Judicial independence
Question126:-Which of the following statement is not true regarding Independence of judiciary?
A:-Maintains rule of law and fair judicial administration in the country
B:-Controls arbitrary act of administration
C:-Rule of fair justice

D:-Development of Public Interest Litigation
Question127:-Who are administrative authorities under Indian Constitution?
A:-Civil servants and Public servants
B:-Special Commissions
C:-Legislative Committees
D:-Domestic Tribunals

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Question128:-Which of the following Articles of the Constitution incorporates the doctrine of pleasure?
A:-Article 218
B:-Article 310
C:-Article 315
D:-Article 210
Question129:-Henry VIII clause is a method of delegation of legislative power to the executives to:
A:-Bring an act into operation
B:-Fill in details
C:-Impose tax
D:-Modify the statute
Question130:-Article 312 of the Constitution provides for:
A:-Civil servants
B:-Public Service Commission
C:-All India Services
D:-Public servants
Question131:-Which of the following statements regarding public corporation is not true?
A:-A public corporation is not citizen
B:-A public corporation is a state
C:-A public corporation is created by a statute
D:-Employees of public corporation are civil servants
Question132:-The maxim ‘Nemodebetessejudexinpropriacausa’relates to:
A:-Rule against bias
B:-Rule of fair hearing
C:-Reasoned decisions
D:-Amenability to writ jurisdiction
Question133:-The term’ legitimate expectation’ was first used by:
A:-Lord Hewart
B:-Lord Denning
C:-Lord Diplock
D:-Prof K C Davis
Question134:-The decision of the administrative authority is declared void if it is not based on:
A:-Relevant considerations
B:-Irrelevant considerations
C:-Unreasonableness
D:-Mala fide
Question135:-In which of the following cases the Supreme Court has made it clear that “the rules of natural justice can be avoided if its
observance will paralyse the administrative process�
A:-State of Haryana v. Piara Singh
B:-M R F Ltd v.Inspector, Kerala Government
C:-Union of India v. Tulsi Ram Patel
D:-C B Gautam v. Union of India
Question136:-A section in the statute which bars the jurisdiction of the ordinary Courts is termed as:
A:-Henry VIII Clause
B:-Doctrine of exclusion
C:-Non obstante Clause
D:-Ouster clause
Question137:-Right to information has emanated from:
A:-Article 19(1)(a) and Article 21
B:-Article 19
C:-Article 19(1)(c) and Article 14
D:-Article 21 and 22
Question138:-Which one of the following is not a classification of public undertakings?
A:-Public utilities
B:-Unaided educational institutions
C:-Financial undertakings
D:-Development undertakings
Question139:-Which doctrine prevents one party from withdrawing a promise made to a second party if the latter has reasonably relied on that
promise?
A:-Promissory estoppels
B:-Estoppels
C:-Immunity of estoppels
D:-Feeding the grant by estoppels
Question140:-A clause is inserted in the parent act for ousting the jurisdiction of the Courts to review the delegated legislation. This is called:
A:-Implied limit
B:-Express limit
C:-Exclusion clause
D:-Doctrine of ultra vires

Question141:-Incorporeal property does not include:
A:-Lease
B:-Servitudes
C:-Securities
D:-Benefits which arise out of land
Question142:-If the donee dies before the acceptance, the gift is:

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A:-Void
B:-Valid
C:-Voidable
D:-Revoked
Question143:-What is meant by spessuccessionis?
A:-Breach of a condition subsequent
B:-Chance to succeed an estate
C:-Restricted enjoyment
D:-Right to future maintenance
Question144:-Which of the following statement is not true with regard to transfer of property?
A:-Property cannot be transferred for an unlawful object
B:-An easement cannot be transferred
C:-Minor can be a transferor
D:-Every person competent to contract can transfer
Question145:-Condition restraining alienation is:
A:-Void
B:-Voidable
C:-Illegal
D:-Valid
Question146:-When are the rules against perpetuity applied?
A:-Where an interest is created in favour of an unborn persons
B:-Where property is transferred to a minor
C:-Where interest is created in favour of minor
D:-Where conditional transfers are made
Question147:-Which provision of the Transfer of Property Act deals with ‘rule against accumulation of income’?
A:-S.14
B:-S.15
C:-S.16
D:-S.17
Question148:-When there is immediate right of present enjoyment or a present right of future enjoyment, it is called:
A:-Contingent interest
B:-Vested interest
C:-Conditional transfer
D:-Remoteness of vesting
Question149:-Doctrine of Cyprus relates to:
A:-Fulfilment of condition precedent
B:-Direction for accumulation
C:-Present fixed interest
D:-Operation of transfer
Question150:-Which of the following cases deals with the ‘doctrine of election?
A:-Telluson v. Woodford
B:-Whitby v. Mitchell
C:-Cooper v. Cooper
D:-Leek v. Robinson
Question151:-In which of the mortgage possession of property is given to the mortgagee and he can enjoy the property until the debt is satisfied?
A:-Simple mortgage
B:-Usufructuary mortgage
C:-Equitable mortgage
D:-English mortgage
Question152:-A gift burdened with an obligation attached to property is called:
A:-Conditional gift
B:-Contingent gift
C:-Onerous gift
D:-Vested Gift
Question153:-According to Transfer of Property Act, an ‘instrument’ means:
A:-All documents
B:-Non-testamentary documents
C:-Document in writing
D:-Documents that record nature and extent of interest in property
Question154:-A transfer of ownership in exchange for a price paid or promised or part paid or part promised is called:
A:-Lease
B:-License
C:-Mortgage
D:-Sale
Question155:-A leading case on the doctrine of part performance is:
A:-Maddison v. Alderson

B:-Leake v. Rohinson
C:-Underwood v. Wing
D:-Dillon v. Parker
Question156:-A suit to obtain a decree that the mortgagor shall be absolutely debarred of his right to redeem the property mortgaged is called a suit
for:
A:-Subrogation
B:-Foreclosure

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C:-Redemption
D:-Marshalling
Question157:-Which of the following is not correct about lease?
A:-Lease creates interest in property
B:-Lease creates heritable interest
C:-Lease is revocable
D:-Lease is assignable
Question158:-The maxim ‘quic quid plantatur solo solocedit’ relates to:
A:-Fixtures
B:-Waste
C:-Collateral benefits
D:-Eviction
Question159:-‘Caveat emptor’ is the rule associated with:
A:-Lease
B:-License
C:-Sale
D:-Gift
Question160:-The transfer of actionable claims is provided under which provision of the Transfer of Property Act?
A:-S.127
B:-S.130
C:-S.122
D:-S.134
Question161:-Under the Companies Act, 2013, how many persons are required to form a public company?
A:-Two or more persons
B:-Seven or more persons
C:-Five or more persons
D:-Three or more persons
Question162:-The articles of a company shall contain:
A:-Objects of the company
B:-The liabilities of the company
C:-The name of the company
D:-The regulation for the management of the company
Question163:-What is the minimum paid up share capital in case of a public company?
A:-600000
B:-100000
C:-300000
D:-No minimum paid up share capital
Question164:-A company may alter the memorandum by:
A:-Special resolution
B:-Three fourth majority
C:-Two third majority
D:-Simple majority
Question165:-Which of the following is not a method used by public company to issue securities?
A:-Prospectus
B:-Bank securities
C:-Private placement
D:-Rights issue or bonus issue
Question166:-Which provision of the Companies Act, 2013 provides the concept of corporate social responsibility?
A:-S.315
B:-S.245
C:-S.135
D:-S.513
Question167:-What is the maximum number of directors in case of a private company?
A:-15
B:-10
C:-12
D:-No limit
Question168:-The minimum number of meetings to be held by the Board of Directors of a company in a year:
A:-Five
B:-Two
C:-Three
D:-Four
Question169:-Who has the power to call for information, inspect books and conduct inquiries of a company?
A:-Director
B:-Auditor
C:-Registrar

D:-Company board
Question170:-Under Companies Act, 2013 modes of winding up of a company is provided under:
A:-S.260
B:-S.270
C:-S.280
D:-S.290

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Question171:-Any person aggrieved by the order of the National Company Law Tribunal may appeal to the:
A:-High Court
B:-Supreme Court
C:-National Company Law Appellate Tribunal
D:-Company Board
Question172:-The Special Court Judge shall be appointed by:
A:-Central Government
B:-Central Government in consultation with Chief Justice of Supreme Court
C:-Central Government with concurrence of Chief Justice of High Court
D:-Governor of the State
Question173:-Where a company is formed and registered under this Act for a future project or to hold an asset or intellectual property and has no
significant accounting transaction, such a company is called:
A:-Dormant company
B:-Limited company
C:-Special company
D:-Inactive company
Question174:-The balance in Statement of Profit and Loss disclosing allocations and appropriations such as dividend, bonus shares and transfer to or
from reserves, etc are called:
A:-Surplus
B:-Capital reserves
C:-Securities premium reserve
D:-Revaluation reserve
Question175:-The doctrine ‘indoor management’ was introduced in the case of:
A:-Jones v. Lipman
B:-Lee v. Lee’s Air Farming Ltd.
C:-Allen v. Hyatt
D:-Royal British Bank v. Turquand
Question176:-A prospectus which does not include complete particulars of the quantum or price of the securities included therein is called:
A:-Shelf prospectus
B:-Deemed prospectus
C:-Red herring prospectus
D:-Abridged prospectus
Question177:-A voluntary winding up shall be deemed to commence on the date of passing of the resolution for voluntary winding up under:
A:-S. 307
B:-S. 304
C:-S.310
D:-S.309
Question178:-A listed company means a company which has any of its securities listed on:
A:-Securities and Exchange Board of India
B:-Company Law Board
C:-Any recognised stock exchange
D:-The register of the Registrar of Companies
Question179:-Free reserves means such reserves which, as per the latest audited balance sheet of a company, are available for:
A:-Revaluation of assets
B:-Distribution as dividend
C:-Notional gains
D:-Unrealized gains
Question180:-To appoint a person as managing director who has attained the age of seventy years, the company has to pass:
A:-Special resolution
B:-Ordinary resolution
C:-Resolutions requiring special notice
D:-Special resolution with two third majority
Question181:-The maxim ‘A verbislegis non estresidendum’is related to
A:-Golden rule of interpretation
B:-Logical interpretation
C:-Mischief rule of interpretation
D:-Literal rule of interpretation
Question182:-The ‘rule in Heydons Case’ is otherwise known as:
A:-Golden Rule of Interpretation
B:-Literal Rule of Interpretation
C:-Rule of beneficial construction
D:-Mischief Rule of Interpretation
Question183:-Where there are general words following particular and specific words, the general words must be confined to the things of the same
kind as specified. This is based on the rule of:
A:-Harmonious construction
B:-Ejusdem generis
C:-Noscitur a sociis
D:-In parimateria

Question184:-The principle ‘contemporaneoExposito’ states that the language of the statute should be understood in the sense in which it
was passed. Who laid down this principle?
A:-Lord Coke
B:-Maxwell
C:-Lord Dunnedin
D:-Lord Crawford

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Question185:-Which of the following is not an intrinsic aid to interpretation?
A:-Preamble
B:-Illustration
C:-Foreign decisions
D:-Explanation
Question186:-Which doctrine of the Constitution relates to taxation?
A:-Doctrine of pith and substance
B:-Doctrine of immunity of instrumentalities
C:-Doctrine of waiver
D:-Doctrine of implied powers
Question187:-Doctrine of evasion is applicable to:
A:-Interpretation of welfare statute
B:-Interpretation of Constitution
C:-Interpretation of remedial statutes
D:-Interpretation of taxation
Question188:-A statute that recommends certain act or omission and a violation of it would not render the act done or proceedings taken void or
ineffective is:
A:-Mandatory statutes
B:-Perpetual statutes
C:-Declaratory statutes
D:-Directory statutes
Question189:-A statute that makes changes and improvements in the original law to carry out its objects effectively is called:
A:-Amending statutes
B:-Explanatory statutes
C:-Enabling statutes
D:-Curative statutes
Question190:-The process by which a legislation is taken away from the statute book is called:
A:-Repeal
B:-Amendment
C:-Alteration
D:-Evasion
Question191:-The legal maxim ‘qui facit per alium fact per se’ is related with:
A:-Nuisance
B:-Vicarious liability
C:-Absolute liability
D:-Negligence
Question192:-Which of the following cases deals with negligence?
A:-Innes v. Wylie
B:-Hulton Co. V. Jones
C:-Donoghue v.Stevenson
D:-Wilkinson v. Downton
Question193:-Injuria Sine Damno means:
A:-violation of a legal right without causing any harm to the plaintiff
B:-violation of moral right
C:-damage without violation of legal right
D:-violation of legal and moral right
Question194:-The intentional application of force to another person without any lawful justification is called:
A:-Force
B:-Assault
C:-False imprisonment
D:-Battery
Question195:-Which of the following is not a defence to an action for defamation?
A:-Justification
B:-Necessity
C:-Fair comment
D:-Privilege
Question196:-In which of these cases, the rule of strict liability was propounded?
A:-Rylands v. Fletcher
B:-Bolton v. Stone
C:-Bourhill v. Young
D:-Brown v. Cotterill
Question197:-‘The Scienter Rule’ explains:
A:-Trespass
B:-Contributory negligence
C:-Liability for animals
D:-Accident

Question198:-In the landmark case ‘Hall v. Brooklands Auto Racing Club’ the Court remarked which of the following general defences under
law of torts:
A:-Act of God
B:-Necessity
C:-Consent
D:-Statutory authority

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Question199:-The liability of joint tortfeasors is:
A:-Several
B:-Joint
C:-Either joint or several
D:-Joint and several
Question200:-Who is the exponent of Pigeon Hole theory?
A:-Salmond
B:-Winfield
C:-Blackstone
D:-Savigny

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