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PU PhD 2026 Question Paper Faculty of Arts

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Page 1

FOR PU PHD EXAM PREPARATION

PU PhD 2026
Question Paper ·
Faculty of Arts
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT

PU PhD 2026 Question Paper Faculty of Arts

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

Page 2

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1. A bibliography which may take the form of essay is
(A) Classified bibliography (B) Critical bibliography
(C) Standard bibliography (D) Faulty bibliography
2. tr means
(A) Transpose letters (B) Take curve

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(C) Translate letter (D) None of these

om
3. Guide for Research Students Working on Historical Subjects is Authored by
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(A) Marc Bloc (B) Kitson Clark (C) E.H. Carr (D) D.S. Elton

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4. idem means

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(A) Same as before (B) Will follow (C) New sentence (D) None of these
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5. Passim means
(A) Below (B) Above (C) Here and there (D) On the top
6. ss in proof reading means
(A) Small structure (B) Faulty sentence (C) Error in number (D) None of these
7. rom means
(A) Write in line (B) Write in Roman (C) Both A and B (D) None of these
8. ‘Henri Pirenne was a complete historian’ who said this

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(A) Arthur Marwick (B) A Croce (C) John Brick (D) A Clark

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9. ‘The ordering of the parts is the researchers first problem’

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(A) J. G. Renier (B) J. B. Barzun and Henry Graff
(C) M.F Graff
g l a(D) Henri Wright
10. Glossary is same as
(A) Index (B) Preface a (C) Both A and B (D) None of these
11. ‘All quotations that more than passing phrases require a footnote’
(A) J.B Grafft (B) J.B. Barzun and Henry F Graff
(C) Kitson Rafs and Subha Roy (D) Marc Douglas
12. A Study of History is authored by
(A) G.P. Gooch (B) A.J. Toynbee (C) G.M. Terry (D) A.M. Taylor

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13. ‘History has no properly scientific value; its only purpose is educative’

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(A) G.M. Trevelyan (B) R. Bury (C) D. Spengler (D) E.P. Thompson

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14. Footnotes are mainly of

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(A) One kind (B) Two kinds (C) Three kinds (D) Four kinds

gla 15. C. Homer Hockett authored

a (A) The critical method in historical research and writing
(B) The Management of Archives
(C) Preface to History
(D) None of the above
16. ‘All history is the history of thought’, who said this?
(A) E.H. Carr (B) R.P. Bambe (C) R.G. Colbooke (D) R.G. Collingwood

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(1)

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PH.D. 2026 AIHCA

17. Note taking is primarily of
(A) Three types (B) Five types (C) One type (D) Four types
18. F Braudel is associated with
(A) Marxism (B) Structuralism (C) Annal (D) None of these
19. Quantitative research is a
(A) Structured method (B) Uses Statistical methods
(C) Establishes cause and effect data (D) All of these
20. Who is the author of Hindu Polity
(A) R.G. Bhandarkar (B) A. Aiyenger
(C) H.C. Raichaudri (D) None of these
21. Myth and Reality: Studies in the Formation of Indian Culture was authored by
(A) D.D. Kosambi (B) R. Champaklakshmi
(C) Romila Thapar (D) R.S Sharma
22. n.d. means
(A) No date (B) No Data (C) No Discourse (D) None of these
23. vb means
(A) Wrong verb (B) Bold (C) Error in spelling (D) Wrong punctuation
24. Bibliography is of
(A) Two types (B) One type (C) Three types (D) None of these
25. Who said ‘History is a science no less’, and no more
(A) E.H. Carr (B) B. Croce (C) J.B. Bury (D) S Bachlor
26. Bimbisara had 500 wives is referred to in
(A) Mahavagga (B) Sutta Pitaka (C) Angas (D) None of these
27. Kaushambi was the capital of kingdom of
(A) Matsya (B) Vatsa (C) Sursena (D) Avanti
28. Udaigiri caves are
(A) Hindu caves (B) Hindu and Buddhist caves
(C) Buddhist caves (D) Hindu and Jain caves
29. Syadvada symbolizes
(A) The doctrine of may be (B) Rule of Law
(C) Ardent wish (D) None of these
30. Dumar Lena is at
(A) Ajanta (B) Ellora (C) Pitalkhora (D) Nasik
31. Watgalis located in
(A) North Karnataka (B) Gujarat (C) Udaipur (D) Kerala
32. Savalda ware is
(A) Pink coloured pottery (B) Chocolate coloured pottery
(C) Orange coloured pottery (D) Black and red coloured pottery
33. Yavana Jataka was composed by
(A) Sphujidhvaja (B) Hari Bhadra (C) Ram Bhadra (D) None of these
(2)

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34. Chhandasutra was composed by
(A) Mahaviracharya (B) Pingala (C) Gopal (D) Surya Chand
35. A first text on astronomical instruments was
(A) Brahmasputasiddhanta (B) Brihatasamhita
(C) Rupayana (D) Arybhattai

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36. Konark temple was built by
(A) Narasimha l
om
(B) Narasimha ll (C) Bhalputra (D) Narasimhavarmanll
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37. Doda Bassapa temple was built at

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(A) Dambal (B) Udaipur (C) Kanchi (D) Vellore

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38. Sarutaru site is located in
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(A) South east of Gauhati (B) North of Udaipur
(C) North west of Jammu (D) North of Eran
39. Lakshman temple at Khajuraho was concecrated by
(A) Virasena (B) Yashodharma (C) Dhanga (D) Virpal
40. Kandriya Mahadeva temple is
(A) Asthabhadra (B) Nirandhara (C) Sandhara (D) None of these
41. The Brahmanical group of caves at ellora extends from

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(A) 12 to 15 (B) 13 to 29 (C) 31 to 36 (D) None of these
42. Nagananda of king Harsha about
.
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(A) Hiuen Tsang (B) Rajya vardhana (C) Jimutvahana (D) Mahaviracharya

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43. Who authored Finding Forgotten Cities: How the Indus Civilization was discovered
g
(A) Romila Thapar
44. Who authored The Colas a
(B) Bela Majumdar (C) Nayanjot Lahri (D) Kum Kum Roy

(A) Hari Om Shastri (B) Nilakantha Shastri
(C) G. Yazdani (D) K.G. Krishnan
45. Karparadaka means
(A) Punch marked coins (B) Coweries
(C) Grains (D) Precious stones

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46. The coins made up of silver were issued by

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(A) Chandergupta I (B) Samudragupta (C) Kumargupta l (D) All of these

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47. Tinais are mentioned as

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(A) Ecological zones (B) Temples (C) Stupas (D) Capitals

gla 48. Udakabhaga means

a (A) Tax on crafts
49. Samaharta was
(B) Tax on shops (C) Irrigation cess (D) Temple cess

(A) Frontier officer (B) Incharge of stables
(C) Incharge of stupas (D) Revenue Collector
50. Mehargarh was discovered by
(A) French (B) Japnese (C) Australian (D) None of these
x-x-x

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(3)

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PH.D. 2026 AIHCA

(ROUGH WORK)

(4)

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1. Which of the following is a probability sampling technique?
(A) Snowball Sampling (B) Judgment Sampling
(C) Stratified Random Sampling (D) Quota Sampling
2. In simple random sampling, every unit in the population has:
(A) An equal probability of selection (B) A different probability of selection

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(C) Zero probability of selection (D) Probability depending on income

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3. Cluster sampling is particularly useful when:
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(A) Population is homogeneous and concentrated
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(B) Population is geographically dispersed

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(C) Sample size is very small
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(D) Population is infinite
4. Which of the following statements about the null hypothesis (H₀) is correct?
(A) It always states that there is a significant difference between populations.
(B) It is accepted as permanently true once the test is completed.
(C) It generally states that there is no significant difference or relationship.
(D) It is tested only using the chi-square test.
5. A researcher obtains a p-value of 0.03 while testing a hypothesis at the 5% level of

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significance. What should be the correct decision?

.
(A) Accept the null hypothesis because 0.03 is less than 0.05.

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(B) Reject the null hypothesis because the p-value is less than the level of significance.

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(C) Accept the alternative hypothesis only if the sample size is greater than 30.
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(D) No conclusion can be drawn without calculating the standard deviation.
6. The arithmetic mean is most affected by:
(A) Median (B) Mode
(C) Extreme values (D) Quartiles
7. Which measure of central tendency is most appropriate for open-ended frequency
distributions?
(A) Arithmetic Mean (B) Median

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(C) Geometric Mean (D) Harmonic Mean

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8. The geometric mean is most suitable for calculating:

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(A) Average income (B) Growth rates

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(C) Median wage (D) Average age

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9. Which measure of dispersion is expressed in the same units as the original data?

a (A) Coefficient of Variation
(C) Standard Deviation
(B) Variance
(D) Relative Range
10. The coefficient of variation is useful for comparing:
(A) Means only
(B) Medians only
(C) Variability of two or more series having different units or means
(D) Modes only

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(1)

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PH.D. 2026 ECONOMICS

11. If all observations are identical, the standard deviation is:
(A) 1 (B) Infinity (C) 0 (D) Cannot be determined
12. Which of the following is a dimensionless measure of dispersion?
(A) Standard Deviation (B) Variance
(C) Mean Deviation (D) Coefficient of Variation
13. The value of Karl Pearson's coefficient of correlation always lies between:
(A) 0 and 1 (B) –1 and +1 (C) –2 and +2 (D) –100 and +100
14. A correlation coefficient of +1 indicates:
(A) No relationship (B) Perfect positive relationship
(C) Perfect negative relationship (D) Weak positive relationship
15. Which of the following does NOT imply causation?
(A) Regression (B) Correlation
(C) Experimental Research (D) Longitudinal Study
16. In regression analysis, the dependent variable is usually denoted by:
(A) X (B) Z (C) Y (D) R
17. In simple linear regression, the equation is generally written as:
(A) Y = a + bX (B) X = abY (C) X + Y = a (D) XY = ab
18. The coefficient of determination is represented by:
(A) r (B) R² (C) σ (D) β
19. If the correlation coefficient is zero, then the coefficient of determination is:
(A) 1 (B) –1 (C) 0 (D) 0.5
20. Which test is generally used to compare the means of two independent small samples
when the population variance is unknown?
(A) Z-test (B) Chi-square test (C) t-test (D) F-test
21. The primary objective of research is to:
(A) Earn profit
(B) Discover new knowledge or verify existing knowledge
(C) Increase sample size
(D) Avoid hypothesis testing
22. A hypothesis is:
(A) A proven fact (B) A tentative statement to be tested
(C) A research report (D) A sampling technique
23. Which one of the following is a characteristic of good research?
(A) Subjectivity (B) Bias
(C) Systematic investigation (D) Personal opinion
24. The z-test is generally appropriate when:
(A) Sample size is very small and population variance is unknown
(B) Population variance is known and the sample size is large
(C) Data are qualitative only
(D) Sample size is less than 10
(2)

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25. The level of significance (α) represents:
(A) Probability of accepting a false null hypothesis
(B) Probability of rejecting a true null hypothesis
(C) Correlation coefficient
(D) Coefficient of variation

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26. According to the law of diminishing marginal utility:

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(A) Total utility decreases with every additional unit consumed
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(B) Marginal utility eventually declines as more units of a commodity are consumed
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(C) Average utility always increases

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(D) Marginal utility becomes negative after the first unit
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27. In perfect competition, a firm earns maximum profit where:
(A) AR = AC (B) MR = MC (C) TR = TC (D) Price = AVC
28. The income elasticity of demand for a luxury good is generally:
(A) Less than zero (B) Equal to zero
(C) Greater than one (D) Between zero and one
29. Which market structure is characterized by product differentiation and free entry?
(A) Monopoly (B) Oligopoly

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(C) Monopolistic Competition (D) Monopsony

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30. A Nash Equilibrium refers to:

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(A) A socially optimal allocation of resources

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(B) A situation where no player can improve his payoff by changing strategy unilaterally
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(C) A perfectly competitive equilibrium
(D) General equilibrium in all markets a
31. According to Keynes, the equilibrium level of national income is determined where:
(A) Saving equals investment
(B) Aggregate Demand equals Aggregate Supply
(C) Government expenditure equals tax revenue
(D) Exports equal imports

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32. Which of the following is not a component of Aggregate Demand?

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(A) Consumption expenditure (B) Investment expenditure

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(C) Government expenditure (D) Depreciation

s em la
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33. The Phillips Curve originally suggested an inverse relationship between:

gla
(A) Inflation and unemployment (B) Inflation and GDP

a (C) Saving and investment (D) Consumption and income
34. Open Market Operations are undertaken by the central bank to:
(A) Control foreign trade (B) Regulate money supply
(C) Increase tax revenue (D) Reduce fiscal deficit
𝒅𝒚
35. If 𝒚 = 𝟓𝒙𝟐 , then is:
𝒅𝒙
(A) 5𝑥 (B) 10𝑥 (C) 10𝑥 (D) 25𝑥

m . c
c. o m
(3)

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PH.D. 2026 ECONOMICS

36. A function is homogeneous of degree one if:
(A) 𝑓(𝑡𝑥) = 𝑓(𝑥) (B) 𝑓(𝑡𝑥) = 𝑡𝑓(𝑥)
(C) 𝑓(𝑡𝑥) = 𝑡 𝑓(𝑥) (D) 𝑓(𝑡𝑥) = 0
37. The determinant of the matrix
3 2
1 4
is:
(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 14 (D) 8
38. Ordinary Least Squares (OLS) estimates are obtained by minimizing:
(A) Sum of residuals (B) Sum of squared residuals
(C) Sum of absolute residuals (D) Sum of fitted values
39. Heteroscedasticity refers to:
(A) Correlated error terms (B) Non-normality of explanatory variables
(C) Non-constant variance of error terms (D) Perfect multicollinearity
40. The coefficient of determination (𝑹𝟐 ) measures:
(A) Forecasting error
(B) Proportion of variation explained by the regression model
(C) Significance of coefficients
(D) Correlation between residuals
41. Multicollinearity is a problem associated with:
(A) Correlation among explanatory variables (B) Correlation between dependent variables
(C) Serial correlation (D) Heteroscedasticity
42. The Durbin–Watson statistic is commonly used to detect:
(A) Multicollinearity (B) Heteroscedasticity
(C) Autocorrelation (D) Normality
43. The principle that taxes should be based on the taxpayer's ability to pay is known as:
(A) Benefit Principle (B) Ability-to-Pay Principle
(C) Equal Sacrifice Principle (D) Cost Principle
44. Fiscal deficit is equal to:
(A) Revenue expenditure – Revenue receipts
(B) Total expenditure – (Revenue receipts + Non-debt capital receipts)
(C) Revenue deficit + Capital receipts
(D) Total tax revenue – Total expenditure
45. Which of the following is a direct tax?
(A) Goods and Services Tax (GST) (B) Customs Duty
(C) Income Tax (D) Excise Duty
46. The theory of comparative advantage was propounded by:
(A) Adam Smith (B) David Ricardo
(C) John Stuart Mill (D) Eli Heckscher
(4)

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47. A depreciation of the domestic currency generally tends to:
(A) Increase imports and reduce exports
(B) Reduce both imports and exports
(C) Encourage exports and discourage imports
(D) Have no effect on trade

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48. The Human Development Index (HDI) includes all of the following except:
(A) Life expectancy
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(B) Education
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(C) Per capita income (D) Inflation rate
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49. Which economist is associated with the capability approach to development?

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(A) Ragnar Nurkse (B) W. Arthur Lewis
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(C) Amartya Sen (D) Simon Kuznets
50. The Lewis model of development emphasizes:
(A) Balanced regional development
(B) Transfer of labour from the traditional agricultural sector to the modern industrial sector
(C) Export-led growth only
(D) Fiscal decentralisation
x-x-x

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(ROUGH WORK)

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a

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(5)

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(ROUGH WORK)

(6)

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1. Which of the following research is also known as collaborative research?
(A) Analytical Research (B) Descriptive Research
(C) Action Research (D) Applied Research
2. Identify the two types in which the cross-sectional surveys are divided
(A) Explanatory and Causal (B) Functional and Dysfunctional

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(C) Relational and Logic (D) Descriptive and Analytical

c om m .
3. Identify the type of research that refers to inferring about the whole population based on

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observations made on a small part
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(A) Pseudo-inference (B) Objective inference
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g a
lis NOT advantageous in research where
(C) Inductive inference (D) Deductive reference
a
a
4. Sampling
(A) The group are highly diverse
(B) The sample taken is too big
(C) The data collected is not analysed person to person
(D) Where the quality research is needed
5. Dramaturgical interview is carried by
(A) Debating (B) Sampling (C) Case Study (D) Role playing
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6. A probability sampling method is also known as:
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(A) Quota sampling (B) Random sampling
(C) Convenience sampling
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(D) Judgment sampling

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7. The tentative statement about the relationship between variables is called
(A) Hypothesis (B) Research design
(C) Sample (D) Statistic
8. A null hypothesis when rejected, it causes a
(A) Type-I error (B) Type-II error
(C) Sampling error (D) Measurement error
9. Identify the term that means that a research tool gives the same consistent results
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everytime you use it?
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(A) Validity (B) Reliability (C) Objectivity (D) Norming

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10. Identify the research design that entails studying two contrasting cases using identical

las methods
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(A) Experimental Design (B) Comparative Design
(C) Longitudinal Design (D) Latitudinal Design
11. Identify the purpose of research Design
(A) To Select a Sample
(B) To develop a hypothesis
(C) To build delimitation
(D) To determine the methods for data collection and analysis

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(1)

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PH.D. 2026 GANDHIAN & PEACE STUDIES

12. What is the purpose of a pilot study?
(A) To test the feasibility of the research design
(B) To test the reliability and validity of the measures
(C) To determine the appropriate sample size
(D) To collect preliminary data
13. What is the primary goal of Exploratory Data Analysis (EDA)?
(A) To build final machine learning models
(B) To deploy code to production servers
(C) To summarize main characteristics and find patterns
(D) To encrypt raw data files securely
14. Identify the key Property of Correlation
(A) It indicates association only and doesn’t imply causation
(B) It established a cause-and-effect relationship
(C) It can only be a positive number
(D) A correlation of 0.6 is twice as strong as 0.3
15. Identify the fundamental difference between “Data analysis” and “Interpretation.”
(A) Data analysis deals with qualitative data whereas Interpretation deals with quantitative.
(B) Data Analysis is carried out after the report-given whereas interpretation is during Data
Collection.
(C) Analysis involves organizing and summarizing data whereas interpretation explains the
meaning and significance of results.
(D) Both these terms are synonyms; there is no difference at all.
16. Which of the following is NOT considered a form of research misconduct?
(A) Plagiarism (B) Fabrication (C) Peer Review (D) Falsification
17. Identify the ethical principle that refers to the obligation to do no harm?
(A) Justice (B) Autonomy
(C) Nonmaleficence (D) Respect for Persons
18. The principle of beneficence requires that
(A) Researchers treat participants fairly and equitably.
(B) Researchers maximize possible benefits and minimize possible harms.
(C) Participants receive compensation for their involvement.
(D) The confidentiality of participant information is maintained.
19. Choosing to study only high school students aged 14 to 16 in Chandigarh U.T. is an example
of what?
(A) A limitation (B) A delimitation
(C) An assumption (D) A hypothesis

(2)

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20. A researcher conducts a study on workplace stress but excludes remote workers because they
lack access to the company's physical wellness center. How will this decision most likely
affect the study?
(A) It acts as a limitation that invalidates the entire research design.
(B) It is a delimitation that narrows the scope but limits generalizability to remote workers.

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(C) It is a limitation because the researcher cannot control where employees work.

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(D) It is a delimitation that proves physical offices are superior.

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21. Identify the main characteristic

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(A) Focus on numerical
(B) Focus lon
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a manipulation of independent variables
(C) Strict
(D) Use of large random sample sizes
22. Which variable's effects must be minimized, quantified, or controlled by a researcher?
(A) Dependent variable (B) Independent variable
(C) Extraneous variable (D) Chance variable
23. Identify among the following that best describes the epistemological position of quantitative

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research
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(A) Interpretivism (B) Positivism
(C) Constructivism
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(D) Phenomenology

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24. Which of the following is an example of primary data?
(A) Government census reports
(B) A face-to-face interview conducted by the researcher
(C) Historical data from a book
(D) Journal articles written by other scientists
25. In the process of conducting research, “Formulation of Hypothesis” is followed by
(A) Selection of Research tools (B) Collection of Data

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(C) Analysis of Data (D) Statement of Objectives

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26. What is the literal meaning of 'Satyagraha'?

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(A) Political freedom
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(C) Total non-cooperation (D) Self-rule
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ag society?
(A) Swadeshi (B) Sarvodaya
(C) Trusteeship (D) Decentralization
28. During which event did Mahatma Gandhi undertake his first hunger strike in India?
(A) Champaran Satyagraha (B) Kheda Satyagraha

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(C) Ahmedabad Mill Strike (D) Non-Cooperation Movement
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29. The book, “The Kingdom of God is Within You”, profoundly influenced Gandhi's view
on nonviolence. Identify the writer of this book.
(A) John Ruskin (B) Henry David Thoreau
(C) Leo Tolstoy (D) Ralph Waldo Emerson
30. What did Mahatma Gandhi mean by the term 'Anāsakti' in his philosophy?
(A) Complete renunciation of all worldly duties.
(B) Selfless action performed without attachment to the results.
(C) Active physical resistance with Satyagraha against the enemies.
(D) Faith in religious scriptures.
31. In today's digital era, characterized by hate speech and cyberbullying, which of Gandhi’s
principles is most relevant for maintaining social harmony?
(A) Swadeshi (B) Ahiṁsā in speech and thought
(C) Trusteeship (D) Bread Labour
32. Identify the place in India where Mahatma Gandhi established his last permanent ashram in
1936, which became the headquarters for the constructive program and the independence
movement?
(A) Kochrab Ashram (B) Sabarmati Ashram
(C) Tolstoy Farm (D) Sewagram Ashram
33. Identify the name of Upanishad that is considered Most favourite one by Gandhiji
(A) Māṇdūkya (B) Chāndogya (C) Isāvāsya (D) Kena
34. Who was the first Director of Gandhi Ashram at Varanasi?
(A) Lal Bahadur Shastri (B) J. B. Kripalani
(C) Rajendra Prasad (D) Purushottam Das Tandon
35. Who was the first Chairman of the Gandhi Peace Foundation?
(A) U.N. Dhebar (B) Indira Gandhi
(C) R.R. Diwakar (D) Morarji Desai
36. How did Gandhi define true peace in society?
(A) The mere absence of war or conflict
(B) Total submission to authority
(C) The presence of justice, equality, and non-violent action
(D) Economic self-sufficiency through imports
37. Who invited Gandhi to lead the Champaran Satyagraha?
(A) Rajendra Prasad (B) Raj Kumar Shukla
(C) J.B. Kripalani (D) Motilal Nehru

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38. Why was Simon Commission boycotted?
(A) It opposed Swaraj Party
(B) It had no Indian members
(C) It suggested dominion status
(D) It divided Bengal Human Rights & Liberties

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39. In a Gandhian framework, how should interpersonal conflict be resolved through education?

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(A) Through aggressive debate

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(B) Through cultivating constructive personality aspects and human values
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(C) Through legal litigation
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(D) By ignoring differences entirely
40. The Poonal pact, signed in 1932. Identify the signatories a g
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(A) Gandhi (B) Gandhi and Jinnah
(C) Gandhi and Irwin (D) Gandhi and Bose
41. Which of the following best characterizes Gandhi’s central critique of modern civilization in
his 1909 text Hind Swaraj?
(A) It is excessively spiritual and lacks empirical scientific growth.
(B) It rejects parliamentary democracy in favour of absolute military rule.

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(C) It fails to provide adequate centralized administrative machinery for the colonies.

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(D) It promotes bodily happiness and materialism over morality and duty.

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e civilization, machinery, and parliamentary
42. Which text is considered the primary foundational

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articulated his critique of modern Western

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(A) An Autobiography or The Storyaof
democracy?

(B) Sarvodaya
(C) Hind Swaraj or Indian Home Rule
(D) From Yeravda Mandir
43. Identify among the following the doctrine of Gandhi that aimed at transforming capitalist order
of society into an equatorial one
(A) Swaraj (B) Satyagraha (C) Civil Disobedience (D) Trusteeship
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44. Identify the person who was instrumental in persuading Gandhi to return India from South

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(A) Charles Freer Andrews
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(B) William Godfrey
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(C) Rabindranath Tagore (D) Spencer Walton

ag Which of the following is NOT among these conditions?
(A) The village should have Dharamsala and a dispensary
(B) It should be self-sufficientin foodand clothing
(C) The place of worship of all communities should be built side by side to develop
brotherhood and fraternity.
(D) The village should eliminate caste system

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46. Identify among the following that is NOT included in the seven social sins
(A) Power without knowledge (B) Religion without sacrifice
(C) Science without humanity (D) Politics without principle
47. Gandhi recommended economy which is
(A) Capital based (B) Labour predominant
(C) Industry predominant (D) Technology devoid
48. As per Gandhi, the sin against the God and man is
(A) Varna System (B) Religious rituals
(C) Untouchability (D) Alcoholism
49. Gandhi was influenced by the essay civil disobedience written by
(A) Henery David Thoreau (B) Leo Tolstoy
(C) John Ruskin (D) Charles Dickens
50. Identify the incidents that NOT occurred in the life of Gandhi in the year 1924
(A) Assumed as president of Indian National Congress
(B) Commenced 21 day’s fast in Delhi
(C) Released from Yervada Prison
(D) Arrested for Sedition
x-x-x
(ROUGH WORK)

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(8)

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1. Which of the following is the primary objective of research?
(A) To review existing literature in a given subject area
(B) To summarise what is already widely known
(C) To obtain an academic degree
(D) To discover new facts or make fresh interpretations of known facts

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2. Research is best characterised as being:

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(A) An unstructured, subjective path of discovery

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(B) A systematic, methodical, and unbiased process of inquiry

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(C) Conducted exclusively for academic purposes

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(D) Primarily dependent on subjective human beliefs
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3. The philosophical belief that all acceptable knowledge comes primarily from sensory
experience is known as:
(A) Rationalism (B) Pragmatism (C) Empiricism (D) Positivism
4. Epistemology is defined as:
(A) The study of the origin, nature, scope, and methods to acquire knowledge
(B) The study of physical and biological systems
(C) A qualitative interviewing technique
(D) The study of ethical codes of conduct

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5. If a research investigation consistently produces the same results when repeated under similar
conditions, it is said to have high:
(A) Validity
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(B) Reliability
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(C) Accuracy (D) Credibility

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6. "Are we measuring what we originally intended

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the concept of:
(A) Generalizability (B) Objectivity (C) Reliability (D) Validity
7. Which research paradigm is associated with quantitative strategies, highly structured designs,
and large-scale statistically-based studies?
(A) Interpretive paradigm (B) Positivist paradigm
(C) Constructivist paradigm (D) Unstructured paradigm
8. The German sociologist Max Weber popularized the term Verstehen, which translates to:

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(A) Causal explanation (erklären)

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(B) Scientific verification
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(C) Meaningful understanding by putting yourself in the shoes of others
(D) Systematic empirical observation
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dealing with non-manipulated variables is called:
(A) Experimental research (B) Ex post facto research
(C) Action research (D) Pure research
10. An exploratory research study is typically conducted to:
(A) Gain background information and decide if a detailed investigation is worth pursuing
(B) Uncover a definite cause-and-effect relationship.
(C) Answer "how many" and "how much" using numerical data
(D) Quantify variation in a highly structured manner

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11. The term "Action Research", reflecting a practical cycle of iterative learning and improvement
to solve local problems, was coined by:
(A) Kurt Lewin (B) John Dewey (C) Max Weber (D) Benjamin Bloom
12. The "top-down" research logic, which starts with a theory, derives a hypothesis, collects data,
and accepts or rejects the hypothesis is called:
(A) Inductive approach (B) Unstructured approach
(C) Subjective approach (D) Deductive approach
13. Qualitative research is best described as being:
(A) Linear in nature
(B) Strictly structured and pre-determined
(C) Inductive and spiral in nature
(D) Heavily reliant on numerical conversion of all variables
14. A qualitative method designed to study and describe a culture (shared values, beliefs,
behaviours and language of a group of people) is called:
(A) Phenomenology (B) Grounded Theory (C) Case Study (D) Ethnography
15. The practice of using multiple data sources, multiple investigators, and multiple methods to get
a complete understanding of a social phenomenon and validate results is known as:
(A) Generalization (B) Double-blind testing
(C) Triangulation (D) Bio-sequestration
16. Variables that vary in type or kind (such as gender or religion) rather than degree or amount
are classified as:
(A) Quantitative variables (B) Continuous variables
(C) Intervening variables (D) Categorical variables
17. If a researcher studies the impact of "coaching" on "student exam performance," the variable
"coaching" is considered the:
(A) Dependent variable (B) Independent variable
(C) Intervening variable (D) Extraneous variable
18. An exam grade categorized as "Above Average, Average, or Below Average" is measured on
which type of scale?
(A) Ordinal (ranking) scale (B) Nominal scale
(C) Interval scale (D) Ratio scale
19. A hypothesis that predicts no difference or no relationship between two variables is called a:
(A) Alternative hypothesis (B) Directional hypothesis
(C) Null hypothesis (D) Non-directional hypothesis
20. A research design in which data is collected only once from the respondents during the study is
called a:
(A) Longitudinal design (B) Cross-sectional design
(C) Retrospective design (D) Prospective design
21. In clinical trials, when a patient shows improvement after being administered an inactive
substance (like a sugar pill) under the impression it is a drug, this is called the:
(A) Placebo effect (B) Hawthorne effect
(C) Extraneous variable effect (D) Systematic error
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22. If a researcher divides a heterogeneous student population into homogeneous subgroups based
on their stream of study (e.g., Humanities vs. Commerce) and then draws proportional random
samples from each group, they are using:
(A) Simple random sampling (B) Quota sampling
(C) Cluster sampling (D) Stratified random sampling

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23. A non-probability sampling technique where early research participants identify other potential

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participants, creating a growing chain network, is called:

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(A) Convenience sampling (B) Purposive sampling

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(C) Quota sampling
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(D) Snowball sampling
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24. A case of plagiarism where a student copies another student's work within the same course
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submission is known as:
(A) Extra-corpal plagiarism (B) Intra-corpal plagiarism
(C) Autoplagiarism (D) Falsification
25. The Latin abbreviation "Ibid." (ibidem) used in reference and footnote writing means:
(A) The work cited (opera citato)
(B) In the place cited (loco citato)
(C) The same (referring to the same author and source in the immediately preceding
reference)

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(D) And others (et al.)

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26. In which of his edicts does Ashoka express his deep remorse and sorrow over the massive

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death and destruction caused by his conquest of Kalinga?
(A) Rock Edict XIII
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(B) Minor Rock Edict I

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(C) Separate Kalinga Edicts (D) Pillar Edict IV
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27. In Sanskrit tradition, into which category of scriptures do the 18 Puranas fall, and what does
this category literally mean?
(A) Sruti (meaning "what is heard")
(B) Smrti (meaning "recollection or memory")
(C) Agama (meaning "tradition handed down")
(D) Sastra (meaning "codified law")
28. What material did the Harappans use to make the bed of the Great Bath of Mohenjodaro

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watertight?

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(A) Cement (B) Gypsum (C) Bitumen (D) Clay
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c. furnish to histo ranaka e m
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the medieval text Lekhpaddhati, what military forces was a rajputra
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(B) 100 foot-soldiersland
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overlord in return for a granted village?

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a and 40 cavalrymen
ag (C) 150 foot-soldiers and 30 cavalrymen
30. Consider the following statements:-
(D) 200 foot-soldiers

Assertion (A): In the Early Vedic society of Sapta-Sindhava, cattle rearing was the dominant
occupational activity, and the cow (gau) served as the primary measure of
wealth.
Reason (R): Due to the lack of large-scale irrigation facilities and the frequent shifting of
river courses in the region, alluvial lands could not be cultivated on a
permanent sedentary basis, making extensive agriculture unfeasible.

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Options:
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.
31. Which Sanskrit drama details the story of Chandragupta-II disguised as a queen to enter the
Saka camp and defeat their king, subsequently slaying his brother Ramagupta?
(A) Mudrarakshasa (B) Devi Chandraguptam
(C) Harshacharita (D) Raghuvamsa
32. The famous Dilwara temples of Mt. Abu were constructed during the 13th century by two
ministers, Vastupala and Tejapala, under the reign of which Rajput dynasty?
(A) The Vaghelas (B) The Paramaras (C) The Chahamanas (D) The Chandellas
33. In the Asirgarh copper seal, which Maukhari king is the first to be recorded with the supreme
imperial title of Maharajadhiraja instead of Maharaja?
(A) Harivarman (B) Adityavarman (C) Isvaravarman (D) Isanavarman
34. In the Devimahatmya section of the Markandeya Purana, which spouseless goddesses are
created out of the combined energy of the gods to combat demons?
(A) Laksmi and Sarasvati (B) Parvati and Sarasvati
(C) Durga and Kali (D) Laksmi and Parvati
35. Consider the following statement:-
Assertion (A): During the peak of the Vijayanagar Empire's territorial expansion, traditional
Tamil local institutions such as the Ur, Sabha, and Nadu experienced a significant decline in
their administrative eminence.
Reason (R): Under the Nayakattanam system, the Nayakas (military commanders) directly
controlled revenue administration within their territories, replacing the traditional fiscal
authority of local assemblies and introducing the Ayagar system in villages.
Options:
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.
36. Consider the following statement:-
Assertion (A): Despite his personal identity with Sikh religious establishments, Maharaja
Ranjit Singh adopted a secular approach to state administration, appointing individuals of
diverse religious faiths to higher offices.
Reason (R): Administrative offices under Ranjit Singh's rule were strictly hereditary, allowing
different religious and regional clans to maintain historic control over their local jurisdictions.
Options:
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.
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37. Consider the following statements:-
Assertion (A): Conspiracies, military intrigues, and the overthrow of reigning monarchs by
powerful commanders or regents were frequent features of Vijayanagar kingship.
Reason (R): Vijayanagar was theoretically a hereditary monarchy, but constant internal and
external military threats made it imperative that the ruler possess high attainments in

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diplomacy and war, leading to the usurpation of the throne when weak rulers reigned.
Options:
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(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
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(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
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(C) A is true, but R is false.
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a the following statements:-
(D) A is false, but R is true.
38. Consider
Assertion (A): In contemporary Mughal administrative terminology, autonomous chieftains
and ordinary landholders were sometimes both denoted by the broad term zamindar, yet there
was a distinct structural difference between the two groups.
Reason (R): While ordinary zamindars lacked independence from imperial Mughal authority,
autonomous chieftains enjoyed comparative regional autonomy, managed local revenues under
their own traditional customs, and administered their lands with minimal central interference.

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Options:

.
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

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(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
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(D) A is false, but R is true.
39. Consider the following statements:-
Assertion (A): Whenever an autonomous chieftain rebelled against central authority, the
standard Mughal imperial policy was to permanently annex their territory and completely
dispossess the ruling family from its ancestral lands.
Reason (R): The Mughal administration recognized that absorbing local chiefs into the
imperial structure paid rich dividends; hence, they preferred to leave another member of the

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same family in control of the territory rather than dispossessing the clan.

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Options:

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(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

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(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

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(C) A is true, but R is false.

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(D) A is false, but R is true.
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scholar arrived at Baghdad. Which Sanskrit scientific text did he bring, and what was the title
of its Arabic translation?
(A) Sushruta Samhita; translated as Al-Sushrut
(B) Charaka Samhita; translated as Al-Charak
(C) Brahma Siddhanta by Brahmagupta; translated as Sind Hind
(D) Panchatantra; translated as Kalila and Dimna

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41. Maharaja Ranjit Singh successfully consolidated Sikh political power by bringing several
independent principalities and Muslim territories under his single sovereign authority. In which
years were Multan, Kashmir, and Peshawar respectively fell under the sovereign Sikh
monarchy?
(A) Multan in 1812, Kashmir in 1819, and Peshawar in 1834
(B) Multan in 1809, Kashmir in 1819, and Peshawar in 1845
(C) Multan in 1818, Kashmir in 1820, and Peshawar in 1839
(D) Multan in 1818, Kashmir in 1819, and Peshawar in 1834
42. In his analysis of peasant and tribal resistance, Bipan Chandra notes that the Kuka Revolt in
Punjab was led by Baba Ram Singh. In what year was this movement brutally crushed when
49 of the rebels were blown up by a cannon?
(A) 1859 (B) 1872 (C) 1879 (D) 1893
43. In the decade leading up to the birth of the Indian National Congress (1875–1885), radical
young intellectuals formed new political organisations because older associations had become
moribund or too narrow. Which early association is correctly matched with its founding year?
(A) Indian Association — 1876
(B) Madras Mahajan Sabha — 1885
(C) Bombay Presidency Association — 1880
(D) Poona Sarvajanik Sabha — 1884
44. Who is acknowledged as the "high-priest of the drain theory," and in which month and year
did he first put forward the idea that Britain was systematically draining and "bleeding" India?
(A) Romesh Chandra Dutt in January 1901 (B) Mahadev Govind Ranade in March 1870
(C) Dadabhai Naoroji in May 1867 (D) G.K. Gokhale in April 1897
45. Which prominent Indian nationalist newspaper was started in 1868 with printing equipment
worth a meagre Rs. 32, and famously converted itself into an English-language paper
overnight in 1878 to escape the Vernacular Press Act?
(A) Amrita Bazar Patrika (B) Kesari
(C) Bengalee (D) Dina Bandhu
46. The weekly revolutionary paper Ghadar (meaning Revolt) carried the bold caption "An Enemy
of British Rule" on its masthead. In which languages and on what dates were its first issues
printed in 1913?
(A) Urdu edition on 1 November; Gurumukhi edition on 9 December
(B) Punjabi edition on 1 November; English edition on 9 December
(C) Urdu edition on 1 November; Hindi edition on 24 December
(D) Gurumukhi edition on 1 November; Urdu edition on 9 December
47. Following the Gaya Congress of December 1922, the "pro-changers" (advocating council
entry) split from the "no-changers". On what date did C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru officially
announce the formation of the Swaraj Party?
(A) 1 January 1923 (B) 12 February 1922
(C) 15 August 1923 (D) 17 October 1922
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48. During the passive resistance struggle in South Africa, Mahatma Gandhi set up "Tolstoy Farm"
to house the families of the Satyagrahis and help them sustain themselves. Who was the
German architect friend whose generosity made the farm possible, and which Indian
philanthropist sent a significant contribution of Rs. 25,000 to support the movement?
(A) Hermann Kallenbach and G.D. Birla (B) Kallenbach and Sir Ratan Tata

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(C) Albert West and Sir Jamsetji Tata (D) Kallenbach and Ambalal Sarabhai

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49. During the Kheda Satyagraha of 1918, under what specific administrative condition did

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Gandhiji agree to terminate and withdraw the peasant no-tax campaign?

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(A) The Government agreed to reduce the land revenue rate by 50% for all cultivators.

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(B) The Government issued secret instructions directing that revenue should be recovered
only from those peasants who could afford to pay.
(C) The Government promised a complete remission of land revenue for the next three
consecutive years.
(D) The Government agreed to return all confiscated lands and cattle to the peasants.
50. In February 1943, while detained in the Aga Khan Palace during the Quit India Movement,
Gandhiji undertook a 21-day fast to protest "leonine state violence." Which three Indian
members of the Viceroy's Executive Council resigned from their posts to record their protest
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against the Government’s high-handedness?
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(A) C. Rajagopalachari, Tej Bahadur Sapru, and Bhulabhai Desai

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(B) M.S. Aney, N.R. Sarkar, and H.P. Mody

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(C) Madan Mohan Malaviya, M.R. Jayakar, and B.R. Ambedkar

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(D) N.R. Sarkar, Sir Ratan Tata, and Purshottamdas Thakurdas
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(ROUGH WORK)

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(ROUGH WORK)

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1. A research design is best understood as:
(A) A statistical model employed to test hypotheses in quantitative research
(B) A logical framework that integrates the research problem, data collection procedures, and
analytical strategy to answer the research questions
(C) A standardized format prescribed for writing dissertations by universities

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(D) A detailed schedule prepared after data collection has been completed

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2. Which research design provides the strongest basis for establishing causal relationships

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between variables?

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(A) Experimental research design involving random assignment and control groups

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(B) Historical research based on archival reconstruction of events
(C) Descriptive cross-sectional survey design
(D) Exploratory case study based on purposive sampling
3. Exploratory research is most appropriately undertaken when:
(A) Existing theories sufficiently explain the phenomenon under investigation
(B) The research problem has received limited empirical or theoretical attention
(C) The researcher intends to estimate population parameters with precision

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(D) Causal relationships have already been established through repeated studies

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4. The principal objective of descriptive research is to:

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(A) Establish causal relationships among variables through experimentation

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(B) Systematically document and describe the characteristics or distribution of a phenomenon

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without necessarily explaining causation
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(C) Test normative political theories through empirical observation
(D) Develop predictive models using longitudinal data
5. The case study method is particularly appropriate when the researcher seeks to:
(A) Produce statistically representative findings for a national population
(B) Conduct an intensive investigation of a bounded case within its real-life context
(C) Estimate causal effects through randomized experiments

m
c. o
(D) Measure public opinion through probability sampling

m
c. o m
6. In research methodology, a variable is best defined as:

s e
em
(A) A theoretical proposition derived exclusively from deductive reasoning

s la
la ag
(B) An observable or measurable attribute that may assume different values across units of

g
analysis
a (C) A statement summarising the findings of a completed investigation
(D) A conceptual framework used to organise the literature review
7. Which of the following is typically manipulated or presumed to influence another
variable in hypothesis testing?
(A) Dependent variable (B) Independent variable
(C) Intervening variable (D) Extraneous variable

om . c
c m
(1)

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8. Which type of hypothesis specifies both the existence and the expected direction of a
relationship between variables?
(A) Null hypothesis (B) Directional hypothesis
(C) Statistical hypothesis (D) Working hypothesis
9. The null hypothesis (H₀) conventionally assumes that:
(A) A statistically significant relationship exists between the variables under investigation
(B) Any observed difference or association is attributable to sampling variation unless
sufficient evidence indicates otherwise
(C) The theoretical model being tested is empirically valid
(D) The independent variable necessarily determines the dependent variable
10. Which of the following is a probability sampling technique?
(A) Quota sampling (B) Purposive sampling
(C) Simple random sampling (D) Snowball sampling
11. Which sampling technique is particularly suitable for researching hidden, stigmatized, or
difficult-to-access populations?
(A) Stratified random sampling (B) Snowball sampling
(C) Systematic sampling (D) Multi-stage cluster sampling
12. Stratified sampling is most appropriate when:
(A) Every unit in the population possesses similar characteristics
(B) The population consists of identifiable subgroups that should be proportionately
represented in the sample
(C) Sampling units are geographically dispersed into naturally occurring clusters
(D) A complete sampling frame is unavailable
13. Observation is especially valuable as a method of data collection when the researcher
intends to examine:
(A) Electoral outcomes using official statistical records
(B) Behaviour, interactions, and practices in their natural social setting
(C) Constitutional developments through archival sources
(D) Aggregate demographic characteristics using census data
14. A questionnaire is generally considered most appropriate when:
(A) The study requires prolonged ethnographic engagement
(B) Respondents are geographically dispersed and standardised responses are required
(C) The objective is to observe non-verbal behaviour directly
(D) Historical evidence constitutes the principal source of data
15. Which form of interview offers the greatest flexibility in probing respondents'
experiences and perspectives?
(A) Structured interview (B) Semi-structured interview
(C) Unstructured interview (D) Computer-assisted telephone interview

(2)

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16. Which of the following constitutes secondary data?
(A) Responses collected through a field survey conducted by the researcher
(B) Interviews undertaken specifically for the current study
(C) Official reports published by government agencies and public institutions
(D) Participant observation recorded during fieldwork

m
co
17. Which software package is specifically designed for qualitative data management and

om .
thematic analysis?

.c e m
s
(A) NVivo (B) SPSS Statistics

e m l a
s
(C) Microsoft Excel (D) Stata

l a
18. Which software is most widely employed for quantitative statistical analysis in political
a g
ag
science research?
(A) NVivo (B) Zotero (C) SPSS Statistics (D) ATLAS.ti
19. In research methodology, reliability primarily refers to:
(A) The extent to which an instrument consistently produces similar results under comparable
conditions
(B) The ability of findings to be generalised beyond the study population
(C) The degree to which a measure accurately captures the intended concept

m
co
(D) The objectivity of the researcher's interpretation
20. External validity concerns:
.
s em
(A) The consistency of measurement across repeated observations

l a
(B) The extent to which findings can be generalised beyond the study sample and setting
g
a
(C) The statistical significance of observed relationships
(D) The absence of interviewer bias during data collection
21. A pilot study is primarily undertaken to:
(A) Estimate the final effect size before hypothesis testing
(B) Assess the feasibility of the research design and refine research instruments before the
main study
(C) Increase the representativeness of the sample

m
(D) Validate statistical software used in the study

m
22. Informed consent requires that participants:
c. o
c. o e
(A) Participate voluntarily after receiving adequate information regarding the nature, purpose,
s
m
em la
risks, and benefits of the research

las (B) Sign a consent form irrespective of their understanding of the study
ag
ag (C) Agree to disclose their personal identity in published findings
(D) Waive all rights concerning the use of research data
23. Plagiarism is best defined as:
(A) The use of secondary sources in a literature review
(B) Presenting another person's intellectual work, ideas, or words without appropriate
acknowledgement
(C) Publishing findings in multiple journals simultaneously
(D) Reporting statistically insignificant findings

om . c
c m
(3)

m . s e
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24. Which citation style is most commonly employed in political science and other social
science disciplines?
(A) APA (American Psychological Association) Style
(B) MLA (Modern Language Association) Style
(C) Vancouver Referencing Style
(D) OSCOLA (Oxford Standard for the Citation of Legal Authorities)
25. Which of the following best describes process tracing as a research method?
(A) A statistical technique for estimating causal effects using regression analysis
(B) A qualitative method that identifies and examines the sequence of events and intervening
mechanisms linking causes to outcomes within a case
(C) A sampling technique for selecting representative political institutions
(D) A comparative method based exclusively on large-N datasets
26. Which of the following correctly reflects Isaiah Berlin's idea of liberty?
I. Negative liberty requires democratic participation.
II. Positive liberty asks: "Who governs me?" or "Who decides what I should do?"
III. Positive liberty may lead to paternalism or even totalitarianism.
IV. Negative liberty is mainly concerned with self-realisation rather than freedom from
interference.
(A) I and IV only (B) II and III only
(C) I, II and III only (D) II, III and IV only
27. In John Rawls's Original Position, why do people not know their own conception of the
good?
(A) To ensure equal distribution of wealth.
(B) To make liberty more important than economic efficiency.
(C) To prevent people from favouring their own moral or personal beliefs while choosing
principles of justice.
(D) To guarantee equal ownership of all resources.
28. According to Antonio Gramsci, how do civil society and political society help maintain
the rule of the dominant class?
(A) Civil society works mainly through coercion, while political society works through
consent.
(B) Civil society creates consent through ideas and culture, while political society uses the
state's coercive power.
(C) Both operate mainly through economic control.
(D) Political society creates culture, while civil society controls the legal system.
29. In Marxist theory, what are the "relations of production"?
(A) Natural resources and labour power.
(B) Property relations and people's position in relation to the means of production.
(C) Technology and scientific knowledge.
(D) Laws and political ideology.
(4)

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30. According to C. B. Macpherson, what is the main weakness of possessive individualism?
(A) It gives priority to society over the individual.
(B) It treats human abilities as private property and sees market relations as the basis of
freedom.
(C) It supports absolute monarchy to protect property.

m
co
(D) It argues that the state should correct market inequalities.

.c om
31. According to Duverger's Law, how do single-member plurality electoral systems affect
e m .
em
party competition?
l a s
l a s
(A) The electoral system disadvantages large parties, while voters support smaller parties.
a g
g
a larger parties.
(B) The electoral system disadvantages small parties, and voters avoid wasting their votes by
supporting
(C) The electoral system encourages coalition governments and voter apathy.
(D) The electoral system promotes proportional representation and party polarization.
32. According to Gabriel Almond, what distinguishes a subject political culture from a
participant political culture?
(A) Subject citizens are unaware of politics, while participant citizens focus only on local

m
co
politics.
.
em
(B) Subject citizens are aware of government decisions but play a limited political role, while

a s
participant citizens actively engage in both political decision-making and government
l
activities.
a g
(C) Subject citizens only vote, while participant citizens only protest.
(D) Subject political culture exists only in authoritarian states, while participant culture exists
only in direct democracies.
33. What is the main argument of Dependency Theory?
(A) Developing countries remain poor because they are not integrated into global financial
institutions.

m
c. o
(B) Unequal trade between core and peripheral countries keeps peripheral economies

m
c. o m
dependent and weak.

s e
em (D) Structural adjustment programmes are essential for economic development.
a
(C) Cultural values are the main obstacle to industrialisation.

s g l
gla 34. According to Linz and Stepan, what distinguishes totalitarian a
a
regimes from
authoritarian regimes?
(A) Totalitarian regimes have weak ideologies and low political participation.
(B) Totalitarian regimes are guided by a strong ideology and demand extensive political
mobilisation.
(C) Authoritarian regimes enforce complete ideological conformity throughout society.
(D) Authoritarian regimes require continuous mass participation in political activities.

om . c
c m
(5)

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35. According to Robert Dahl, which two conditions are necessary for a political system to
become a polyarchy?
(A) Economic equality and social homogeneity.
(B) Institutional decentralisation and direct democracy.
(C) Public contestation (competition) and political participation (inclusiveness).
(D) Constitutional checks and administrative efficiency.
36. According to Kenneth Waltz, what are the three elements that define the structure of the
international system?
(A) Human nature, type of government, and economic interdependence
(B) Anarchy, similar functions of states, and the distribution of capabilities
(C) Hegemonic power, international law, and global institutions
(D) Military strength, ideology, and geography
37. According to Alexander Wendt, why do different "cultures of anarchy" (Hobbesian,
Lockean, and Kantian) exist?
(A) They are determined by the global balance of military power.
(B) They develop through social interaction and shared ideas about security.
(C) They reflect the personalities of political leaders.
(D) They are shaped mainly by international trade.
38. According to the institutional explanation of the Democratic Peace Theory, why are
democracies less likely to fight each other?
(A) Democratic citizens are morally opposed to war.
(B) Democratic leaders face public accountability and constitutional limits that make it harder
to go to war.
(C) Democracies have stronger militaries than non-democracies.
(D) Free-market economies eliminate the need for territorial expansion.
39. What is the main difference between the roles of the IMF and the World Bank under the
Bretton Woods system?
(A) The IMF finances long-term development projects, while the World Bank regulates
international trade.
(B) The IMF provides short-term financial assistance for balance-of-payments problems,
while the World Bank provides long-term development loans.
(C) The IMF settles international trade disputes, while the World Bank manages global
currency reserves.
(D) The IMF follows equal voting rights, while the World Bank uses weighted voting.

(6)

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40. According to Immanuel Wallerstein's World-Systems Theory, what is the role of the
semi-periphery?
(A) It remains economically isolated from both the core and the periphery.
(B) It acts as a political and economic buffer by exploiting peripheral countries while also
being influenced by the core.
m
om . co
(C) It supplies raw materials only to peripheral countries.

.c
(D) It controls the global financial system.
e m
e m
41. Consider the following statements about Fundamental Rights during a National
l a s
a s
l19 is automatically suspended during every National Emergency.
Emergency under Article 352:
a g
a g
1. Article
2. Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended even during an Emergency.
3. Article 19 can be suspended only when the Emergency is declared because of war or
external aggression, and not armed rebellion.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

m
42. Which of the following provisions of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment is compulsory
for state governments?
. c o
(A) Giving Panchayats full power to levy and m
(B) Reserving seats for Other Backward a s e (OBCs).
collect local taxes.

g lRaj system in states with a population above 20 lakh.
Classes
a
(C) Establishing a three-tier Panchayati
(D) Giving Panchayats full responsibility for preparing development plans.
43. According to Rajni Kothari, what was the key feature of the "Congress System"?
(A) Strict ideological unity under a central leadership.
(B) An internal factional system that absorbed social conflicts and accommodated opposition
within the Congress Party.

m
c. o
(C) Pre-election alliances with regional parties.

m
c. o m
(D) Dependence on state power to suppress political opposition.

s e
em Bommai v. Union of India (1994)? a
44. What important limitation did the Supreme Court place on the use of Article 356 in S. R.

s g l
gla a Parliament approves the
a
(A) A State Legislative Assembly cannot be dissolved until
Presidential Proclamation.
(B) The Governor's report cannot be reviewed by the courts.
(C) President's Rule can be imposed without parliamentary approval during financial crises.
(D) A floor test is unnecessary if the Governor reports a constitutional breakdown.

om . c
c m
(7)

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45. How does horizontal distribution of tax revenue differ from vertical devolution under the
Finance Commission?
(A) Vertical devolution distributes taxes among states, while horizontal distribution transfers
taxes from states to the Centre.
(B) Vertical devolution determines the Centre's overall share of taxes given to all states, while
horizontal distribution decides how that share is divided among the states.
(C) Vertical devolution applies only to grants-in-aid, while horizontal distribution applies only
to corporate taxes.
(D) Vertical devolution is based only on population, while horizontal distribution is based only
on geographical area.
46. What is the main feature that distinguishes India's policy of Non-Alignment from
neutrality or isolationism?
(A) Active participation in international affairs while maintaining independent foreign policy
decisions.
(B) Complete economic self-reliance and refusal of foreign assistance.
(C) Total military non-resistance and unilateral disarmament.
(D) Membership in regional military alliances without superpower involvement.
47. Which of the following was not one of the five principles of the 1954 Panchsheel
Agreement?
(A) Mutual respect for each other's sovereignty and territorial integrity.
(B) Mutual non-aggression.
(C) Collective defence against external aggression.
(D) Peaceful coexistence.
48. Under India's Nuclear Doctrine (2003), how is the policy of "No First Use" qualified?
(A) It applies without exception in every situation.
(B) India may use nuclear weapons in response to a biological or chemical weapons attack.
(C) India may use nuclear weapons first against non-state actors during border conflicts.
(D) The policy automatically ends if India suffers major losses in a conventional war.
49. What is the main difference between the Act East Policy and the earlier Look East
Policy?
(A) It shifted India's focus from Southeast Asia to South Asia.
(B) It expanded India's engagement beyond trade to include strategic, defence, and Indo-
Pacific cooperation.
(C) It replaced regional agreements with bilateral trade arrangements.
(D) It reduced India's role in maritime security.
50. Under the Gujral Doctrine, which neighbouring country was not included in India's
policy of non-reciprocal concessions?
(A) Bangladesh (B) Nepal (C) Pakistan (D) Sri Lanka
x-x-x
(8)

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(ROUGH WORK)

m
om . co
.c e m
e m l a s
l a s a g
ag

m
. co
s em
g l a
a

m
m c. o
c. o s e m
s em la
gla ag
a

om . c
c m
(9)

m . s e
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(ROUGH WORK)

(10)

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1. A Public Administration researcher combines household survey data with focus group
discussions to evaluate the effectiveness of a welfare programme. This design primarily
reflects:
(A) Pure quantitative research (B) Pure qualitative research
(C) Mixed-method research (D) Experimental research

m
2. Which of the following best demonstrates methodological rigour in selecting a research

co
approach?

c om m .
(A) Aligning the research approach with the research question, objectives, and nature of

m .
the phenomenon under investigation.
s e
(B)
s e
Choosing quantitative methods because they are more objective.
g l a
(C)
g l a
Choosing qualitative methods because they require fewer statistical skills.
a
a
(D) Selecting the approach most commonly used in previous studies.
3. Which statement best reflects the interpretivist perspective in social science research?
(A) Social phenomena can be explained using universal laws.
(B) Statistical analysis is the only valid source of scientific knowledge.
(C) Objective observation alone is sufficient to explain social reality.
(D) Human behaviour is best understood through the meanings individuals assign to
their actions.

m
4. Which of the following statements correctly reflect methodological implications of

. co
interdisciplinary research?

em
1. Selection of methods should follow the research problem rather than disciplinary

s
boundaries.
2.
l a
Both quantitative and qualitative methods may be combined where appropriate.
g
a
3. Interdisciplinary research discourages theoretical integration.
4. Researchers should synthesise evidence from multiple disciplines.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) 1,2,4 (B) 1,2,3 (C) 2,3,4 (D) 1,2,3,4
5. A researcher plans to conduct a Systematic Literature Review (SLR) on citizen participation
in digital governance. Which of the following characteristics distinguish an SLR from a
traditional literature review?
1. A predefined review protocol

m
c. o
2. Explicit inclusion and exclusion criteria

m
c. o
3. Comprehensive and reproducible search strategy
4.
e m
Selection of studies based solely on the researchers’ preference

em l a s
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

s (A) 1,2,3 (B) 1,3,4
g
la 6. Which of the following situations most strongly justify conducting
a a systematic literature
(C) 2,3,4 (D) 1,2,3,4

ag review?
1. Synthesising fragmented evidence on a governance issue
2. Identifying research gaps before designing a doctoral study
3. Informing evidence-based public policy recommendations
4. Avoiding empirical research altogether
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) 1,2,3,4 (B) 1,2 (C) 1,3,4 (D) 1,2,3

om . c
c m
(1)

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7. Which of the following statements regarding the arithmetic mean are correct?
1. It is affected by extreme values.
2. It uses all observations in the dataset.
3. It is suitable for further statistical analysis.
4. It is always the best measure for highly skewed distributions.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) 1,3,4 (B) 1,2,3 (C) 2,3,4 (D) 1,2,3,4

8. A doctoral scholar is comparing service delivery performance across districts. Which
considerations are important before selecting a measure of central tendency?
1. Distribution of observations
2. Nature of the variable
3. Presence of extreme values
4. Purpose of the analysis
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) 1,2 (B) 1,2,3,4 (C) 1,3,4 (D) 2,3

9. The purpose of theory is to generate hypotheses that can be tested and that will thereby allow
explanation of laws to be assessed. The above statement refers to the principle of:
(A) Objectivism (B) Constructionism
(C) Inductivism (D) Deductivism

10. Which of the following test in statistics is useful for conducting Analysis of Variance?
(A) F-test (B) T- test (C) Chi square (D) Z-test

11. Which type of variable explains how or why an independent variable influences a dependent
variable?
(A) Moderating variable (B) Control variable
(C) Mediating variable (D) Extraneous variable

12. In systematic sampling, every 15th household is selected after choosing a random starting
point. The number 15 is known as the:
(A) Sampling ratio (B) Sampling interval
(C) Sampling frame (D) Sampling unit

13. Match the types of triangulations with their correct descriptions.
Column A Column B (Descriptions)
(Types of Triangulations)
1. Data Triangulation i. Use of different theoretical perspectives to
interpret the same data
2. Investigator Triangulation ii. Collection of data from different sources,
settings, or time periods
3. Theory Triangulation iii. Involvement of more than one researcher in
data collection or analysis
4. Methodological iv. Use of multiple research methods to study the
Triangulation same phenomenon

(2)

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Choose the correct option:
(A) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv (B) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-i
(C) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-ii (D) 1-i, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-iii

14. Match Column A with Column B regarding the levels of measurement commonly used in
social science research.

m
Column A Column B (Characteristics)

om . co
(Levels of Measurement)

c m
1. Nominal Scale i. Equal intervals between values but no true zero

m . point
s e
2.
se
Ordinal Scale ii. Classification into mutually exclusive categories
g l a
l a without any inherent order
a
ag
3. Interval Scale iii. Classification into categories with a meaningful
order or rank, but unequal intervals
4. Ratio Scale iv. Equal intervals between values with an absolute
(true) zero point
Choose the correct option:
(A) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-i (B) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-ii
(C) 1-i, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-iii (D) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv

15. According to UGC Regulations 2018 for Prevention of Plagiarism, which among the
m
c. o
following similarities would constitute Level 3 plagiarism?
(A) 38% (B) 45% (C) 54% (D) 71%

e m between urban and rural areas. To ensure
that both groups are proportionatelyas
16. A researcher aims to compare citizen satisfaction

g l represented in the sample, the most appropriate
sampling technique is:
(A) Convenience Sampling
a (B) Cluster Sampling
(C) Snowball Sampling (D) Stratified random Sampling

17. Which of the following best distinguishes cross-sectional research from longitudinal
research?
(A) Cross-sectional research collects data at one point in time, whereas longitudinal research
collects data over an extended period

m
(B) Cross-sectional research is qualitative, whereas longitudinal research is quantitative

om c. o
(C) Cross-sectional research always involves experiments

c.Instructions m one labeled as
(D) There is no difference

s e
s emAssertion (A) and other labelled as Reason. Select the correct answer l a from the codes given
for Question No. 18 and 19: Given below are two statements,

la below: g
a has been accepted for
ag 18. Assertion (A): Publication ethics is relevant only after a manuscript
publication.
Reason (R): Ethical principles apply throughout the research process, including
authorship, data management, peer review, and publication.
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.

c
(D) A is false, but R is true.

m .
c. o m
(3)

m s e
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19. Assertion (A): Open Access is a publishing model that aims to improve access to scholarly
literature.
Reason (R): Open Access determines the methodological quality of published research.
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.

20. Which of the following is NOT necessarily an indicator of a predatory journal?
(A) Charging an Article Processing Charge (APC)
(B) Lack of transparent peer-review procedures
(C) False claims regarding indexing and impact metrics
(D) Aggressive and unsolicited email invitations

21. Which test is used to compare more than two sample means?
(A) F-test (B) t-Test (C) Z-test (D) Chi-square test

22. Primary objective of thematic analysis is to:
(A) Test causal relationships between variables
(B) Identify, analyse, and interpret recurring themes or patterns in qualitative data
(C) Estimate population parameters
(D) Measure sampling error

23. A correlation coefficient of r = -0.82 indicates:
(A) A weak positive relationship (B) A strong positive relationship
(C) A strong negative relationship (D) No relationship

24. If the standard deviation of a dataset is zero, what does it mean?
(A) All values are different (B) The dataset has missing values
(C) All values are the same (D) The mean is negative

25. A journal receives a complaint alleging plagiarism in a published article. What should be the
journal’s first step?
(A) Retract the article immediately
(B) Conduct a fair and confidential preliminary assessment of the allegation
(C) Permanently ban the authors
(D) Ignore anonymous complaints

26. What is the key challenge in applying the principal-agent theory to public administration?
(A) Difficulty in monitoring agent performance due to information asymmetry
(B) Lack of skilled personnel
(C) Too much legal oversight
(D) Excessive public participation

27. Which scholar argued that Public Administration is “all operations having for their purpose
the fulfilment or enforcement of public policy”?
(A) Herbert Simon (B) Luther Gulick
(C) L.D. White (D) Dwight Waldo

(4)

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28. Match List I with List II
List I (Book/ Article) List II (Author)
1. Administrative Behaviour i. Herbert A. Simon
2. The Administrative State ii. Dwight Waldo
3. The Study of Administration iii. Woodrow Wilson
4. Principles of Public Administration iv. W.F. Willoughby

m
co
Choose the correct option:

om .
(A) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-ii (B) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv
(C)
.c
1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii (D) 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-iv
e m
e m l a s
a s g
29. Arrange the following developments on evolution of rural local governance in chronological

1. glEnactment of the 73 Constitutional Amendment Act
order:
a
2. a Community Development Programme
rd

3. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
4. Constitution of Ashok Mehta Committee
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) 1,2,3,4 (B) 2,3,1,4 (C) 2,3,4,1 (D) 3,2,1,4

30. Which of the following situations represents a violation of the principle of subsidiarity?

m
(A) Gram Panchayats implementing rural sanitation schemes

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(B) Municipal corporations managing local solid waste
.
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(C) The union government prescribing the timing of garbage collection in every

s
Municipality
(D)
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State governments providing technical support to Panchayats
g are critical for administrative effectiveness in both
a
31. Which of the following social factors
developed and developing countries?
1. Education levels of the population
2. Trust in public institutions
3. Social cohesion and unity
4. Economic disparities
Choose the correct option:
(A) 1,3,4 (B) 1,2,3 (C) 2,3,4 (D) 1,2,3,4
m
m
32. ‘Substantive ultra vires’ occurs when delegated legislation:
c. o
c. o e m
1. Is made without publication

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2. Exceeds the powers granted by the enabling Act
la s
las 3. Is challenged in Parliament
ag
g
4. Is made by local authorities
a Choose the correct option:
(A) 1,2,3,4 (B) 1,2,3 (C) 2,3,4 (D) 1,3,4

33. Which of the following is NOT one of the categories of Municipalities recognized under part
IX-A of the Constitution of India?
(A) Nagar Panchayat (B) Municipal Council
(C) Municipal Corporation (D) Notified Area Committee

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34. A voluntary organization collaborates with a Municipal Corporation to implement solid
waste management project while remaining independent in its internal governance. This
argument best illustrates:
(A) Bureaucratic decentralization (B) Collaborative Governance
(C) Democratic decentralization (D) Delegation of powers

35. Which Directive Principle of State Policy directs the State to protect and improve the
environment?
(A) Article 38 (B) Article 39 (C) Article 48A (D) Article 40

36. Which institution is responsible for coordinating SDG implementation in India at the
national level?
(A) Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change
(B) NITI Aayog
(C) National Disaster Relief Force
(D) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy

37. The concept of administrative capability is closely associated with which broader objective
of Public Administration.
(A) Achieving economy, efficiency, and effectiveness in governance
(B) Maximising electoral support
(C) Executive discretion
(D) Market monopolization

38. Which of the following is the greatest challenge to Development Administration in
developing countries?
(A) Balancing rapid development with equity, sustainability, and institutional capacity
(B) Environmental Challenges
(C) Absence of public policies
(D) Complete administrative autonomy

39. Match the column: Labour Codes and their Coverage
Column A (Labour Codes) Column B (Coverage)
1. Code on Wages, 2019 i. Industrial relations, trade unions and
disputes resolution
2. Industrial Relations Code, 2020 ii. Wages and Remuneration
3. Code on Social Security, 2020 iii. Social Security and welfare benefits
4. Occupational Safety, Health and iv. Workplace safety and working
Working Conditions Code, 2020 conditions
Choose the correct option:
(A) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv (B) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii
(C) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv (D) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i

(6)

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Instructions for Questions 40-42: Given below are two statements, one labeled as
Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason. Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:

40. Assertion (A): Performance budgeting and outcome budgeting are distinct concepts.
Reason (R): Both exclusively measure the financial inputs allocated to government

m
programmes.

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(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

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(B) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C)
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A is true, but R is false.
e l a s
a s g
(D) A is false, but R is true.

g a
l (A): Dolowitz and Marsh argued that uninformed or incomplete policy transfer
a
41. Assertion
may contribute to policy failure.
Reason (R): Effective policy transfer requires careful consideration of contextual and
institutional differences.
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.

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42. Assertion (A): Compliance with the principles of natural justice may sometimes delay

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administrative action.

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Reason (R): Nevertheless, procedural fairness is an essential component of the rule of
law and good governance.
g l a
a
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.

43. Which of the following contemporary public management practices most directly reflects
Elton Mayo’s Human Relations Approach?
(A) Strict adherence to rules and procedures without employee consultation

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(B) Employee engagement programmes, participative decision-making, and

c. o
workplace well-being initiatives
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c. o m
(C) Exclusive reliance on financial incentives to improve performance
(D)
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Centralisation of all decision-making authority
e
s em44. Match the following thinkers with their administrative ideas: gla
gla a
a
Column A (Thinker) Column B (Contribution)
1. Fred W. Riggs i. Fused-Prismatic-Diffracted Model
2. Edward Weidner ii. Development-oriented administrative system
3. Herbert Simon iii. Decision-making approach
4. Dwight Waldo iv. Public Administration as a value-laden discipline
Choose the correct option:
(A) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv (B) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iii
(C) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii (D) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i

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PH.D. 2026 PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION

45. Which of the following is considered the cornerstone of democratic policing?
(A) Political control over investigations (B) Rule of law and accountability
(C) Secrecy in policing (D) Unlimited police discretion

46. Consider the following statements regarding the Citizen Report Card:
1. It is a tool for measuring citizens’ satisfaction with public services.
2. It promotes accountability through public disclosure of performance.
3. It is a statutory audit conducted by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1,2, and 3

47. Which of the following best captures the contemporary view of the State versus Market
debate?
(A) Markets should replace governments entirely
(B) Governments should eliminate all market mechanisms
(C) Effective governance requires an appropriate balance between market efficiency
and State regulation
(D) Public administration has no role in economic development

48. The ____________ approach to policy implementation begins with policy goals determined
by policymakers and examines how they are achieved.
(A) Bottom-up (B) Incremental
(C) Top-down (D) Mixed Scanning

49. The concept of “street-level bureaucracy” was developed by _______________
(A) Herbert Simon (B) Michael Lipsky
(C) Charles Lindblom (D) Fred W. Riggs

50. Collective bargaining is best defined as:
(A) Individual negotiations between an employer and an employee
(B) Judicial settlement of labour disputes
(C) Government regulation of wages
(D) Negotiations between employers and representatives of employees to determine
terms and conditions of employment
x-x-x

(8)

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fgUnh vuqokn gzikph nB[tkd
1) yksd ç'kklu dk ,d 'kks/kdrkZ fdlh dY;k.kdkjh dk;ZØe dh ਜਨਤਕ ਪ ਾਸਨ ਦਾ ਇੱ ਕ ਖੋਜਕਰਤਾ ਭਲਾਈ ਕਾਰਜਕਮ ਦੀ ਪਭਾਵ ੀਲਤਾ ਦਾ
çHkko'khyrk dk ewY;kadu djus ds fy, ?kjsyw losZ{k.k vkadMs dks ਮੁਲ ਕਣ ਕਰਨ ਲਈ ਘਰੇਲੂ ਸਰਵੇਖਣ ਦੇ ਅੰ ਕਿੜਆਂ ਨੂੰ ਕਿਦਤ ਸਮੂਹ ਚਰਚਾਵ ਨਾਲ

dsafær lewg ppkZvksa ds lkFk feykrk gSA ;g vfHkdYiuk eq[; ਜੋੜਦਾ ਹੈ। ਇਹ ਬਣਾਵਟ ਮੁੱ ਖ ਤੌਰ 'ਤੇ ਕੀ ਦਰਸਾ ਦਾ ਹੈ?

:i ls D;k n'kkZrk gS\

m
(A) 'kq) ek=kRed 'kks/k (A) ੁੱ ਧ ਮਾਤਰਾਤਮਕ ਖੋਜ

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(B) 'kq) xq.kkRed 'kks/k (B) ੁੱ ਧ ਗੁਣਾਤਮਕ ਖੋਜ

.c e m
(C) fefJr&fof/k 'kks/k (C) ਿਮ ਰਤ-ਿਵਧੀ ਖੋਜ

(D) çk;ksfxd 'kks/k
e m
(D)
a s
ਪਯੋਗਾਤਮਕ ਖੋਜ

a s g l
a
2) 'kks/k –f"Vdks.k pquus esa i)frxr dBksjrk dks buesa ls dkSu lcls ਹੇਠ ਿਲਿਖਆਂ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਿਕਹੜਾ ਖੋਜ ਿਦ ਟੀਕੋਣ ਦੀ ਚੋਣ ਕਰਨ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਿਵਧੀਗਤ ਸਖ਼ਤੀ ਨੂੰ

l
ag
vPNh rjg çnf'kZr djrk gS\ ਸਭ ਤ ਵਧੀਆ ਢੰ ਗ ਨਾਲ ਦਰਸਾ ਦਾ ਹੈ?

(A) 'kks/k –f"Vdks.k dks 'kks/k ç'u] mís';ksa vkSj tkap dh tk (A) ਖੋਜ ਿਦ ਟੀਕੋਣ ਨੂੰ ਖੋਜ ਪ ਨ, ਉਦੇ ਅਤੇ ਜ ਚ ਅਧੀਨ ਘਟਨਾ ਦੀ
jgh ?kVuk dh ç—fr ds vuq:i cukukA ਪਿਕਰਤੀ ਨਾਲ ਮੇਲਣਾ।

(B) ek=kRed fof/k;ksa dks pquuk D;ksafd os vf/kd oLrqfu"B (B) ਮਾਤਰਾਤਮਕ ਿਵਧੀਆਂ ਦੀ ਚੋਣ ਕਰਨਾ ਿਕ ਿਕ ਉਹ ਵਧੇਰੇ ਿਨਰਪੱ ਖ
gksrh gSaA ਹੁੰ ਦੀਆਂ ਹਨ।

(C) xq.kkRed fof/k;ksa dks pquuk D;ksafd muesa de (C) ਗੁਣਾਤਮਕ ਿਵਧੀਆਂ ਦੀ ਚੋਣ ਕਰਨਾ ਿਕ ਿਕ ਉਹਨ ਲਈ ਘੱ ਟ ਅੰ ਕੜਾ-
lkaf[;dh; dkS'ky dh vko';drk gksrh gSA ਿਵਿਗਆਨਕ ਹੁਨਰ ਦੀ ਲੋ ੜ ਹੁੰ ਦੀ ਹੈ।

(D) fiNys v/;;uksa esa lcls vf/kd mi;ksx fd, tkus okys (D) ਿਪਛਲੇ ਅਿਧਐਨ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਸਭ ਤ ਵੱ ਧ ਵਰਤੀ ਜਾਣ ਵਾਲੀ ਿਦ ਟੀਕੋਣ ਦੀ ਚੋਣ

m
–f"Vdks.k dk p;u djukA ਕਰਨਾ।

c. o
3) lkekftd foKku 'kks/k esa O;k[;kRed –f"Vdks.k dks dkSu lk ਸਮਾਿਜਕ ਿਵਿਗਆਨ ਖੋਜ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਿਕਹੜਾ ਕਥਨ ਿਵਆਿਖਆਵਾਦੀ ਿਦ ਟੀਕੋਣ ਨੂੰ ਸਭ ਤ

em (A)
dFku lcls vPNh rjg n'kkZrk gS\ ਵਧੀਆ ਢੰ ਗ ਨਾਲ ਦਰਸਾ ਦਾ ਹੈ?

(A) lkekftd ?kVukvksa dks lkoZHkkSfed fu;eksa dk mi;ksx
a s
ਸਮਾਿਜਕ ਘਟਨਾਵ ਨੂੰ ਿਵਆਪਕ ਿਨਯਮ ਦੀ ਵਰਤ ਕਰਕੇ ਸਮਝਾਇਆ ਜਾ
djds le>k;k tk ldrk gSA
g l ਸਕਦਾ ਹੈ।

(B) lkaf[;dh; fo'ys"k.k oSKkfud Kku dk ,dek= oS/k
lzksr gSA a (B) ਅੰ ਕੜਾ-ਿਵਿਗਆਨਕ ਿਵ ਲੇ ਣ ਿਵਿਗਆਨਕ ਿਗਆਨ ਦਾ ਇੱ ਕੋ-ਇੱ ਕ
ਪਮਾਣਕ ਸਰੋਤ ਹੈ।

(C) lkekftd okLrfodrk dks le>kus ds fy, dsoy (C) ਸਮਾਿਜਕ ਹਕੀਕਤ ਨੂੰ ਸਮਝਾਉਣ ਲਈ ਿਸਰਫ਼ ਿਨਰਪੱ ਖ ਿਨਰੀਖਣ ਹੀ ਕਾਫ਼ੀ
oLrqfu"B voyksdu gh i;kZIr gSA ਹੈ।

(D) ekuoh; O;ogkj dks mu vFkksaZ ds ek/;e ls lcls (D) ਮਨੁੱਖੀ ਿਵਵਹਾਰ ਨੂੰ ਉਨ ਅਰਥ ਰਾਹ ਸਭ ਤ ਵਧੀਆ ਢੰ ਗ ਨਾਲ
vPNh rjg le>k tkrk gS tks O;fä vius dk;ksaZ dks ਸਮਿਝਆ ਜ ਦਾ ਹੈ ਜੋ ਿਵਅਕਤੀ ਆਪਣੇ ਕੰ ਮ ਨੂੰ ਿਦੰ ਦੇ ਹਨ।
nsrs gSaA
4) buesa ls dkSu ls dFku varfoZ"k;d 'kks/k ds i)frxr izHkkoksa dks ਹੇਠ ਿਲਿਖਆਂ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਿਕਹੜੇ ਕਥਨ ਅੰ ਤਰ-ਅਨੁ ਾਸਨੀ ਖੋਜ ਦੇ ਿਵਧੀਗਤ ਪਭਾਵ ਨੂੰ

m
c. o
lgh <ax ls n'kkZrs gS\a ਸਹੀ ਢੰ ਗ ਨਾਲ ਦਰਸਾ ਦੇ ਹਨ?

m
c. o
1. fof/k;ksa dk p;u fo"k; dh lhekvksa ds ctk; 'kks/k leL;k 1. ਿਵਧੀਆਂ ਦੀ ਚੋਣ ਅਨੁ ਾਸਨੀ ਸੀਮਾਵ ਦੀ ਬਜਾਏ ਖੋਜ ਸਮੱ ਿਸਆ ਦੇ ਅਨੁਸਾਰ ਹੋਣੀ
ds vuqlkj gksuk pkfg,A ਚਾਹੀਦੀ ਹੈ।

e m
em
2. tgka mi;qä gks] ogka ek=kRed vkSj xq.kkRed nksuksa fof/k;ksa

la s
2. ਿਜੱ ਥੇ ਉਿਚਤ ਹੋਵ,ੇ ਥੇ ਮਾਤਰਾਤਮਕ ਅਤੇ ਗੁਣਾਤਮਕ ਦੋਵ ਿਵਧੀਆਂ ਨੂੰ ਜੋਿੜਆ ਜਾ

las dks feyk;k tk ldrk gSA ਸਕਦਾ ਹੈ।

ag
g
3. varfoZ"k;d 'kks/k lS)kafrd ,dhdj.k dks grksRlkfgr djrk gSA

a
3. ਅੰ ਤਰ-ਅਨੁ ਾਸਨੀ ਖੋਜ ਿਸਧ ਤਕ ਏਕੀਕਰਣ ਨੂੰ ਉਤ ਾਿਹਤ ਨਹ ਕਰਦੀ।
4. 'kks/kdrkZvksa dks dbZ fo"k;ksa ls çkIr lk{;ksa dk la'ys"k.k djuk 4. ਖੋਜਕਰਤਾਵ ਨੂੰ ਕਈ ਿਵ ਾ ਤ ਪਾਪਤ ਸਬੂਤ ਦਾ ਸਮੂਿਹਕ ਿਵ ਲੇ ਣ
pkfg,A ਕਰਨਾ ਚਾਹੀਦਾ ਹੈ।
uhps fn, x, dksM esa ls lgh mÙkj dk p;u dhft,%& ਹੇਠ ਿਦੱ ਤੇ ਕੋਡ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਸਹੀ ਤਰ ਚੁਣੋ:

(A) 1,2,4 (A) 1,2,4

(B) 1,2,3 (B) 1,2,3

(C) 2,3,4 (C) 2,3,4

(D) 1,2,3,4 (D) 1,2,3,4

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5) ,d 'kks/kdrkZ fMftVy 'kklu esa ukxfjdksa dh Hkkxhnkjh ij ,d ਇੱ ਕ ਖੋਜਕਰਤਾ ਿਡਜੀਟਲ ਾਸਨ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਨਾਗਿਰਕ ਦੀ ਭਾਗੀਦਾਰੀ ਬਾਰੇ ਇੱ ਕ
O;ofLFkr lkfgR; leh{kk ¼,l-,y-vkj½ djus dh ;kstuk cuk 'ਿਵਵਸਿਥਤ ਸਾਿਹਤ ਸਮੀਿਖਆ' (SLR) ਕਰਨ ਦੀ ਯੋਜਨਾ ਬਣਾ ਿਰਹਾ ਹੈ। ਹੇਠ
jgk gSA buesa ls dkSu lh fo'ks"krk,a ,l-,y-vkj dks ikjaifjd ਿਲਖੀਆਂ ਿਵ ੇ ਤਾਵ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਿਕਹੜੀਆਂ ਿਵਵਸਿਥਤ ਸਾਿਹਤ ਸਮੀਿਖਆ (SLR) ਨੂੰ
lkfgR; leh{kk ls vyx djrh gSa\ ਰਵਾਇਤੀ ਸਾਿਹਤ ਸਮੀਿਖਆ ਤ ਵੱ ਖਰਾ ਕਰਦੀਆਂ ਹਨ?
1. igys ls r; leh{kk f'k"Vkpkj 1. ਪਿਹਲ ਤ ਿਨਰਧਾਰਤ ਸਮੀਿਖਆ ਿ ਟਾਚਾਰ
2. lkQ rkSj ij 'kkfey djus vkSj ckgj j[kus ds ekunaM 2. ਸਪੱ ਟ ਾਮਲ ਕਰਨ ਅਤੇ ਬਾਹਰ ਰੱ ਖਣ ਦੇ ਮਾਪਦੰ ਡ
3. foLr`r vkSj nksgjkbZ tk ldus okyh [kkst j.kuhfr 3. ਿਵਆਪਕ ਅਤੇ ਦੁਹਰਾਉਣਯੋਗ ਖੋਜ ਰਣਨੀਤੀ
4. flQZ 'kks/kdrkZvksa dh ilan ds vk/kkj ij v/;;u p;u
4. ਿਸਰਫ਼ ਖੋਜਕਰਤਾਵ ਦੀ ਪਸੰ ਦ ਦੇ ਆਧਾਰ 'ਤੇ ਅਿਧਐਨ ਦੀ ਚੋਣ
uhps fn, x, dksM esa ls lgh mÙkj dk p;u dhft,%& ਹੇਠ ਿਦੱ ਤੇ ਕੋਡ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਸਹੀ ਤਰ ਚੁਣੋ:

(A) 1,2,3 (B) 1,3,4 (A) 1,2,3 (B) 1,3,4

(C) 2,3,4 (D) 1,2,3,4 (C) 2,3,4 (D) 1,2,3,4

6) buesa ls dkSu lh fLFkfr O;ofLFkr lkfgR; leh{kk djus dks lcls ਹੇਠ ਿਲਖੀਆਂ ਸਿਥਤੀਆਂ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਿਕਹੜੀ ਸਿਥਤੀ ਇੱ ਕ ਿਵਵਸਿਥਤ ਸਾਿਹਤ ਸਮੀਿਖਆ
etcwrh ls lgh Bgjkrh gS \ ਕਰਨ ਨੂੰ ਸਭ ਤ ਵੱ ਧ ਜਾਇਜ਼ ਠਿਹਰਾ ਦੀ ਹੈ?
1. 'kklu ls tqM+s eqís ij fc[kjs gq, lcwrksa dks ,d lkFk ykuk 1. ਾਸਨ ਦੇ ਮੁੱ ਦੇ 'ਤੇ ਿਖੰ ਡੇ ਹੋਏ ਸਬੂਤ ਦਾ ਸੰ ਲੇ ਣ ਕਰਨਾ
2. fo|k okpLifr dk v/;;u dh :ijs[kk cukus ls igys 'kks/k 2. ਚ-ਪੱ ਧਰੀ ਖੋਜ ਪੜਾਈ ਦੀ ਰੂਪ-ਰੇਖਾ ਿਤਆਰ ਕਰਨ ਤ ਪਿਹਲ ਖੋਜ ਦੇ ਅੰ ਤਰ
dh dfe;ksa dh igpku djuk ਦੀ ਪਛਾਣ ਕਰਨਾ
3. lcwrksa ij vk/kkfjr lkoZtfud uhfr dh flQkfj'kksa ds fy, 3. ਸਬੂਤ-ਆਧਾਿਰਤ ਜਨਤਕ ਨੀਤੀਗਤ ਿਸਫ਼ਾਰ ਲਈ ਜਾਣਕਾਰੀ ਪਦਾਨ ਕਰਨਾ
tkudkjh nsuk 4. ਅਨੁਭਵ-ਜਿਨਤ ਖੋਜ ਤ ਪੂਰੀ ਤਰ ਬਚਣਾ
4. vuqHkotU; 'kks/k ls iwjh rjg cpuk
ਹੇਠ ਿਦੱ ਤੇ ਕੋਡ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਸਹੀ ਤਰ ਚੁਣੋ:
uhps fn, x, dksM esa ls lgh mÙkj dk p;u dhft,%&
(A) 1,2,3,4 (B) 1,2 (A) 1,2,3,4 (B) 1,2

(C) 1,3,4 (D) 1,2,3 (C) 1,3,4 (D) 1,2,3

7) vadxf.krh; ek/; ds ckjs esa buesa ls dkSu&ls dFku lgh gSa\ ਅੰ ਕਗਿਣਿਤਕ ਮੱ ਧਮਾਨ ਬਾਰੇ ਹੇਠ ਿਲਖੇ ਕਥਨ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਿਕਹੜੇ ਸਹੀ ਹਨ?
1. ;g cgqr T;knk ;k cgqr de ekuksa ls çHkkfor gksrk gSA 1. ਇਹ ਬਹੁਤ ਵੱ ਡੇ ਜ ਬਹੁਤ ਛੋਟੇ ਮੁੱ ਲ ਵੱ ਲ ਪਭਾਿਵਤ ਹੁੰ ਦਾ ਹੈ।
2. blesa vkadM+k leqPp; ds lHkh voyksduksa dk bLrseky fd;k 2. ਇਹ ਜਾਣਕਾਰੀ ਸੰ ਗਿਹ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਸਾਰੇ ਿਨਰੀਖਣ ਦੀ ਵਰਤ ਕਰਦਾ ਹੈ।
tkrk gSA 3. ਇਹ ਅਗਲੇ ਰੇ ਅੰ ਕੜਾ-ਿਵਿਗਆਨਕ ਿਵ ਲੇ ਣ ਲਈ ਢੁਕਵ ਹੈ।
3. ;g vkxs ds lkaf[;dh; fo'ys"k.k ds fy, mi;qä gSA 4. ਇਹ ਬਹੁਤ ਿਜ਼ਆਦਾ ਿਵਸਮਾਨ ਵੰ ਡ ਲਈ ਹਮੇ ਾ ਸਭ ਤ ਵਧੀਆ ਮਾਪ ਹੁੰ ਦਾ ਹੈ।
4. ;g cgqr T;knk fo"ke forj.k ds fy, ges'kk lcls vPNk ਹੇਠ ਿਦੱ ਤੇ ਕੋਡ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਸਹੀ ਤਰ ਚੁਣੋ:
eki gksrk gSA
uhps fn, x, dksM esa ls lgh mÙkj dk p;u dhft,%&
(A) 1,3,4 (B) 1,2,3 (A) 1,3,4 (B) 1,2,3

(C) 2,3,4 (D) 1,2,3,4 (C) 2,3,4 (D) 1,2,3,4

8) ,d fo|k okpLifr 'kks/kkFkhZ vyx&vyx ftyksa esa lsok forj.k ਇੱ ਕ ਚ-ਪੱ ਧਰੀ ਖੋਜਾਰਥੀ ਵੱ ਖ-ਵੱ ਖ ਿਜ਼ਿਲਆਂ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਸੇਵਾ ਪਦਾਨ ਕਰਨ ਦੀ
çn'kZu dh rqyuk dj jgk gSA dsaæh; ço`fÙk dk eki pquus ls ਕਾਰਗੁਜ਼ਾਰੀ ਦੀ ਤੁਲਨਾ ਕਰ ਿਰਹਾ ਹੈ। ਕਦਰੀ ਪਿਵਰਤੀ ਦੇ ਮਾਪ ਦੀ ਚੋਣ ਕਰਨ ਤ
igys fdu ckrksa dk /;ku j[kuk t:jh gS \ ਪਿਹਲ ਿਕਹੜੇ ਪਿਹਲੂ ਮਹੱ ਤਵਪੂਰਨ ਹਨ?
1. voyksduksa dk forj.k 1. ਿਨਰੀਖਣ ਦੀ ਵੰ ਡ
2. pj dh ç—fr 2. ਚਰ ਦੀ ਪਿਕਰਤੀ
3. cgqr T;knk ;k cgqr de ekuksa dh ekStwnxh 3. ਬਹੁਤ ਵੱ ਡੇ ਜ ਬਹੁਤ ਛੋਟੇ ਮੁੱ ਲ ਦੀ ਮੌਜਦ
ੂ ਗੀ
4. fo'ys"k.k dk mís'; 4. ਿਵ ਲੇ ਣ ਦਾ ਉਦੇ
uhps fn, x, dksM esa ls lgh mÙkj dk p;u dhft,%& ਹੇਠ ਿਦੱ ਤੇ ਕੋਡ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਸਹੀ ਤਰ ਚੁਣੋ:

(A) 1,2 (B) 1,2,3,4 (A) 1,2 (B) 1,2,3,4

(C) 1,3,4 (D) 2,3 (C) 1,3,4 (D) 2,3

(10)

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9) fl)kUr dk mís'; ,slh ifjdYiuk,¡ cukuk gS ftudh tk¡p dh ਿਸਧ ਤ ਦਾ ਉਦੇ ਅਿਜਹੀਆਂ ਪਿਰਕਲਪਨਾਵ ਿਤਆਰ ਕਰਨਾ ਹੈ ਿਜਨ ਦੀ ਜ ਚ
tk lds vkSj ftuls fu;eksa dh O;k[;k dk ewY;kadu fd;k tk ਕੀਤੀ ਜਾ ਸਕੇ ਅਤੇ ਿਜਨ ਰਾਹ ਿਨਯਮ ਦੀ ਿਵਆਿਖਆ ਦਾ ਮੁਲ ਕਣ ਕੀਤਾ ਜਾ ਸਕੇ।
ldsA mijksDr fn;k x;k dFku fdl fl)kar ls lacaf/kr gS\ ਉਪਰੋਕਤ ਕਥਨ ਿਕਸ ਿਸਧ ਤ ਵੱ ਲ ਸੰ ਕੇਤ ਕਰਦਾ ਹੈ?

(A) oLrqfu"Brkokn (A) ਵਸਤੂਪਰਕਤਾਵਾਦ

(B) fuekZ.kokn (B) ਰਚਨਾਵਾਦ

m
(C) vkxeukRedrkokn (C) ਆਗਮਨਵਾਦ

om . co
(D) fuxeukRedrk (D) ਿਨਗਮਨਵਾਦ

.c e m
10) lkaf[;dh esa ^çlj.k fo'ys"k.k* djus ds fy, buesa ls dkSu&lk ਅੰ ਕੜਾ-ਿਵਿਗਆਨ ਿਵੱ ਚ ‘ਪਿਰਵਰਤਨ ੀਲਤਾ ਦਾ ਿਵ ਲੇ ਣ’ ਕਰਨ ਲਈ ਹੇਠ
ijh{k.k mi;ksxh gS\
e m
ਿਲਿਖਆਂ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਿਕਹੜਾ ਪਰੀਖਣ ਲਾਹੇਵੰਦ ਹੈ?

l a s
(A) ,Q&ijh{k.k
l a s (B) Vh&ijh{k.k (A) ਐਫ-ਪਰੀਖਣ (B) ਟੀ-ਪਰੀਖਣ

a g
ag
(C) dkbZ&oxZ (D) tsM&ijh{k.k (C) ਕਾਈ-ਵਰਗ (D) ਜ਼ੈਡ-ਪਰੀਖਣ

11) fdl rjg dk pj ;g crkrk gS fd dksbZ Lora= pj] fuHkZj pj ਿਕਸ ਿਕਸਮ ਦਾ ਚਰ ਇਹ ਦੱ ਸਦਾ ਹੈ ਿਕ ਇੱ ਕ ਸੁਤੰਤਰ ਚਰ, ਿਨਰਭਰ ਚਰ ਨੂੰ ਿਕਵ ਜ
dks dSls ;k D;ksa çHkkfor djrk gS\ ਿਕ ਪਭਾਿਵਤ ਕਰਦਾ ਹੈ?

(A) fu;ked pj (A) ਸੰ ਚਾਲਕ ਚਰ

(B) fu;a=.k pj (B) ਿਨਯੰ ਤਰਣ ਚਰ

(C) e/;LFk pj (C) ਿਵਚੋਲਗੀ ਚਰ

(D) cká pj (D) ਬਾਹਰੀ ਚਰ

12) O;ofLFkr uewuk p;u] ;k–fPNd 'kq#vkrh fcanq pquus ds ckn gj ਿਵਵਸਿਥਤ ਨਮੂਨਾ-ਚੋਣ ਿਵੱ ਚ, ਇੱ ਕ ਬੇਤਰਤੀਬ ੁਰੂਆਤੀ ਿਬੰ ਦੂ ਚੁਣਨ ਤ ਬਾਅਦ ਹਰ

m
c. (A)o
15osa ?kj dks pquk tkrk gSA la[;k 15 dks D;k dgk tkrk gS\ 15ਵ ਘਰ ਚੁਿਣਆ ਜ ਦਾ ਹੈ। ਸੰ ਿਖਆ 15 ਨੂੰ ਕੀ ਿਕਹਾ ਜ ਦਾ ਹੈ?

em (B)
(A) uewukdj.k vuqikr ਨਮੂਨਾ ਅਨੁਪਾਤ

a s
(B) uewukdj.k varjky ਨਮੂਨਾ ਅੰ ਤਰਾਲ

(C) uewukdj.k <kapk
g l (C) ਨਮੂਨਾ ਲੈ ਣ ਦਾ ਢ ਚਾ

(D) uewukdj.k bdkbZ
13) f=Hkqthdj.k ds çdkjksa dks muds lgh fooj.k ls feyk,¡A
a (D) ਨਮੂਨਾ ਇਕਾਈ

ਿਤਕੋਣ-ਮਾਪ ਦੀਆਂ ਿਕਸਮ ਨੂੰ ਉਹਨ ਦੇ ਸਹੀ ਵੇਰਿਵਆਂ ਨਾਲ ਿਮਲਾਓ।

lkj.kh&A ¼f=Hkqthdj.k ds çdkj½ lkj.kh&B ¼fooj.k½ ਖਾਨਾ-A (ਿਤਕੋਣ-ਮਾਪ ਦੀਆਂ ਿਕਸਮ ) ਖਾਨਾ-B (ਵੇਰਵੇ)
1. vkadMk f=dks.khdj.k i ,d gh MsVk dh O;k[;k djus 1. ਡਾਟਾ ਿਤਕੋਣ-ਮਾਪ i ਉਸੇ ਡਾਟੇ ਦੀ ਿਵਆਿਖਆ ਕਰਨ
ds fy, vyx&vyx ਲਈ ਵੱ ਖ-ਵੱ ਖ ਿਸਧ ਤਕ
lS)kafrd –f"Vdks.kksa dk ਿਦ ਟੀਕੋਣ ਦੀ ਵਰਤ
mi;ksx

m
2. 'kks/kdrkZ f=dks.khdj.k ii fofHkUu lzksrksa] ifjos'kksa ;k 2. ਖੋਜਕਰਤਾ ਿਤਕੋਣ-ਮਾਪ ii ਵੱ ਖ-ਵੱ ਖ ਸਰੋਤ , ਸਿਥਤੀਆਂ ਜ

m c. o
le;kof/k;ksa ls MsVk dk laxzg ਸਮ ਦੇ ਅੰ ਤਰਾਲ ਤ ਡਾਟਾ ਇਕੱ ਠਾ

c. o fl)kar f=dks.khdj.k se
m
ਕਰਨਾ

em gla
3. iii MsVk laxzg ;k fo'ys"k.k esa 3. ਿਸਧ ਤ ਿਤਕੋਣ-ਮਾਪ iii ਡਾਟਾ ਇਕੱ ਠਾ ਕਰਨ ਜ ਿਵ ਲੇ ਣ

s
,d ls vf/kd 'kks/kdrkZvksa

la
ਿਵੱ ਚ ਇੱ ਕ ਤ ਵੱ ਧ ਖੋਜਕਰਤਾਵ ਦੀ

a
dh Hkkxhnkjh

g
ਮੂਲੀਅਤ

a fof/k&laca/kh f=dks.khdj.k ,d gh ?kVuk dk v/;;u
4. iv 4. ਿਵਧੀ-ਸੰ ਬੰ ਧੀ ਿਤਕੋਣ-ਮਾਪ iv ਉਸੇ ਵਰਤਾਰੇ ਦਾ ਅਿਧਐਨ ਕਰਨ
djus ds fy, dbZ 'kks/k ਲਈ ਕਈ ਖੋਜ ਿਵਧੀਆਂ ਦੀ ਵਰਤ
fof/k;ksa dk mi;ksx
lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,%& ਸਹੀ ਿਵਕਲਪ ਚੁਣੋ:

(A) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv (A) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv
(B) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-i (B) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-i
(C) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-ii (C) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-ii
(D) 1-i, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-iii (D) 1-i, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-iii

om . c
c m
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m . s e
se
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14) lkekftd foKku 'kks/k esa vkerkSj ij bLrseky gksus okys ekiu ਸਮਾਿਜਕ ਿਵਿਗਆਨ ਖੋਜ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਆਮ ਤੌਰ 'ਤੇ ਵਰਤੇ ਜਾਣ ਵਾਲੇ ਮਾਪ ਦੇ ਪੱ ਧਰ ਦੇ
ds Lrjksa ds laca/k esa lkj.kh&A dk lkj.kh&B ls feyku dhft,A ਸੰ ਬੰ ਧ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਖਾਨਾ-A ਦਾ ਖਾਨਾ-B ਨਾਲ ਿਮਲਾਨ ਕਰੋ।

lkj.kh&A ¼ekiu ds Lrj½ lkj.kh&B ¼fo'ks"krk,¡½ ਖਾਨਾ-A (ਮਾਪ ਦੇ ਪੱ ਧਰ) ਖਾਨਾ-B (ਿਵ ੇ ਤਾਵ )
1. ukeek= iSekuk i ekuksa esa leku varjky 1. ਨਾਮਾਤਮਕ ਪੈਮਾਨਾ i ਮੁੱ ਲ ਿਵਚ ਬਰਾਬਰ ਅੰ ਤਰਾਲ ਪਰ ਕੋਈ
ysfdu dksbZ okLrfod ਅਸਲ ਜ਼ੀਰੋ ਿਬੰ ਦੂ ਨਹ
'kwU; fcanq ugha
2. Øelwpd iSekuk ii fcuk fdlh varfuZfgr Øe 2. ਕਮਵਾਰ ਪੈਮਾਨਾ ii ਿਬਨ ਿਕਸੇ ਅੰ ਦਰੂਨੀ ਕਮ ਦੇ ਆਪਸੀ
ds ijLij vuU; Jsf.k;ksa ਿਨਵੇਕਲੀਆਂ ੇਣੀਆਂ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਵਰਗੀਕਰਨ
esa oxhZdj.k
3. varjky iSekuk iii vFkZiw.kZ Øe ;k ntsZ okyh 3. ਅੰ ਤਰਾਲ ਪੈਮਾਨਾ iii ਅਰਥਪੂਰਨ ਕਮ ਜ ਦਰਜੇ ਵਾਲੀਆਂ
Jsf.k;ksa esa oxhZdj.k] ੇਣੀਆਂ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਵਰਗੀਕਰਨ, ਪਰ ਅਸਮਾਨ
ysfdu vleku varjky ਅੰ ਤਰਾਲ
4. vuqikr iSekuk iv iw.kZ ¼okLrfod½ 'kwU; fcanq 4. ਅਨੁਪਾਤ ਪੈਮਾਨਾ iv ਸੰ ਪੂਰਨ (ਅਸਲ) ਜ਼ੀਰੋ ਿਬੰ ਦੂ ਦੇ ਨਾਲ
ds lkFk ekuksa esa leku ਮੁੱ ਲ ਿਵਚਕਾਰ ਬਰਾਬਰ ਅੰ ਤਰਾਲ
varjky
lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,%& ਸਹੀ ਿਵਕਲਪ ਚੁਣੋ:

(A) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-i (A) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-i
(B) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-ii (B) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-ii
(C) 1-i, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-iii (C) 1-i, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-iii
(D) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv (D) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv
15) lkfgR; pksjh jksdFkke ds fy, ;w-th-lh fofu;e 2018 ds ਸਾਿਹਤਕ ਚੋਰੀ ਰੋਕਥਾਮ ਲਈ ਯੂ.ਜੀ.ਸੀ. ਿਨਯਮਾਵਲੀ 2018 ਦੇ ਅਨੁਸਾਰ, ਹੇਠ
vuqlkj] fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lh lekurk Lrj 3 dh ਿਲਿਖਆਂ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਿਕਹੜੀ ਸਮਾਨਤਾ 'ਪੱ ਧਰ 3' ਦੀ ਸਾਿਹਤਕ ਚੋਰੀ ਮੰ ਨੀ ਜਾਵੇਗੀ?
lkfgfR;d pksjh ekuh tk,xh\
(A) 38% (B) 45% (A) 38% (B) 45%
(C) 54% (D) 71% (C) 54% (D) 71%
16) ,d 'kks/kdrkZ 'kgjh vkSj xzkeh.k {ks=ksa ds ukxfjdksa dh larqf"V dh ਇੱ ਕ ਖੋਜਕਰਤਾ ਿਹਰੀ ਅਤੇ ਪਡੂ ਖੇਤਰ ਦੇ ਨਾਗਿਰਕ ਦੀ ਸੰ ਤੁ ਟੀ ਦੀ ਤੁਲਨਾ
rqyuk djuk pkgrk gSA ;g lqfuf'pr djus ds fy, fd uewus esa ਕਰਨਾ ਚਾਹੁੰ ਦਾ ਹੈ। ਇਹ ਯਕੀਨੀ ਬਣਾਉਣ ਲਈ ਿਕ ਨਮੂਨ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਦੋਵ ਸਮੂਹ ਦੀ
nksuksa lewgksa dk vkuqikfrd çfrfuf/kRo gks ] lcls mi;qä ਅਨੁਪਾਤਕ ਨੁਮਾਇੰ ਦਗੀ ਹੋਵ,ੇ ਸਭ ਤ ਢੁਕਵ ਨਮੂਨਾ-ਚੋਣ ਤਕਨੀਕ ਿਕਹੜੀ ਹੈ?
uewukdj.k rduhd gS%
(A) lqfo/kk vk/kkfjr uewukdj.k (A) ਸਹੂਲਤ ਅਨੁਸਾਰ ਨਮੂਨਾਕਰਨ

(B) xqPN uewukdj.k (B) ਸਮੂਹ ਨਮੂਨਾਕਰਨ

(C) fgedan uewukdj.k (C) ਸਨਬਾਲ ਨਮੂਨਾਕਰਨ

(D) Lrjh—r ;k–fPNd uewukdj.k (D) ਸਤਰੀਿਕਤ ਬੇਤਰਤੀਬ ਨਮੂਨਾਕਰਨ

17) fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk vuqçLFk&vuqHkkxh; 'kks/k vkSj ਹੇਠ ਿਲਿਖਆਂ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਿਕਹੜਾ ‘ਪਤੀਿਨਧ ਕਾਟ ਖੋਜ' ਅਤੇ 'ਲੰਬ-ਕਾਲੀ ਖੋਜ' ਿਵਚਕਾਰ ਸਭ
vuqnS/;Z 'kks/k esa lcls vPNk varj crkrk gS\ ਤ ਵਧੀਆ ਅੰ ਤਰ ਦੱ ਸਦਾ ਹੈ?

(A) vuqçLFk&vuqHkkxh; 'kks/k ,d le; fcanq ij vkadM+k (A) ਪਤੀਿਨਧ ਕਾਟ ਖੋਜ ਸਮ ਦੇ ਇੱ ਕ ਿਬੰ ਦੂ 'ਤੇ ਡਾਟਾ ਇਕੱ ਠਾ ਕਰਦੀ ਹੈ, ਜਦ
,d= djrk gS] tcfd vuqnS/;Z 'kks/k yach vof/k esa ਿਕ ਲੰਬ-ਕਾਲੀ ਖੋਜ ਲੰਬੇ ਸਮ ਦੌਰਾਨ ਡਾਟਾ ਇਕੱ ਠਾ ਕਰਦੀ ਹੈ।
vkadMk ,d= djrk gSA
(B) vuqçLFk&vuqHkkxh; 'kks/k xq.kkRed gksrk gS] tcfd (B) ਪਤੀਿਨਧ ਕਾਟ ਖੋਜ ਗੁਣਾਤਮਕ ਹੁੰ ਦੀ ਹੈ, ਜਦ ਿਕ ਲੰਬ-ਕਾਲੀ ਖੋਜ
vuqnS/;Z 'kks/k ek=kRed gksrk gSA ਮਾਤਰਾਤਮਕ ਹੁੰ ਦੀ ਹੈ।

(C) vuqçLFk&vuqHkkxh; 'kks/k esa ges'kk ç;ksx 'kkfey gksrs (C) ਪਤੀਿਨਧ ਕਾਟ ਖੋਜ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਹਮੇ ਾ ਪਯੋਗ ਾਮਲ ਹੁੰ ਦੇ ਹਨ।
gSaA
(D) dksbZ varj ugha gSA (D) ਕੋਈ ਅੰ ਤਰ ਨਹ ਹੈ।

(12)

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ç'u la[;k 18 vkSj 19 ds fy, funsZ'k% uhps nks dFku fn, x, gSa] ,d ਪ ਨ ਨੰਬਰ 18 ਅਤੇ 19 ਲਈ ਹਦਾਇਤ : ਹੇਠ ਦੋ ਕਥਨ ਿਦੱ ਤੇ ਗਏ ਹਨ, ਇੱ ਕ ਨੂੰ
dks vfHkdFku ¼A½ vkSj nwljs dks dkj.k ¼ R½ ds :i esa fpfàr fd;k x;k 'ਦਾਅਵਾ' (A) ਅਤੇ ਦੂਜੇ ਨੂੰ 'ਕਾਰਨ' (R) ਵਜ ਦਰਸਾਇਆ ਿਗਆ ਹੈ। ਹੇਠ ਿਦੱ ਤੇ ਕੋਡ
gSA uhps fn, x, dksM esa ls lgh mÙkj dk p;u dhft,% ਿਵੱ ਚ ਸਹੀ ਤਰ ਚੁਣੋ:

18) vfHkdFku (A): çdk'ku uSfrdrk rHkh çklafxd gksrh gS tc ਕਥਨ (A): ਪਕਾ ਨ ਨਿਤਕਤਾ ਉਦ ਹੀ ਸੰ ਬੰ ਿਧਤ ਹੁੰ ਦੀ ਹੈ ਜਦ ਖਰੜੇ ਨੂੰ ਪਕਾ ਨ
ikaMqfyfi dks çdk'ku ds fy, Lohdkj dj fy;k tkrk gSA ਲਈ ਸਵੀਕਾਰ ਕਰ ਿਲਆ ਜ ਦਾ ਹੈ।

m
dkj.k (R): uSfrd fl)kar iwjh 'kks/k çfØ;k ds nkSjku ykxw gksrs ਕਾਰਨ (R): ਨਿਤਕ ਿਸਧ ਤ ਸਮੁੱ ਚੀ ਖੋਜ ਪਿਕਿਰਆ ਦੌਰਾਨ ਲਾਗੂ ਹੁੰ ਦੇ ਹਨ, ਿਜਸ

om co
gSa] ftlesa ys[kdRo] vkadMk çca/ku] lgdehZ leh{kk vkSj
.
ਿਵੱ ਚ ਲੇ ਖਕ-ਪੱ ਖ, ਡਾਟਾ ਪਬੰ ਧਨ, ਸਾਥੀ ਸਮੀਿਖਆ ਅਤੇ ਪਕਾ ਨ ਾਮਲ ਹਨ।

c m
çdk'ku 'kkfey gSaA

m .
(A) (A) vkSj (R) nksuksa lgh gSa vkSj (R), (A) dh lgh (A)
s e
a
ਦੋਵ (A) ਅਤੇ (R) ਸਹੀ ਹਨ ਅਤੇ (R), (A) ਦੀ ਸਹੀ

s
O;k[;k gSA
e g l
a
ਿਵਆਿਖਆ ਹੈ।

l a
ag
(B) (A) vkSj (R) nksuksa lgh gSa] ysfdu (R), (A) dh lgh (B) ਦੋਵ (A) ਅਤੇ (R) ਸਹੀ ਹਨ, ਪਰ (R), (A) ਦੀ ਸਹੀ
O;k[;k ugha gSA ਿਵਆਿਖਆ ਨਹ ਹੈ।

(C) (A) lR; gS] ysfdu (R) vlR; gSA (C) (A) ਸੱ ਚ ਹੈ, ਪਰ (R) ਗਲਤ ਹੈ।

(D) (A) vlR; gS] ysfdu (R) lR; gSA (D) (A) ਗਲਤ ਹੈ, ਪਰ (R) ਸੱ ਚ ਹੈ।

19) vfHkdFku (A): [kqyh igq¡p ,d çdk'ku ç.kkyh gS ftldk ਕਥਨ (A): ਖੁੱ ਲੀ ਪਹੁੰ ਚ ਇੱ ਕ ਪਕਾ ਨ ਪਣਾਲੀ ਹੈ ਿਜਸਦਾ ਉਦੇ ਿਵਦਵਤਾਪੂਰਣ
edln fo}kuksa ds ys[kksa rd igq¡p dks csgrj cukuk gSA ਸਾਿਹਤ ਤੱ ਕ ਪਹੁੰ ਚ ਨੂੰ ਿਬਹਤਰ ਬਣਾਉਣਾ ਹੈ।
dkj.k (R): [kqyh igq¡p izdkf’kr gqbZ 'kks/k dh i)frxr xq.koÙkk ਕਾਰਨ (R): ਖੁੱ ਲੀ ਪਹੁੰ ਚ ਪਕਾਿ ਤ ਖੋਜ ਦੀ ਿਵਧੀਗਤ ਗੁਣਵੱ ਤਾ ਨੂੰ ਿਨਰਧਾਰਤ
r; djrk gSA ਕਰਦੀ ਹੈ।

m
c. (B)o
(A) (A) vkSj (R) nksuksa lgh gSa vkSj (R), (A) dh lgh (A) ਦੋਵ (A) ਅਤੇ (R) ਸਹੀ ਹਨ ਅਤੇ (R), (A) ਦੀ ਸਹੀ
O;k[;k gSA ਿਵਆਿਖਆ ਹੈ।

s em
(B) (A) vkSj (R) nksuksa lgh gSa] ysfdu (R), (A) dh lgh ਦੋਵ (A) ਅਤੇ (R) ਸਹੀ ਹਨ, ਪਰ (R), (A) ਦੀ ਸਹੀ

l a
O;k[;k ugha gSA ਿਵਆਿਖਆ ਨਹ ਹੈ।

(C) (A) lR; gS] ysfdu (R) vlR; gSA
(D) (A) vlR; gS] ysfdu (R) lR; gSA a g (C)
(D)
(A) ਸੱ ਚ ਹੈ, ਪਰ (R) ਗਲਤ ਹੈ।

(A) ਗਲਤ ਹੈ, ਪਰ (R) ਸੱ ਚ ਹੈ।

20) buesa ls dkSu&lh pht t:jh rkSj ij /kks[kk/kM+h djus okyh 'kks/k ਹੇਠ ਿਲਿਖਆਂ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਿਕਹੜਾ ਲੁਟੇਰਾ ਰਸਾਲਾ ਦਾ ਲਾਜ਼ਮੀ ਸੰ ਕੇਤਕ ਨਹ ਹੈ?
if=dk ¼fcuk leh{kk ds çdk'ku½ dh igpku ugha gS \
(A) ys[k çlaLdj.k 'kqYd ¼,-ih-lh½ ysuk (A) ਲੇ ਖ ਦੀ ਪਿਕਿਰਆ ਲਈ (APC) ਵਸੂਲਣਾ

(B) ikjn'khZ lgdehZ leh{kk çfØ;kvksa dh deh (B) ਪਾਰਦਰ ੀ ਸਾਥੀ ਸਮੀਿਖਆ ਪਿਕਿਰਆਵ ਦੀ ਘਾਟ

(C) vuqØe.khdj.k vkSj çHkko ladrs d ds ckjs esa >wBs nkos (C) ਸੂਚੀਬੱ ਧ ਕਰਨਾ ਅਤੇ ਪਭਾਵ ਮਾਪਦੰ ਡ ਬਾਰੇ ਝੂਠ ਦਾਅਵੇ

m
(D) vkØked vkSj vokafNr ¼fcuk ek¡x½ bZesy vkea=.k (D) ਹਮਲਾਵਰ ਅਤੇ ਅਣਚਾਿਹਆ ਈਮੇਲ ਸੱ ਦੇ

m c. o
21) nks ls T;knk uewuk ek/; dh rqyuk djus ds fy, fdl ijh{k.k ਦੋ ਤ ਵੱ ਧ ਨਮੂਨਾ ਮੱ ਧਮਾਨ ਦੀ ਤੁਲਨਾ ਕਰਨ ਲਈ ਿਕਹੜਾ ਪਰੀਖਣ ਵਰਿਤਆ ਜ ਦਾ

c. o m
dk bLrseky fd;k tkrk gS\ ਹੈ?

em se(D)
gla
(A) ,Q&ijh{k.k (B) Vh&ijh{k.k (A) ਐਫ-ਪਰੀਖਣ (B) ਟੀ-ਪਰੀਖਣ

las tsM&ijh{k.k
(C) (D) dkbZ&LDok;j ijh{k.k (C)

a
ਜ਼ੈਡ-ਪਰੀਖਣ ਕਾਈ-ਵਰਗ ਪਰੀਖਣ

g
22) fo"k;&vk/kkfjr fo'ys"k.k dk eq[; mn~ns’; D;k gS\
a
ਿਵ ੇਗਤ ਿਵ ਲੇ ਣ ਦਾ ਮੁੱ ਖ ਉਦੇ ਕੀ ਹੈ?

(A) pjksa esa dkj.k&laca/kksa dh tk¡p djuk (A) ਚਰਾ ਿਵਚ ਕਾਰਨ-ਸੰ ਬੰ ਧ ਦੀ ਜ ਚ ਕਰਨਾ

(B) xq.kkRed vkadMs esa ckj&ckj vkus okys fo"k;ksa ;k (B) ਗੁਣਾਤਮਕ ਡੇਟਾ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਵਾਰ-ਵਾਰ ਆਉਣ ਵਾਲੇ ਿਵਿ ਆਂ ਜ ਨਮੂਨ ਦੀ
çfr:i dh igpku djuk] mudk fo'ys"k.k djuk vkSj ਪਛਾਣ ਕਰਨਾ, ਿਵ ਲੇ ਣ ਕਰਨਾ ਅਤੇ ਿਵਆਿਖਆ ਕਰਨਾ
mudh O;k[;k djuk
(C) tula[;k ekinaMksa dk vuqeku yxkuk (C) ਆਬਾਦੀ ਦੇ ਮਾਪਦੰ ਡ ਦਾ ਅਨੁਮਾਨ ਲਗਾਉਣਾ

(D) p;u =qfV dks ekiuk (D) ਨਮੂਨਾ ਲੈ ਣ ਦੀ ਗਲਤੀ ਨੂੰ ਮਾਪਣਾ

om . c
c m
(13)

m . s e
se
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g l a
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23) r = -0.82 dk lg&laca/k xq.kkad D;k crkrk gS\ r = -0.82 ਦਾ ਸਿਹ-ਸੰ ਬੰ ਧ ਗੁਣ ਕ ਕੀ ਦਰਸਾ ਦਾ ਹੈ?

(A) detksj ldkjkRed laca/k (A) ਕਮਜ਼ੋਰ ਸਕਾਰਾਤਮਕ ਸੰ ਬੰ ਧ

(B) etcwr ldkjkRed laca/k (B) ਮਜ਼ਬੂਤ ਸਕਾਰਾਤਮਕ ਸੰ ਬੰ ਧ

(C) etcwr udkjkRed laca/k (C) ਮਜ਼ਬੂਤ ਨਕਾਰਾਤਮਕ ਸੰ ਬੰ ਧ

(D) dksbZ laca/k ugha (D) ਕੋਈ ਸੰ ਬੰ ਧ ਨਹ

24) vxj fdlh vkadM+k leqPp; dk ekud fopyu 'kwU; gS] rks ਜੇਕਰ ਿਕਸੇ ਜਾਣਕਾਰੀ ਸੰ ਗਿਹ ਦਾ ਿਮਆਰੀ ਿਵਚਲਨ ਜ਼ੀਰੋ ਹੈ, ਤ ਇਸਦਾ ਕੀ ਅਰਥ
bldk D;k vfHkizk; gS\ ਹੈ?

(A) lHkh ewY; vyx&vyx gSa (A) ਸਾਰੇ ਮੁੱ ਲ ਵੱ ਖਰੇ ਹਨ

(B) vkadM+k leqPp; esa dqN ewY; xk;c gSa (B) ਜਾਣਕਾਰੀ ਸੰ ਗਿਹ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਗੁੰ ਮ ਦ
ੁ ਾ ਮੁੱ ਲ ਹਨ

(C) lHkh ewY; ,d tSlh gSa (C) ਸਾਰੇ ਮੁੱ ਲ ਇੱ ਕੋ ਿਜਹੇ ਹਨ

(D) ek/; udkjkRed gS (D) ਮੱ ਧਮਾਨ ਨਕਾਰਾਤਮਕ ਹੈ

25) ,d if=dk dks çdkf'kr ys[k esa lkfgfR;d pksjh dk vkjksi ਇੱ ਕ ਪੱ ਿਤਕਾ ਨੂੰ ਪਕਾਿ ਤ ਲੇ ਖ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਸਾਿਹਤਕ ਚੋਰੀ ਦੇ ਦੋ ਬਾਰੇ ਿ ਕਾਇਤ ਿਮਲਦੀ
yxkus okyh f'kdk;r feyrh gSA if=dk dk igyk dne D;k ਹੈ। ਪੱ ਿਤਕਾ ਦਾ ਪਿਹਲਾ ਕਦਮ ਕੀ ਹੋਣਾ ਚਾਹੀਦਾ ਹੈ?
gksuk pkfg,\
(A) ys[k dks rqjar okil ysuk (A) ਲੇ ਖ ਨੂੰ ਤੁਰੰਤ ਵਾਪਸ ਲੈ ਣਾ

(B) vkjksi dh fu"i{k vkSj xksiuh; 'kq#vkrh tk¡p djuk (B) ਦੋ ਦਾ ਿਨਰਪੱ ਖ ਅਤੇ ਗੁਪਤ ਮੁੱ ਢਲਾ ਮੁਲ ਕਣ ਕਰਨਾ

(C) ys[kdksa ij ges'kk ds fy, çfrca/k yxkuk (C) ਲੇ ਖਕ 'ਤੇ ਪੱ ਕੇ ਤੌਰ 'ਤੇ ਪਾਬੰ ਦੀ ਲਗਾਉਣਾ

(D) xqeuke f'kdk;rksa dks utjvankt djuk (D) ਗੁਮਨਾਮ ਿ ਕਾਇਤ ਨੂੰ ਨਜ਼ਰਅੰ ਦਾਜ਼ ਕਰਨਾ

26) lkoZtfud ç'kklu esa ç/kku&vfHkdrkZ fl)kar dks ykxw djus esa ਜਨਤਕ ਪ ਾਸਨ ਿਵੱ ਚ ‘ਮੁਖੀ ਪਤੀਿਨਧ ਿਸਧ ਤ’ ਨੂੰ ਲਾਗੂ ਕਰਨ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਮੁੱ ਖ ਚੁਣੌਤੀ ਕੀ
eq[; pqukSrh D;k gS\ ਹੈ?

(A) tkudkjh esa vlekurk ds dkj.k izfrfuf/k ds dke ij (A) ਜਾਣਕਾਰੀ ਦੀ ਅਸਮਾਨਤਾ ਕਾਰਨ ਪਤੀਿਨਧੀ ਦੀ ਕਾਰਗੁਜ਼ਾਰੀ ਦੀ
utj j[kus esa eqf'dy ਿਨਗਰਾਨੀ ਕਰਨ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਮੁ ਕਲ

(B) dq'ky deZpkfj;ksa dh deh (B) ਹੁਨਰਮੰ ਦ ਕਰਮਚਾਰੀਆਂ ਦੀ ਘਾਟ

(C) cgqr T;knk dkuwuh fuxjkuh (C) ਬਹੁਤ ਿਜ਼ਆਦਾ ਕਾਨੂੰਨੀ ਿਨਗਰਾਨੀ

(D) cgqr T;knk tu&Hkkxhnkjh (D) ਬਹੁਤ ਿਜ਼ਆਦਾ ਜਨ

27) fdl fo}ku us dgk Fkk fd yksd ç'kklu ^^os lHkh xfrfof/k;k¡ gSa ਿਕਸ ਿਵਦਵਾਨ ਨ ਇਹ ਤਰਕ ਿਦੱ ਤਾ ਸੀ ਿਕ ਲੋ ਕ ਪ ਾਸਨ "ਉਹ ਸਾਰੀਆਂ ਕਾਰਵਾਈਆਂ
ftudk mís'; lkoZtfud uhfr dks iwjk djuk ;k ykxw djuk ਹਨ ਿਜਨ ਦਾ ਉਦੇ ਜਨਤਕ ਨੀਤੀ ਨੂੰ ਪੂਰਾ ਕਰਨਾ ਜ ਲਾਗੂ ਕਰਨਾ ਹੈ"?
gS**\
(A) gcZVZ lkbeu (A) ਹਰਬਰਟ ਸਾਈਮਨ

(B) ywFkj xqfyd (B) ਲੂਥਰ ਗੁਿਲਕ

(C) ,y-Mh- OgkbV (C) ਐਲ.ਡੀ. ਵਾਈਟ

(D) M~okbV okYMks (D) ਡਵਾਈਟ ਵਾਲਡੋ

28) lwph&I dk lwph&II ls feyku dhft,%& ਸੂਚੀ-I ਦਾ ਸੂਚੀ-II ਨਾਲ ਿਮਲਾਨ ਕਰੋ

lwph&I ¼iqLrd@ys[k½ lwph&II ¼ys[kd½ ਸੂਚੀ-I (ਿਕਤਾਬ/ਲੇ ਖ) ਸੂਚੀ-II (ਲੇ ਖਕ)
1. iz'kkldh; O;ogkj i gcZVZ lkbeu 1. ਪ ਾਸਕੀ ਿਵਹਾਰ i ਹਰਬਰਟ ਏ. ਸਾਈਮਨ
2. iz'kkldh; jkT; ii M~okbV okYMks 2. ਪ ਾਸਕੀ ਰਾਜ ii ਡਵਾਈਟ ਵਾਲਡੋ
3. iz'kklu dk v/;;u iii owMksZ foYlu 3. ਪ ਾਸਨ ਦਾ ਅਿਧਐਨ iii ਵੁਡਰੋ ਿਵਲਸਨ
4. yksd iz’kklu dk fl)kUr iv MCY;w-,Q-foykch 4. ਲੋ ਕ ਪ ਾਸਨ ਦੇ iv ਡਬਲਯੂ. ਐ ਫ. ਿਵਲੋ ਬੀ
ਿਸਧ ਤ

lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,%& ਸਹੀ ਿਵਕਲਪ ਚੁਣੋ:

(14)

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co m .
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em l a

as PH.D. 2026 g ADMINISTRATION
aPUBLIC
(A) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-ii (A) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-ii
(B) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv (B) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv
(C) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii (C) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii
(D) 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-iv (D) 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-iv
29) xzkeh.k LFkkuh; 'kklu ds fodklØe esa fuEufyf[kr ?kVukvksa dks ਪਡੂ ਸਥਾਨਕ ਾਸਨ ਦੇ ਿਵਕਾਸ ਨਾਲ ਸਬੰ ਧਤ ਹੇਠ ਿਲਖੀਆਂ ਘਟਨਾਵ ਨੂੰ ਕਾਲ-ਕਮ

m
dkykuqØe esa O;ofLFkr dhft,%& ਅਨੁਸਾਰ ਿਵਵਸਿਥਤ ਕਰੋ:

om . co
1. 73osa lafo/kku la'kks/ku vf/kfu;e dk ykxw gksuk 1. 73ਵ ਸੰ ਿਵਧਾਨਕ ਸੋਧ ਅਿਧਿਨਯਮ ਨੂੰ ਲਾਗੂ ਕਰਨਾ

.c e m
2. lkeqnkf;d fodkl dk;ZØe 2. ਸਮੁਦਾਇਕ ਿਵਕਾਸ ਪੋਗਰਾਮ

e
3. cyoar jk; esgrk lfefr
m
3. ਬਲਵੰ ਤ ਰਾਏ ਮਿਹਤਾ ਸਿਮਤੀ

l a s
a s
4. v'kksd esgrk lfefr dk xBu

l
4. ਅ ੋਕ ਮਿਹਤਾ ਸਿਮਤੀ ਦਾ ਗਠਨ

a g
ag
uhps fn, x, dksM esa ls lgh mÙkj dk p;u dhft,%& ਹੇਠ ਿਦੱ ਤੇ ਕੋਡ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਸਹੀ ਤਰ ਚੁਣੋ:

(A) 1,2,3,4 (B) 2,3,1,4 (A) 1,2,3,4 (B) 2,3,1,4
(C) 2,3,4,1 (D) 3,2,1,4 (C) 2,3,4,1 (D) 3,2,1,4
30) fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lh fLFkfr lgk;drk dk fl)kar dk ਹੇਠ ਿਲਖੀਆਂ ਸਿਥਤੀਆਂ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਿਕਹੜੀ ਸਹਾਇਕਤਾ ਦਾ ਿਸਧ ਤ ਦੀ ਉਲੰਘਣਾ ਨੂੰ

mYya?ku djrh gS\ ਦਰਸਾ ਦੀ ਹੈ?

(A) xzke iapk;rksa }kjk xzkeh.k LoPNrk ;kstukvksa dks ykxw (A) ਗਾਮ ਪੰ ਚਾਇਤ ਵੱ ਲ ਪਡੂ ਸਫਾਈ ਯੋਜਨਾਵ ਨੂੰ ਲਾਗੂ ਕਰਨਾ

djuk

m
(B) uxj fuxeksa }kjk LFkkuh; Bksl dpjs dk çca/ku djuk (B) ਨਗਰ ਿਨਗਮ ਵੱ ਲ ਸਥਾਨਕ ਠਸ ਰਿਹੰ ਦ-ਖੂੰ ਹਦ ਦਾ ਪਬੰ ਧਨ ਕਰਨਾ

c. o
(C) dsaæ ljdkj }kjk gj uxjikfydk esa dpjk mBkus dk (C) ਕਦਰ ਸਰਕਾਰ ਵੱ ਲ ਹਰੇਕ ਨਗਰਪਾਿਲਕਾ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਕੂੜਾ ਇਕੱ ਠਾ ਕਰਨ ਦਾ

em (D)
le; r; djuk ਸਮ ਿਨਰਧਾਰਤ ਕਰਨਾ

las
(D) jkT; ljdkjksa }kjk iapk;rksa dks rduhdh lgk;rk çnku ਰਾਜ ਸਰਕਾਰ ਵੱ ਲ ਪੰ ਚਾਇਤ ਨੂੰ ਤਕਨੀਕੀ ਸਹਾਇਤਾ ਪਦਾਨ ਕਰਨਾ

ag
djuk
31) fodflr vkSj fodkl'khy nksuksa ns'kksa esa ç'kklfud çHkko'khyrk ਿਵਕਿਸਤ ਅਤੇ ਿਵਕਾਸ ੀਲ ਦੋਵ ਦੇ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਪ ਾਸਕੀ ਪਭਾਵ ੀਲਤਾ ਲਈ ਹੇਠ ਿਲਖੇ

ds fy, fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ls lkekftd dkjd egRoiw.kZ gS\a ਸਮਾਿਜਕ ਕਾਰਕ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਿਕਹੜੇ ਮਹੱ ਤਵਪੂਰਨ ਹਨ?
1. vkcknh dk f'k{kk Lrj 1.ਆਬਾਦੀ ਦੇ ਿਸੱ ਿਖਆ ਪੱ ਧਰ
2. lkoZtfud laLFkkvksa esa Hkjkslk 2.ਜਨਤਕ ਸੰ ਸਥਾਵ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਭਰੋਸਾ
3. lkekftd ,dtqVrk vkSj ,drk 3.ਸਮਾਿਜਕ ਇਕਜੁੱ ਟਤਾ ਅਤੇ ਏਕਤਾ
4. vkfFkZd vlekurk,¡ 4.ਆਰਿਥਕ ਅਸਮਾਨਤਾਵ
lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,%&

m
ਸਹੀ ਿਵਕਲਪ ਚੁਣੋ:

m {ks= ls ckgj tkdj dke djuk rc gksrk gS tc c. o
(A) 1,3,4 (B) 1,2,3 (A) 1,3,4 (B) 1,2,3

c. ovf/kdkj m
(C) 2,3,4 (D) 1,2,3,4 (C) 2,3,4 (D) 1,2,3,4

m çR;k;ks s e
la
32) ਮੌਿਲਕ ਅਿਧਕਾਰ-ਖੇਤਰ ਤ ਬਾਹਰ ਉਦ ਵਾਪਰਦਾ ਹੈ ਜਦ ਸਪੀ ਗਈ ਿਵਧਾਨਕ

s e
ag
ftr fo/kku% ਕਤੀ:

gl a 1. fcuk izdk’ku ds cuk;k tkrk gS 1. ਿਬਨ ਪਕਾ ਨ ਦੇ ਬਣਾਈ ਜ ਦੀ ਹੈ

a
2. l{kehdj.k vf/kfu;e }kjk nh xbZ 'kfä;ksa ls T;knk vf/kdkj 2. ਸਮਰੱ ਥ ਬਣਾਉਣ ਵਾਲੇ ਅਿਧਿਨਯਮ ਵੱ ਲ ਿਦੱ ਤੀਆਂ ਗਈਆਂ ਕਤੀਆਂ ਤ ਵੱ ਧ ਜ ਦੀ
dk bLrseky djrk gS ਹੈ
3. laln esa pqukSrh nh tkrh gS 3. ਸੰ ਸਦ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਚੁਣਤ
ੌ ੀ ਿਦੱ ਤੀ ਜ ਦੀ ਹੈ
4. LFkkuh; vf/kdkfj;ksa }kjk cuk;k tkrk gS 4. ਸਥਾਨਕ ਅਿਧਕਾਰੀਆਂ ਵੱ ਲ ਬਣਾਈ ਜ ਦੀ ਹੈ
lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,%& ਸਹੀ ਿਵਕਲਪ ਚੁਣੋ:
(A) 1,2,3,4 (B) 1,2,3 (A) 1,2,3,4 (B) 1,2,3
(C) 2,3,4 (D) 1,3,4 (C) 2,3,4 (D) 1,3,4

om . c
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m . s e
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33) Hkkjrh; lafo/kku ds Hkkx IX-A ds rgr ekU;rk çkIr ਹੇਠ ਿਲਿਖਆਂ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਿਕਹੜੀ ਭਾਰਤੀ ਸੰ ਿਵਧਾਨ ਦੇ ਭਾਗ IX-A ਦੇ ਤਿਹਤ ਮਾਨਤਾ

uxjikfydkvksa dh Jsf.k;ksa esa ls dkSu lh Js.kh ugha gS \ ਪਾਪਤ ਨਗਰਪਾਿਲਕਾਵ ਦੀਆਂ ੇਣੀਆਂ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਨਹ ਹੈ?

(A) uxj iapk;r (A) ਨਗਰ ਪੰ ਚਾਇਤ

(B) uxj ifj"kn (B) ਨਗਰ ਪਿਰ ਦ

(C) uxj fuxe (C) ਨਗਰ ਿਨਗਮ

(D) vf/klwfpr {ks= lfefr (D) ਅਿਧਸੂਿਚਤ ਖੇਤਰ ਸਭਾ

34) ,d LoSfPNd laxBu Bksl vif'k"V çca/ku ifj;kstuk dks ykxw ਇੱ ਕ ਸਵੈ-ਇੱ ਛਤ ਸੰ ਸਥਾ ਠਸ ਰਿਹੰ ਦ-ਖੂੰ ਹਦ ਪਬੰ ਧਨ ਪਿਰਯੋਜਨਾ ਨੂੰ ਲਾਗੂ ਕਰਨ ਲਈ

djus ds fy, uxj fuxe ds lkFk lg;ksx djrk gS] tcfd vius ਨਗਰ ਿਨਗਮ ਨਾਲ ਸਿਹਯੋਗ ਕਰਦੀ ਹੈ, ਜਦਿਕ ਆਪਣੇ ਅੰ ਦਰੂਨੀ ਪ ਾਸਨ ਿਵੱ ਚ
vkarfjd ç'kklu esa Lora= jgrk gSA ;g rdZ lcls vPNh rjg ਸੁਤੰਤਰ ਰਿਹੰ ਦੀ ਹੈ। ਇਹ ਦਲੀਲ ਸਭ ਤ ਵਧੀਆ ਢੰ ਗ ਨਾਲ ਦਰਸਾ ਦੀ ਹੈ:
ls crkrk gS%
(A) ukSdj'kkgh fodsaæhdj.k (A) ਅਫਸਰ ਾਹੀ ਿਵਕਦਰੀਕਰਨ

(B) lg;ksxkRed 'kklu (B) ਸਿਹਯੋਗੀ ਾਸਨ

(C) yksdrkaf=d fodsaæhdj.k (C) ਜਮਹੂਰੀ ਿਵਕਦਰੀਕਰਨ

(D) 'kfä;ksa dk çR;k;kstu (D) ਕਤੀਆਂ ਦੀ ਸਪਣਾ

35) jkT; ds uhfr&funsZ'kd rRoksa esa ls dkSu&lk jkT; dks i;kZoj.k ਰਾਜ ਨੀਤੀ ਦੇ ਿਕਹੜੇ ਿਨਰਦੇ ਕ ਿਸਧ ਤ ਅਨੁਸਾਰ ਰਾਜ ਨੂੰ ਵਾਤਾਵਰਣ ਦੀ ਸੁਰੱਿਖਆ

dh j{kk vkSj lq/kkj djus dk funsZ'k nsrk gS\ ਅਤੇ ਸੁਧਾਰ ਕਰਨ ਲਈ ਿਨਰਦੇ ਿਦੱ ਤਾ ਿਗਆ ਹੈ?

(A) vuqPNsn 38 (B) vuqPNsn 39 (A) ਧਾਰਾ 38 (B) ਧਾਰਾ 39

(C) vuqPNsn 48, (D) vuqPNsn 40 (C) ਧਾਰਾ 48A (D) ਧਾਰਾ 40

36) Hkkjr esa jk"Vªh; Lrj ij lrr fodkl y{; ds dk;kZUo;u esa ਭਾਰਤ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਰਾ ਟਰੀ ਪੱ ਧਰ 'ਤੇ ਿਟਕਾਊ ਿਵਕਾਸ ਟੀਿਚਆਂ ਨੂੰ ਲਾਗੂ ਕਰਨ ਿਵੱ ਚ

leUo; ds fy, dkSu&lh laLFkk ftEesnkj gS\ ਤਾਲਮੇਲ ਿਬਠਾਉਣ ਲਈ ਿਕਹੜੀ ਸੰ ਸਥਾ ਿਜ਼ੰ ਮੇਵਾਰ ਹੈ?

(A) i;kZoj.k] ou vkSj tyok;q ifjorZu ea=ky; (A) ਵਾਤਾਵਰਣ, ਜੰ ਗਲਾਤ ਅਤੇ ਜਲਵਾਯੂ ਪਿਰਵਰਤਨ ਮੰ ਤਰਾਲਾ

(B) uhfr vk;ksx (B) ਨੀਤੀ ਆਯੋਗ

(C) jk"Vªh; vkink jkgr cy (C) ਰਾ ਟਰੀ ਆਫ਼ਤ ਰਾਹਤ ਬਲ

(D) uohu vkSj uohdj.kh; ÅtkZ ea=ky; (D) ਨਵ ਅਤੇ ਨਿਵਆਉਣਯੋਗ ਊਰਜਾ ਮੰ ਤਰਾਲਾ

37) ç'kklfud {kerk dh vo/kkj.kk yksd ç'kklu ds fdl O;kid ਪ ਾਸਕੀ ਸਮਰੱ ਥਾ ਦੀ ਧਾਰਨਾ ਲੋ ਕ ਪ ਾਸਨ ਦੇ ਿਕਸ ਿਵਆਪਕ ਉਦੇ ਨਾਲ ਨਿੜ

mís'; ls fudVrk ls tqM+h gS\ ਜੁੜੀ ਹੋਈ ਹੈ?

(A) 'kklu esa ferO;;rk] n{krk vkSj çHkko'khyrk çkIr (A) ਾਸਨ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਿਕਫ਼ਾਇਤ, ਕੁ ਲਤਾ ਅਤੇ ਪਭਾਵ ੀਲਤਾ ਪਾਪਤ ਕਰਨਾ

djuk
(B) pqukoh leFkZu dks vf/kdre djuk (B) ਚੋਣ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਵੱ ਧ ਤ ਵੱ ਧ ਸਮਰਥਨ ਪਾਪਤ ਕਰਨਾ

(C) dk;Zdkjh foosdkf/kdkj (C) ਕਾਰਜਪਾਿਲਕਾ ਦੀ ਸਵੈ-ਿਵਵੇਕੀ ਕਤੀ

(D) cktkj dk ,dkf/kdkj (D) ਬਾਜ਼ਾਰ ਦਾ ਏਕਾਿਧਕਾਰ

38) fodkl'khy ns'kksa esa fodkl ç'kklu ds fy, fuEufyf[kr esa ls ਿਵਕਾਸ ੀਲ ਦੇ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਿਵਕਾਸ ਪ ਾਸਨ ਲਈ ਹੇਠ ਿਲਿਖਆਂ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਿਕਹੜੀ ਸਭ ਤ

dkSu&lh lcls cM+h pqukSrh gS\ ਵੱ ਡੀ ਚੁਣੌਤੀ ਹੈ?

(A) rsth ls gks jgs fodkl dks lekurk] fLFkjrk vkSj (A) ਤੇਜ਼ ਿਵਕਾਸ ਅਤੇ ਬਰਾਬਰੀ, ਸਿਥਰਤਾ ਤੇ ਸੰ ਸਥਾਗਤ ਸਮਰੱ ਥਾ ਿਵਚਕਾਰ

laLFkkxr {kerk ds lkFk larqfyr djuk ਸੰ ਤੁਲਨ ਬਣਾਉਣਾ

(B) i;kZoj.kh; pqukSfr;ka (B) ਵਾਤਾਵਰਣ ਸੰ ਬੰ ਧੀ ਚੁਣੌਤੀਆਂ

(C) lkoZtfud uhfr;ksa dk vHkko (C) ਜਨਤਕ ਨੀਤੀਆਂ ਦੀ ਅਣਹਦ

(D) iw.kZ ç'kklfud Lok;Ùkrk (D) ਪੂਰਨ ਪ ਾਸਕੀ ਖੁਦਮੁਖਿਤਆਰੀ

(16)

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Page 54

co m .
. s e
em l a

as PH.D. 2026 g ADMINISTRATION
aPUBLIC
39) Lkkj.kh;ksa dk feyku dhft,% Je lafgrk,a vkSj mudk {ks= ਖਾਨਾ ਦਾ ਿਮਲਾਨ ਕਰੋ: ਿਕਰਤ ਕੋਡ ਅਤੇ ਉਹਨ ਦਾ ਿਵ ਾ-ਵਸਤੂ

Lkkj.kh&A ¼Je lafgrk,a½ Lkkj.kh&B ¼{ks=½ ਖਾਨਾ-A (ਿਕਰਤ ਕੋਡ) ਖਾਨਾ-B (ਿਵ ਾ-ਵਸਤੂ)
1. osru lafgrk] 2019 i vkS|ksfxd laca/k] O;kikj 1. ਤਨਖਾਹ ਕੋਡ, 2019 i ਉਦਯੋਿਗਕ ਸਬੰ ਧ, ਮਜ਼ਦੂਰ ਸੰ ਘ ਅਤੇ
la?k vkSj fookn lek/kku ਿਵਵਾਦ ਦਾ ਿਨਪਟਾਰਾ
2. vkS|ksfxd laca/k lafgrk] ii osru vkSj ikfjJfed 2. ਉਦਯੋਿਗਕ ਸਬੰ ਧ ii ਤਨਖਾਹ ਅਤੇ ਿਮਹਨਤਾਨਾ
2020 ਕੋਡ, 2020

m
co
3. lkekftd lqj{kk lafgrk] iii lkekftd lqj{kk vkSj 3. ਸਮਾਿਜਕ ਸੁਰੱਿਖਆ iii ਸਮਾਿਜਕ ਸੁਰੱਿਖਆ ਅਤੇ ਭਲਾਈ ਲਾਭ

lqj{kk] om .
2020 dY;k.kdkjh ykHk

LokLF; vkSj dk;Z&n'kk.c
m
ਕੋਡ, 2020

s e
4. O;kolkf;d iv dk;ZLFky ij lqj{kk vkSj 4. ਿਕੱ ਤਾਮੁਖੀ ਸੁਰੱਿਖਆ, iv ਕੰ ਮ ਵਾਲੀ ਥ 'ਤੇ ਸੁਰੱਿਖਆ ਅਤੇ

lafgrk] 2020 em l a
s dhft,%&
dk;Z&n'kk,a ਿਸਹਤ ਅਤੇ ਕੰ ਮਕਾਜੀ ਕੰ ਮਕਾਜੀ ਹਾਲਾਤ

a
lgh fodYi dklp;u
ਹਾਲਾਤ ਕੋਡ, 2020

a g
ag1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv
ਸਹੀ ਿਵਕਲਪ ਚੁਣੋ:

(A) (A) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv
(B) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii (B) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii
(C) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv (C) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv
(D) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i (D) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i
ç'u 40-42 ds fy, funsZ'k% uhps nks dFku fn, x, gSa] ,d dks ਪ ਨ 40-42 ਲਈ ਹਦਾਇਤ : ਹੇਠ ਦੋ ਕਥਨ ਿਦੱ ਤੇ ਗਏ ਹਨ, ਇੱ ਕ ਨੂੰ 'ਕਥਨ (A)'

vfHkdFku ¼A½ vkSj nwljs dks dkj.k ds :i esa fpfàr fd;k x;k gSA uhps ਅਤੇ ਦੂਜੇ ਨੂੰ 'ਕਾਰਨ (R)' ਵਜ ਦਰਸਾਇਆ ਿਗਆ ਹੈ। ਹੇਠ ਿਦੱ ਤੇ ਕੋਡ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਸਹੀ
fn, x, dksM esa ls lgh mÙkj dk p;u dhft,%&
m
ਤਰ ਚੁਣੋ:

. co
40) vfHkdFku (A): dk;Z&fu"iknu ctV vkSj ifj.kke ctV ਕਥਨ (A): ਕਾਰਗੁਜ਼ਾਰੀ-ਅਧਾਿਰਤ ਬਜਟ ਅਤੇ ਨਤੀਜਾ-ਅਧਾਿਰਤ ਬਜਟ ਵੱ ਖੋ-

em
vyx&vyx vo/kkj.kk,¡ gSaA ਵੱ ਖਰੇ ਸੰ ਕਲਪ ਹਨ।

las
dkj.k (R): nksuksa gh ljdkjh dk;ZØeksa ds fy, vkoafVr foÙkh; ਕਾਰਨ (R): ਇਹ ਦੋਵ ਿਵ ੇ ਤੌਰ 'ਤੇ ਸਰਕਾਰੀ ਕਾਰਜਕਮ ਲਈ ਿਨਰਧਾਰਤ

ag dh lgh
fuos'k dks fo'ks"k :i ls ekirs gSaA ਿਵੱ ਤੀ ਿਨਵੇ ਨੂੰ ਮਾਪਦੇ ਹਨ।

(A) (A) vkSj (R) nksuksa lgh gSa vkSj (R), (A) (A) ਦੋਵ (A) ਅਤੇ (R) ਸਹੀ ਹਨ ਅਤੇ (R), (A) ਦੀ ਸਹੀ

O;k[;k gSA ਿਵਆਿਖਆ ਹੈ।

(B) (A) vkSj (R) nksuksa lgh gSa] ysfdu (R), (A) dh lgh (B) ਦੋਵ (A) ਅਤੇ (R) ਸਹੀ ਹਨ, ਪਰ (R), (A) ਦੀ ਸਹੀ

O;k[;k ugha gSA ਿਵਆਿਖਆ ਨਹ ਹੈ।

(C) (A) lR; gS] ysfdu (R) vlR; gSA (C) (A) ਸੱ ਚ ਹੈ, ਪਰ (R) ਗਲਤ ਹੈ।

(D) (A) vlR; gS] ysfdu (R) lR; gSA (D) (A) ਗਲਤ ਹੈ, ਪਰ (R) ਸੱ ਚ ਹੈ।

m
41) vfHkdFku (A): MksyksfoV~t vkSj ek'kZ us rdZ fn;k fd fcuk ਕਥਨ (A): ਡੋਲੋਿਵਟਜ਼ ਅਤੇ ਮਾਰ ਨ ਦਲੀਲ ਿਦੱ ਤੀ ਿਕ ਅਧੂਰੀ ਜਾਣਕਾਰੀ ਵਾਲਾ

m c. o
tkudkjh ds ;k v/kwjh uhfr dk gLrkarj.k uhfr dh foQyrk dk ਜ ਅਧੂਰਾ ਨੀਤੀ ਤਬਾਦਲਾ ਨੀਤੀ ਦੀ ਅਸਫਲਤਾ ਦਾ ਕਾਰਨ ਬਣ ਸਕਦਾ ਹੈ।

c. o e m
dkj.k cu ldrk gSA ਕਾਰਨ (R): ਪਭਾਵ ਾਲੀ ਨੀਤੀ ਤਬਾਦਲੇ ਲਈ ਸੰ ਦਰਭੀ ਅਤੇ ਸੰ ਸਥਾਗਤ ਅੰ ਤਰ

em la s
dkj.k (R): çHkkoh uhfr gLrkarj.k ds fy, lanHkZxr vkSj 'ਤੇ ਿਧਆਨ ਨਾਲ ਿਵਚਾਰ ਕਰਨ ਦੀ ਲੋ ੜ ਹੁੰ ਦੀ ਹੈ।

las ag
laLFkkxr varjksa ij lko/kkuhiwoZd fopkj djus dh vko';drk

g
gksrh gSA
a (A) (A) vkSj (R) nksuksa lgh gSa vkSj (R), (A) dh lgh
O;k[;k gSA
(A) ਦੋਵ (A) ਅਤੇ (R) ਸਹੀ ਹਨ ਅਤੇ (R), (A) ਦੀ ਸਹੀ

ਿਵਆਿਖਆ ਹੈ।

(B) (A) vkSj (R) nksuksa lgh gSa] ysfdu (R), (A) dh lgh (B) ਦੋਵ (A) ਅਤੇ (R) ਸਹੀ ਹਨ, ਪਰ (R), (A) ਦੀ ਸਹੀ

O;k[;k ugha gSA ਿਵਆਿਖਆ ਨਹ ਹੈ।

(C) (A) lR; gS] ysfdu (R) vlR; gSA (C) (A) ਸੱ ਚ ਹੈ, ਪਰ (R) ਗਲਤ ਹੈ।

(D) (A) vlR; gS] ysfdu (R) lR; gSA (D) (A) ਗਲਤ ਹੈ, ਪਰ (R) ਸੱ ਚ ਹੈ।

om . c
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PH.D. 2026 PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION

42) vfHkdFku (A): çk—frd U;k; ds fl)karksa dk ikyu djus ls ਕਥਨ (A): ਕੁਦਰਤੀ ਿਨਆਂ ਦੇ ਿਸਧ ਤ ਦੀ ਪਾਲਣਾ ਕਈ ਵਾਰ ਪ ਾਸਿਨਕ

dHkh&dHkh ç'kklfud dkjZokbZ esa nsjh gks ldrh gSA ਕਾਰਵਾਈ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਦੇਰੀ ਕਰ ਸਕਦੀ ਹੈ।
dkj.k (R): fQj Hkh] çfØ;kRed fu"i{krk dkuwu ds 'kklu vkSj ਕਾਰਨ (R): ਿਫਰ ਵੀ, ਪਿਕਿਰਆਤਮਕ ਿਨਰਪੱ ਖਤਾ ਕਾਨੂੰਨ ਦੇ ਾਸਨ ਅਤੇ ਚੰ ਗੇ
lq'kklu dk ,d vfuok;Z fgLlk gSA ਾਸਨ ਦਾ ਇੱ ਕ ਜ਼ਰੂਰੀ ਿਹੱ ਸਾ ਹੈ।

(A) (A) vkSj (R) nksuksa lgh gSa vkSj (R), (A) dh lgh (A) ਦੋਵ (A) ਅਤੇ (R) ਸਹੀ ਹਨ ਅਤੇ (R), (A) ਦੀ ਸਹੀ

O;k[;k gSA ਿਵਆਿਖਆ ਹੈ।

(B) (A) vkSj (R) nksuksa lgh gSa] ysfdu (R), (A) dh lgh (B) ਦੋਵ (A) ਅਤੇ (R) ਸਹੀ ਹਨ, ਪਰ (R), (A) ਦੀ ਸਹੀ

O;k[;k ugha gSA ਿਵਆਿਖਆ ਨਹ ਹੈ।

(C) (A) lR; gS] ysfdu (R) vlR; gSA (C) (A) ਸੱ ਚ ਹੈ, ਪਰ (R) ਗਲਤ ਹੈ।

(D) (A) vlR; gS] ysfdu (R) lR; gSA (D) (A) ਗਲਤ ਹੈ, ਪਰ (R) ਸੱ ਚ ਹੈ।

43) fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk ledkyhu lkoZtfud çca/ku vH;kl ਹੇਠ ਿਲਖੀਆਂ ਸਮਕਾਲੀ ਜਨਤਕ ਪਬੰ ਧਨ ਪਣਾਲੀਆਂ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਿਕਹੜੀ ਐਲਟਨ ਮੇਓ ਦੀ
,YVu es;ks ds ^ekuo laca/k –f"Vdks.k* dks lcls lh/ks rkSj ij 'ਮਨੁੱਖੀ ਸਬੰ ਧ ਿਦ ਟੀਕੋਣ' ਨੂੰ ਸਭ ਤ ਿਸੱ ਧੇ ਤੌਰ 'ਤੇ ਦਰਸਾ ਦੀ ਹੈ?
n'kkZrk gS\
(A) deZpkfj;ksa ls ijke'kZ fd, fcuk fu;eksa vkSj çfØ;kvksa (A) ਕਰਮਚਾਰੀਆਂ ਨਾਲ ਸਲਾਹ-ਮ ਵਰੇ ਤ ਿਬਨ ਿਨਯਮ ਅਤੇ ਪਿਕਿਰਆਵ
dk l[rh ls ikyu ਦੀ ਸਖਤੀ ਨਾਲ ਪਾਲਣਾ

(B) deZpkjh tqM+ko dk;ZØe] lgHkkxh fu.kZ;&çfØ;k] vkSj (B) ਕਰਮਚਾਰੀ ਮੂਲੀਅਤ ਕਾਰਜਕਮ, ਭਾਗੀਦਾਰੀ ਵਾਲਾ ਫੈਸਲਾ ਲੈ ਣਾ, ਅਤੇ
dk;ZLFky ij dY;k.kdkjh igy ਕੰ ਮ ਵਾਲੀ ਥ 'ਤੇ ਭਲਾਈ ਸੰ ਬੰ ਧੀ ਉਪਰਾਲੇ

(C) çn'kZu dks csgrj cukus ds fy, dsoy foÙkh; çksRlkguksa (C) ਕਾਰਗੁਜ਼ਾਰੀ ਨੂੰ ਿਬਹਤਰ ਬਣਾਉਣ ਲਈ ਿਸਰਫ਼ ਿਵੱ ਤੀ ਪੋਤਸਾਹਨ 'ਤੇ
ij fuHkZjrk ਿਨਰਭਰਤਾ

(D) lHkh fu.kZ; ysus ds vf/kdkjksa dk dsaæhdj.k (D) ਫੈਸਲੇ ਲੈ ਣ ਦੇ ਸਾਰੇ ਅਿਧਕਾਰ ਦਾ ਕਦਰੀਕਰਨ

44) fuEufyf[kr fopkjdksa dks muds ç'kklfud fopkjksa ls feyk,a% ਹੇਠ ਿਦੱ ਤੇ ਿਚੰ ਤਕ ਦਾ ਉਨ ਦੇ ਪ ਾਸਿਨਕ ਿਵਚਾਰ ਨਾਲ ਿਮਲਾਨ ਕਰੋ:

Lkkj.kh&A ¼fopkjd½ Lkkj.kh&B ¼;ksxnku½ ਖਾਨਾ-A (ਿਚੰ ਤਕ) ਖਾਨਾ-B (ਯੋਗਦਾਨ)
1. ÝsM MCY;w- fjXl i ,dh—r&fçTeh;&foofrZr 1. ਫਰੈ ਡ ਡਬਲਯੂ. i ਸੰ ਿਮਿਲਤ ਬਹੁ-ਪੱ ਖੀ ਿਖੰ ਿਡਆ ਹੋਇਆ
çfreku ਿਰਗਸ ਪਤੀਰੂਪ
2. ,MoMZ osbMuj ii fodkl&mUeq[k ç'kklfud 2. ਐਡਵਰਡ ਵੇਡਨਰ ii ਿਵਕਾਸ-ਮੁਖੀ ਪ ਾਸਿਨਕ ਪਣਾਲੀ
ç.kkyh
3. gcZVZ lkbeu iii fu.kZ;&çfØ;k –f"Vdks.k 3. ਹਰਬਰਟ ਸਾਈਮਨ iii ਫੈਸਲਾ ਲੈ ਣ ਦੀ ਿਦ ਟੀਕੋਣ
4. M~okbV okYMks iv ewY;&vk/kkfjr fo"k; ds :i 4. ਡਵਾਈਟ ਵਾਲਡੋ iv ਮੁੱ ਲ-ਅਧਾਿਰਤ ਿਵ ੇ ਵਜ ਲੋ ਕ ਪ ਾਸਨ
esa yksd ç'kklu
lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,%& ਸਹੀ ਿਵਕਲਪ ਚੁਣੋ:

(A) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv (A) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv
(B) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iii (B) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iii
(C) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii (C) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii
(D) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i (D) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i
45) fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdls yksdrkaf=d iqfyl O;oLFkk dh ਹੇਠ ਿਲਿਖਆਂ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਿਕਸ ਨੂੰ ਲੋ ਕਤੰ ਤਰੀ ਪੁਿਲਸ ਿਵਵਸਥਾ ਦਾ ਆਧਾਰ-ਸਤੰ ਭ ਮੰ ਿਨਆ

vk/kkjf'kyk ekuk tkrk gS\ ਜ ਦਾ ਹੈ?

(A) tkap ij jktuhfrd fu;a=.k (A) ਜ ਚ 'ਤੇ ਿਸਆਸੀ ਿਨਯੰ ਤਰਣ

(B) dkuwu dk 'kklu vkSj tokcnsgh (B) ਕਾਨੂੰਨ ਦਾ ਾਸਨ ਅਤੇ ਜਵਾਬਦੇਹੀ

(C) iqfyl O;oLFkk esa xksiuh;rk (C) ਪੁਿਲਸ ਿਵਵਸਥਾ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਗੁਪਤਤਾ

(D) iqfyl dk vlhfer foosdkf/kdkj (D) ਪੁਿਲਸ ਦੀ ਬੇਅੰਤ ਿਵਵੇਕ

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46) ukxfjd çxfr i=ds laca/k esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj 'ਨਾਗਿਰਕ ਿਰਪੋਰਟ ਕਾਰਡ' ਬਾਰੇ ਹੇਠ ਿਲਖੇ ਕਥਨ 'ਤੇ ਿਵਚਾਰ ਕਰੋ:
dhft,%& 1. ਇਹ ਜਨਤਕ ਸੇਵਾਵ ਪਤੀ ਨਾਗਿਰਕ ਦੀ ਸੰ ਤੁ ਟੀ ਨੂੰ ਮਾਪਣ ਦਾ ਇੱ ਕ ਸਾਧਨ ਹੈ।
1. ;g lkoZtfud lsokvksa ds çfr ukxfjdksa dh larqf"V dks ekius 2. ਇਹ ਕਾਰਗੁਜ਼ਾਰੀ ਦੇ ਜਨਤ
dk ,d midj.k gSA 3. ਇਹ ਭਾਰਤ ਦੇ ਭਾਰਤ ਦੇ ਿਨਯੰ ਤਰਕ ਅਤੇ ਮਹ ਲੇ ਖਾ ਪਰੀਖਕ ਵੱ ਲ ਕੀਤਾ ਜਾਣ
2. ;g çn'kZu ds lkoZtfud çdVhdj.k ds ek/;e ls tokcnsgh ਵਾਲਾ ਇੱ ਕ ਕਾਨੂੰਨੀ ਲੇ ਖਾ ਪੜਤਾਲ ਹੈ।
dks c<+kok nsrk gSA

m
3. ;g Hkkjr ds fu;a=d ,oa egkys[kkijh{kd }kjk fd;k ਪਰ ਿਦੱ ਤੇ ਗਏ ਕਥਨ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਿਕਹੜਾ/ਿਕਹੜੇ ਸਹੀ ਹੈ/ਹਨ?

om . co
tkus okyk ,d oS/kkfud ys[kkijh{kk gSA

c m
Åij fn, x, dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
(A)
m
dsoy 1 vkSj 2
. (B) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (A) ਿਸਰਫ਼ 1 ਅਤੇ 2 (B) ਿਸਰਫ਼ 2 ਅਤੇ 3
s e
(C)
s e
dsoy 1 vkSj 3 (D) 1] 2 vkSj 3 (C) ਿਸਰਫ਼ 1 ਅਤੇ 3 (D) 1, 2 ਅਤੇ 3
g l a
l a a
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47) buesa ls dkSu lk fodYi ^jkT; cuke cktkj* dh cgl ds ਇਹਨ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਿਕਹੜਾ ਰਾਜ ਬਨਾਮ ਬਾਜ਼ਾਰ ਬਿਹਸ ਦੇ ਸਮਕਾਲੀ ਿਦ ਟੀਕੋਣ ਨੂੰ ਸਭ ਤ
ekStwnk utfj, dks lcls vPNh rjg crkrk gS\ ਵਧੀਆ ਢੰ ਗ ਨਾਲ ਦਰਸਾ ਦਾ ਹੈ?

(A) cktkjksa dks ljdkjksa dh txg iwjh rjg ys ysuh pkfg, (A) ਬਾਜ਼ਾਰ ਨੂੰ ਸਰਕਾਰ ਨੂੰ ਪੂਰੀ ਤਰ ਬਦਲ ਦੇਣਾ ਚਾਹੀਦਾ ਹੈ
(B) ljdkjksa dks cktkj ds lHkh ra=ksa dks [kRe dj nsuk (B) ਸਰਕਾਰ ਨੂੰ ਸਾਰੇ ਬਾਜ਼ਾਰ ਿਵਧੀਆਂ ਨੂੰ ਖਤਮ ਕਰ ਦੇਣਾ ਚਾਹੀਦਾ ਹੈ
pkfg,
(C) vPNs 'kklu ds fy, cktkj dh dk;Z{kerk vkSj jkT; (C) ਪਭਾਵ ਾਲੀ ਾਸਨ ਲਈ ਬਾਜ਼ਾਰ ਕੁ ਲਤਾ ਅਤੇ ਰਾਜ ਿਨਯਮਨ ਿਵਚਕਾਰ
ds fu;eu ds chp lgh larqyu t:jh gS ਇੱ ਕ ਢੁਕਵ ਸੰ ਤੁਲਨ ਦੀ ਲੋ ੜ ਹੁੰ ਦੀ ਹੈ

(D) vkfFkZd fodkl esa yksd ç'kklu dh dksbZ Hkwfedk ugha (D) ਆਰਿਥਕ ਿਵਕਾਸ ਿਵੱ ਚ ਜਨਤਕ ਪ ਾਸਨ ਦੀ ਕੋਈ ਭੂਿਮਕਾ ਨਹ ਹੈ

m
gS

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48) uhfr dks ykxw djus dk --------------------- rjhdk uhfr&fuekZrkvksa ਨੀਤੀ ਲਾਗੂ ਕਰਨ ਲਈ ____________ ਪਹੁੰ ਚ ਨੀਤੀ ਿਨਰਮਾਤਾਵ ਵੱ ਲ ਿਨਰਧਾਰਤ

em
}kjk r; fd, x, uhfrxr y{;ksa ls 'kq: gksrk gS vkSj ;g ns[krk ਨੀਤੀ ਟੀਿਚਆਂ ਨਾਲ ੁਰੂ ਹੁੰ ਦੀ ਹੈ ਅਤੇ ਜ ਚ ਕਰਦੀ ਹੈ ਿਕ ਉਹਨ ਨੂੰ ਿਕਵ ਪਾਪਤ
gS fd mUgsa dSls gkfly fd;k tkrk gS \
l a s ਕੀਤਾ ਜ ਦਾ ਹੈ?

(A) uhps ls Åij
(B) o`f)'khy a g (A) ਥੱ ਲੇ ਤ ਪਰ ਵੱ ਲ
(B) ਲਗਾਤਾਰ
(C) Åij ls uhps (C) ਪਰ ਹੇਠ ਵੱ ਲ

(D) fefJr voyksdu (D) ਿਮ ਰਤ ਿਨਰੀਖਣ
49) tehuh Lrj dh ukSdj'kkgh dh vo/kkj.kk --------------------- }kjk "ਜ਼ਮੀਨੀ-ਪੱ ਧਰ ਦੀ ਅਫ਼ਸਰ ਾਹੀ" ਦੀ ਧਾਰਨਾ _______________ ਵੱ ਲ ਿਵਕਸਤ
fodflr dh xbZ FkhA ਕੀਤੀ ਗਈ ਸੀ।

(A) gcZVZ lkbeu (A) ਹਰਬਰਟ ਸਾਈਮਨ
(B) ekbdy fyIldh (B) ਮਾਈਕਲ ਿਲਪਸਕੀ
m
c. o
(C) pkYlZ fyaMCykse
m
(C) ਚਾਰਲਸ ਿਲੰਡਬਲਮ

c. o m
(D) ÝsM MCY;w- fjXl (D) ਫਰੈ ਡ ਡਬਲਯੂ. ਿਰਗਸ

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50) lkewfgd lkSnsckth dks lcls vPNh rjg bl çdkj ifjHkkf"kr ਸਮੂਿਹਕ ਸੌਦੇਬਾਜ਼ੀ ਨੂੰ ਇਸ ਤਰ ਪਿਰਭਾਿ ਤ ਕੀਤਾ ਿਗਆ ਹੈ:

las ag
fd;k tk ldrk gS%

g
(A) fu;ksäk vkSj deZpkjh ds e/; O;fäxr ckrphr (A) ਮਾਲਕ ਅਤੇ ਇੱ ਕ ਕਰਮਚਾਰੀ ਿਵਚਕਾਰ ਿਵਅਕਤੀਗਤ ਗੱ ਲਬਾਤ

a (B) Je fooknksa dk U;kf;d lek/kku
(C) osru dk ljdkjh fu;eu
(B) ਿਕਰਤ ਿਵਵਾਦ ਦਾ ਿਨਆਂਇਕ ਿਨਪਟਾਰਾ
(C) ਉਜਰਤ ਦਾ ਸਰਕਾਰੀ ਿਨਯਮ
(D) jkstxkj dh 'krksaZ vkSj fu;eksa dks r; djus ds fy, (D) ਰੁਜ਼ਗਾਰ ਦੇ ਿਨਯਮ ਅਤੇ ਰਤ ਨੂੰ ਿਨਰਧਾਰਤ ਕਰਨ ਲਈ ਮਾਲਕ ਅਤੇ
fu;ksäkvksa vkSj deZpkfj;ksa ds çfrfuf/k;ksa ds e/; ਕਰਮਚਾਰੀਆਂ ਦੇ ਪਤੀਿਨਧੀਆਂ ਿਵਚਕਾਰ ਗੱ ਲਬਾਤ
ckrphr
-*-*-*-

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1. Objectivity in social science research as a matter of transpersonal replicability entails what?
(A) Merciless elimination of personal biases
(B) Allocation of costs and benefits to parties be made on normative standards
(C) Honesty in application of norms of research
(D) Reproducibility of findings under similar conditions and methods

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2. If standard deviation is 0.3, then its corresponding variance would be _________.

c om m .
(A) 0.9 (B) 0.03 (C) 0.09 (D) 0.3

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3. A Hypothesis which assumes that there is no relationship between the selected variables is
called:
l a s a g
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(A) Contrary hypothesis (B) Suggestive hypothesis
(C) Contradictory hypothesis (D) Null hypothesis
4. Who wrote the book “Foundations of Behavioural Research”?
(A) Fred N. Kerlinger (B) William J. Goode and Paul K. Hatt
(C) Marie Jahoda and Stuart W. Cook (D) Morton Deutsch
5. Who explained social research as a systematic, controlled, empirical and critical investigation
of hypothetical propositions?

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(A) Robert Burn (B) Kerlinger F. N. (C) Manheim H. (D) Kothari. C. R.

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em
6. The snowball sampling method can be employed in

s
(A) Historical research (B) Ethnographic research
(C) Content analysis
l a
g been tampered with by her children in such a way that
(D) Narrative analysis
7. A lady uses a weighing machine thatahas
it would show 5 kilograms more than the correct weight. Every time she weighs herself, she
gets the same weight. The weight indicated by the machine is:
(A) Valid but not reliable (B) Reliable but not valid
(C) Reliable and valid (D) Neither reliable nor valid
8. Who said “Research may be defined as a method of studying problems whose solutions are to
be deprived partly or wholly from facts.”

o m
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(A) W.S. Monero (B) Whitney (C) Moser (D) Marry Stephenson
m of the following Research Design will be appropriate for studying voting . behaviour of
c. ourban middle class population? e m
9. Which

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e (A) Exploratory research design l s
a design
las g
a design
(B) Experimental research

ag (C) Formulative research design (D) Descriptive research
10. Who said these words: “I started research as a non-participant observer. As I became accepted
into the community, I found myself becoming almost a non-observing participant”?
(A) B. Malinowski (B) Redcliffe Brown
(C) William F. White (D) N. Anderson

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11. What is meant by ‘operationalization of a concept’?
(A) Linking a concept to theory
(B) Indicating an empirical referent of a concept
(C) Doing conceptual research
(D) Operating with new situation
12. In which of the following sampling methods, equal number of units are selected from each
substratum regardless of their strength in the population and sub population?
(A) Proportionate stratified random sampling
(B) Disproportionate stratified random sampling
(C) Stratified random sampling
(D) Simple random sampling
13. Which of the following research designs are used in social science research?
a. Randomized two group design
b. Four group design
c. Quasi experimental design
d. Time series design
e. Lateral design
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) a, b, c, d only (B) a, c, d, e only (C) c, a, e, b only (D) a, b, d, e only
14. According to Trochim and Donnelly, what is the chronological sequence of alternative criteria
for judging qualitative research?
List:
a. Confirmability
b. Credibility
c. Dependability
d. Transferability
Options:
(A) a, b, c, d (B) b, a, d, c (C) b, a, c, d (D) b, d, c, a
15. Assertion (A): Median is less affected by extreme values than the mean.
Reason (R): Median only depends on the position of data, not its magnitude.
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
16. Correlation indicates the degree of covariation between
(A) Qualitative variables
(B) Quantitative variables
(C) One qualitative variable and one quantitative variable
(D) Any combination of variables

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17. A study design involving the collection of data at different points of time is known as:
(A) Cohort study (B) Trend Study
(C) Cross-sectional study (D) Longitudinal study
18. An inductive approach to research in which theories are generated solely from an examination
of data rather than being derived deductively is known as-
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(A) Grounded theory (B) Cross-case analysis

c om m .
(C) Constant comparative method (D) None of these

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19. A hypothesis that suggests that there is no relationship among the variables under study is

a s g l
a
known as-
l
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(A) Conflict hypothesis (B) Comfort hypothesis
(C) Null hypothesis (D) None of these
20. Who did give the concept of Anti-Minotaur to demolish the myth of ‘Value Neutral
Sociology’?
(A) Anthony Giddens (B) Robert Merton (C) Alvin Gouldner (D) William Dilthy
21. Abductive reasoning is formulated by
(A) Charles Sanders Pierce (B) Karl Popper

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(C) Thomas Kuhn (D) Paul Karl Feyerbend

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22. Who said graphs are “the wandering line and have more powerful effect on the mind than the

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tabulated statement”?
(A) Bogardus (B) Bowley
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(C) Boddington (D) Baran J.F. Von Bielfeld

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23. Which term is used to refer to the characteristics or properties of the studied object?
(A) Hypothesis (B) Research questions (C) Ethics (D) Concepts
24. In social research, which of the following is considered the greatest threat to the validity of an
experimental research design?
(A) Large sample size
(B) Lack of operational definition of variables
(C) Uncontrolled extraneous variables
(D) Use of structured questionnaires
m
m
25. Which scaling technique is specifically designed to measure the cumulative intensity of
c. o
c. o e m
attitudes, where agreement with a higher-order statement implies agreement with all lower-

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order statements?
l a s
las (A) Likert Scale
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(B) Thurstone Scale

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(C) Guttman Scale (D) Bogardus Social Distance Scale
26. Statement I: Jean-Jacques Rousseau believed that civilization and private property contributed
to social inequality.
Statement II: Rousseau considered inequality to be a natural condition of human society.
(A) Both statements are true
(B) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
(C) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

c
(D) Both statements are false
m .
c. o m
(3)

m s e
se
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Document Details

Board / OrgPanjab University
ExamPU PhD
TypeQuestion Paper
Pages71
Languageenglish
Updated23 Oct 2026