PU PhD 2026 Question Paper Engineering Paper 2 (All Branches)

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PU PhD 2026
Question Paper ·
Engineering Paper 2 (All
Branches)
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PU PhD 2026 Question Paper Engineering Paper 2 (All Branches)

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co m .
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1. A microbial culture is being grown in a bioreactor with continuous aeration. The dissolved
oxygen probe provided with the system shows a reading of zero. In this context, which of
the following inferences is correct?
(A) The culture is dead due to absence of oxygen
(B) The culture has run out of carbon source

m
(C) The culture growth becomes oxygen limited

m
(D) The culture growth is independent of dissolved oxygen
. c o
2.
.co tuberculosis
Koch’s postulate was established by Robert Koch while working on a disease caused by
s e m
s em pneumoniae l a
(A) Mycobacterium (B) Bacillus anthracis

la used to characterise fluid flow is defined as
(C) Streptococcus (D) Bacillus subtilis
a g
The g
3.
a parameter
(A) Damkohler number (B) Froude Number
(C) Nusselt number (D) Reynolds number
4. The most important property affecting the flow behaviour of a fluid that has a marked
impact on pumping, mixing, mass transfer, heat transfer and aeration is ______.
(A) Viscosity (B) Density (C) Temperature (D) pH
5. For an enzyme that displays Michaelis-Menten kinetics, the reaction velocity (as a fraction
m
c. o
of Vmax) observed at [S] = 2 KM will be

Viscosity of water at 20 ⁰C is 1 cP whicheismequal to _____ kg m s .
(A) 0.09 (B) 0.33 (C) 0.66 (D) 0.91

a s (C) 10
-1 -1

l
6.

g
a in plant cell is derived from _____.
-3 -2
(A) 1 (B) 10 (D) 10
7. The central tubule of the plasmodesmata
(A) Endoplasmic reticulum (B) Golgi apparatus
(C) Chloroplast (D) Vacuole
8. A bacterial strain is cultured in a stirred fermenter. Under prevailing conditions, k La is 0.17
s-1 with the solubility of oxygen in the broth at approximately 8 x 10-3 kg m-3,if the specific
oxygen uptake rate is 12.5 mmol g-1 h-1, What will be the maximum cell-mass

m
concentration (g m-3) supported by oxygen transfer in the fermenter?

m ideal solution is the one that obeys
(A) 1.2 x 104
c. o
c. o An
(B) 1.2 (C) 120 (D) 0.12

e m
em s
9.

s
(A) Raoult’s law
(D) Dalton’s Law gl
(B) Amagat’s law
a
gla 10. Which of the following is not a reason for variation in DNAa among individuals within a
(C) Charle’s law

a population?
(A) Recombination (B) Deletion of nucleotides
(C) Linkage among genes (D) Mutation
11. For a streamline flow, velocity at a certain point is
(A) Constant (B) Function of time only

c
(C) Constant but depends on time (D) Constant and independent of time
m .
c. o m
(1)

m s e
se
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PH.D. 2026 BIOTECHNOLOGY

12. A sewage sludge is non-Newtonian fluid of the type
(A) Bingham plastic (B) Pseudo plastic (C) Real plastic (D) Dilatant
13. A dilatant fluid is one
(A) Whose apparent viscosity decreases with shear rate
(B) Whose apparent viscosity increases with shear rate
(C) Whose apparent viscosity remains constant with shear rate
(D) Which requires a threshold stress for initiation of flow
14. The function of a filter aid is to
(A) Increase the filtration rate (B) Increase the cake porosity
(C) Remove the plugs from the septum (D) Decrease the filtration pressure
15. Baffles are the metal strips mounted against the wall of the fermenter tank to ___
(A) Heat the tank
(B) Break the circular flow generated by rotation of the impeller
(C) Block air flow
(D) Speed up the stirrer
16. At high gassing rates or low stirring speeds, the impeller is surrounded by gas and is unable
to pump effectively. This condition is referred as ____.
(A) Gas recirculation (B) Aeration (C) Flooding (D) Pumping
17. Overall heat transfer coefficient largely depends on
(A) The fluid whose individual coefficient is high
(B) The fluid whose individual coefficient is low
(C) Independent of the individual heat transfer coefficient
(D) Other external factors
18. Multipass heat exchangers are used
(A) To achieve higher heat transfer rates
(B) To achieve higher heat transfer area in a short space
(C) To minimise pressure drop
(D) For easier fabrication
19. A fermentation broth having viscosity 10-2 Pa s and density 1000 kg m-3 is agitated in a 50
m3 tank using a propeller 1.3 m in diameter. At the stirrer speed of 4s -1, find the impeller
Reynolds number.
(A) 6.76 x 105 (B) 5.2 x 105 (C) 104 (D) 6.76 x 103
20. When cells are dispersed in the liquid and the bulk fermentation is well-mixed, the major
resistance to oxygen transfer is
(A) Transfer through the bulk gas phase (B) Gas-liquid interface
(C) Liquid-cell interface (D) Liquid film surrounding the gas bubbles

(2)

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21. Frequency of recombination between gene pairs on same chromosome as a measure of the
distance between genes to map their position on chromosome, was used for the first time
by
(A) Alfred Sturtevant (B) Henking
(C) Thomas Hunt Morgan (D) Sutton and Boveri

m
co
22. 5’ to 3’ Exonuclease activity is present in

om .
(A) DNA polymerase I (B) DNA polymerase II

.c e m
s
(C) DNA polymerase III (D) DNA ligase

e m l a
s g
23. The example of a commonly used filter aid is

g l a
(A) Fuller’s earth (B) Cellulose acetate
a
24.
a
(C) Diatomaceous earth (D) Kaynite
Double pipe heat exchangers are preferred when
(A) Overall heat transfer coefficient is low (B) Liquid is more viscous in nature
(C) Required heat transfer area is low (D) Liquid is corrosive
25. In an azeotropic mixture, the equilibrium vapour composition is _____.
(A) Less than liquid composition (B) Same as liquid composition
(C) More than liquid composition (D) Independent of pressure
m
c. o
26. Which of the following is an extensive property?
(A) Density (B) Viscosity
m
e process is ascertained from the ____ law of
(C) Entropy (D) Refractive index
27.
l a s
The direction of a particular spontaneous
thermodynamics.
(A) Zeroth (B) First a
g (C) Second (D) Third
28. Correctly match the following Bioinformatics tool/Database with its respective Utility.
Bioinformatics tool/ Database Utility
P. BLAST i. Database for 3D protein structures
Q. Bowtie ii. Tool to identify similarity of a query sequence
to existing sequences available in databanks

m
c. o
R. AlphaFold iii. Tool to align short read DNA sequences

m
c. o
obtained from Next-generation sequencing

e m
s
to a reference genome

s em S. PDB
l a
iv. AI tool to predict protein structures
g
gla a
(A) P-ii; Q-iii; R-i; S-iv (B) P-ii; Q-iii; R-iv; S-i

a 29.
(C) P-iii; Q-ii; R-iv; S-i (D) P-iv; Q-i; R-ii; S-iii
A specific advantage of using steam as a heating medium in exchangers is its
(A) Inexpensiveness (B) High value of latent heat
(C) High film coefficient (D) Non-corrosive condensate
30. Which channel is primarily responsible for absolute refractory period in a neuron?
(A) Voltage gated sodium channel (B) Ligand gated sodium channel

c
(C) Voltage gated potassium channel (D) Leaky potassium channel
m .
c. o m
(3)

m s e
se
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PH.D. 2026 BIOTECHNOLOGY

31. The value of universal gas constant(R) in cal/g mole ⁰K is ____.
(A) 8.314 (B) 82.05 (C) 0.7302 (D) 1.987
32. Arrhenius theory states that the rate constant k is proportional to
(A) T (B) T.e-E/RT (C) e-E/RT (D) T1/2.e-E/RT
33. Which of the following pumps generally operates in reverse, using proton gradient to
synthesize ATP?
(A) V class pump (B) F class pump
(C) ABC transporter (D) P class pump
34. The relationship between Keq, Km and Vmax is known as
(A) Gibbs-Helmholtz equation (B) Haldane equation
(C) Michaelis-Menten equation (D) Numerical solution approach
35. On which of the following cells, the constitutive expression of MHC II is not observed
(A) T cells (B) B cells (C) Macrophages (D) Dendritic cells
36. Correctly match the following Product classes with their representative Products.
Product class Product
P. Biofuel i. Cellulase
Q. Bioplastic ii. Cephalosporin
R. Industrial enzyme iii. Butanol
S. Antibiotic iv. Poly-lactic acid
v. Rituximab
(A) P-i; Q-v; R-iii; S-ii (B) P-iii; Q-iv; R-v; S-ii
(C) P-iii; Q-ii; R-i; S-v (D) P-iii; Q-iv; R-i; S-ii
37. Which of the following is not true for hairy roots induced by Agrobacterium rhizogenes?
(A) Lack geotropism
(B) Exhibit increased auxin sensitivity
(C) Can grow on plant growth regulator free medium
(D) Grow at slower rate than normal roots
38. The effectiveness factor increases with the
(A) Increase in diffusivity and decreases with the increase of particle size
(B) Increase in diffusivity and increases with the increase of particle size
(C) Decrease in diffusivity and decreases with the increase of particle size
(D) Increase in diffusivity and decreases with the decrease of particle size
39. Imbibitional injury in viable desiccated synthetic seeds results from ____.
(A) Non-conversion of storage proteins
(B) Unregulated uptake of water and cell damage
(C) Precocious germination
(D) Somaclonal variation
40. Mast cell contributes to the pain following injury primarily due to the release of _____.
(A) Heparin (B) Lactoferrin
(C) Major basic protein (D) Histamine
(4)

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41. If NADH yields approximately 2.5 ATP and FADH2 yields approximately 1.5 ATP and
cytosolic NADH enter ETC via malate-aspartate shuttle, then how many ATP are
generated through oxidative phosphorylation from one glucose molecule?
(A) 24 (B) 26 (C) 28 (D) 30
42. What is the pattern of inheritance of a polygenic trait?

o m
m . c
(A) Autosomal dominant pattern

.co pattern
(B) X-linked recessive inheritance pattern
s e m
s em inheritance pattern l a
(C) Mendelian inheritance
g
la wants to introduce a foreign gene in a plant cell without removal of cella wall.
g
(D) Non-Mendelian
43.
a
A researcher
Which of the following techniques should be used by the researcher?
(A) Calcium phosphate co precipitation (B) Lipofection
(C) Biolistics (D) DEAE dextran method
44. Which of the following statements regarding plastid transformation is incorrect?
(A) Exhibit epigenetic gene silencing

m
c. o
(B) Involves homologous recombination

m transgenes
(C) Employs prokaryotic gene expression system

s e
a
(D) Allows coordinated expression of multiple

g l
(A) Mismatch repair pathway a
45. DNA glycosylase is utilized in

(B) Nucleotide excision repair pathway
(C) Base excision repair pathway
(D) SOS repair pathway
46. Holliday intermediate is observed during

m
(A) Replication (B) Transcription (C) Translation (D) Recombination

m c. o
c. o (A) All carrier daughters and normal sons
47. A marriage between a colour blind man and a normal woman produces

e m
em la s
s ag
(B) 50% carrier daughters, 50% normal daughters

gl a (C) 50% colour blind sons, 50% normal sons
a (D) All carrier off springs
48. Find out degree of inhibition caused by competitive enzyme inhibition when [S] = K m and
[I] =KI
(A) 50% (B) 66.6% (C) 25% (D) 33.3%

m . c
c. o m
(5)

m s e
se
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PH.D. 2026 BIOTECHNOLOGY

49. Correctly match the Microorganisms with their respective Nutrition and energy
requirement.
Microorganisms Nutrition and energy requirement
P. Photolithoautotrophs i. Use organic compounds as a source of energy,
hydrogen, electron and carbon
Q. Chemoorganoheterotrophs ii. Use light energy and use CO2 as their carbon source
R. Chemolithoautotrophs iii. Use light energy and use organic compounds as
electron donor and carbon source
S. Photoorganoheterotrophs iv. Oxidise reduced-inorganic molecules as energy and
electron source but derive carbon from organic
sources
(A) P-ii; Q-i; R-iv; S-iii (B) P-ii; Q-i; R-iii; S-iv
(C) P-i; Q-ii; R-iv; S-iii (D) P-iv; Q-i; R-ii; S-iii
50. If a reaction occurs in the absence of inhibitor with rate ν0 and in the presence of inhibitor
with rate νi, the degree of inhibition is defined as
(A) (ν0 - νi)/ν0 (B) (ν0 + νi)/ν0 (C) (ν0νi)/ν0 (D) (ν0-νi)/νi
x-x-x
(ROUGH WORK)

(6)

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(ROUGH WORK)

m
om . co
.c e m
e m l a s
l a s ag
ag

m
. co
s em
g l a
a

m
m c. o
c. o s e m
s em la
gla ag
a

m . c
c. o m
(7)

m s e
se
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PH.D. 2026 BIOTECHNOLOGY

(ROUGH WORK)

(8)

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1. Catalytic cracking is
(A) A hydrogen addition process (B) A carbon rejection process
(C) An exothermic process (D) A cooking process
2. The number of degrees of freedom for an azeotropic mixture of ethanol and water in vapour-
liquid equilibrium is

m
co
(A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 0

c om m .
3. Find the change in internal energy when 2 mol of water is converted to steam at 1 atm

m .
pressure. The heat of vapourisation of water is 40.67 kJ/mol.
se
s
(A) 52.48 kJ
e (B) 75.15 kJ (C) 81.54 kJ (D) -70.92 kJ
g l a
l a a
ag
4. In the gas phase reaction A + B ⇌ C + D at equilibrium 1/3 mol of each reactant and 2/3 mol
of each product are present. If equilibrium mixture behaves as an ideal solution and an ideal
gas, then equilibrium constant is
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 2 (D) 3
5. At inversion temperature, the Joule Thomson coefficient is
(A) Zero (B) Positive (C) Negative (D) Infinite
6. The fluid forces considered in the Navier Stokes equation are

m
(A) Gravity, pressure and viscous (B) Gravity, pressure and turbulent
(C) Pressure, viscous and turbulent
c o
. all the lines are parallel to the surface, the
(D) Gravity, viscous and turbulent

e m
s
7. If the fluid particles move in straight lines and
flow is called
(B) Uniformgl
a
a
(A) Steady (C) Compressible (D) Laminar
8. For free-flowing granular materials, the angle of internal friction is often between
(A) 0° and 5° (B) 30° and 40° (C) 45° and 60° (D) 75° and 90°
9. The magnitude of the forces (in newton) required to hold a body of volume 0.05 m 3 and mass
40 kg in water (density 1000 kg/m3) at a depth of 0.1 m is (g =9.81m/s2).
(A) Zero (B) 98.1 (C) 49.05 (D) 882.9

m
10. A plane wall of thickness 0.1 m and thermal conductivity 2 W/m·K has a temperature

m c. o
difference of 50 K across it. The heat flux through the wall is:

c.11.o Baffles are provided in a heat exchanger to increase: e m
(A) 100 W/m² (B) 500 W/m² (C) 1000 W/m² (D) 2000 W/m²

em (A) Fouling factor l a s
las a g
(B) Heat-transfer area

ag (C) Heat-transfer coefficient (D) Tube diameter

12. Which one of the following is an extensive property?
(A) Enthalpy (B) Concentration (C) Density (D) Viscosity
13. Automobile radiator is a heat exchanger of?
(A) Counter flow type (B) Parallel flow type
(C) Cross flow type (D) Regenerator type

m . c
c. o m
(1)

m s e
se
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PH.D. 2026 CHEMICAL ENGINEERING

14. A hollow sphere with uniform interior temperature and a small holes behaves as a
(A) Black body (B) White body (C) Grey body (D) Opaque body
15. A 1000 kg vehicle travelling at 80 m/s impacts a plunger attached to a piston cylinder
arrangement. If all of the energy of a vehicle is absorbed by the 20 kg of liquid contained in
the cylinder, what is the maximum temperature rise of the liquid? ( Specific heat of the liquid
is 4.6 kJ/kg°C)
(A) 55° (B) 50° (C) 45° (D) 40°
16. For turbulent flow in a tube, the heat transfer coefficient is obtained from the Dittus-Boelter
equation. If the tube diameter is halved and the flow rate is doubled, then the heat transfer
coefficient will change by a factor of
(A) 1 (B) 1.74 (C) 6.1 (D) 37
17. The unit of resistance to heat transfer is
(A) J/(m2-K) (B) J/(m-K) (C) W/(m2-K) (D) m2-K/W
18. According to Stokes' law, the terminal settling velocity of a small spherical particle in a fluid
is proportional to:
(A) dp (B) d2p (C) 1/dp (D) d3p
19. In a ball mill, the primary mechanism responsible for size reduction is:
(A) Compression only (B) Impact and attrition
(C) Cutting only (D) Shearing only
20. The sphericity of a particle is defined as the ratio of:
(A) Particle volume to particle surface area
(B) Surface area of a sphere having the same volume as the particle to the actual surface
area of the particle
(C) Actual particle surface area to particle volume
(D) Particle diameter to particle volume
21. Kremser equation may be used to determine the number of stages in a staged column when
(A) The operating and equilibrium lines are straight
(B) The operating line is straight, but the equilibrium relation is curved
(C) The operating line is curved, but the equilibrium line is straight
(D) Both the operating and equilibrium lines are curved
22. Knudsen diffusivity is
(A) Directly proportional to total pressure
(B) Inversely proportional to total pressure
(C) Independent of total pressure
(D) Directly proportional to the square root of total pressure
23. The concentration boundary layer will coincide with the thermal boundary layer when:
(A) Sc=Nu (B) Sh=Nu (C) Sc=Pr (D) Sh=Pr

(2)

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24. An alkali solution is used to reduce the concentration of carbon dioxide, in a stream from
10% to 0.1% by absorption with irreversible chemical reaction. The overall number of
transfer units based on gas phase is
(A) 9.21 (B) 4.605 (C) 100 (D) 0.001
25. Diffusivity of liquids can be estimated by

m
(A) Lewis reaction (B) Gilliand equation

m
(C) Hirschfelder-Bird-Spotz equation (D) Wilke-Chang equation
. c o
o if the liquid-side mass-transfer resistance is negligible compared em
26. In a gas absorptioncprocess,
.
m resistance, the overall gas-phase mass-transfer coefficient K iss
s e
with the gas-side
g l a
lato the liquid-phase coefficient k (B) Equal to the gas-phase coefficient ka
G
approximately:

ag
(A) Equal
(C) Zero
L
(D) Infinite
G

27. For equimolar counter-diffusion of components A and B through a binary mixture, the total
molar flux is:
(A) NA+NB=0 (B) NA+NB=NA (C) NA−NB=0 (D) NA=NB=0
28. In enzyme-catalysed reactions, enzyme activity is maximum at about
(A) 5°C (B) 25°C (C) 45°C (D) 60°C
m
29.
. co
The feed to a binary distillation column has 40 mol % vapour and 60 mol % liquid. Then, the

em
slope of a q-line in the McCabe-Thiele plot is
(A) -1.5 (B) -0.6
l a s
(C) 0.6 (D) 1.5
30.
a g
In a recycle reactor the recycle ratio is zero. This means the reactor is basically a
(A) PFR (B) CSTR
(C) PFR with zero radial mixing (D) PFR with substantial axial dispersion
31. For a state mixed reactor, the space-time is equivalent to the holding time for
(A) Constant fluid density systems
(B) Variable fluid density systems
(C) Non-isothermal gas reactions

m
(D) Gas reaction with changing number of moles

m c. o
c. o
32. Styrene is produced from ethylbenzene by the process of

e m
s
(A) Dehydrogenation (B) Oxidation

s em33. The oxo-reaction is used for converting la
(C) Alkylation (D) Dehydration

gla ag
a (A) Alcohol to aldehyde
(C) Olefin to aldehyde
(B) Paraffins to olefin
(D) Aldehyde to alcohol
34. An open flask contains air at 27°C. To what temperature should it be heated so that ⅓ rd of
the air originally present at 27°C escapes out?
(A) 187°C (B) 177°C (C) 197°C (D) 167°C
35. Compressibility factor of an ideal gas is always

c
(A) 0 (B) >1 (C) 1 (D) <1
m .
c. o m
(3)

m s e
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PH.D. 2026 CHEMICAL ENGINEERING

36. Which controller eliminates the steady-state error for a step change in set point?
(A) Proportional controller (B) Integral controller
(C) Derivative controller (D) On-off controller
37. A thermocouple is primarily used for measurement of:
(A) Pressure (B) Flow rate (C) Temperature (D) Liquid level
38. Which instrument is commonly used for measurement of differential pressure?
(A) Rotameter (B) Venturimeter (C) Orifice meter (D) Bourdon tube
39. For a first-order process, the time required to reach approximately 63.2% of the final value
after a step change is:
(A) 0.5τ (B) τ (C) 2τ (D) 3τ
40. A proportional controller has a proportional band of 250%. The gain will be?
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.4 (C) 250 (D) 2.5
41. Typical design specifications for the gain and phase margins respectively
(A) <1.7 and < 30° (B) >1.7 and < 30°
(C) <1.7 and >30° (D) >1.7 and >30°
42. Which one of the following transducers requires power supply for its operation?
(A) Thermocouple (B) Photovoltaic cell
(C) Piezoelectric crystal (D) Thermistor
43. U-tube type manometer is
(A) Half Order system (B) Second Order system
(C) Zero Order system (D) First Order system
44. Utilities cost in the operation of chemical process plant comes under the
(A) Plant Overhead Cost (B) Fixed Charges
(C) Direct Production Cost (D) General expenses
45. An asset is purchased at a cost of Rs 20,000 it has no salvage value at the end of its of 10
years. It’s book value at the end of 5 years will be (by straight line method).
(A) Rs 20,000 (B) Rs 10,000 (C) Rs 12,000 (D) Rs 15,000
46. Which of the following is a fixed charge in plant economics?
(A) Raw-material cost (B) Utility cost (C) Depreciation (D) Labour cost
47. Catalyst employed for ammonia manufacture from syn gas (nitrogen and hydrogen) is
(A) Platinum-Rhodium alloy
(B) Alpha-Alumina
(C) Silica-Alumina
(D) Iron oxide promoted by potassium oxide and alumina

48. The linear velocity of gas over the catalyst bed in the sulfur dioxide to sulphur trioxide
converter is around
(A) 0.1 to 0.25 m/s (B) 0.4 to 0.55 m/s
(C) 0.75 to 0.90 m/s (D) 1.8 to 2.5 m/s
(4)

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49. Nylon-6 is produced by polymerizing caprolactum in the presence of catalytic amount of
(A) Ammonia (B) Hydrocyanic acid
(C) Water (D) Hydrofluoric acid
50. Specific gravity of teflon is
(A) 1.04-1.06 (B) 1.14 (C) 1.42-1.45 (D) 2.1-2.3

m
co
x-x-x

om .
(ROUGH WORK)

.c e m
e m l a s
l a s ag
ag

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g l a
a

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m c. o
c. o s e m
s em la
gla ag
a

m . c
c. o m
(5)

m s e
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PH.D. 2026 CHEMICAL ENGINEERING

(ROUGH WORK)

(6)

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1. For R.C.C section with congested reinforcement compaction factor is
(A) 0.80 (B) 0.85 (C) 0.90 (D) 0.95
2. Sum of nodal forces at any yield line intersection in a slab is
(A) Zero (B) Infinity
(C) Independent of the reinforcement (D) Indeterminate

m
co
3. With rise in temperature of atmospheric air, setting time of cement

c om m .
(A) Increases (B) Decreases

m .
(C) Remains unaffected (D) First increases then deceases
s e
s e g l a
a
4. Reduction coefficient of a reinforced concrete column with an effective length of 4.8m and
l a
ag
size 250mm × 300mm is
(A) 0.80 (B) 0.85 (C) 0.90 (D) 0.95
5. An axially loaded column is of 300mm × 300mm size, Effective length of column is 3m.
What is the minimum eccentricity of the axial load for the column?
(A) 7 (B) 10 (C) 16 (D) 20
6. In case of deep beam or in thin webbed R.C.C, members the first crack form is
(A) Flexural crack (B) Diagonal crack due to compression

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(C) Diagonal crack due to tension (D) Shear crack
7.
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(A) Collapse (B) Cracking (C) Deflection (D) Durability
8.
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Deflection can be controlled by using appropriate
(A) Aspect ratio
(C) Span/depth ratio
a (B) Modular ratio
(D) Water/cement ratio
9. Shear span is defined as the zone where
(A) Bending moment is zero (B) Shear force is zero
(C) Shear force is constant (D) Bending moment is constant
10. Yield line theory results in

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(A) Elastic solution (B) Lower bound solution

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11.om Relation between strength of concrete (s) in kg/m and gel-space ratio(x) is. given by
(C) Upper bound solution (D) Unique solution

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(D)eS=240x
3

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3
(B) S=120x (C) S=240x 2
s
a and modulus of
2 3

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ag 5 2
elasticity 2x10 N/mm is subjected to an axial load of 100kN.
this member is
(A) 1150 Nmm (B) 1200Nmm (C) 1250Nmm (D) 1300Nmm
13. A mild steel rod tapers uniformly from 30 mm diameter to 12 mm diameter in a length of
300 mm. The rod is subjected to an axial load of 12 kN. E=2 x 10 5 N/mm2. What is the
extension of the rod in mm?
(A) (B) (C) (D)

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(1)

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PH.D. 2026 CIVIL ENGINEERING

14. If the critical shear stress of a channel is τ then the average value of shear stress required
to move the grain on the bank is
(A) 1.0 τ (B) 0.5τ (C) 0.75τ (D) 1.33τ
15. A concrete beam of rectangular cross-section of 200mm×400mm is prestressed with a
force of 400kN at an eccentricity of 100mm.The maximum compressive stress in the
concrete is
(A) 12.5N/mm2 (B) 7.5N/mm2 (C) 5.0N/mm2 (D) 11.5N/mm2
16. If the hinged end of a propped cantilever of span 2.5m, settles by an amount of 15mm, then
the rotation of the hinged end will be
(A) 0.7o (B) 0.5o (C) 0.6o (D) 0.8o
17. A rectangle beam of width 300mm and depth 600mm is subjected to a shear force of
200kN.The maximum shear stress produced in the beam is
(A) 1.11MPa (B) 1.67MPa (C) 1.50MPa (D) 3.33MPa
18. The ratio of average values of shear stresses produced on the bed and the banks of a
channel due to flowing water is
(A) Less than 1 (B) Equal to 1 (C) Greater than 1 (D) Equal to zero
19. The maximum average depth due to one day storm over an area of 100km is 100mm.
Depth-Area-Duration (DAD) curves indicate that for the same area of 100km the
maximum average depth for a 3 hour storm will be
(A) 100mm (B) More than 100mm
(C) Less than 100mm (D) Infinite
20. Maximum number of vehicles can be parked with
(A) Parallel parking (B) 30o angle parking
(C) 45o angle parking (D) 90o angle parking
21. As per IRC recommendations, the average level of illumination on important roads
carrying fast traffic is
(A) 10 lux (B) 15 lux (C) 20 lux (D) 30 lux
22. The peak of a 4 hours flood hydrograph is 240 m3/sec. If the rainfall excess is 80mm and
base flow which is constant is 40m3/sec, then the peak of 4 hours unit hydrograph will be
(A) 20 m3/sec (B) 25 m3/sec (C) 30 m3/sec (D) 35 m3/sec
23. A short column of external diameter of 250mm and internal diameter of 150mm carries an
eccentric load of 1000kN. The greatest eccentricity which the load can have without
producing tension anywhere is
(A) 20mm (B) 31.25mm (C) 37.5mm (D) 42.5mm
24. For sandy soil the most common method of stabilization is
(A) Soil cement stabilization (B) Mechanical stabilization
(C) Soil lime stabilization (D) Soil bitumen stabilization

(2)

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25. Ratio of the width of the car parking area required at kerb for 30 o angle parking relative to
60o angle parking is approximately
(A) 0.5 (B) 0.7 (C) 0.8 (D) 2.0
26. Rapid curing cutback bitumen is produced by blending bitumen with
(A) Kerosene (B) Benzene (C) Diesel (D) Petrol

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27. Number of keys used in CST-9 sleeper is

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(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

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28. Cant deficiency occurs when a vehicle travels around a curve at

a s
(A) Equilibrium speed (B) Speeds higher than equilibrium speed
g l
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a chemical most commonly used to increase speed of sedimentation of sewage is
(C) Speeds lower than equilibrium speed (D) Booked speed
29. The
(A) Sulphuric acid (B) Copper sulphate
(C) Lime (D) Sodium permanganate
30. Sewage systems are usually designed for
(A) 10 years (B) 25 years (C) 50 years (D) 75 years
31. A city supply of 15000 cubic metres of water per day is treated with a chlorine dosage of

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0.5 ppm. For this purpose, the requirement of 25% bleaching power per day would be
(A) 300 kg (B) 75 kg (C) 30 kg (D) 7.5 kg
The ratio of 5 day BOD to ultimate BOD ismabout
32.
s e (C) 3/4
l a
ag in isolated footings on clayey soils should be limited
(A) 1/3 (B) 2/3 (D) 1.0
33. The maximum differential settlement
to
(A) 25 mm (B) 40 mm (C) 50 mm (D) 65 mm
34. Shear failure of soils takes place when
(A) The angle of obliquity is maximum
(B) Maximum cohesion is reached in cohesive soils

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(D) Residual strength of the soil is exhausted

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l a design?
(A) 0.261 (B) 1.26 (C) 1.06

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ag (A) Strength of structure
(C) Geographical location of structure
(B) Site soil
(D) Wind of location
37. Which of the following load combination is not possible?
(A) Dead load + imposed load
(B) Dead load + wind load + earthquake load
(C) Dead load + imposed load + wind load
(D) Dead load + imposed load + earthquake load

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38. Which of the following is true about bracket connections?
(A) They are used to give aesthetic appearance to the structure
(B) These connections are used to accommodate less number of bolts
(C) Fabrication cost is low
(D) More rigid than any other connection
39. Which of the following is not an assumption of first-order elastic analysis of rigid jointed
frame?
(A) Member instability effects cannot be ignored
(B) Materials behave linearly
(C) Frame instability effects can be ignored
(D) Yielding effects can be ignored
40. In which of the following cases pin connections are not used?
(A)Tall buildings (B) Truss bridge girders
(C) Diagonal bracing connection (D) Hinged arches
41. A steel plate is 30 cm wide and 10mm thick. The maximum number of bolts of nominal
diameter 20mm at a section will be
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
42. The imperfection factor for buckling class ‘a’ is
(A) 0.48 (B) 0.32 (C) 0.21 (D) 0.23
43. The shortest possible time in which an activity can be achieved under ideal circumstances
is known as
(A) Pessimistic time estimate (B) Optimistic time estimate
(C) Expected time estimate (D) The most likely time estimate
44. Which equipment is typically used for conveying materials on construction sites?
(A) Dump truck (B) Excavator (C) Bulldozer (D) Motor grader
45. What is a significant consideration when evaluating investment costs for construction
equipment?
(A) Initial purchase price (B) Fuel efficiency
(C) Resale value (D) Maintenance frequency
46. Given the optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic time estimates of an activity as 6, 10, 14
days, respectively, compute the PERT time for this activity.
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 7
47. Consider a project that has an expected completion time of 60 weeks and a standard
deviation of five weeks. What will be the probability factor that the project is finished in 70
weeks or less (round to two decimals)?
(A) -0.20 (B) +0.20 (C) -2.00 (D) +2.00
48. How are magnitudes of the earthquake classified?
(A) Reid’s and duration magnitude (B) Richter and Mercalli magnitude
(C) Reid’s and Mercalli magnitude (D) Richter and duration magnitude
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49. Which structure will perform better during earthquake?
(A) Statically determinate and indeterminate
(B) Depends upon magnitude of earthquake
(C) Statically indeterminate
(D) Statically determinate

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50. If a structure has total 10 joints, then what should be the minimum no. of joints in which

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(A) 9 (B) 10 (C) 8 (D) 7

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PH.D. 2026 CIVIL ENGINEERING

(ROUGH WORK)

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1. The 2's complement representation of -14 using 8 bits is:
(A) 11110010 (B) 11110001 (C) 11110011 (D) 00001110
2. In a CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection) network operating at
a bandwidth of 1 Gbps, the maximum cable length is 1 km and the signal propagation speed is
200,000 km/s. What is the strict minimum frame size required to guarantee that a transmitting

o m
station will always detect a collision?
(A) 1,000 bits
m
onumber of 2-input NAND gates required to implement a 2-input XOR em
(B) 5,000 bits (C) 10,000 bits (D) 20,000 bits
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3. What is the minimum
gate?
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(A) 3
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a
g where a machine learning model is trained to predict the exact temperature of a
a
4. In a scenario
city for tomorrow, the problem is best categorized as:
(A) Binary Classification (B) Multi-class Classification
(C) Regression (D) Clustering
5. In an instruction pipeline, a data hazard can be effectively resolved by:
(A) Operand forwarding (Bypassing) (B) Branch prediction
(C) Increasing pipeline depth (D) Using Direct Memory Access

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6. Cache memory works primarily on the principle of:
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(A) Locality of reference (B) Locality of data

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7. A neural network model performs exceptionally well on the training dataset (very low error)
but performs poorly on unseen test data (high error). This scenario is a classic example of:
(A) Underfitting (B) Overfitting
(C) Optimal Generalization (D) Convex Optimization
8. In DMA mode, data transfer occurs directly between:
(A) CPU and Memory (B) I/O device and Memory
(C) CPU and I/O device (D) Cache and Main memory

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9. What is the output of the following C code snippet?

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int x = 5;

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printf("%d", x << 2);

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a (BFS) in a graph?
(A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 25

s e 10. Which data structure is primarily used to implement Breadth-First Search
g l
gla a (D) Deque
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(A) Stack (B) Queue (C) Priority Queue
11. A binary heap is implemented using a 1-indexed array. The parent of a node at index i is
located at:
(A) i/2 (B) 2i (C) 2i+1 (D) i-1
12. What is the maximum number of leaf nodes in a binary tree of height h (assuming the root is at
height 0)?
(A) 2^h (B) 2^(h-1) (C) h^2 (D) 2^(h+1)-1

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(1)

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PH.D. 2026 COMP. SC. ENGG.

13. In a circular queue of size n, the condition to check if the queue is strictly full is (where f is
front, r is rear):
(A) f == r (B) (r+1)%n == f (C) f == 0 (D) r == n-1
14. Which of the following is true regarding a strictly binary tree?
(A) Every node has exactly 2 children (B) Every internal node has exactly 2 children
(C) All leaves are at the exact same level (D) It must be an AVL tree
15. What will be returned by the following C function if n = 4?
int f(int n) {
if (n <= 1) return 1;
return n * f(n-1);
}
(A) 12 (B) 24 (C) 4 (D) 16
16. The time complexity of building a Max-Heap from an unsorted array of n elements is:
(A) O(n) (B) O(n log n) (C) O(log n) (D) O(n^2)
17. Which algorithm design paradigm is utilized in Floyd-Warshall algorithm for all-pairs shortest
path?
(A) Greedy Strategy (B) Divide and Conquer
(C) Dynamic Programming (D) Backtracking
18. What is the worst-case time complexity of finding an element in a Hash Table that utilizes
chaining for collision resolution?
(A) O(1) (B) O(log n) (C) O(n) (D) O(n log n)
19. Which of the following sorting algorithms is NOT an in-place sorting algorithm?
(A) Quick Sort (B) Merge Sort (C) Heap Sort (D) Insertion Sort
20. Kruskal’s algorithm for finding the Minimum Spanning Tree heavily relies on which data
structure for efficiency?
(A) Depth-First Search tree (B) Breadth-First Search queue
(C) Disjoint-set (D) Max-Heap
21. The minimum number of comparisons strictly required to find both the minimum and
maximum of n elements in an array is:
(A) 2n-2 (B) Ceiling(3n/2) - 2 (C) n-1 (D) n log n
22. The pumping lemma for regular languages is primarily used to:
(A) Prove a given language is regular (B) Prove a given language is not regular
(C) Convert an NFA to a DFA (D) Minimize the states of a DFA
23. The "vanishing gradient" problem, which hinders the training of deep neural networks, is most
notoriously associated with which activation function?
(A) Rectified Linear Unit (ReLU) (B) Leaky ReLU
(C) Sigmoid (D) Maxout
24. Let L1 be a Context-Free Language (CFL) and L2 be a Regular Language. Which of the
following operations is mathematically guaranteed to NOT produce a Context-Free Language?
(A) 𝐿 ∩ 𝐿 (B) 𝐿 (C) 𝐿 ∖ 𝐿 (D) 𝐿 U𝐿
(2)

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25. Which of the following data structures achieves an amortized time complexity of strictly O(1)
for both INSERT and DECREASE-KEY operations?
(A) Binary Heap (B) Binomial Heap (C) B+ Tree (D) Fibonacci Heap
26. The set of all Turing-recognizable (recursively enumerable) languages is closed under:
(A) Union and intersection only (B) Union, intersection, and concatenation

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(C) Complementation only (D) Intersection and complementation

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27. In compiler design, Left Recursion must be eliminated for which specific type of parser to

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(A) LR(0)
se (B) LALR(1) (C) Recursive descent (D) SLR(1)
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28. When merging states from a Canonical LR(1) parsing table to construct an LALR(1) parsing
table, merging states with the identical core but different lookaheads can potentially introduce
which specific parsing anomaly?
(A) Shift-Reduce conflict only
(B) Reduce-Reduce conflict only
(C) Both Shift-Reduce and Reduce-Reduce conflicts
(D) Neither; LALR(1) tables never have conflicts if the LR(1) table is conflict-free
29. In a Syntax-Directed Translation (SDT) scheme, if a definition is strictly S-attributed, how

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must the attribute evaluation be fundamentally executed?

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(A) Exclusively via a top-down traversal of the parse tree.

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(B) By evaluating inherited attributes first, followed by synthesized attributes.

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(C) By utilizing a dependency graph that specifically permits cycles.
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(D) Exclusively via a bottom-up traversal (such as during an LR parse).
30. Which of the following bottom-up parsing techniques is considered the most powerful?
(A) SLR(1) (B) LR(0) (C) LALR(1) (D) Canonical LR(1)
31. A Process Control Block (PCB) does NOT typically contain which of the following?
(A) Process state (B) Program counter (C) CPU registers (D) Global variables
32. Which of following conditions is NOT one of the four necessary conditions for a deadlock to
occur?

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(A) Mutual exclusion (B) Hold and wait (C) Preemption (D) Circular wait

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33. A system has 3 processes sharing 4 identical resources. If each process needs maximum of 2

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units, then:

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(A) Deadlock can never occur

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(B) Deadlock may occur occasionally
a (C) Deadlock will definitely occur
(D) The system is inherently in an unsafe state
34. In virtual memory management, replacing a page that has not been modified since it was read
from the disk saves:
(A) A page fault (B) A memory access
(C) A disk write operation (D) A TLB miss

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(3)

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PH.D. 2026 COMP. SC. ENGG.

35. A 32-bit operating system uses a page size of 4KB and requires page table entries (PTE) of
exactly 4 bytes. If a multi-level hierarchical paging scheme is implemented such that every
individual page table fits perfectly into a single memory page, how many distinct levels of
paging are strictly required?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
36. Which Inter-Process Communication (IPC) mechanism specifically utilizes a named pipe?
(A) Shared memory (B) Message queues (C) Sockets (D) FIFOs
37. In a standard Entity-Relationship (ER) model, a multi-valued attribute is visually represented
by a:
(A) Rectangle (B) Double ellipse (C) Dashed ellipse (D) Diamond
38. Let N(h) denote the minimum number of nodes required to construct an AVL tree of height h.
Assuming a single-node tree has a height of 0, what is the exact value of N(5)?
(A) 20 (B) 15 (C) 33 (D) 31
39. Which of the following SQL commands is categorized as DDL and used to modify the
structure of an existing table?
(A) UPDATE (B) MODIFY (C) ALTER (D) CHANGE
40. The ACID property that guarantees a transaction is either completely executed or not executed
at all is:
(A) Atomicity (B) Consistency (C) Isolation (D) Durability
41. In a B+ tree index used in modern databases, the actual data pointers are strictly stored:
(A) Only at internal nodes (B) Only at the root node
(C) Only at leaf nodes (D) At all levels of the tree
42. Which layer of the OSI model is directly responsible for framing, error detection, and medium
access control?
(A) Physical Layer (B) Data Link Layer
(C) Network Layer (D) Transport Layer
43. In traditional IPv4 addressing, what is the default subnet mask for a Class B IP address?
(A) 255.0.0.0 (B) 255.255.0.0
(C) 255.255.255.0 (D) 255.255.255.255
44. Consider a relation schema R(A, B, C, D, E, F) with the following set of functional
dependencies: A -> B C -> D B, D -> E
Which of the following is the valid candidate key for this relation?
(A) AC (B) ACDF (C) ABC (D) ACF
45. In TCP congestion control, the "slow start" phase increases the congestion window size:
(A) Linearly (B) Exponentially (C) Quadratically (D) Randomly
46. Which fundamental protocol resolves a known IP address to an unknown physical MAC
address?
(A) DHCP (B) DNS (C) RARP (D) ARP

(4)

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47. In supervised learning, the task of predicting a continuous numerical value (e.g., housing
prices) is known as:
(A) Classification (B) Clustering
(C) Regression (D) Dimensionality reduction
48. A confusion matrix for a binary classifier reveals 40 True Positives, 10 False Positives, 5 False

o m
Negatives, and 45 True Negatives. What is the precision of this model?
(A) 40/45
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(B) 40/50 (C) 40/85 (D) 45/50
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49. Which activation function

(A) ReLU s e
value strictly between 0 and 1?
g l a
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50. K-Meansgclustering is a primary example of:
(C) Sigmoid (D) Linear
a
a
(A) Supervised learning (B) Unsupervised learning
(C) Reinforcement learning (D) Semi-supervised learning
x-x-x
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PH.D. 2026 COMP. SC. ENGG.

(ROUGH WORK)

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ELECTRICAL & ELECTRONIC ENGG.

1. In digital electronics, a digital signal is a
(A) Quantified signal
(B) Pulse train
(C) Continuous time physical signal
(D) Logic signal waveform

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2. What is a switching function that has more than one output called in Digital Electronics?

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(A) Multiple-output function

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(B) Multi-output function
(C)
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(D)
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3. Which gates in Digital Circuits are required to convert a NOR-based SR latch to an SR
flip-flop?
(A) Two 3 input OR gates
(B) Two 2 input OR gates
(C) Two 2 input AND gates
(D) Two 3 input AND gates

4. When inputs have AC activity, capacitance are charging and discharging and the power
increases as a result. This power can be termed as
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(A) Dynamic power

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(B) Static power

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(C) Input power
(D) Output power
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5. nogexternal electrical power are known as
Analog circuits which consumes a
(A) Accurate analog circuits
(B) Continuous analog circuits
(C) Passive analog circuits
(D) Analog circuits

6. The superposition theorem is applicable to
(A) current only

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(B) voltage only

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(C) both current and voltage

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(D) current, voltage and power

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(A) 10 Ω
(B) 18 Ω
(C) 24 Ω
(D) 12 Ω

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PH.D. 2026 ELECTRICAL & ELECTRONIC ENGG.

8. The current source is 1∠ 0o A, R=1Ω , the impedances are ZC = - j Ω, and ZL = 2jΩ in the
circuit given. The Thevenin equivalent looking into the circuit across X–Y is

(A) √2∠00V, (1+2j) Ω
(B) 2∠450V, (1 - 2j) Ω
(C) 2∠450V, (1+ j) Ω
(D) √2∠450V, (1+ j) Ω

9. For a two-port network to be reciprocal, it is necessary that
(A) Z11 = Z22 and Y12 = Y21
(B) Z11 =Z22 and AD – BC = 0
(C) H21 = - H12 and AD – BC = 0
(D) Y12 = Y21 and H21 = - H12

10. When a number of two-port networks are connected in cascade, the individual
(A) Zoc matrices are added
(B) Ysc matrices are added
(C) chain matrices are multiplied
(D) H-matrices are multiplied

11. The reading of the wattmeter connected to measure the reactive power in a three-phase
circuit is given by zero, the line voltage is 400V and line current 15A; then the pf of the
circuit is
(A) Zero
(B) Unity
(C) 0.8
(D) 0.5

12. The magnetic circuit of a dc shunt generator with negligible armature resistance and brush
contact voltage drop remains unsaturated when it delivers full-load current at rated
terminal voltage. The brushes are kept in the interpolar axis and speed is maintained
constant. When the load is switched off, the terminal voltage would
(A) remain the same
(B) increase
(C) decrease
(D) become zero

13. The interpoles in dc machines have a tapering shape in order to
(A) reduce the overall weight
(B) reduce the saturation in the interpole
(C) economise on the material required for interpoles and their windings
(D) increase the acceleration of commutation
(2)

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a g
ELECTRICAL & ELECTRONIC ENGG.

14. The variable resistance representing the mechanical load in the equivalent circuit of a 3-
phase induction motor is given by
(A) 𝑟 (𝑠 − 1)
(B) 𝑟 −1
(C) 𝑟 1−

m
co
(D) 𝑟 (1 − 𝑠)

15.
.c om
A transformer at no load is excited at rated voltage. Now a cut is made in the transformer
e m .
e m
yoke thus creating a small air gap. With this, the transformer core flux

l a s
a s g
(A) will decrease and magnetizing current Im will increase

l a
ag
(B) will remain constant and Im will increase
(C) as well as Im both will increase
(D) as well as Im both will decrease

16. A three phase star-delta transformer has secondary to primary turns ratio per phase of 5.
For a primary voltage of 400V, the secondary voltage would be
(A) 3464 V
(B) 1154.7 V
(C) 2000 V
(D) 46.2 V
o m
c
17. Two 1-phase transformers with equal turns ratio. have impedances of (0.5 + j 3) Ω and (0.6
m operate in parallel, how will they share a
+ j10) Ω with respect to the secondary. Ifethey
l a s
load of 100 kW at 0.8 pf lagging?
(A) 50kW, 50 kW a g
(B) 62 kW, 38 kW
(C) 78.2 kW, 21.8 kW
(D) 85.5 kW, 14.5 kW

18. Synchronous condenser means
(A) A synchronous motor with capacitor connected across terminals to improve power

m
factor

m c. o
(B) A synchronous motor operating at full load with leading power factor

c. o m
(C) An over excited synchronous motor partially supplying mechanical load, and also

s e
em a
improving the power factor of the system to which it is connected

s g l
(D) An over excited synchronous motor operating at no load with leading power factor

gla a
used in large power stations for improvement in power factor.

a 19. A star connected synchronous generator has synchronous impedance of 0+ j 5.0 Ω. It
delivers a zero power factor leading current of 20A at 400V. Its excitation emf is
(A) 400+j√3 x 100
(B) 400-j√3 x 100
(C) 400-√3 x 100
(D) 400+√3 x 100

m . c
c. o m
(3)

m s e
se
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20. A 100mA meter has an accuracy of ±2%. Its accuracy while reading 10mA will be
(A) ±2%
(B) ±0.2%
(C) ±4%
(D) ±20%

21. How many ac voltage regulators are required for making the construction of a cyclo-
converter?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 6

22. During forward blocking of two series connected SCR’s, a thyristor with
1. High leakage impedance shares lower voltage
2. High leakage impedance shares higher voltage
3. Low leakage impedance shares higher voltage
4. Low leakage impedance shares lower voltage
(A) 1, 3
(B) 2, 3
(C) 1, 4
(D) 2, 4

23. A power MOSFET has three terminals called
(A) Collector, emitter and base
(B) Drain, source and base
(C) Drain, source and gate
(D) Collector, emitter and gate

24. For a 3-phase, six pulse diode rectifier, the average output voltage in terms of maximum
value of line voltage Vm is
(A) 3√2
𝑉𝑚
𝜋
(B) 3
𝑉𝑚
𝜋
(C) 3√3
𝑉𝑚
2𝜋
(D) 3√3
𝑉𝑚
𝜋

25. In a three phase half-wave diode rectifier, the ratio of average output voltage to maximum
ac line voltage is
(A) 0.239
(B) 0.827
(C) 0.4775
(D) 0.955
(4)

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26. For a three phase bridge inverter in 1800 conduction angle, the sequence of SCR
conduction in the first two steps, beginning with the initiation of thyristor 1, is

m
o m . co
c
.3,4,5 e m
m s
(A) 6,1,2 and 2,3,1

s eand 5,6,1
(B) 2,3,1 and
g l a
a
(D) gl5,6,1 and 6,1,2
(C) 3,4,5
a
a
27. The block diagram of a system is shown in figure.

If the desired transfer function of the system is

m
𝑪(𝒔) 𝒔

co
= 𝒔𝟐 𝒔 𝟏

.
𝑹(𝒔)

em
Then G(s) is

s
(A) 1
(B) s
g l a
a
(C) 1/s
(D)

28. A unity feedback system has loop transfer function as G(s) = K/ (s-3). The range of gain,
for which the closed loop system is stable, is
(A) K >0
(B) K<0
(C) K>3

m
c. o
(D) K<3

om A second
c. 29. order system with system matrix
e m
em
−3 0 3
la s
s ag
𝐴= 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥(0) =

a
0 −1 4

l
ag
Then the states of the system after 2 seconds will be
(A)
𝑥(2) = 4𝑒
3𝑒
(B)
𝑥(2) = 4𝑒
𝑒
(C) 3𝑒
𝑥(2) =
4𝑒
(D)
𝑥(2) = 7𝑒
1𝑒

m . c
c. o m
(5)

m s e
se
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30. In the formation of Routh-Hurwitz array for a polynomial all the elements of a row have
zero values. This premature termination of the array indicates the presence of only one
root at the origin imaginary root only positive real roots only negative
(A) only one root at the origin
(B) imaginary root
(C) only positive real roots
(D) only negative real roots

31. The phase lead compensator 𝐺 (𝑠) =
( . )
would provide a maximum phase shift
.
of
(A) 00
(B) 300
(C) 450
(D) 600

32. In a three unit insulator string the voltage across the lowest unit is 17.5kV while string
efficiency is 90%. The total voltage across the string will be equal to __________ .
(A) 52.5kV
(B) 27.28 kV
(C) 47.25 kV
(D) 90.93 kV

33. The insulation resistance of a cable of length 10km is 1MΩ. For a length of 100 km of
the same cable the insulation resistance will be
(A) 1MΩ
(B) 0.1MΩ
(C) 10MΩ
(D) 0.001MΩ

34. A generator with constant 1.0 pu terminal voltage supplies power through a step-up
transformer of 0.12 pu reactance and a double circuit line to an infinite bus bar as shown
in the figure. The infinite bus voltage is maintained at 1.0 pu neglecting the resistances
and susceptances of the system the studies States stability power limit of the system is
6.25 pu. If one of the double circuit is tripped then resulting study States stability power
limit in per unit will be

(A) 12.5 pu
(B) 3.125 pu
(C) 10.0 pu
(D) 5.0 pu

(6)

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35. The zero sequence circuit of the three phase transformer shown in the figure is

m
(A)
om . co
.c e m
e m l a s
(B) la
s ag
ag

(C)

m
. co
(D)

s em
g l a
a
36. The line impedance of a three phase transmission line is given by Z= (10+j5)Ω. For 100
MVA power delivered at 132kV, the transmission loss is ________________ .
(A) 5.74 MW
(B) 8.38 MW
(C) 11.5 MW
(D) 1 MW

m
c. o
37. For the given connection, the phase sequence is ABC and the system is balanced power

m
c. o
factor of this load can be
(A) unity
e m
em
(B) zero
l a s
las (C) 0.5 lead
a g
ag (D) 0.5 lag

38. A moving coil ammeter is used to measure maximum value of current of 100mA at its
full scale. If a resistance of 0.5 Ω is connected parallel with it, the new value of current at
full scale will be
(A) 100mA
(B) 300mA
(C) 500mA

m . c
(D) 50mA

c. o m
(7)

m s e
se
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39. The phenomenon of creep in a single phase induction type energy meter can arise due to
(A) Low control torque
(B) Over compensation due to friction
(C) Higher deflecting torque
(D) Improper design of disc

40. Zero of a voltmeter is having an error of 5% of full scale. If the voltmeter reads 30V, the
possible range of actual voltage
(A) 28-32 V
(B) 28.5-31.5 V
(C) 29-31 V
(D) 20-40 V

41. In an induction type meter, maximum torque is produced when the phase angle between
two fluxes is
(A) 00
(B) 450
(C) 600
(D) 900

42. Final value of 𝐹 (𝑠) =
(A) Cannot be determined
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D) infinity

43. Two point charges of magnitude 3x10-9 C and -5x10-9 C are 2m apart. Determine the
magnitude of the force between them and state whether it is attractive or repulsive.
(A) -3.375x10-8 N , attractive
(B) -3.375x10-8 N , repulsive
(C) -1.500x10-8 N , attractive
(D) -1.500x10-8 N , repulsive

44. Line integral can be transformed into a surface integral by using
(A) Divergence theorem
(B) Gauss theorem
(C) Stokes theorem
(D) Thevenin’s theorem

45. The instantaneous values of currents in phases R and Y of a 3-phase system are 25 A
each. For a phase sequence of BRY, the instantaneous value of current in phase B is
(A) 50A
(B) 25A
(C) 12.5A
(D) 43.3A

(8)

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46. The voltage of domestic supply is 220 V. This figure represents
(A) mean value
(B) r.m.s. value
(C) peak value
(D) average value

47. In the following figure Ra, Rb and Rc are 20Ω, 10Ω and 10Ω respectively. The resistances

m
co
R1, R2 and R3 in Ω of an equivalent star connection are:

.c om e m .
e m l a s
l a s ag
ag
(A) 2.5, 5, 2.5
(B) 5, 2.5, 5
(C) 5, 5, 2.5
(D) 2.5, 5, 5

48. The value of output current is

m
. co
s em
(A) 9.65 mA
g l a
(B)
(C)
10.59 mA
7.50 mA a
(D) 6.95 mA

49. The insulation resistance varies .......... as the length.
(A) directly
(B) indirectly
(C) three times
(D) 1.732 times
m
m c. o
c. o
50. Which of the following are the necessary conditions for an entire 3-φ system to be
balanced?
e m
em
1. The line voltages are equal in magnitude
la s
las 2. The phase differences between successive line voltages are equal
ag
g
3. The impedances in each of the phases are identical.

a Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 2 and 3

x-x-x

m . c
c. o m
(9)

m s e
se
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(ROUGH WORK)

(10)

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ELECTRICAL & ELECTRONIC ENGG.

(ROUGH WORK)

m
om . co
.c e m
e m l a s
l a s ag
ag

m
. co
s em
g l a
a

m
m c. o
c. o s e m
s em la
gla ag
a

m . c
c. o m
(11)

m s e
se
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(ROUGH WORK)

(12)

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ag
ELECTRONICS & COM. ENGG.

1. The Laplace transform of e−at is:
(A) 1/(s−a) (B) 1/(s+a) (C) s/(s+a) (D) a/(s+a)
2. How can we define half wave symmetry?
(A) x(t) = -x(t±T) (B) x(t) = x(t±T/2)
(C) x(t) = x(t±T) (D) x(t) = -x(t±T/2)

m
3. A continuous-time system having a pole at s=+2 is:
(A) Stable
m
(B) Unstable (C) Marginally stable (D) Causal only
. c o
4.
.co is given as X [n] = cos + sin ( + ). The period of the signal X sem
A discrete time signal

e m la
s (D) Non-periodic g
[n] is ______________
(A) 126a
g lof the following is a dynamic system?
(B) 32 (C) 252
a
5.
a
Which
(A) y(n) = y(n-1) + y(n+1) (B) y(n) = y(n-1)
(C) y(n) = x(n) (D) y(n) + y(n+1) + y(n+3) = 0
6. Find the Z-transform of y(n) = x(n+2)u(n).
(A) z2 X(Z) – z2 x(0) – zx(1) (B) z2 X(Z) + z2 x(0) – zx(1)
(C) z2X(Z) – z2 x(0) + zx(1) (D) z2 X(Z) + z2 x(0) + zx(1)
7. Thevenin resistance is found by ________
m
co
(A) Shorting all voltage sources
.
em
(B) Shorting all voltage sources and opening all current sources

a s
(C) Opening all current sources

g l
(D) Opening all voltage sources and shorting all current sources
8. Z-parameters are also called:
(A) Admittance parameters
a (B) Impedance parameters
(C) Hybrid parameters (D) Transmission parameters
9. For a given reverse bias, increasing light intensity causes:
(A) Increased reverse photocurrent (B) Decreased reverse current
(C) No change (D) Breakdown immediately
10. An electronic circuit wire of conductivity 5.8 × 107 mho-m is subjected to an electric field
m
c. o
of 40 mV/m. What will be its current density?
m
c. o m
(A) 2.32 × 106 A/m2 (B) 1.16 × 106 A/m2

s e
em11.
(C) 4.64 × 106 A/m2 (D) 4.30 × 106 A/m2

s la
la 12. ag
A transistor amplifier requires proper:

ag
(A) Biasing (B) Grounding only (C) Rectification (D) Filtering only
The magnitude of gain of an ideal integrator is:
(A) ωRC (B) 1/(ωRC) (C) RC/ω (D) ω/RC
13. If a MOSFET is to be used in the making of an amplifier then it must work in
(A) Cut-off region
(B) Triode region
(C) Saturation region

c
(D) Both cut-off and triode region can be used
m .
c. o m
(1)

m s e
se
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14. An electron has mobility 0.14m2/Vs and electric field 100V/m. Its drift velocity is:
(A) 1.4 m/s (B) 14 m/s (C) 140 m/s (D) 0.014 m/s
15. The clipping level in op-amp is determined by
(A) AC supply voltage (B) Control voltage
(C) Reference voltage (D) Input voltage
16. The potential difference between the base and the collector Vcb in a pnp transistor in
saturation region is ________
(A) -0.2 V (B) -0.5V (C) 0.2 V (D) 0.5 V
17. In a common-emitter amplifier, the output voltage is generally:
(A) In phase with input (B) 180° out of phase with input
(C) 90° ahead (D) 90° behind
18. When both inputs of a J-K flip-flop cycle, the output will ___________
(A) Be invalid (B) Not change (C) Change (D) Toggle
19. A memory with 12 address lines can address:
(A) 1024 locations (B) 2048 locations
(C) 4096 locations (D) 8192 locations
20. An n-bit shift register generally requires:
(A) n flip-flops (B) n+1 flip-flops (C) 2n flip-flops (D) n/2 flip-flops
m
21. If the number of n selected input lines is equal to 2 then it requires _____ select lines.
(A) 2 (B) m (C) n (D)2n
22. A 6-variable K-Map contains:
(A) 32 cells (B) 36 cells (C) 64 cells (D) 128 cells
23. When we use auto increment or auto decrements, which of the following is/are true?
1) In both, the address is used to retrieve the operand and then the address gets altered
2) In auto increment, the operand is retrieved first and then the address altered
3) Both of them can be used on general purpose registers as well as memory locations
(A) 1, 2, 3 (B) 2 (C) 1, 3 (D) 2, 3
24. Which instruction uses immediate addressing?
(A) MOV R1, #25 (B) MOV R1, [25]
(C) MOV R1, [R2] (D) MOV R1, [R2+25]
25. Addition of zero at origin:
(A) Improvement in transient response (B) Reduction in steady state error
(C) Reduction is settling time (D) Increase in damping constant
26. Routh Hurwitz criterion cannot be applied when the characteristic equation of the system
containing coefficient’s which is/are
(A) Exponential function of s
(B) Sinusoidal function of s
(C) Complex
(D) Exponential and sinusoidal function of s and complex

(2)

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ELECTRONICS & COM. ENGG.

27. The characteristic equation of a system is given as s3+25s2+10s+50=0. What is the number
of the roots in the right half s-plane and the imaginary axis respectively?
(A) 1,1 (B) 0,0 (C) 2,1 (D) 1,2
28. The necessary condition for the stability of the linear system is that all the coefficients of
characteristic equation 1+G(s)H(s) =0, be real and have the:

m
co
(A) Positive sign (B) Negative sign

om .
(C) Same sign (D) Both positive and negative

.c e m
m s
29. According to Parseval’s theorem the energy spectral density curve is equal to?

s e
(A) Area under magnitude of the signal
g l a
l a a
ag
(B) Area under square of the magnitude of the signal
(C) Area under square root of magnitude of the signal
(D) None of the mentioned
30. The average power of white noise is
(A) Zero (B) Unity (C) Infinity (D) Between zero and one
31. The fourier tranform of one impulse train is also another impulse train with a period of the
output equal to the

m
(A) Period of the input (B) Reciprocal of the period of input signal

c. o
(C) Half the period of input (D) Twice the period of the input

em(C) Ln 2
32. When X and Y are statistically independent, then I (x,y) is
(A) 1 (B) 0
l a svariance. (D) Cannot be determined
33.
g
(B) Lesserathan
In poisson distribution mean is ______
(A) Greater than (C) Equal to (D) Does not depend on
34. The intermediate frequency of a superheterodyne receiver is 500KHz. What is the image
frequency at 1200KHz?
(A) 600KHz (B) 500KHz (C) 700KHz (D) 200KHz
35. In spread spectrum technique, the desired signal is multiplied _____ and interference signal
is multiplied _____

m
c. o
(A) Once, twice (B) Twice, once (C) Twice, thrice (D) Thrice, twice

m
c. o
36. M-ary signalling produces _______ error performance with orthogonal signalling and

e m
em s
_______ error performance with multiple phase signalling.

s la
ag
(A) Degraded, improved (B) Improved, degraded

gla 37. (C) Improved, improved (D) Degraded, degraded
a The capacity relationship is given by
(A) C = W log2 ( 1+S/N ) (B) C = 2W log2 ( 1+S/N )
(C) C = W log2 ( 1-S/N ) (D) C = W log10 ( 1+S/N )
38. If each PCM sample is represented by 8 bits, the number of quantization levels is:
(A) 8 (B) 16 (C) 128 (D) 256

m . c
c. o m
(3)

m s e
se
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39. A major problem in DPCM is:
(A) Slope overload and granular noise (B) Carrier suppression
(C) Frequency hopping (D) Inter-symbol interference only
40. For a signal s(t) transmitted over an AWGN channel, the matched filter is used primarily
because it:
(A) Maximizes signal energy
(B) Maximizes output SNR at the decision instant
(C) Eliminates all noise
(D) Doubles the signal amplitude
41. The parity bits in Hamming code are generally placed at positions:
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4, ... (B) 1, 2, 4, 8, ... (C) 2, 4, 6, 8, ... (D) 3, 5, 7, 9, ...
42. If E=100 V/m and H=0.265 A/m in a uniform plane wave, the magnitude of Poynting
vector is approximately:
(A) 2.65 W/m² (B) 26.5 W/m² (C) 265 W/m² (D) 376 W/m²
43. If the skin depth at 1 MHz is 66μm, the approximate skin depth at 4 MHz is:
(A) 132μm (B) 66μm (C) 33μm (D) 16.5μm
44. In a waveguide, phase velocity can be:
(A) Always less than c (B) Equal to zero
(C) Greater than c (D) Always equal to c
45. Find the receiving impedance of a transmission line having a voltage of 24V and a
conduction current of 1.2A is
(A) 25.2 (B) 22.8 (C) 28.8 (D) 20
46. The radiation resistance of a short dipole is approximately:
(A) 73Ω (B) 36.5Ω (C) 80π2(l/λ)2Ω (D) 120πΩ
47. The gate of an IGBT requires:
(A) Continuous large current (B) Very small steady-state current
(C) Large base current (D) Anode current
48. If the peak value of AC voltage is 100 V, the average output voltage of an ideal full-wave
rectifier is approximately:
(A) 31.8 V (B) 50 V (C) 63.7 V (D) 100 V
49. For a 230 V RMS single-phase supply, the average output voltage of an ideal full-wave
bridge rectifier is approximately:
(A) 103.5 V (B) 146.5 V (C) 207 V (D) 325 V
50. In a three-phase fully controlled bridge, the firing pulses of successive SCRs are separated
by:
(A) 30∘ (B) 60∘ (C) 90∘ (D) 120∘
x-x-x

(4)

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(ROUGH WORK)

m
om . co
.c e m
e m l a s
l a s ag
ag

m
. co
s em
g l a
a

m
m c. o
c. o s e m
s em la
gla ag
a

m . c
c. o m
(5)

m s e
se
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(6)

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a g FOOD TECHNOLOGY
1. What is the bond angle of a water molecule?
(A) 32.56° (B) 96.32° (C) 104.5° (D) 102.36°
2. What occurs when there is an attractive force between the droplets, so they form
flocs, like bunches of grapes?
(A) Flocculation (B) Creaming (C) Ostwald ripening (D) Coalescence

m
co
3. The graph of a water loss of a fresh product is called __________.

om .
(A) Desorption curve (B) Hysterysis

.c e m
s
(C) Adsorption (D) Absorption curve

e m l a
s g
4. Which of the following bacteria does not cause food poisoning?

l a a
ag
(A) Staphylococcus aureus (B) Acetobacter aceti
(C) Bacillus cereus (D) Campylobacter jejuni
5. Which of the following is made with lactic acid bacteria?
(A) Wine (B) Bread (C) Sauerkraut (D) Cider
6. Which of the following can be used to reduce the bitterness of cheddar cheese?
(A) Slow starters (B) Fast starters (C) Chymosin (D) Rennin
7. Who developed the method of preserving food using boiling water?

m
(A) Peter Durand (B) Louis Pasteur

. co
(C) Charles Mitchell (D) Francois Nicolas Appert

em
8. What is the full form of IMF?
(A) Inner Moisture Food
l a s
(B) Intermediate Moisture Foods

9.
(C) Inconspicuous Moisture Foods
a g (D) Inane Moisture Foods
Which of the following food item has not been exempted from labelling?
(A) On the spot food like bakery items (B) Ready to eat food
(C) Food served on plane/ vending machine (D) Ata
10. According to CODEX standards, which of the following food item is hypersensitive?
(A) Cereals (B) Nuts (C) Milk Products (D) Baby Food
11. Nutrition claim means __________.

m
c. o
(A) A food has certain nutritional properties including but not limited to the energy value

m
c. o
(B) A food has certain limitations

e m
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(C) Vitamin present

s la
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(D) Microbial load present

gla Which among the following claims is prohibited?
a (A) Substantiated Claims
(C) Unsubstantiated claims
(B) Claims of Veg/non-veg
(D) Iron fortification
13. Which of the following methods pertaining to wheat milling refers to adjustment of
moisture content in the wheat?
(A) Cleaning (B) Flour formation
(C) Separation of endosperms (D) Wheat Conditioning

m . c
c. o m
(1)

m s e
se
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14. Which of the following is NOT a step in Modern Milling of Wheat?
(A) Stone Grinding (B) Wheat Conditioning
(C) Wheat milling (D) Cleaning
15. Which of the following is not true?
(A) Bran, Germ and remaining Endosperm is used as animal feed
(B) Flour milling is done in roller mills
(C) Milling is done by sifting and 2-3 grinding stages
(D) Zein protein is present in Wheat
16. Which of the following statements is not true?
(A) Rice can be milled by a solvent method in which the solvent softens the bran layer of
the rice
(B) Advantage of the solvent process is that it has lesser fat content
(C) Lesser fat content increases the shelf life of the rice
(D) Rice bran oil is by-product of wheat milling
17. Which of the following is NOT a step in the process involved in dry milling of maize?
(A) Degermination (B) Diluting (C) Removal of moisture (D) Sifting
18. A substance intentionally added that affects the nature and quality of food is called __
(A) Food poison (B) Food adulterant
(C) Food contaminant (D) Food material
19. When do we say that food is not adulterated under the PFA Act?
(A) If it is obtained from a diseased animal (B) If spices are sold without their essence
(C) If any ingredient is injurious to health (D) Fortified Oil
20. Which stage does adulteration take place in?
(A) Producer (B) Distributor
(C) Retailer (D) Manufacturing or packing in any stage
21. Which of the following reason shows the impact of adulteration on the economy?
(A) Adulteration → People falling sick → Spending money on treatment
(B) Adulteration → People falling sick → Court cases
(C) Adulteration → People falling sick → Spending money on treatment or Court cases
(D) Adulteration → court cases
22. Which of the following is NOT a step in Pre-press Solvent Extraction?
(A) Seed Whipping (B) Pressing the flake
(C) Solvent Extraction (D) Seed Cooking
23. Rahul identified the following when he tested the specific gravity of milk to check for
adulteration- the specific gravity was lesser than that of pure milk. He complained to
the milk vendor and the next day checked the specific gravity again. This time it came
in the range of the desired specific gravity. Can we be assured that this is pure
unadulterated milk?
(A) Yes, definitely (B) No, definitely unsafe
(C) May be safe, may not be safe (D) Yes definitely safe
(2)

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24. In Solvent Extraction, the oil and miscella are moved in a __________.
(A) Co- current fashion (B) Counter- current fashion
(C) Cross- current fashion (D) None of these
25. Stripping Solvent off a meal is called __________.
(A) Toasting (B) Buttering (C) Jamming (D) Milling

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26. In Oil refining, oil is __________.

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(A) De-odorized

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(B) Bleached

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(C) De-odorized & Bleached

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(D) Degummed, bleached, refined, dewaxed, deodorized etc.
27. Oil is extracted by __________.
(A) Mechanical Extraction
(B) Pre- Press Solvent Extraction
(C) Ghani
(D) Mechanical Extraction & Pre- Press, Solvent Extraction
28. In Oil degumming __________is recovered

m
(A) Lecithin (B) Soap stock (C) Waxes (D) Colours

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29. Which of the following is not true?

em
(A) Saturation might be to ↓ rancidity
(B) As saturation ↑, viscosity and MP ↑
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a g
(C) Partial hydrogenation leads to Trans fats which are unhealthy
(D) Solid fats rich in PUFA
30. Which of the following does NOT refer to sparging of oil?
(A) Oil is kept in vacuum and heated to smoke point. Water is introduced through the
bottom
(B) Water gets converted to steam
(C) The steam bubbles through the oil and separates water-insoluble impurities

m
c. o
(D) Solvent evaporated

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31. Choose the true statement.

e m
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(A) Food storage and preservation is observed to be better/easier in parts of the world that

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have civilizations prevalent there

gla (B) Proteins are held in an emulsion state in a water system
a (C) Fats are in colloidal state
(D) Carotenoids are mineral
32. Which of the following statement with respect to food preservation is not true?
(A) Leafy vegetables perish fast due to their high moisture content
(B) Cereals have the highest requirements of moisture and soil types
(C) Cereal can be grown with less labour and yield of food is high

c
(D) Fermentation is not a preservation process

m .
c. o m
(3)

m s e
se
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PH.D. 2026 FOOD TECHNOLOGY

33. The freezing time
(A) Increases with increasing water content of food
(B) Increases with decreasing water content of food
(C) Decreases with increasing water content of food
(D) Is same at any given water content of food
34. In Vacuum drying, water circulation through the product increases at lower
pressures, resulting in a greater __________ under vacuum.
(A) Internal mass transfer (B) Internal heat transfer
(C) Total heat transfer (D) None of these
35. During dehydration of food products a hard impermeable layer is formed at the
surface, it reduces the drying rate. This phenomenon is known as
(A) Skin hardening (B) Surface hardening
(C) Case hardening (D) Core hardening
36. The size and shape of original product can be retained and prevent product shrinkage
in
(A) Drum drying (B) Spray drying
(C) Air blast drying (D) Freeze drying
37. An unit operation in which water or volatile solvents are removed to obtain
concentrated liquid products from dilute liquid foods?
(A) Drying (B) Evaporation (C) Freeze drying (D) Dehydration
38. The estimation of boiling point elevation can be done by
(A) Halsey model (B) Stefan-Boltzman law
(C) Duhring rule (D) Ficks law
39. If the capacity of an evaporator is 100kg, it means
(A) It can vaporize100kg of water in 1h (B) It can vaporize 100kg water in a day
(C) It can form 100kg of steam in 1h (D) It can form 100kg steam in a day
40. The steam consumption in multiple effect evaporator is
(A) More than single effect evaporator
(B) Less than single effect evaporator
(C) Equal to single effect evaporator
(D) More or less same as that of single effect evaporator
41. Reynolds number for Turbulant flow
(A) 2500 (B) 2000-4000 (C) <2000 (D)>4000
42. Unit of specific heat capacity
(A) J/K Kg (B) JK/Kg (C) J/K (D) J/S K
43. Pore size of reverse osmosis
(A) 0.1-1nm (B) 0.1-10µm (C) 0.01-0.1 µm (D) 1-10mm

(4)

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44. Drag coefficient is always associated with __________ of the object.
(A) Surface area (B) Porosity (C) Density (D) Volume
45. Angle of repose for smooth and rounded grain
(A) Low (B) High (C) Medium (D) Very High
46. At __________ the moisture content constant rate period ends, and falling rate

m
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period starts

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(A) Critical (B) 90% (C) Specific (D) Initial

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47. If the particle density is smaller than the fluid density, then the particle will be

se
(A) Partially sink (B) Rise (C) Sink (D) Precipitate
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l a a
ag
48. Model which describe the sorption behaviors of food products that contains starch
(A) Smith (B) GAB (C) Langmur (D) Halsey
49. Unit of viscosity is
(A) Pa (B) Pa.S (C) Pa.m (D) Pa.kg
50. Cryogenic fluid used in evaporative cooling is
(A) Liquid nitrogen (B) Solid CO2 (C) Liquid CO2 (D) O2
x-x-x

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(ROUGH WORK)

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a

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c. o s e m
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a

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(5)

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(ROUGH WORK)

(6)

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1. At a certain temperature T, the endothermic reaction AB proceeds almost to completion.
The entropy change is:
(A) S = -ve (B) S = +ve (C) S = 0 (D) Cannot be predicted
2. In a one component system, the maximum number of phases that can be simultaneously in
the equilibrium are:

m
co
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 2

c om m .
3. For an ideal solution, the partial molar volume of component i is equal to:
(A) Zero
m . se
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(B) The molar volume of pure component i
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(C) Sum of concentrations of the component
(D) Change in volume on mixing (ΔVmix)
4. In the gaseous equilibrium, A + 2B  C + Heat, the forward reaction is favoured by:
(A) High pressure and high temperature (B) High pressure and low temperature
(C) Low temperature (D) Low pressure
5. In the van der Waals equation of state, (P+a/V2)(V−b)=RT, the constant “a” is
(A) Finite size of molecules (B) Temperature variation

m
(C) Kinetic energy loss (D) Attractive intermolecular forces
6. The phenomenon of surface tension is caused by
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em
(A) Gravity (B) Cohesive forces
(C) Adhesive forces only
l a s
(D) Pressure
7.
a g
Bernoulli's equation is based on conservation of
(A) Mass (B) Energy (C) Momentum only (D) Charge
8. The main reason of development of boundary layer is
(A) Gravity (B) Pressure only (C) Fluid viscosity (D) Density
9. Particle size reduction is also called
(A) Comminution (B) Classification (C) Sedimentation (D) Filtration

m
10. The factor responsible for separation of particles in Cyclones is

m function of using an evaporator in chemical process industries is m c. o
(A) Gravity (B) Heat (C) Magnetism (D) Centrifugal force

c. o The 11.
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s
(A) To concentrate a solution by boiling off solvent

la
(B) To freeze a solute out of solution
a g
ag (C) To mix two miscible liquids
(D) To cool down a liquid stream
12. The advantage of a multiple-effect evaporator over a single-effect evaporator is:
(A) Lesser floor space requirement
(B) Operational requirement of high pressure in every effect
(C) Reduced cost
(D) Consumption of lesser fresh steam per unit of evaporated water

m . c
c. o m
(1)

m s e
se
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13. In a heat exchanger, hot water cools from 90C to 45C, while cold water warms from
35C to 60C. The main mode of heat transfer between the two water streams is:
(A) Latent heat (B) Conduction through the tube walls
(C) Radiation between the streams (D) Natural convection inside both streams
14. According to Ficks first law J = -DdC/dx, the unit of diffusion coefficient is:
(A) molm-1s-1 (B) ms-1 (C) molm-2 (D) m2s-1
15. The difference between penetration theory and surface renewal theory is:
(A) Penetration theory assumes a rigid interface whereas surface renewal theory assumes
no interface
(B) Penetration theory ignores diffusion whereas surface renewal theory utilizes the
concept of diffusion
(C) Penetration theory assumes a single fixed contact time, surface renewal theory allows
a distribution of contact times
(D) Penetration theory is only for solids whereas surface renewal theory is only for gases
16. Which statement best describes the role of cooling water in an exothermic chemical reactor
jacket?
(A) Facilitating the reaction as a catalyst
(B) Removing heat to maintain safe and controlled temperature of the reactor
(C) Changing the reaction from endothermic to exothermic
(D) Changing the reaction from exothermic to endothermic
17. According to collision theory of reaction rates:
(A) Rate of reaction is directly proportional to collision frequency
(B) Every collision between the reactants leads to chemical reaction
(C) Rate of reaction is proportional to velocity of molecules
(D) All reactions which occur in gaseous phase are zero order reactions
18. A reaction was found to be second order with respect to the concentration of carbon
monoxide. If the concentration of carbon monoxide is doubled, with everything else kept
the same, the rate of the reaction will be:
(A) Double (B) Same (C) Increase by a factor of 4 (D) Triple
19. If kB is Boltzmann constant and h is Plank’s constant, the rate of decomposition of
complex formed during product formation, as given by transition state theory, is
(A) kBh/T (B) kBT/h (C) 2 kBT/h (D) kBT/h2
20. Why is sulfur trioxide (SO3) absorbed in concentrated sulfuric acid instead of water during
the Contact process?
(A) Catalyst is deactivated in water (B) Reaction is highly exothermic
(C) Not soluble in water (D) Reaction is not feasible

(2)

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21. In the Chamber process, the specific unit responsible for the recovery and regeneration of
nitrogen oxides is
(A) Glover tower (B) Electrostatic precipitator
(C) Lead chamber (D) Gay-Lussac tower
22. The primary role of dedorization in edible oils and fats processing is:

m
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(A) To remove volatile compounds that cause unpleasant odours and flavours

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(B) To remove antioxidants from the oil

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(C) To remove trigycerides from the oil
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(D) To remove colours
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ag
23. What is the full form of RMP?
(A) Refiner Mechanical Pulp (B) Refined Microscopic Pulp
(C) Radiated Microscopic Process (D) Refiner Mechanical Process
24. Which reagent is used in birch reduction?
(A) LiAlH4 (B) NaBH4
(C) Sodium in liquid ammonia (D) PCC
25. Bu3SnH is commonly used for which reaction?
(A) Radical dehalogenation (B) Friedel-Crafts reaction
m
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(C) Aldol reaction (D) Cannizzaro reaction
.
em
26. Commonly used coupling reagent, DCC (N,N'-dicyclohexylcarbodiimide) helps in
(A) Reduction
l a s
(B) Oxidation

27.
(C) Peptide bond formation
a g
(D) Hydrogenation
The term employed for polarity inversion in organic chemistry is
(A) Umpolung (B) Oxidation (C) Reduction (D) Reversal
28. Crown ethers have ability to enhance:
(A) Polymerization (B) Oxidation
(C) Reduction (D) Solubility of cations in organic solvents
29. A reagent used for cis-hydroxylation of double bond is

m
c. o
(A) Baker’s yeast (B) Peroxytrifluoroacetic acid

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c. o In a cycloaddition reaction, if both the bonds to a component are formed mon the same face,
(C) OsO4 (D) Sodamide

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30.

s g l
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the process is termed as

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(A) Suprafacial (B) Antarafacial aantarafacial
a (C) Suprafacial- suprafacial (D) Antarafacial-
31. Mode of transformation in an electrocyclic thermal reaction with 4n π electrons is
(A) Disrotatory
(B) Conrotatory
(C) Conrotatory or disrotatory depending on the temperature at which reaction is carried
out

c
(D) Cannot be predicted
m .
c. o m
(3)

m s e
se
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32. Sigmatropic rearrangements involve migration of
(A) π bond only (B) σ bond with π-electron reorganization
(C) Carbocation (D) Radical
33. The rate of Diels–Alder reaction increases when
(A) Electron-rich diene reacts with electron-poor dienophile
(B) Electron-rich dienophile reacts with electron-poor diene
(C) Both diene and dienophile are electron-poor
(D) Both diene and dienophile are electron-rich

34. According to the First Law of Photochemistry:
(A) All incident light causes reaction
(B) Heat causes photochemical reaction
(C) Reflected light causes reaction
(D) Only absorbed light can produce a photochemical change
35. The Static quenching occurs due to
(A) Collision only (B) Radical formation
(C) Ground-state complex formation (D) Electron emission
36. The triplet state in photochemistry has
(A) Paired electron spins (B) Four electrons
(C) Parallel electron spins (D) No electrons
37. According to Debye-Hückel-Onsager equation for molar conductivity, the ionic
atmosphere moves in the opposite direction to the central ion, dragging the solvent
molecules due to:
(A) Electrocapillary effect (B) Wien effect
(C) Electrophoretic effect (D) Relaxation effect
38. According to electric double layer model, the difference in potential between the fixed part
of the electric double layer (sheer plane) and bulk solution is known as:
(A) Streaming potential (B) Zeta potential
(C) Chemical potential (D) Elastic potential
39. If the concentration of a symmetric electrolyte is increased by a factor of four while
keeping the temperature constant, Debye length will:
(A) Become zero (B) Remains constant
(C) Decrease by half (D) Becomes double
40. The properties of the double layer change with electrolyte concentration and temperature.
This is first introduced by which model:
(A) Helmhotz-Perrin Model (B) Guoy-Chapman Model
(C) Stern Model (D) Debye Model

(4)

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41. The second derivative of the electrocapillary gives:
(A) Transport number
(B) Surface charge density
(C) Differential capacity of the electrical double layer
(D) Solution conductivity

m
om . co
42. In Bragg's law, the symbol “d” represents
(A) Density
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(B) Distance between crystal planes
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e
(C) Diameter
m (D) Diffraction angle
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l a s ag
ag
43. For X-ray diffraction, the material should be
(A) Gas (B) Liquid
(C) Amorphous solid (D) Crystalline material

44. Amongst various electronic transitions, which transition requires maximum energy?
(A) n → π* (B) π → π* (C) σ → σ* (D) n → σ*

45. Aniline absorbs at 280 nm (εmax 8600), however in acidic solution, the main absorption

m
co
band undergoes
(A) Small (~ 10 nm) bathochromic shift
.
(B) Small (~10 nm) hypsochromic shift
(C) Large (~80 nm) bathochromic shift
s em
(D) Large (~80 nm) hypsochromic shift

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a
46. IR active vibrations require
(A) Change in dipole moment (B) Change in mass
(C) Change in pressure (D) Change in density

47. The fingerprint region lies between
(A) 4000–2500 cm⁻¹ (B) 1500–400 cm⁻¹
(C) 2500–2000 cm⁻¹ (D) 4000–3000 cm⁻¹

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c. o
48. How many signals in NMR spectra will be obtained from the following compounds
m
c. o m
respectively?

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gla ag
a (A) 2, 1, 3 (B) 1, 2, 3 (C) 3, 1, 2 (D) 2, 3, 1

49. Spin-spin splitting occurs because of
(A) Hydrogen bonding (B) Electron transition
(C) Nuclear coupling (D) Solvent evaporation

m . c
c. o m
(5)

m s e
se
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50. Spectral data of the compound (A), C 8H10O is given below;
UV: λmax = 260 nm
IR : Significant absorption bands at 3350, 3000-2900, 1610, 1580 and 1450 cm -1
PMR : δH: 1.30 (3H, d, J = 7 Hz); 4.9 (1H, q, J = 7Hz), 7.3 (5H, s), 2.8 (s, 1H, exchanges
with D2O)
CMR (proton decoupled): shows six signals
The structure of the compound is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

x-x-x
(ROUGH WORK)

(6)

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(ROUGH WORK)

m
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ag

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c. o s e m
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a

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(7)

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(ROUGH WORK)

(8)

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ag
INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY

1. A Boolean function is given by
F(A,B,C) = Σm(1,2,5,6).
Which of the following is a minimal expression for F?
(A) B ⊕ C (B) A ⊕ C (C) B ⊕ A (D) A ⊙ B
2. A 4-bit two's-complement system represents signed integers. What is the result of

m
adding (0111₂) and (0011₂)?

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(A) (1010₂), with no overflow (B) (1010₂), with signed overflow

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(C) (1001₂), with signed overflow (D) (0000₂), with signed overflow
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3.
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A host has the IPv4 address 192.168.10.130/26. Which subnet does this address belong
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to?
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(A) 192.168.10.0/26 (B) 192.168.10.64/26
(C) 192.168.10.128/26 (D) 192.168.10.192/26
4. Consider a synchronous sequential circuit in which a state transition depends on the
current state and current input. Which statement correctly characterizes a Moore
machine?
(A) Output depends only on the current input
(B) Output depends on current state and current input
(C) Output depends only on the current state
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(D) Output depends on the previous input and current state
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5. Consider:

s
#include <stdio.h>
void f(int n) {
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if (n > 0) {
printf("%d ", n); a
f(n - 1);
printf("%d ", n);
}
}
int main() {
f(3);
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return 0;
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}

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em6.
What is the output?

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(A) 3 2 1 1 2 3 (B) 1 2 3 3 2 1 (C) 3 2 1 (D) 1 2 3

gla Karnaugh-map minimization is primarily based on the observation that adjacent cells

a differ in:
(A) Exactly one input variable (B) Exactly two input variables
(C) The output value only (D) The number of minterms represented
7. A floating-point representation has a fixed number of exponent bits and fraction bits.
Increasing the number of exponent bits while keeping the total word size fixed
generally:

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m
(1)

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