PU PhD 2026 Question Paper Faculty of Business Management and Commerce

FOR PU PHD EXAM PREPARATION

PU PhD 2026
Question Paper ·
Faculty of Business
Management and
Commerce
EXAM YEAR TYPE

PU PhD 2026 Question Paper
SUBJECT

Faculty of Business Management and Commerce

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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1. A study undertaken to build a general model of consumer trust in online platforms, without
reference to any particular firm's problem, is best classified as:
(A) Fundamental research (B) Applied research
(C) Action research (D) Evaluation research
2. Perceived risk cannot be observed directly and must be inferred from responses to a set of

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indicators. In methodological terms, perceived risk is:

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(A) A manifest variable (B) An extraneous variable

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(C) A latent construct (D) A categorical variable

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3. The step that most directly constrains every subsequent methodological decision in a study

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is:
(A) Reviewing the literature (B) Defining the research problem
(C) Selecting the sampling technique (D) Choosing the statistical tests
4. An instrument for a study of small retailers in semi-urban Punjab is pilot-tested on 30
postgraduate management students, who complete it easily and yield coefficient alpha of
0.89. The researcher declares the instrument field-ready. The strongest objection is that:
(A) Alpha estimated on so few cases is imprecise and warrants a wider confidence interval

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(B) Homogeneity of items is established but stability across occasions remains

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undemonstrated

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(C) Pilot responses ought to be retained and pooled with the main data to conserve sample

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(D) Evidence of item performance is population-bound and does not transfer across groups
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5. For a review of literature on service quality, which of the following is a PRIMARY source?
(A) An empirical article in which the authors report their own data
(B) A textbook chapter summarising service quality models
(C) A review article synthesising sixty prior studies
(D) An abstracting service listing published work

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6. The conceptual framework of a study primarily specifies:
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(A) The statistical techniques to be applied

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(B) The sampling design and sample size

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(C) The variables studied and the relationships hypothesised among them

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(D) The sequence of chapters in the thesis
A researcher conducts twenty unstructured interviews with gig-economy delivery riders,
identifies recurring patterns in the accounts, and proposes a tentative model of occupational
commitment. The logic employed is:
(A) Deductive (B) Axiomatic
(C) Hypothetico-deductive (D) Inductive

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(1)

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PH.D. 2026 BUSINESS MGT. & COM.

8. A test of the difference between two means yields p = 0.03. The correct interpretation is that:
(A) The probability that the null hypothesis is true is 0.03, given the data obtained
(B) The probability that the alternative hypothesis is true is 0.97, given the data obtained
(C) The observed difference would be judged practically important in 3% of comparable
studies
(D) Data at least as extreme as those observed would arise 3% of the time if the
null hypothesis true

9. The statement “ethical marketing is desirable for society” is unsuitable as a research
hypothesis primarily because it:
(A) Asserts a value judgement rather than a relationship between measurable variables
(B) Does not specify the direction of the expected relationship
(C) Has not been derived from an established theoretical framework
(D) Covers a scope too broad for a single empirical investigation
10. A retail chain has noticed a decline in repeat purchase but has no idea of the possible
reasons. The most appropriate design at this stage is:
(A) Exploratory research using focus groups (B) A descriptive cross-sectional survey
(C) A causal field experiment (D) A longitudinal panel study
11. In an experimental design, random assignment of subjects to treatment and control groups
primarily serves to:
(A) Secure a sample that represents the target population adequately
(B) Reduce the influence of extreme response styles on the outcome measure
(C) Permit the use of parametric rather than non-parametric procedures
(D) Equate the groups on known as well as unknown extraneous variables
12. An experiment on advertisement recall is conducted on MBA students in a laboratory, with
tight control over exposure conditions. The most serious limitation is that:
(A) Recall scores obtained under such conditions are unlikely to be reliable
(B) Uncontrolled events during the study period may explain the observed recall
(C) The setting and the subject pool jointly restrict generalisation to real audiences
(D) The design lacks the statistical power to detect a modest treatment effect
13. A sampling frame of registered users supplied by a delivery platform excludes customers
who order as guests without registering. Increasing the sample drawn from this frame will:
(A) Reduce coverage error, since more of the population is represented
(B) Reduce sampling error while leaving the coverage deficiency untouched
(C) Reduce both sampling error and coverage error proportionately
(D) Leave precision unaffected, the frame being incomplete

(2)

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14. A researcher determines that 384 respondents suffice for a district of two lakh at 95%
confidence and ±5% margin of error. A reviewer objects that a state of two crore requires a
sample about a hundred times larger. The most defensible response is that:
(A) The objection holds, since precision is governed by the sampling fraction achieved
(B) The objection holds only where the larger population is the more heterogeneous

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(C) Required size depends on variability and precision, not on population size once N is

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large

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(D) The requirement falls as N grows, since the finite population correction shrinks the
error
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15. A researchers studying corporate governance failures deliberately selects only
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companies that

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have faced regulatory action, on the ground that these best illuminate the phenomenon.
technique
(A) Convenience sampling (B) Quota sampling
(C) Purposive sampling (D) Snowball sampling
16. Two trained observers independently record queue-abandonment at a retail outlet using the
same structured recording form, agreeing on 92% of episodes. The researcher offers this as
evidence that the measure is sound. The figure establishes that:

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(A) Both recorders interpreted the categories alike, though a defect in the categories would

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be shared alike too

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(B) The recorded episodes largely correspond to what the construct is intended to capture

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(C) Shoppers behaved much as they would have done had no observer been present

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(D) The recording categories are, on the whole, exhaustive and mutually exclusive as
defined
17. A mail survey returns 24%. The researcher compares the earliest and latest quartiles of
returns on all study variables, finds no significant differences, and reports that non-response
bias is not a problem. The most defensible assessment is that:
(A) The concern is largely met, subject to the usual caveat about self-selection
(B) The response rate stands vindicated, given the equivalence demonstrated

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(C) The comparison speaks to consistency of measurement rather than accuracy of

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estimates

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(D) The evidence is suggestive only, resting on an assumption the data cannot verify

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at the two ends of a

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seven-point continuum is:
(A) A Likert scale (B) A semantic differential scale
(C) A Thurstone scale (D) A Guttman scale
19. Split-half reliability, computed by correlating scores on two halves of an instrument, is an
estimate of:
(A) Internal consistency (B) Stability over time
(C) Equivalence of two different instruments (D) Adequacy of domain coverage

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(3)

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PH.D. 2026 BUSINESS MGT. & COM.

20. After the questionnaires have been returned, the correct order of processing operations is:
(A) Coding → editing → tabulation (B) Editing → coding → tabulation
(C) Tabulation → editing → coding (D) Editing → tabulation → coding
21. In a dataset of 600 responses to a 25-item interval scale, about 6% of entries are missing at
scattered positions. The researcher substitutes the item mean for every missing entry. The
consequence for subsequent analysis is that:
(A) The item means shift measurably towards the centre of the response scale
(B) The number of usable cases falls, reducing the power of subsequent tests
(C) The response distribution departs from normality, ruling out parametric procedures
(D) Item variances and inter-item correlations are depressed, biasing reliability downwards
22. A one-sample test on 4,000 respondents finds mean brand attitude of 4.06 against a scale
midpoint of 4.00 (t = 3.87, p < 0.001, Cohen's d = 0.06). For the finding to be interpretable
by a reader, the report MUST additionally convey:
(A) The confidence interval for the mean, from which the p-value can be recovered
(B) That the magnitude of departure is negligible despite the significance attained
(C) The assumption checks confirming normality of the underlying distribution
(D) The power of the test to detect an effect of the size actually obtained
23. A chi-square test of association on a 4 × 3 table of 60 respondents yields χ² = 21.4,
p = 0.0016. Five of the twelve cells have expected frequencies below 5. The appropriate
course is to:
(A) Report the association, the significance criterion having been met
(B) Apply Yates's continuity correction before re-computing the statistic
(C) Merge theoretically adjacent categories so the approximation holds, or use an exact
test
(D) Convert the cell counts to proportions and analyse them by one-way ANOVA
24. In a multiple regression the overall F is significant with R² = 0.68, yet no individual
coefficient reaches significance and several VIF values exceed 8. The most likely
explanation is:
(A) The sample size is inadequate for the number of predictors
(B) Severe multicollinearity among the predictors
(C) Heteroscedasticity of the residuals
(D) Omission of a necessary interaction term
25. A thesis reports that respondents aged above 45 scored lower on digital payment adoption,
and adds that this is because older consumers distrust unfamiliar technology, although trust
was not measured in the study. This statement belongs in the:
(A) Results chapter, as it interprets a finding obtained
(B) Discussion chapter, offered as a possible explanation and flagged as untested
(C) Review of literature, being a claim drawn from prior work
(D) Limitations section, since the variable was not measured
(4)

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26. A firm pays an annual insurance premium of ₹1,20,000 on 1 January for the calendar year
and, closing its books on 31 March, charges ₹30,000 to the profit and loss account. The
concept applied is:
(A) Conservatism (B) Consistency (C) Matching (D) Materiality
27. A suit is pending against a company in which an outflow of resources is probable and the

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amount can be estimated reliably. The correct treatment is that the obligation is:

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(A) Recognised as a provision in the balance sheet

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(B) Disclosed in the notes as a contingent liability

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(C) Left unrecorded until the court delivers its verdict

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(D) Adjusted directly against free reserves
28. A company's return on equity has remained at 18% across two years, while its net profit
margin has fallen from 8% to 6% and total asset turnover is unchanged. It follows that:
(A) The firm's asset utilisation has deteriorated
(B) The firm has repaid a part of its borrowings
(C) Financial leverage has increased
(D) Interest coverage has improved

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29. The risk-free rate is 6%, the expected market return 12% and a security's beta 1.4. Under the

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CAPM the required return on the security is:

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(A) 12.0% (B) 14.4% (C) 16.8% (D) 18.0%

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30. A divisional manager is held accountable for revenues, for costs, and for the level of assets
employed in the division. The unit is a:
(A) Cost centre (B) Revenue centre (C) Profit centre (D) Investment centre
31. A term loan account in which interest has remained overdue for 120 days, with no other
adverse feature, is classified as:
(A) Standard (B) Sub-standard (C) Doubtful (D) Loss
32. Having settled an own-damage motor claim, the insurer proceeds in the insured's name

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against the third party whose negligence caused the accident. The principle invoked is:
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c.33.o Indian interest rates exceed United States interest rates. Under covered minterest parity, and
(A) Contribution (B) Proximate cause (C) Insurable interest (D) Subrogation

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(A) The dollar at a forward discount against the rupee
(B) No divergence from spot, arbitrage being riskless
(C) The dollar at a forward premium against the rupee
(D) A premium of a magnitude set by the relative growth rates of the two economies
34. A manufacturing firm renovates its canteen, air-conditions the shop floor and revises wages
upward. Complaints subside, but supervisors report no change in discretionary effort. In
Herzberg's terms:

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(A) Hygiene factors have been improved, removing dissatisfaction without producing
motivation
(B) Motivators have been improved, though the effect requires a longer period to become
visible
(C) Hygiene factors and motivators have both been addressed, with effects offsetting each
other
(D) Higher-order needs have been satisfied ahead of the lower-order needs lying beneath
them
35. An organisation estimates future grade-wise manpower requirements from historical
probabilities of employees moving between grades, being promoted, or leaving in a given
year. The technique is:
(A) Delphi estimation (B) Workload analysis
(C) Markov chain analysis (D) Ratio-trend analysis
36. Where an employer retrenches workmen from a particular category, the ordinary requirement
under the Industrial Disputes Act, absent an agreement to the contrary or reasons recorded in
writing, is to retrench:
(A) The workman with the lowest performance rating in the category
(B) The workman most recently employed in that category
(C) The workman nearest to the age of superannuation
(D) The workman drawing the highest wage in the category
37. In Dunlop's systems framework, the element specified as binding the actors into a
functioning industrial relations system is:
(A) The technology employed at the workplace
(B) The product and labour market constraints operating on the actors
(C) The distribution of power within the wider society
(D) A shared ideology defining each actor's role and legitimacy
38. A supervisor who regards a subordinate as exceptionally punctual proceeds to rate her highly
on quality of work, teamwork and initiative as well, without separately considering each. The
rating error is:
(A) The halo effect (B) Central tendency (C) Leniency (D) Recency
39. Six months after a supervisory training programme, line managers report that participants are
conducting shop-floor briefings differently. Evaluation at this level corresponds, in
Kirkpatrick's model, to:
(A) Reaction (B) Learning (C) Behaviour (D) Results
40. In Lewin's model of planned change, the stage at which new practices are reinforced through
revised procedures and reward systems so that they become the accepted norm is:
(A) Unfreezing (B) Refreezing
(C) Moving toward the desired state (D) Diagnosing the forces in the field
(6)

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41. A manager responds to a subordinate's request for guidance with, “You ought to have known
this by now — how many times am I to explain?” In transactional analysis this transaction
originates from the:
(A) Adult ego state (B) Adapted Child ego state
(C) Nurturing Parent ego state (D) Critical Parent ego state

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42. Over eighteen months an organisation loses a disproportionate number of its highest-rated

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performers, while average and below-average performers largely remain. Exit interviews

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repeatedly mention the fairness of rewards. The most defensible diagnosis is that:

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(A) Rewards are insufficiently differentiated by performance, so the strongest contributors
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perceive inequity
(B) Overall compensation lies below the market, warranting a general revision applied
across all grades
(C) Selection standards have been pitched too high, yielding recruits overqualified for the
roles they hold
(D) The turnover is functional in character and calls for no particular managerial
intervention

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43. A buyer of a mid-range laptop ranks battery life as the most important attribute and selects

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whichever brand performs best on it, examining a second attribute only if two brands tie. The

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(A) Lexicographic
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(B) Conjunctive
(C) Compensatory a (D) Elimination-by-aspects
44. Under the DAGMAR framework, the most defensible advertising objective is to:
(A) Raise market share by four percentage points within the next twelve months of the
campaign
(B) Improve dealer enthusiasm for the brand appreciably ahead of the coming festive
season

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(C) Maximise recall of the campaign among all those who view it during its period of run

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(D) Raise unaided awareness from 12% to 35% among urban women aged 25–40 in six

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a (A) Brand extension (B) Line extension (C) Co-branding (D) Brand licensing
46. A firm wishes to estimate how much of a price increase consumers would accept in exchange
for a longer warranty across various attribute combinations, and to simulate the share a new
configuration would capture. The appropriate technique is:
(A) Conjoint analysis (B) Multidimensional scaling
(C) Factor analysis (D) Cluster analysis

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(7)

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47. Two retail categories carry identical gross margin percentages, but Category A turns its
inventory four times a year and Category B twice. On GMROI:
(A) The two are equally productive, gross margins being equal
(B) Category A returns twice as much gross margin per rupee of inventory investment
(C) Category B is preferable, slower turn implying fuller margin realisation
(D) The two figures are not comparable across categories
48. An advertiser evaluating channels on a last-click model finds that paid search accounts for
nearly all conversions and reduces display and video budgets accordingly. This decision is:
(A) Sound, since search demonstrably closes the sale and carries the lowest cost per
acquisition
(B) Neutral, total conversions depending on the size of the budget rather than on its
allocation
(C) Premature, the attribution window requiring to be shortened before any reallocation is
made
(D) Risky, since demand-creating channels are under-credited and search volume may
itself decline

49. A bank's frontline staff are aware of the service standards laid down but cannot meet them
during peak hours because counters are understaffed. In the SERVQUAL gaps model this is:
(A) Gap 1 (B) Gap 2 (C) Gap 3 (D) Gap 4
50. For a low-priced fast-moving consumer good entering rural markets, the most appropriate
distribution approach is:
(A) Exclusive distribution through franchised outlets
(B) Company-owned retail outlets in each village
(C) Stockists in feeder towns supplying village retailers and periodic haats
(D) Direct-to-consumer e-commerce fulfilment alone
x-x-x
(ROUGH WORK)

(8)

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(ROUGH WORK)

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(9)

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(10)

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