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MAHA SET 2015 Question Paper 3 Earth Atmospheric Ocean _ Planetary Science

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Page 1

Test Booklet No.
M
EARTH, ATMOSPHERIC, OCEAN & PLANETARY SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator Seat No.
1. (Signature) ......................................... (In figures as in Admit Card)
(Name) ................................................ Seat No. ..............................................................
2. (Signature) ......................................... (In words)

(Name) ................................................ OMR Sheet No.
AUG-35315 (To be filled by the Candidate)
Time Allowed : 2½ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 150
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided 1.
on the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of 75 objective type questions. Each question
will carry two marks. All questions of Paper-III will be compulsory, 2.
covering entire syllabus (including all electives, without options).
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are
requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as 3.
follows :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
(i)
a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions
in the booklet with the information printed on the (ii)
cover page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/
questions or questions repeated or not in serial
o rder or any other discre pancy should not be
accepted and correct booklet should be obtained
from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes.
Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be
replaced nor any extra time will be given. The same
may please be noted.
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
should be entered on this Test Booklet. (iii)
4. Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item. 4. (A), (B), (C) (D)
Example : where (C) is the correct response.

A B D
(C)
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place A B D
other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
5.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put 6.
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space 7.
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your 8.
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the
end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with 9.
you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed
to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 10.
11. Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited. 11.
12. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers. 12.

Page 2

2

Page 3

Earth, Atmospheric, Ocean & Planetary Science
Paper III
Time Allowed : 2½ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 150

Note : This paper contains Seventy Five (75) multiple choice questions. Each

question carries Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

1. In a recumbent fold, the axial plane 3. Which one of the following is not
dips nearly at :
considered as indicator for finding
(A) 90º
blind ore deposits ?
(B) 45º
(A) Stratification
(C) 25º

(D) 0º (B) Gossans

2. A strike fault is the one in
(C) Leaching
which :

(A) The two blocks move parallel to (D) Alteration hollows
the strike of the fault plane
4. The upper mantle occurs at a depth
(B) The two blocks move parallel to
the strike of the beds of :

(C) The two blocks move (A) 100 km
perpendicular to the strike of
the beds present (B) 410 km

(D) The two blocks move (C) 660 km
perpendicular to the strike of
the fault plane (D) 2900 km

3 [P.T.O.

Page 4

5. The reservoir rocks of Barmer basin 7. In the electrical resistivity method

belongs to :
the distance between the electrodes
(A) Fatehgarh Group
is kept same in the following
(B) Akli Formation
configuration.
(C) Dharvi Dongar Formation
(A) Schlumberger method
(D) Barmer Hill Formation

6. The correct sequence of terms for (B) Wenner method

isolines joining places of equal
(C) Dipole-Dipole method
barometric pressure, equal
(D) Self-potential method
sunshine, equal amount of rainfall

and equal degree of cloudiness is : 8. The experimentally determined

(A) Isobars—Isoneph—Isohyets—
measure of the size of an earthquake
Isohels
is called :
(B) Isobars—Isomer—Isotherm—

Isohels (A) Intensity

(C) Isobars—Isohels—Isohyets— (B) Magnitude

Isoneph
(C) Moment
(D) Isallobar—Isohels—Isohyets—

Isoneph (D) Attenuation

4

Page 5

9. The seismic wave velocity layers 11. The shape of a grain as per Zingg’s
corresponding to the ophiolitic
classification is prolate (rod shaped)
sequence :
when :
(I) Layer-2 (a) Pillow Lava
b 2 c 2
(A) is < and is <
(II) Layer-3 (b) Sheeted dykes a 3 b 3
b 2 c 2
(III) Layer-4 (c) Peridotite (B) is < and is >
a 3 b 3

(I) (II) (III) b 2 c 2
(C) is > and is <
a 3 b 3
(A) (b) (a) (c) b 2 c 2
(D) is > and is >
a 3 b 3
(B) (b) (c) (a)
(where a = length; b = width,
(C) (c) (a) (b)
c = thickness
(D) (a) (b) (c)

10. Through flow is commonly a major 12. Which are characterise the grain

component of run off in : supported limestone ?

(A) Densely vegetated regions
(A) Wackstone
(B) Areas underlained by jointed
(B) Packstone
rocks

(C) Hilly terrain with steep slopes (C) Boundstone

(D) Sparsely vegetated regions (D) Dolostone

5 [P.T.O.

Page 6

13. The values of vitrinite reflectance 15. Which of the following series of

sedimentary rock progressively low-
(R0) for crude oil generation varies
energy of deposition ?
between :
(A) Shale, sandstone, conglomerate

(A) 0.1 to 0.5
(B) Conglomerate, Sandstone,

(B) 0.6 to 1.5 Shale

(C) Conglomerate, Shale,
(C) 1.6 to 2.5
Sandstone

(D) above 2.5
(D) Sandstone, Shale,

14. Which of the following is irregular Conglomerate

echinoid genus ? 16. In the thermodynamics, the activity

of the gases is referred to as :
(A) Micraster
(A) Phase rule

(B) Cidaris
(B) Eutectic

(C) Hemicidaris (C) Fugacity

(D) Clypeaster (D) Molality

6

Page 7

18. One of the following statements
17. Star-dune are associated with :
about suspended sediment load is

(A) Bi-directional wind and correct. Choose the correct answer.

restricted sediment supply (A) Suspended sediment load

decreases with increase in
(B) Uni-directional wind
discharge

and restricted sediment
(B) Suspended sediment load

supply decreases with increase in

catchment area
(C) Multi-directional wind
(C) Suspended sediment load
and abundant wind
increases with increase in

supply catchment area and discharge

(D) Suspended sediment load
(D) Multi-directional wind

increases with catchment area
and limited wind
but decreases with an increase

supply
in discharge

7 [P.T.O.

Page 8

19. The most characteristic features of 21. Ductile shear zones have

Archean greenstone sequences is :
characteristic rock type known

(A) Abundant lamprophyres
as :

(B) Abundant ophiolites
(A) Mylonites
(C) Abundant Komatite-basalts
(B) Non-foliated conglomerates
(D) Abundant boninites

(C) Non-foliated granites
20. Randomly oriented plagioclase

feldspar laths nearly enclosed in (D) Non-foliated sandstones

pyroxene grain where laths are not
22. Which of the following is not a
bigger than enclosing grain
remote sensing satellite ?
exhibit :

(A) IRS 1A
(A) Poiklitic texture

(B) Porphyritic texture (B) Cartosat

(C) Ophitic texture (C) Resource sat

(D) Idiomorphic texture
(D) IRNSS

8

Page 9

23. Basalts containing more than 5%
25. The daughter crystals from fluid
normative nepheline are termed

as : inclusions help to know

(A) Nephelinite
the..........................of mineral media.
(B) Melanephelinite

(C) Basanite (A) Pressure

(D) Phonolite
(B) Temperature
24. Match the morphological features in

List-I with the corresponding fossils (C) Salinity
in List-II :
(D) Viscosity
List-I List-II

(a) Pedicle opening (1) Trilobita
26. Which one of the following is not a
(b) Thorax (2) Echinoidea
step of exploration of ore deposits ?
(c) Periproct (3) Brachiopoda

(d) Cardinal (4) Anthozoa (A) Feasibility study

fossula
(B) Blending
(A) (a—3) (b—2) (c—1) (d—4)

(B) (a—4) (b—2) (c—1) (d—3) (C) Mine-development

(C) (a—3) (b—1) (c—2) (d—4)
(D) Smelting
(D) (a—4) (b—1) (c—2) (d—3)

9 [P.T.O.

Page 10

29. Iron ore deposits of India were
27. The only productive gold mine in

formed during :
India is located at :
(A) Cenozoic

(A) Hutti (B) Mesozoic

(C) Precambrian
(B) Kolar

(D) Hadean
(C) Ramagiri
30. Ophiolites represent :

(D) Ajjanahalli
(A) abducted slices of deep sea

sediments, oceanic crust and
28. The composition of Sapphire is :
upper mantle in orogenic belts

(A) Al2O3
(B) basaltic eruptions in island

arcs
(B) CaTiO3

(C) Ultramafic intrusions in
(C) Al2SiO5
continental shield areas

(D) Al2(OH)Si2O7 (D) Alkaline rocks in oceanic islands

10

Page 11

31. Which one of the following 33. If the quantification level of a sensor

statements about geostationary is 128, how many colour shades can

satellite is not true ? be generated using three basic

(A) They are located at about 36000 additive colours ?

km (A) (27)3

(B) They are particularly useful for (B) (26)3

communication
(C) (28)3

(C) They do not revolve round the
(D) (29)3
earth
34. The ore deposits irrespective of their
(D) They are at a fixed location and
morphology, restricted to a fairly
not moving
limited stratigraphical range within

32. Translation of locational information the strata of a particular region are

in numeric format is called as : called :

(A) Geocoding (A) Stratiform

(B) Geo-referencing (B) Podiform

(C) Degitization (C) Strata-bound

(D) Digitation (D) Porphyry

11 [P.T.O.

Page 12

35. The rock consisting of milimeter size 37. The stromatolitic phosphorites of

grains of quartz and feldspar with Rajasthan belong to :

allotriomorphic granular texture are
(A) Udaipur formation
called :
(B) Sirohi formation
(A) Pegmatites
(C) Jhamarkotra formation
(B) Trachyte
(D) Champaner Group
(C) Andesite
38. The direction of Ekman transport
(D) Aplite
which is confined to top 10 to 100 m
36. If the ratio of plagioclase and
of the ocean is :
clinopyroxene crystals per unit
(A) 90º
volume of rock is less than 1, the
(B) 30º
texture is :

(C) 45º
(A) Intergranular

(D) 60º
(B) ophitic

(C) Subophitic to the right of the wind direction in

the Northern Hemisphere.
(D) Protogranular

12

Page 13

39. Gulf Stream is the :
41. Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone
(A) Largest of the Western
(ITCZ) is in the tropical latitudes
boundary currents

(B) Largest of the Eastern where :

boundary currents
(A) Ocean currents from Southern
(C) Trade wind driven North

Equatorial Currents and Northern hemisphere

(D) Trade wind driven South
converge
Equatorial Currents

40. The Quasi-Biennial Oscillation (B) Easterly and Westerly winds

(QBO) is a quasi-periodic oscillation
converge
of the equatorial zonal wind between

Easterlies and Westerlies with a (C) South-easterly and North-
mean period of 28 to 29 months
easterly winds converge
occurring in the :

(A) Tropical Mesosphere (D) Arabian Sea, Bay of Bengal

(B) Tropical Ionosphere
and Indian Ocean currents
(C) Tropical Stratosphere

converge
(D) Tropical Boundary Layer
13 [P.T.O.

Page 14

43. Stepped leader and return stroke are
42. Virtual temperature is the
associated with :

temperature that the dry air must (A) Intracloud lightning Discharges

(B) Cloud to Ground Lightning
have in order to : Discharges

(C) Air Discharges
(A) Have the same density as that
(D) Upward Lightning Discharges

of moist air at the same 44. Bergeron-Findeisen process depends
on the fact that in mixed phase
pressure clouds :

(A) Air is supersaturated with
(B) Have the same pressure as that
respect to water and
subsaturated with ice at the
of moist air at the same density
same temperature

(B) The saturation vapor pressure
(C) Have the same acceleration due
over water is less as compared

to gravity as that of moist air to that over ice at the same
temperature
at the same density (C) The saturation vapor pressure
over water is more as compared
(D) Have the same acceleration due to that over ice at the same
temperature
to gravity as that of moist air
(D) Water drops grow at the
expense of ice crystals
at the same pressure

14

Page 15

45. Available potential energy is :
47. Match the following Tropical

(A) The amount of energy that can
Weather Systems :
be converted into kinetic

energy
(a) Low Pressure (1) 34-47 knots

(B) The difference between internal

energy and potential energy Area

(C) The difference between internal
(b) Depression (2) 28-33 knots
energy and kinetic energy

(D) The difference between solar (c) Deep Depression (3) 17-27 knots

energy and potential energy
(d) Cyclonic Storm (4) Less than
46. A satellite in a geostationary orbit

will be approximately at a distance 17 knots

of :
(A) (a—1) (b—3) (c—4) (d—2)
(A) 360 km

(B) 860 km (B) (a—2) (b—3) (c—4) (d—1)

(C) 8,600 km
(C) (a—4) (b—3) (c—2) (d—1)
(D) 36,000 km

above mean sea level. (D) (a—3) (b—4) (c—1) (d—2)

15 [P.T.O.

Page 16

48. The mineral assemblage quartz- 50. Peridotite containing olivine and

sapphrine is characteristic of : orthopyroxene as essential minerals

(A) Amphibolite facies is known as :

(B) Eclogite facies (A) Wherlite

(C) Blue schist facies (B) Harzburgite

(D) Ultra-High Temperature (UHT) (C) Lherzolite

metamorphism
(D) Limburgite

49. Ocean Island Basalts (OIB) derived
51. Which one of the following refers to

from :
Darcy’s law ?

(A) Lower crust
(A) Q = KA(H/L)

(B) Depleted mantle
(B) Q = TiA

(C) Subcontinental mantle
(C) Q = KnA

(D) Primitive mantle
(D) Q = ViA

16

Page 17

52. Aerial photography does not cover 54. Radioactive decay of 235U gives rise

the wavelength of : to stable daughter product of :

(A) UV (A) 204Pb

(B) Visible par (B) 206Pb

(C) Near I.R. (C) 208Pb

(D) Far I.R. (D) 207Pb

53. Positive Ce anomalies in sediments 55. The age of the oldest rocks in

indicate : Dharwar craton is :

(A) Reducing environments (A) 1500-2000 Ma

(B) Oxidizing environments (B) 2000-2500 Ma

(C) Low pH conditions (C) 2500-3000 Ma

(D) High pH conditions (D) > 3000 Ma

17 [P.T.O.

Page 18

56. In the lithostratigraphic sub-
58. With increase in temperature above

division of Cuddapah supergroup,
800ºC Garnet-Cordierite breaks
the bottom most unit is :

down to :
(A) Nallamalai Group

(B) Chitravati Group (A) Sillimanite—Quartz

(C) Papaghni Group
(B) Plagioclase—Orthopyroxene
(D) Krishna Group
(C) Quartz—Orthopyroxene
57. High rates of crystal growth during

Archean caused by : (D) Orthopyroxene—Sillimanite

(A) High geothermal gradients and
59. Which one of the following elements
rapid movement of oceanic

plates substitutes Rb in feldspar ?

(B) High geothermal gradients and
(A) Ca
slow movement of plates
(B) Na
(C) Low geothermal gradients and

slow movement of plates (C) Si

(D) Colder Archean mantle and
(D) K
larger rigid oceanic plates

18

Page 19

62. The characteristic mineral of blue-
60. The characteristic mineral that
schist facies is :
marks the onset of granulite facies
(A) Lawsonite

metamorphism is :
(B) Omphacite

(A) Garnet (C) Glaucophane

(D) Albite
(B) Orthopyroxene

63. Which of the following engineering
(C) Cordierite
properties are applicable to rocks

(D) Staurolite used as aggregates ?

(A) Jack test, crushing strength and
61. Which of the following minerals is
tensile strength

a ring silicate ?
(B) Tensile strength, density and

(A) Pyrophyllite hardness

(C) Hardness, hydrophobic and
(B) Enstatite
binding properties

(C) Forsterite (D) Binding property, shear

strength and durability
(D) Tourmaline

19 [P.T.O.

Page 20

66. Which of the following sub-divisions
64. The first primitive mammals
of the Himalaya is constituted of

appeared during : crystalline metamorphic rocks

only ?
(A) Traissic
(A) Lesser Himalaya

(B) Palaeocene (B) Tethys Himalaya

(C) Outer Himalaya
(C) Carboniferous
(D) Greater Himalaya

(D) Permian 67. A sample collected from a depth of

11 cm from the surface was

65. Crustal shortening takes place due subjected to lead isotopic studies

indicated its concentration reduct to
to :
half. If the half life of lead-210 is

22 years, what will be the rate of
(A) Normal faulting
sediment accumulation ?

(B) Folding and Thrusting (A) 2 cm / year

(B) 1 cm / year
(C) Strike-slip faulting
(C) .5 cm / year

(D) Only folding
(D) .25 cm / year

20

Page 21

68. Stand up time is a term in 70. Choose the correct statement :

(I) The lameta beds occurring
Engineering Geology is associated
below Deccan traps is of Eocene

with : age

(II) The lameta beds are deposited

(A) Dams in fluviatile and esturine
environment

(B) Bridges (III) Intertrapean beds formed
during the interval between
(C) Tunnels successive erruption are
essentially marine

(D) Landslides (IV) Deccan trap volcanism started
during early Eocene of these
69. The movement of water parallel to (A) (I) and (II) are correct

(B) (III) and (IV) are correct
the shore within the surf zone is
(C) Only (II) is correct
termed as : (D) (I), (II) and (IV) are correct
71. Which one of the following marks
(A) Tidal current the boundary between the
continental crust and oceanic
(B) Longshore current crust ?
(A) Continental slope
(C) Salinity current
(B) Continental rise
(C) Continental shelf
(D) Rip current
(D) Abyssal plain

21 [P.T.O.

Page 22

72. Based on the cross-cutting
73. The nummulitis bearing limestones
relationships which one of the
following statements is correct ? of Simla Hills belongs to :

(A) Dogshai Formation

(B) Krol Formation

(C) Kasauli Formation

(D) Subathu Formation

74. Active remote sensors are dependent
wholly on the energy received
from :

(A) Crystalline basement— (A) Moon

Deposition of sedimentary (B) Earth
sequence—faulting—intrusion
(C) Sun
(B) Crystalline basement—
(D) Mars
deposition of sedimentary
75. The Lingeroid ripples face :
sequence—intrusion—faulting
(A) The direction of the current flow
(C) F a u l t i n g — i n t r u s i o n —
(B) The direction opposite to that of
crystalline basement—
the current flow
deposition of sedimentary
(C) The direction perpendicular to
sequence
that of the current flow
(D) Deposition of sedimentary
(D) The direction transverse to that
sequence—crystalline basement—
of the current flow
intrusion—faulting

22

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ROUGH WORK

23 [P.T.O.

Page 24

ROUGH WORK

24

Document Details

Board / OrgMaharashtra Exams
ExamMAHA SET
TypeQuestion Paper
Pages24
Updated30 Apr 2026