Kerala CEE LLM 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key

FOR KERALA LLM ENTRANCE PREPARATION

Kerala CEE LLM 2025
Question Paper with
Answer Key
EXAM YEAR TYPE

Kerala LLM Entrance 2025 Question Paper

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Question Paper Code: 23/2025/OL
Exam:LLM 2025
Date of Test: 17-08-2025

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1. Raw materials based on which law creates certain rights and duties are called
A) Facts
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Judgments
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B)

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Documents
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C)
D)
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All the above
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a : Option A
Correct Answer

2. Source of law which consist in declaration of legal rules by a competent authority.
A) Precedents
B) Customs
C) Legislations

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D) All the above

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Law is what the court has decided in respect of any particular set of facts, prior to such a
decision , the opinion of lawyer is only a guess and this cannot be treated as law unless the
3. court so decides by its judicial pronouncement. Consider the above observation and find
which of the statement is correct?
A) Philosophy of Realist school.
B) Law is to be found in social facts and not in formal source of law
C) Certainty of law is a myth
Both (a) and (c)
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D)

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s the following satisfies the essence of the maxim? l a
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Consider the meaning of the maxim ‘cessante ratione legis cessat ipsa lex’ and see which of

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4.

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B) When reason for law ceases law itself ceases
Good law may be rendered ineffective or unconstitutional because of passage of time, as
C)
law changes with the changed circumstances.
D) All of the above.

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Consider the following statements and identify which of the statements reflect the philosophy
5. of Feminist school of thought?
A) Liberalism as the weapon to fight for improvement in the status of women
B) Child bearing and rearing as a matter of celebration
C) Abortion is not foeticide but an act of self defense by a woman against invasion of ‘other’
D) All of the above

Core claim of realist is that judges respond primarily to the stimulus of fact. Whose
6. proposition is this?
A) Karl Llewellyn
B) Brian Leiter
C) Jerome Frank
D) Oliver Wendel Holmes

7. Which of the following represents the attribute of Natural law theory?
A) Lex injusta is non est law
B) Natural laws are commands of human beings
C) Pedigree thesis
D) Separability thesis

People is the ‘cause instrumentalis’ and state is the ‘cause a principalis’ of law. Who laid
8. down this proposition with respect to orgin and source of law.
A) Savigny
B) Ihering
C) Puchta
D) Austin

9. Whose name is associated with Historic Comparative Method
A) Roscoe Pound
B) Jeremy Bentham
C) Henry Maine
D) Thomas Aquinas

10. Which of the following is an instance of constitutum possessorium?

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as A) A lends car to B, later sells it to B
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A owns a car which is in immediate possession of B to whom A lends the car. Later A sells
B)
it to C
C) A purchases car from B who hires out car, and allows B to use the car for hire
D) None of the above

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‘Life of law has not been logic, it has been experience’. Which of the following statement is
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correct with respect to the above posit?

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Central point of Realist school of jurisprudence
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A)
B)
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Central point of Historical school of jurisprudence
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C) It is put forward by Savigny
D) Both (b) and (c)

State which of the following is false with respect to the statement ‘Title is the defacto
12. antecedent of which right is the dejure consequent’?

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A) Title is one of the elements of Right

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B) Title is equal to Right

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C) Title is the set of facts recognized by law
D) Right is the consequence of title
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13. Rule skeptics and Fact skeptics are the two groups under which school of thought?
A) Natural law school
B) Historical school
C) Realist school

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D) Feminist school

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a there is any
by which law deliberately departs from the truth of things lwhether
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sufficient reason for the same or not.
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B) Statute
C) Legal Fiction
D) Legal Presumption

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Match the postulate with the theorists and choose the correct option
A. Eight desiderata I) Lon Fuller
15. B. Volksgeist II) Karl Llewellyn
C. Law Jobs III) Savigny
D. Basic Goods IV) Finnis
A) A-I, B-II, C-III,D-IV
B) A-II,B-IV, C-III, D-I
C) A-II, B-I,C-IV, D-III
D) A-I,B-III,C-II, D-IV

16. Rule of law based on inference drawn from evidence and fact until it is disproved.
A) Delegated Legislation
B) Fictio juris
C) Factum valet
D) Legal presumptions

Rules are minimum content of natural law and are related to facts of human conditions. Who
17. laid down the postulate.
A) Lon Fuller
B) Bentham
C) H.L.A. Hart
D) Austin

Landmark decision of the Supreme Court which reflects the incorporation of principles of
18. natural law into the positive law framework in the process of development of Indian
jurisprudence.
A) Golaknath v State of Punjab
B) Maneka Gandhi v Union of India
C) Keshavan Madhava Menon v State of Bombay
D) Both (b) and (c)

Possession of land by one and easement right enjoyed by another is an example of which
19. type of possession.
A) Derivative possession
B) Concurrent possession
C) Adverse possession
D) Constructive possession

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as Correct Answer : Option B
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Which of the theories relating to concept of Right talks about jural relatives, jural correlatives
20. and jural contradictories?
A) Will theory
B) Interest theory

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Hohfeld’s theory

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C)

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D) All of the above

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l law of Greeks were inspired by
21. Classicalgnatural a g
A) a moral principles
Universal
B) Man made laws
C) Religious edicts
D) Judge made laws

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‘Law is not a set of abstract rules, but what judges actually do when deciding cases’, is the

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line taken by
A) Positivists
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B)
C)
Naturalists
Realists a g
D) Socialists

23. Which of the following is not a character of a valid custom

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A) Antiquity
B)

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Reasonableness
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D) .
c Consistency
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C)

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Opposed to morality

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24. Codification is a defining characteristic of
A) Common law system
B) Civil law system
C) Islamic law system
D) Customary law system

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25. Social solidarity theory was originally propounded by
A) Duguit
B) Pound
C) Durkheim
D) Ross

26. What is the nature of power used to amend the Indian Constitution?
A) Ordinary law making power
B) Primary Constituent Power
C) Secondary Constituent Power
D) Constituted Power

27. Basic Structure doctrine was expressly laid down in which judgment?
A) Sankari Prasad v Union of India
B) Sajjan Singh v State of Rajasthan
C) Kesavananda Bharati v State of Kerala
D) Keshavan Madhava Menon v State of Bombay

Which of these judgments made a significant change in the nature of ninth schedule of the
28. Constitution by limiting its immunity?
A) Charan Lal Sahu v Union of India
B) Kesavananda Bharati v State of Kerala
C) I. R. Coelho v State of Tamil Nadu
D) Glanrock Estate Pvt Ltd v State of Tamil Nadu

29. Which case is referred to as the Second Judges case?
A) Supreme Court Advocates on Record Association & Ors. v Union of India
B) S. P. Gupta v Union of India
C) In Re Special Reference case
D) M.C. Mehta v Union of India

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as ag Whose words are these?
30. “Indian Constitution is first and foremost a social document”.
A) K.C. Wheare
B) Granville Austin
C) Marc Galanter
D) Ivor Jennings

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31. Who among the following is the founding mother of Indian Constitution?

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Dakshayani Velayudan
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A)
B)
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Sucheta Kriplani
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C) Sarojini Naidu
D) All of the above
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled
32. Which of the statement is true with respect to Right to property?
A) Right to property is a fundamental right under Art 19(1) (f)
B) Right to property is a constitutional right under Art 300 A
C) Right to property is a fundamental right under Art 30

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D) Both (a) and (c)

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33. Which of the following is correct with respect to formation of co operative societies?
A) It is a fundamental right under Art 19(1) (c)
B) It is a constitutional directive under Art 43 A
C) It is a constitutional directive under Art 43 B
D) Only (a) and (c)

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Which constitutional provision stipulates the procedural safeguards available to civil
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A) . c e
servants?

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Art 14
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Art 309
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Art 311
Art 312

35. Which of the following is true with respect to Right to education?
A) Fundamental right under Art 21 A of the Constitution

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Statutory right under Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act 2009
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B)
86 th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 inserted Art 21A
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C)

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D) All of the above

36. Which provision of the Constitution talks about setting up of Administrative Tribunals.
A) Art 323B
B) Art 323 A
C) Art 353
D) Art 245

37. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the concept of curative petition?
A) Source of curative petition is Art 137 and Art 142 is invoked to pass orders.
B) Introduced in Rupa Ashok Hurra v Ashok Hurra and Anr.
C) To prevent abuse of the court’s process and to cure gross miscarriage of justice
D) All of the above

38. Fundamental rights conferring protection to accused are enshrined under the Constitution
A) Art 21
B) Art 20
C) Art 22
D) Art 19

39. Right to co determination finds it basis under which provision of the Constitution?
A) Art 21
B) Art 42
C) Art 43A
D) Art 43B

40. Which provision is called the charter of labour rights under the Constiution .
A) Art 42
B) Art 41
C) Art 43
D) Art 39

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as Correct Answer : Option D
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The Amendment to the Constitution which introduced 10 % reservation to Economically
41. Weaker Sections of the society.
A) 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act
B) 104th Constitutional Amendment Act

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105th Constitutional Amendment Act

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C)

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D) 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act

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l is a constitutional mandate under
42. Free legalgaid a g
A) Art 39 a
B) Art 39 A
C) Art 31A
D) Art 41

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Seven judges bench of Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of sub classification

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43. in Scheduled caste and observed that identification of creamy layer qua SC and ST is a
constitutional imperative for the state.
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A)
B)
State of Punjab v Davinder Singh
Ashok Kumar Thakur v. Union of India a g
C) Union of India v. S. Kalugasalamoorthy
D) Janhit Abhiyan v Union of India

The concept of Miranda rights of U.S is reflected under which provision of the Indian
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44.
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Constitution.

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A) Art 19

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B) Art 21

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Art 20 (3)

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Art 20(1)
a Correct Answer : Option C

45. Who described Constituent Assembly of India as a ‘ microcosm in action’ ?
A) Glanville Williams
B) Granville Austin

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Ivor Jennings
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C)

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Edward Coke
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D)

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Procedural and substantive fairness was read under Art 14,19 and 21 creating the doctrine
46. of golden triangle by the Supreme Court in
A) Kesavananda Bharati v State of Kerala
B) Maneka Gandhi v Union of India
C) Minerva Mills v Union of India
D) Francis Coralie v State of Maharashtra

47. Which of the following is not a constitutional machinery?
A) Attorney General for India
B) Election Commission
C) Public Service Commissions
D) NITI Aayog

48. Which one of the following is considered as fraud on the Constitution
A) Colourable legislation
B) Sub delegation
C) Excessive delegation
D) All of the above

49. Which judgment declared Art 124 A of the Constitution unconstitutional?
A) I. R. Coelho v State of Tamil Nadu
B) Supreme Court Advocates on Record Association and Another v. Union of India
C) M.C. Mehta v Union of India
D) K.Veeraswami v Union of India and Others

Which Amendment to the Constitution has conferred constitutional recognition to co-
50. operative society?
A) 96th Constitutional Amendment Act
B) 97th Constitutional Amendment Act
C) 98th Constitutional Amendment Act
D) 99th Constitutional Amendment Act

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as Correct Answer : Option B
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51. Nullum crimen sine lege signifies that
A) Moral standards are the basis of crime
B) Statutory provisions are the basis of crime
C) Standards set by courts are the basis of crimes

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D) Standards set by international law are the basis of crimes

Correct Answer : Option cBo
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s eto a crime, is g l a
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Irrelevantgfor fixing criminality or punishment
52. Motive, leading
A)
B)
a
Relevant for fixing criminality and punishment
C) Not relevant for fixing criminality but may be for punishment
D) Not relevant for fixing punishment but may be for fixing criminality

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53. Eye for an eye and tooth for a tooth, is reflected in the following theory of punishment

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A) Reformatory

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B) Deterrence
Expiatory
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C)
D) Rehabilitative
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled
54. Conspiracy, as an offence, may involve
A) Two or more persons
B) Legal or an illegal act
C) Common object

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All of the above

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D)

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la A ) Includes all omissions
55.
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ag B) Includes omissions that are proscribed
C) Does not include omission
D) None of the above

56.
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Mens rea, as a constituent of crime, is
A) indispensable
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B) dispensable, but only rarely
C) dispensable always
D) dispensable if actus reus is proved

57. A conduct crime does not necessarily require
A) mens rea
B) actus reus
C) consequence
D) none of the above

58. The following is a new punishment introduced into statute dealing with crimes across India
A) death penalty without recourse mercy petition
B) community service
C) life imprisonment with transportation
D) forfeiture of property

59. Recklessness, as a state of mind, involves
A) conscious disregard of an unjustifiable risk
B) unconscious disregard of a justifiable risk
C) desire to bring about a result
D) awareness of the probability of a risk

60. Preparations, before the commission of a crime, are
A) always made equally criminal
B) sometimes made criminal
C) not made criminal under any circumstance
D) not a stage different from a crime

61. The principle of factual causation in criminal law is reflected in
A) but for test
B) proximity test
C) equivocality test
D) social danger test

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as Correct Answer : Option A
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Constructive responsibility, under Indian law, may be invoked where persons act in
62. prosecution of
A) common intention
B) common knowledge

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common object

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C)

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D) none of the above

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ldepending on the offence, may be visited with a punishment a g
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a that of the principal offender
63. An abettor,
A) equal to
B) more than that of the principal offender
C) less than that of the principal offender
D) any of the above

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64.
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A common element in most defences under the Indian criminal law would be
A) lack of intent
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B) lack of knowledge
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C)
D)
not being negligent
good faith
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65. Accident, as a good defence, requires the following to the satisfied
A) lawful act

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B) lawful means

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C) lawful manner

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all the above
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D)

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a 66. India law recognizes mistake as a good defence, when it is a
A) mistake of law alone
B) mixed question of mistake of law and fact
C) mistake of fact alone
D) none of the above

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67. Necessity is a good defence, even if it is done
A) intentionally
B) knowingly
C) deliberately
D) without due care and caution

A person is entitled to the defence of unsoundness of mind, if, at the time of doing the act he
68. is incapable of
A) understanding the nature of the act
B) knowing that what he is doing is wrong
C) knowing that what he doing is contrary to law
D) any of the above

Consent under the Indian criminal law may be given, and accepted as a valid defence, to
69. suffer intentional
A) death
B) grievous hurt
C) simple hurt
D) any of the above

Except for murder and some offences against State, a person may claim defence when she
70. is compelled by threat of
A) Instant loss of property
B) Instant grievous hurt
C) Instant death
D) Any of the above

71. Right of private defence, under the Indian law, extends to
A) One’s own body and property
B) Body and property of near and dear ones
C) Body of property of even strangers
D) All of the above

72. Private defence, under the Indian law, may extend to

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as A) Causing death
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B) Causing grievous hurt
C) Only Causing hurt
D) Any of the above

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73. Offence of culpable homicide amounting to murder requires

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A) Intention only

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a
B) Intention or knowledge

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Intention or knowledge or negligence
a
C)

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No guilty mind
a
D)

74. For calculating fractions, imprisonment for life is reckoned as equivalent to
A) 14 years
B) 14 years, unless otherwise provided
20 years
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C)

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D) 20 years, unless otherwise provided

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75. Sexual intercourse may be an offence,
A) false promise of employment
B) false promise of promotion
C) promise to marry without any such intention
D) any of the above

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Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, unless a contrary intention appears from the context,
76. . s e
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when one person signifies to another his willingness to do or to abstain from doing anything,

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with a view to obtaining the assent of that other to such act or abstinence, he is said to make

la A )
______________.

ag An offer
B) A proposal
C) A contract
D) A proposition

77.
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The Indian Contract Act, 1872, came into force on the ______________.
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Tenth day of October, 1872
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A)

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B) First day of April, 1872
C) First day of September, 1872
D) First day of January, 1873

Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the person making the proposal is called
78. ______________.
A) The “proposer”
B) The “offeror”
C) The “principal”
D) The “promisor”

An agreement not enforceable by law is said to be ____________ under the Indian Contract
79. Act, 1872.
A) Illegal
B) Illegitimate
C) Stale
D) Void

An agreement which is enforceable by law at the option of one or more of the parties
80. thereto, but not at the option of the other or others, is __________.
A) An optional contract
B) A voidable contract
C) A futures contract
D) A contingent contract

81. A contract is defined under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, to be ___________________.
A) An agreement enforceable by law
B) An agreement recognised by law
C) A promise backed by consideration
D) A set of reciprocal promises

82. When is the communication of a proposal said to be complete?
A) It is complete when it is put into the post box and out of the control of the person making it.
B) It is complete when it is written down.

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as C) It is complete when it enters the public domain.
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D) It is complete when it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made.

The Indian Contract Act, 1872, envisages that the acceptance must be absolute and
83. unqualified to ______________.

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Convert an offer into a counter offer.

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A)

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B) Eliminate counter-party risk.

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C) Convert a proposal into a promise.

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Convert a holder into a holder-in-due-course.
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D)

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a
Correct Answer

84. In the context of a proposal or acceptance of any promise, when is it said to be express?
A) It is said to be express when it is made in words.
B) It is said to be express when it is made in person.
C) It is said to be express when it is made using audio-visual means.
D) It is said to be express when it is made over the internet.

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85. Can a patient in a lunatic asylum, contract?
A)
B)
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Yes, lunacy is never a cause for incapacity.
No, such patients are barred from meeting outsiders.
C) No, the patient can never enter a contract.
D) Yes, the patient may contract during intervals of sound mind.

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Which of the following statements are correct?

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A person is competent to contract, only if: -

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(i) The person is of the age of majority according to the law to which they are subject.

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(ii) The person is of sound mind.
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(iii) The person is not disqualified from contracting by any law to which they are subject.

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(iv) The person is an Indian citizen.
a B)
Only (i), (ii), and (iv)
Only (ii), (iii), and (iv)
C) Only (i), (iii), and (iv)
D) Only (i), (ii), and (iii)

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Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, a mistake as to a law not in force in India has the same
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effect as ______________.
m a

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A) A mistake of fact.
B) A mistake of law.
C) An ignorance of law.
D) An ignorance of fact.

Abhay promises, for no consideration, to give to Boban Rs.1,000. What is the nature of this
88. agreement under the provisions of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
A) This is a void agreement.
B) This is a valid agreement.
C) This is an illegal agreement.
D) This agreement is epistemic.

Which of the following statements are correct? Under the provisions of the Indian
Contract Act, 1872, to employ an agent, the principal must be: -
(i) An Indian citizen.
89. (ii) A major according to the law to which he is subject.
(iii) Of sound mind.
(iv) A person.
A) Only (i), (ii), and (iii)
B) Only (ii), (iii), and (iv)
C) Only (i), (iii), and (iv)
D) Only (i) and (iii)

Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) No consideration is necessary to create an agency.
(ii) As between the principal and third persons, any person may become an agent.
90. (iii) An “agent” is a person employed to do any act for another, or to represent another in
dealings with third persons.
(iv) The consideration for agency must be adequate depending on the nature of the agency.
A) Only (i), (ii), and (iii)
B) Only (ii), (iii), and (iv)
C) Only (i), (ii), and (iv)
D) Only (ii), and (iv)

91. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) A proposal is revoked by the communication of notice of revocation by the proposer to the
other party.
(ii) A proposal is revoked by the lapse of the time prescribed in such proposal for its

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as acceptance.
a g
(iii) A proposal is automatically revoked if the acceptor fails to accept it in writing.
(iv) A proposal is revoked by the failure of the acceptor to fulfil a condition precedent to
acceptance.
A) Only (i), (ii), and (iii)
B) Only (i), (iii), and (iv)
C) Only (ii), (iii), and (iv)

m
Only (i), (ii), and (iv)

co
D)

Correct Answer : Option D m .
.co se m
s em statements are correct? g l a
lamadearebycontracts, a
Which of the following

g
(i) Theyaare
All agreements if: -
the free consent of parties competent to contract.
92. (ii) They are made for a lawful consideration.
(iii) They are made with a lawful object.
(iv) They are expressly declared to be void under the law.
A) Only (i), (ii), and (iii)
B) Only (i), (ii), and (iv)
C) Only (i), (iii), and (iv)

m
co
D) Only (ii), (iii), and (iv)

.
s em

g l a
a
Under the provisions of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, which of the following vitiates free
consent?
(i) Undue influence.
93. (ii) Fraud.
(iii) Misrepresentation.
(iv) Economic distress
A) Only (i), (ii), and (iii)
B) Only (i), (ii), and (iv)

m
c. o
C) Only (i), (iii), and (iv)

o m Only (ii), (iii), and (iv)
m
c
D)

. s e
s emCorrect Answer : Option A
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gla 94. Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable ofa being made certain, are
a _______.
A) Voidable.
B) Void.
C) Illegal.
D) Valid.

m . c
c. o s e m
m a

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Alisha, a physicist agrees to pay Navya, a mathematician, 1,000 rupees if two straight lines
95. should enclose a space. The agreement is ______.
A) Valid
B) Illegal
C) A wager
D) Void

Ajay, while on board an English ship on the high seas, criminally intimidates Bobby to enter
96. into an agreement. What is the nature of this agreement?
A) The agreement is a contract void ab initio.
B) The agreement is an illegal contract.
C) The agreement is a contract voidable at the option of Bobby.
D) The agreement is a contract voidable at the option of Ajay.

Ali sells, by auction, to Bibi, a horse which Ali knows to be unsound. Ali says nothing to Bibi
97. about the horse’s unsoundness. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, has Ali committed a
fraud?
Yes. Ali must inform Bibi of all defects about the horse since he is the seller. Not informing
A)
about horses unsoundness is fraud.
Yes. Since it is an auction sale, Ali commits a fraud by not revealing all defects in the horse
B)
to Bibi.
No. Ali does not know about the horse’s unsoundness. Hence, he does not commit fraud by
C)
not telling Bibi of its unsoundness.
No. Mere silence on Ali’s part on facts affecting willingness of Bibi to enter into contract is
D)
not fraud unless he had a duty in the circumstances towards Bibi to speak.

Which of the following acts committed by a party to a contract, with intent to induce the other
party to enter the contract, is considered as fraud under the provisions of the Indian contract
Act, 1872?
98. (i) A promise made without any intention of performing it.
(ii) A promise made with intention of performing it, but could not be performed on account of
pecuniary difficulty.
(iii) The suggestion, as a fact, of that which to his belief is not true.
A) Only (i) and (ii)
B) Only (ii) and (iii)
C) Only (i) and (iii)
D) (i), (ii), and (iii)

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as Ajay and Vijay make a contract grounded on the erroneous
ageffect
99. barred by the Indian Law of Limitation: What, if any, is the
belief that a particular debt is
on the contract?
A) The contract is voidable.
B) The contract is not voidable.
C) The contract is void.
D) The contract is illegal being against public policy.

o m
m . c
.coneither
Xavier agrees to buy from
s e
Prithvi a certain dog. It turns out that the dog was dead at the time
m
agreement? em l a
100. of the bargain, though party was aware of the fact. What is the status of this
s
la is invalid. a g
A)
B) ag
The agreement
The agreement is immoral.
C) The agreement is void.
D) The agreement is illegal.

m
101. The International Court of Justice is situated at ___________.
A) The Hague
. co
em
New York
s
B)
C) Geneva
g l a
a
D) Washington D.C.

The veto power exercising five permanent members of the United Nations Security Council
102. are: -
A) USA, China, Japan, Germany, France

m
B) USA, Russia, China, France, Japan

m c. o
C) USA, Russia, China, UK, France

c. o e m
D) Brazil, South Africa, India, Russia, China

emCorrect Answer : Option C l a s
las a g
g
a 103. Which principle of international law is expressed in the dictum pacta sunt servanda?
A) Agreements are binding.
B) Sovereign is supreme.
C) Sovereignty is subservient to international law.
D) Supremacy of law.

m . c

c. o s e m
m a

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104. Who is celebrated as the father of international law?
A) Suarez
B) Francisco Vitoria
C) Alberico Gentili
D) Hugo Grotius

The ICJ Advisory Opinion in the case Reparation for Injuries Suffered in the Service of the
105. United Nations, following the assassination of Count Bernadotte, an official of the
United Nations, was essentially in relation to a claim against which country?
A) France
B) Jordan
C) Israel
D) Syria

106. What is the Tobar doctrine in relation to recognition of government?
A) Recognition must be automatic for all governments in all circumstances.
Governments which come to power by extra-constitutional means should not be recognised
B)
until the change has been accepted by the people.
C) Recognition of government is solely to be based on de facto control of the State’s territory.
D) Recognition of government is solely to be based on de jure control of the State’s territory.

The 1982 UN Convention on the Law of the Sea provides for the use of the straight baseline
107. system under which of its provisions?
A) Article 5
B) Article 6
C) Article 7
D) Article 10

The 1982 UN Convention on the Law of the Sea provides for the right of hot pursuit of a
108. foreign ship is comprehensively elaborated in which of its provisions?
A) Article 111
B) Article 102
C) Article 122
D) Article 100

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as a g
109. What is the jus soli rule?
A) A child’s citizenship is determined by his or her father’s place of birth.
B) A child’s citizenship is determined by his or her mother’s place of birth.
C) A child’s citizenship is determined by his or her parent’s choice of citizenship.
D) A child’s citizenship is determined by his or her place of birth.

o m
m . c

. o a nationality is recognised under: -
cacquire e m
m International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, and under Article
110. Every child’s right to
Article 24(3) ofethe l s
a7
l a s a g
g
A)
of the Convention on the Right of the Child.
Article a
23(2) of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, and under Article 6
B)
of the Convention on the Right of the Child.
Article 23(1) of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, and under Article
C)
9(1) of the Convention on the Right of the Child.
Article 24(1) of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, and under Article
D)
9(2) of the Convention on the Right of the Child.

o m

. c
m
Property, 2004, notes that “A State enjoyseimmunity, in respect of itself and its property, from
Which provision of the UN Convention on Jurisdictional Immunities of States and their
s subject to the provisions of the present
111. the jurisdiction of the courts of another aState
l
Convention”? a g
A) Article 4
B) Article 3
C) Article 6
D) Article 5

m
m c. o
c. o m
The Convention on Civil Liability for Oil Pollution Damage, 1969, provides for strict liability to
112. whom if oil escaping from a ship causes damage on the territory or territorial
s e
s em la
sea of a contracting party?

gla
A) Charterer
ag
a B)
C)
Shipowner
Captain and crew
D) Shipbuilder

113. Which of the following statements are correct about the International Law Commission?
m . c
(i) It was established by the UN Security Council.

c. o e m
(ii) It was established in the year 1947.

m a s

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(iii) It consists of thirty-four members.
(iv) It has the declared objective of promoting the progressive development of international
law and its codification.
A) Only (i), (ii), and (iii)
B) Only (i), (ii), and (iv)
C) Only (ii), (iii), and (iv)
D) Only (i), (iii), and (iv)

Which of the following statements are correct?
As recognised in the 1970 Declaration on Principles of International Law, sovereign equality
includes the following elements: -
114. (i) Each state enjoys the rights inherent in full sovereignty.
(ii) State are juridically unequal.
(iii) The territorial integrity of the state is inviolable.
(iv) The political independence of the State is inviolable.
A) Only (i), (ii), and (iii)
B) Only (i), (ii), and (iv)
C) Only (ii), (iii), and (iv)
D) Only (i), (iii), and (iv)

Which of the following are correct?
The Vienna Declaration and Programme of Action, adopted in 1993, emphasised that all
human rights were: -
115. (i) Universal
(ii) Indivisible
(iii) Independent
(iv) Interrelated
A) Only (i), (ii), and (iii)
B) Only (i), (ii), and (iv)
C) Only (ii), (iii), and (iv)
D) Only (i), (iii), and (iv)

Which of the following statements are correct?
116. The International Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Racial Discrimination was: -
A) Signed in 1965 and entered into force in 1969.
B) Signed in 1961 and entered into force in 1965.
C) Signed in 1963 and entered into force in 1964.
D) Signed in 1964 and entered into force in 1965.

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as Correct Answer : Option A
a g
The UN General Assembly adopted the Universal Declaration of Human Rights on
117. _____________.
A) 26 December 1948
B) 10 December 1948

m
15 January 1948

co
C)

om .
D) 10 October 1948

.c e m
e m l a s
s

a
l of the UN Charter provides that the United Nations shall promote auniversal g
g
a and observance of, human rights and fundamental freedoms for all?
Which provision
118. respect for,
A) Article 55
B) Article 56
C) Article 57
D) Article 58

m

. co
em
Which of the following statements are correct?

a s
Within the United Nations system, sanctions may be imposed by the Security Council upon
the determination of: -
g l
119. (i) Breach of the peace.
(ii) A threat to hegemonistic supremacy. a
(iii) Act of aggression.
(iv) A threat to the peace.
A) Only (i), (ii), and (iii)
B) Only (i), (ii), and (iv)
C) Only (i), (iii), and (iv)

m
D) Only (ii), (iii), and (iv)

m c. o
c. o e m

em Who is the author of the work Droit des Gens? la s
s
la A ) Vattel
120.
ag
ag B) Samuel Pufendorf
C) St. Thomas Aquinas
D) Hegel

m . c
121. Administrative law is the law relating to the control of governmental power. Who said?
A) K.C. Davis
c. o s e m
m a

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B) Wade
C) Ivor Jennings
D) Garner

122. Which of the statement is wrong with respect to Red light theory on Administrative law?
A) Theory seeks to protect private rights and individual interests
B) Theory favours judicial control
C) Theory emphasizes on political process
D) Theory emerged from a fear of state absolutism

123. Judicial obstinacy as a new form of bias was laid down in which judgment?
A) Maneka Gandhi v Union of India
B) A.K. Kraipak v Union of India
C) State of West Bengal v Shivananda Pathak
D) A. U. Kureshi v High Court of Gujarat

124. Which is a source of Administrative law?
A) Constitution
B) Statutes
C) Precedents
D) All of the above

125. Dicean concept of rule of law does not imply
A) Supremacy of law
B) Equality before law
C) Presence of discretionary power
D) Judge made Constitution

“Executive power connotes the residue of governmental functions that remain after
126. legislative and judicial functions are taken away”. It was observed by Justice Mukherjee in
A) Jayantilal Amritlal Shodhan v. F.N. Rao
B) Central Inland Water Transport Corporation Ltd. v Brojo Nath Ganguly
C) Mahabir Prasad Santosh Kumar v. State of U.P

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as D) Ram Jawaya Kapur v State of Punjab
a g

The real test of ‘duty to act judicially ‘ to distinguish a quasi judicial authority from an
127. administrative authority was finally settled in the historical decision
A) Ridge v Baldwin

m
Dwarka Nath v ITO

co
B)

om .
C) Nakkuda Ali v M.F.De S. Jayaratne

.c e m
s
D) Province of Bombay v Khushaldas Advani

e m l a
l a s
a g
g
128. Which ofa the following statement is true with respect to delegated legislation?
A) A delegate cannot further delegate
B) Essential legislative functions cannot be delegated
C) Ancillary and incidental legislative functions can be delegated
D) All of the above

o m

. c
e m
Power conferred to government to modify the provision of the existing statutes for the
s
129. purpose of removing difficulties is known as

g l a
a
A) Ouster clause
B) Non obstante clause
C) Henry VIII clause
D) None of the above

m
A statute that provides controls but specifies that they are to go into effect only when a given
130. administrative authority fulfills the existence or conditions defined in the statute is
m c. o
c. o m
delegated legislation
e
A)

eCm)
B) colonial legislation
la s
s
la D )
subordinate legislation
ag
ag conditional legislation

“If one person hears and another decides, personal hearing becomes an empty formality”
131. Which of the following statement is false with respect to the above observation?
A) Observed in the context of delegation of quasi judicial and judicial functions
Observed by Subba Rao J. in Gullapalli Nageswara Rao v A.P SRTC
c
B)

m .
c. o m
C) Observed by Hidayatullah J. in Bombay Municipal Corporation v Thondu

m s e
se
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D) Both (a) and (b)

132. Which is not an implication of Finality clause :
A) No writ lies against the decision of the statutory authority.
B) Statutory finality and civil courts are barred from exercising jurisdiction
C) No appeal lies against the decision of the statutory authority
D) Constitutional remedies could be invoked

Match the following
A. Ouster clause I. Nakuda Ali v Jayaratne
133. B. Natural Justice II Anisminic Ltd. v Foreign Compensation Commission
C. Delegated legislation III Ganga Clause
D. Omnibus Curative Clause IV Publication and Consultation
A) A-IV, B-III, C-II,D-I
B) A-III,B-II,C-IV,D-I
C) A-II,B-I,C-IV,D-III
D) A-II,B-IV,C-III,D-I

“These rules can operate only in areas not covered by any law validly made and they do not
134. supplant the law of the land but supplement it”. Which is correct with respect to the
observation?
A) Justice Hegde in A.K. Kraipak v Union of India
B) Rules refer to rules made by the executive
C) Rules refer to principles of natural justice
D) Only (a) and (c)

The grounds for judicial review of administrative action was highlighted by Lord Diplock in
135. the case
A) Chief Constable of the North Wales Police v Evans
B) Council of Civil Service Unions v Minister for the Civil Service
C) R v Secretary of State for Trade and Industry
D) West Minister Corporation v London and North Western Rly.Co.

136. The case in which the doctrine of legitimate expectation made its first appearance is
A) Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corporation

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as B) Schmidt v Secy. of State for Home Affairs
a g
C) O’Reilly v Mackman
D) Breen v Amalgamated Engg. Union

Which is a remedy available to an individual aggrieved by actions of administrative
137. authority?
m
A) Prerogative remedies
om . co
.c e m
s
B) Ombudsman
m
e l a
s
Statutory remedies
g
C)
D)

g l a
All of the above
a
a : Option D
Correct Answer

In certain cases decisions are quashed and directions are issued simultaneously. It is known
138. as
A) Continuing mandamus
B) Anticipatory mandamus

m
C) Certiorarified mandamus
D) Certified mandamus
. co
s em
l a

139. Which of the statement is not true a
g
with respect to contractual liability of government?
A) Art 299 governs the contractual liability of the government
B) Every contract must be expressed to be made by the President or the Governor
C) It must be a formal written contract executed by a duly authorized person
D) None of the above

m

m is the statute that does not ensure transparency and accountability c o
. of government?
co m
A ) . Right to Information Act e
140. Which
m
eB ) Whistle Blowers’ Protection Act l a s
s
la C ) Prevention of Corruption Act a g
ag
D) Official secrets Act

141. Which of the following statement is true with respect to Transfer of Property Act 1882?
A) The Act applies only to immovable property

m . c
c. o
B) The general principles under the Act is applicable to both movable and immovable property

e m
s
The Act deals with specific transfers relating to immovable property.
m
C)

se
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D) All the above

142. Which of the following does not constitute immovable property?
A) Houses and building on the earth
B) Right to profits a prendre
C) Anchor to hold a ship
D) Both (b) and (c)

143. In which of these situations, presumption of constructive notice arises?
A) Fraud or secrecy in transaction
B) Registration of agreement
C) Notice to relatives
D) Both (a) and (c)

Name the doctrine historically established in Bellamy v Sabine which laid down the
144. foundation of Section 52 of Transfer of Property Act .
A) Doctrine of Cy pres
B) Doctrine of Election
C) Doctrine of Lis pendens
D) Doctrine of Part performance

145. Which of these indicates a transfer of property?
A) Easement
B) Charge
C) Sale
D) Both (a) and (b)

146. Which of these statements is false with respect to Spes Successionis?
A) Means a mere chance or expectation of succession
B) It includes chance of an heir apparent succeeding to an estate
C) It is transferrable
D) All the above

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as Correct Answer : Option C
a g
Transfer of property to unborn persons is permitted under certain conditions under the
147. Transfer of Property Act 1882. Which of the following transfer is valid?
A) A transfers property to B, the unborn child of C who is not pregnant at the time of transfer.
A transfers property to B, the unborn child of C, when she was carrying 3 months, by
B)

m
creating a prior life interest in C .

om . co
A transfers property to B for life, C for life and thereafter to unborn child in the womb of C

c m
C)

. e
with absolute interest.
D)
e
Both (b) and (c)
m l a s
l a s a g
ag

The maxim which reflects the meaning ‘ he who acts through another is deemed to act in
148. person’
A) delegatus non potest delegare
B) qui facit per allium facit per se
C) action personalis moritur cum persona
respondeat superior
m
D)

. co
em

l a s
g
Conditions restraining transfer of property is void. Which of the following statements are

a
149. true?
A) Section 10 of Transfer of Property Act declares such transfer void.
B) Only those conditions absolutely restraining transfer are declared void.
C) Conditions may be either conditions precedent or conditions subsequent.
D) All the above.
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled
Match the following

m
c. o
A. Rule against perpetuity I Theluson v Woodford

m
150. B. Spes successionis
c. o
II Ram Navaz v Nandoo
C. Rule against Accumulation III A claim to a debt
e m
em
D. Actionable claim IV Amit Narayan v Gaya Singh
la s
las A) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
ag
ag B)
C)
A-III, B-II, C- IV,D-I
A-IV, B-III, C-II,D-I
D) A- I,B-II,C-III,D- IV

151. Doctrine of Election under Transfer of Property Act

m . c
A) Section 35
B) Section 36
c. o s e m
m a

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C) Section 34
D) Section 33

152. Which are the situations where conditional transfer fails?
A) impossible condition
B) condition forbidden by law
C) condition opposed to morals
D) All of the above

A leases his house to B so long as B resides in the house of A. The lease will remain
153. vested in B as long as he will be residing in that house. What type of transfer is this?
A) void
B) condition precedent
C) condition subsequent
D) collateral condition

A transfer Rs 500 to his niece C, if she will desert her husband. Which of the statement is
154. true with respect to the transfer?
A) Transfer is valid
B) Transfer is void
C) Condition subsequent and hence valid.
D) All the above

No person can transfer a better title than he himself possesses. Which of the following is an
155. exception to the general principle stated above ?
A) Transfer by ostensible owner
B) Transfer by manager in possession of property
C) Transfer by Licensee in possession of property
D) Transfer by a professed agent

The doctrine which encompasses the crux of the maxim ‘ qui prior est tempore potior est
156. jure’.
A) Rule against perpetuity
B) Doctrine of holding out

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as C) Doctrine of priority of rights
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D) Doctrine of lost grant

157. Which of the following does not constitute Fraudulent transfers?
A) Transfer made with the intent to defeat or delay creditors

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B) Transfer under Art 53 of Transfer of Property Act

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C) Involuntary Transfers

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a
D) Preference of one creditor to another with debtor retaining benefits

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a
a
Match the following
A. Sale I Transfer without consideration
158. B. Gift II Right in rem
C. Contract of Sale III Transfer of interest as a security
D. Mortgage IV Right in personam
A) A-II,B-I,C-IV,D-III

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B) A-IV,B-III,C-II,D-I

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C) A-III,B-II,C-IV,D-I

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D) A-I,B-IV,C-III,D-II

l a s
a g
159. Once a mortgage always a mortgage. What does it mean?
A) Mortgagor’s right of redemption can be taken away from him by any law or contract
Right of redemption of mortgagor is indefeasible and cannot be detached from the
B)
mortgagor
C) The mortgage may be redeemed at any time after the principal money has become due.

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D) Both (b) and (c)

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c. o e m

em Which of the following is not a right of mortgagor? la s
s
la A ) Right of redemption
160.
ag
ag B) Right to accession
C) Right to reasonable waste
D) Right of foreclosure

c
The Companies Act, 2013 passed by the Parliament received the assent of the President of
m .
161. India on _______________.
c. o s e m
m a

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A) 30th of October, 2013
B) 29th of August, 2013
C) 1st of January, 2014
D) 21st of December, 2013

Which of the following statements are correct?
Associate company, in relation to another company, means a company in which that other
company has a significant influence. The expression “significant influence” in this
context means: -
162. (i) Control of business decisions under an agreement.
(ii) Control of at least twenty-five per cent of total voting power.
(iii) Participation in business decisions under an agreement.
(iv) Control of at least twenty per cent of total voting power.
A) Only (i), (ii), and (iii)
B) Only (ii), (iii), and (iv)
C) Only (i), (ii), and (iv)
D) Only (i), (iii), and (iv)

163. Under the Companies Act, 2013, ‘called-up capital’ means such part of the capital: -
A) Which is already expended.
B) Which has been called for payment.
C) Which is available for distribution to members on liquidation of the company.
D) Which is available for settlement of dues to government on liquidation of the company.

Under the Companies Act, 2013, the ‘financial statement’ in relation to a company, includes:
-
(i) A profit and loss account for the financial year.
164. (ii) A balance sheet as at the end of the calendar year.
(iii) A statement of changes in equity, if applicable.
(iv) An income and expenditure account for the financial year in case of not-for-profit
companies.
A) Only (i), (ii), and (iii)
B) Only (ii), (iii), and (iv)
C) Only (i), (ii), and (iv)
D) Only (i), (iii), and (iv)

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as Under the Companies Act, 2013, the financial statement g
statement with respect to: -
amay not include the cash flow
(i) One person company.
165. (ii) Small company.
(iii) Dormant company.
(iv) Shell company.
A) Only (i), (ii), and (iii)

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B) Only (ii), (iii), and (iv)

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C) Only (i), (ii), and (iv)

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D) Only (i), (iii), and (iv)

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l a s
a g
Where aag share of a company is held in depository form, the ______________ is the prima
166. facie evidence of the interest of the beneficial owner.
A) Articles of association
B) Record of the depository
C) Minutes of the relevant board meeting
D) Physical share certificate

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c

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s
Which of the following statements are correct?
e if such certificate: -
l a
A duplicate certificate of shares may be issued,
g
a to the company.
(i) Is proved to have been lost, or destroyed.
167. (ii) Has been defaced, and is surrendered
(iii) Has been mutilated, or torn and is surrendered to the company.
(iv) Has been pledged to the company.
A) Only (i), (ii), and (iii)
B) Only (i), (ii), and (iv)
C) Only (i), (iii), and (iv)

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D) Only (ii), (iii), and (iv)

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c. o m

s e
s em Which g l ain any manner
la
of the following statements are correct?

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A company may issue fully paid-up bonus shares to its members,

a 168. (i) The capital redemption reserve account.
whatsoever, out of: -

(ii) The securities premium account.
(iii) The surplus in profit and loss account on measurement of the asset or the liability at fair
value.
(iv) Its free reserves.
A) Only (i), (ii), and (iii)

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B) Only (i), (ii), and (iv)
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C) Only (i), (iii), and (iv)

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se
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D) Only (ii), (iii), and (iv)

Which of the following statements are correct in relation to sweat equity shares?
(i) They may be issued by a company to its directors at a discount.
169. (ii) They may be issued by a company for consideration other than cash.
(iii) They shall not be issued to the employees of the company.
(iv) They may be issued to the directors for providing know-how to the company.
A) Only (i), (ii), and (iii)
B) Only (i), (ii), and (iv)
C) Only (i), (iii), and (iv)
D) Only (ii), (iii), and (iv)

The National Company Law Tribunal is constituted under _____________ of the Companies
170. Act, 2013.
A) Section 406
B) Section 407
C) Section 408
D) Section 409

Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) Every company shall keep at its registered office a register of charges.
171. (ii) The register of charges shall be open for inspection during business hours.
(iii) Any member may inspect the register of charges without any payment of fees.
(iv) Any creditor may inspect the register of charges only on payment of the prescribed fees.
A) Only (i), (ii), and (iii)
B) Only (i), (ii), and (iv)
C) Only (i), (iii), and (iv)
D) Only (ii), (iii), and (iv)

The approval of the company ________________ is required for any variation in objects for
172. which a prospectus was issued.
A) By way of special resolution in general meeting.
B) Through an ordinary resolution in debenture holders meeting.
C) By way of an ordinary resolution in preference shareholders meeting
D) By way of an extra-ordinary resolution in bond holders meeting

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as Correct Answer : Option A
a g
Which of the following statements are correct about Section 8 companies?
(i) It is a limited company.
173. (ii) It is prohibited from payment of any dividend to its members.
(iii) It applies its profits in promoting its objects
(iv) A firm may not be its member.
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Only (i), (ii), and (iii)

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A)

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Only (i), (ii), and (iv)
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B)
C)
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Only (i), (iii), and (iv)
e l a s
D)
a s
Only (ii), (iii), and (iv)
l : Option A a g
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Correct Answer

Which of the following statements are correct in relation to the effect of registration of a
company under the Companies Act, 2013?
(i) The members of the company becomes a body corporate.
174. (ii) The body corporate shall have perpetual succession.
(iii) The body corporate shall not use the name contained in the memorandum.

m
(iv) The body corporate can acquire and hold property in its name.

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A) Only (i), (ii), and (iii)

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B) Only (i), (ii), and (iv)
C) Only (i), (iii), and (iv)
l a s
D) Only (ii), (iii), and (iv)
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Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) A company may change its Memorandum of Association after its incorporation.
(ii) Any change in the name of a company is subject to the provisions of Section 4 of the
Companies Act, 2013.

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175. (iii) The memorandum of a company shall state the name of the company with the last word

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“Limited” in the case of a public limited company.

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(iv) A person may make an application to the Central Government for the reservation of a

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name set out in the application as the name to which the company proposes to change its

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name.

gla A) Only (i), (ii), and (iii)
a B)
C)
Only (i), (ii), and (iv)
Only (i), (iii), and (iv)
D) Only (ii), (iii), and (iv)

176. Which of the following statements are correct?
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c. o
(i) A “holding company”, in relation to one or more other companies, means a company of
which such companies are subsidiary companies.
e m
m a s

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(ii) Government companies are proscribed from being holding companies.
(iii) No company shall, either by itself or through its nominees, hold any shares in its holding
company.
(iv) No holding company shall allot or transfer its shares to any of its subsidiary companies.
A) Only (i), (ii), and (iii)
B) Only (i), (ii), and (iv)
C) Only (i), (iii), and (iv)
D) Only (ii), (iii), and (iv)

Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A document may be served on a company by sending it to the company at its registered
office: -
177. (i) Only by registered post.
(ii) By speed post.
(iii) By courier service.
(iv) By leaving it at its registered office.
A) Only (i), and (iv)
B) Only (i)
C) Only (i), (ii), and (iv)
D) Only (ii), (iii), and (iv)

Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) A red herring prospectus may be issued prior to the issue of a prospectus.
178. (ii) The shares of any member in a company shall be movable property.
(iii) The debentures of any member in a company shall be movable property.
(iv) The interest of any member in a company shall be not be movable property.
A) Only (i), (ii), and (iii)
B) Only (i), and (ii)
C) Only (ii), and (iii)
D) Only (ii), and (iv)

No company shall change the place of its registered office from the jurisdiction of one
179. Registrar to the jurisdiction of another Registrar within the same State unless such change is
confirmed by _____________.
A) The Central Government
B) The State Government
C) The Regional Director
D) Both the Registrars of Companies

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as Correct Answer : Option C
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On request from a member, the company shall, subject to the payment of the prescribed fee,
180. send a copy of the memorandum of association to him, within ____________.
A) Three days of the request.
B) Seven days of the request.

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Ten days of the request.

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C)

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D) Thirty days of the request.

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s

a
l following statements are correct? a g
a g
Which of the
When the language of a statute is ambiguous, the factors that may be taken into
consideration to ascertain its intention are: -
181. (i) The preamble to the statute.
(ii) The statement of objects of and reasons for bringing it on the statute book.
(iii) Public opinion.
(iv) The purpose underlying the legislation.
A) Only (i), (ii), and (iii)

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Only (i), (ii), and (iv)

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B)

.
C) Only (i), (iii), and (iv)

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D) Only (ii), (iii), and (iv)

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a

It is a well settled canon of interpretation of statutes that _______________ must be
182. regarded as the only source of its intention.
A) The language used by the legislature.
B) The elucidation provided by the petitioners.
C) The assertion of the executive.

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D) Its understanding by a reasonable man.

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c. o e m

m Choose the most appropriate option.
e183. l a s
las a g
g
Where an Act confers a jurisdiction, it impliedly also grants _______________, as are
a A)
essentially necessary to its execution.
The budgetary allocation and appropriation.
B) Untrammelled administrative power.
C) The power of doing all such acts, or employing such means.
D) Unrestricted discretionary power.

c

m .
c. o s e m
m a

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The phrase “cum inverbis nulla ambiguitas est, non debet admitti voluntatis quaestio”, in the
184. context of tax law, provides: -
A) The plain meaning rule.
B) The mischief rule.
C) The golden rule.
D) The sigma rules.

185. The rule of interpretation is that the taxation statute must be interpreted ____.
A) Contextually.
B) Socialistically.
C) Equitably.
D) Strictly

186. What does the Latin maxim ut res magis valeat quam pereat, imply?
A) A penal statute must be strictly interpreted.
B) The statute shall be interpreted only by the magistrate (judiciary).
C) The provision of a statute must be so construed as to make it effective and operative.
D) Taxation is not a penal measure.

What best describes the purport of the Latin maxim ubi lex non distinguit nec nos distinguere
187. debemos?
A) Courts must distinguish where the law does not.
B) Where the law makes no distinctions, one does not distinguish.
C) Statutory distinctions are legal in so far as they are rational.
D) Statutory distinctions shall not bind the judiciary.

In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India observe that in a penal
statute it is the duty of the Court to interpret words of ambiguous meaning in a broad and
188. liberal sense so that they will not become traps for honest, unlearned (in the law) and
unwary men
A) The Seksaria Cotton Mills Ltd v. The State of Bombay.
B) Prakash Nath Khanna v. CIT
C) M/s Hiralal Ratanlal v. STO
D) SEBI v. Ajay Agarwal

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as Which of the following statements are correct?
a g
A construction may be put upon the language of the statute which modifies the meaning of
the words and even the structure of the sentence, in cases where its ordinary meaning and
grammatical construction: -
189. (i) Leads to a manifest contradiction of the apparent purpose of the enactment.
(ii) Leads to some unintended inconvenience.
(iii) Leads to some unintended absurdity.
m
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(iv) Leads to fulfilment of the apparent purpose of the enactment.

om m .
Only (i), (ii), and (iii)
c
A)

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Only (i), (ii), and (iv)
se
a
B)

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Only (i), (iii), and (iv)
g l
a
C)

g l
Only (ii), (iii), and (iv)
a
a
D)

190. What does the Latin maxim generalia specialibus non derogant, mean?
A) All laws yields to the fundamental law.
B) Special law yields to general law.
C) General law yields to special law.
m
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Special laws do not yield generally.
.
D)

s em
a

191. Right not to be subjected to tort is a
l
g against
available
A) State alone
B) Persons specifically undertaking duties
C) the whole world
D) persons in close relation

m
m v. White (1703) is a case related to c. o
coInjuria sine damno m
192. Ashby
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eBm) Damnum sine injuria la
A)

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la C ) Strict liability ag
ag D) Volenti non fit injuria

193. Killing of a human being by another is a
A) Crime

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B) Tort

c. o e m
C) Both

m a s

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D) Neither a crime nor a tort

194. Damages in tort are
A) Pre-determined always
B) Unliquidated
C) Liquidated
D) Based on contract

195. Donoghue v. Stevenson represents the liability on the ground of
A) Duty of care to your neighbour
B) Breach contract liability
C) Right of the purchaser of a product
D) Retailers liability to the consumer

196. For a consent to be valid, to avoid liability, it must be
A) free
B) informed
C) not vitiated
D) all of the above

197. modern day relation between right and remedies can be described as
A) ubi jus ibi remedium
B) ibi remedium ubi jus
C) Actus curiae neminem gravabit
D) None of the above

198. Res ipsa loquitor translates to
A) One who does through another does it himself
B) Equity knows no laws
C) The thing speaks for itself
D) One who consents cannot claim to be injured

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as Correct Answer : Option C
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199. Remoteness of damages was laid down as a principle in
A) Rylands v. Fletcher
B) Hadley v. Baxendale
C) Donoghue v. Stevenson

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D) Ashby v. White

Correct Answer : Option cBo
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e
200. A driver, withaas licence, driving in a rash manner may be committing g l a
g l a
A)
B)
a
Malfeasance
Misfeasance
C) Nonfeasance
D) None of the above

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s em
g l a
a

m
m c. o
c. o s e m
s em la
gla ag
a

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c. o s e m
m a

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