PU PhD 2026 Question Paper Faculty of Laws

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PU PhD 2026
Question Paper ·
Faculty of Laws
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PU PhD 2026 Question Paper Faculty of Laws

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1. Which of the following type of research mainly focusing the relationships between
variables without controlling or manipulating any of them?
(A) Longitudinal survey (B) Pooled surveys
(C) Correlational survey (D) Cross-sectional survey
2. Who defined “Social research is a scientific undertaking which by means of logical

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methods, aim to discover new facts or old facts and to analyse their sequences,

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interrelationships, causal explanations and natural laws which govern them”?
(A) Kerlinger
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3. Pure research is also known as?

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(A) Fundamental research (B) Exploratory research
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(C) Action research (D) Explanatory research
Find out an example for probability sampling?
(A) Convenience or accidental Sampling (B) Purposive or judgmental sampling
(C) Quota sampling (D) Stratified random sampling
5. Which of the following research is also known as collaborative research?
(A) Analytical Research (B) Applied research
(C) Action research (D) Descriptive research

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6. In SPSS, what is the "Data Viewer"?
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(A) A table summarizing the frequencies of data for one variable

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(B) A spreadsheet into which data can be entered

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(C) A dialog box that allows you to choose a statistical test
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(D) A screen in which variables can be defined and labelled
7. Which of the following is true regarding research objectives?
(A) Research objectives, when achieved, will provide sufficient earnings to obtain a
reasonable return on investment.
(B) Research objectives, when obtained, will ensure the viability of the marketing
research department.
(C) Research objectives, when achieved, provide the information necessary to solve the

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problem.

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(D) Research objectives are seldom achieved but should be stated as goals to be sought.

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(A) Introduction; Data Collection; Data Analysis; Conclusions and Recommendations

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a Results; Discussions and
(B) Executive Summary; Literature Review; Data Gathered; Conclusions;

ag (C) Research Plan; Research Data; Analysis; References
(D) Introduction; Literature Review; Research Methodology;
Conclusions
9. What are the conditions in which Type-I error occurs?
(A) The null hypotheses get accepted, even if it is false.
(B) The null hypotheses get rejected, even if it is true.
(C) Both the null hypotheses as well as alternative hypotheses are rejected.
(D) None of the above

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10. Which of the following type of interview facilitate a free and uninhibited response from the
respondents?
(A) Unstructured interview (B) Structured interview
(C) Panel interview (D) Semi structured interview
11. The issue of ‘research ethics’ may be considered pertinent at which stage of research?
(A) At the stage of problem formulation and its definition
(B) At the stage of reporting the findings
(C) At the stage of data collection and interpretation
(D) All of the above
12. Below are given two sets – research methods (Set-I) and data collection tools (Set-II).
Match the two sets and indicate your answer by selecting the correct code:
(Set – I) (Set – II)
(Research Methods) (Data Collection Tools)
a) Experimental method (i) Using primary and secondary sources
b) Ex post-facto method (ii) Questionnaire
c) Descriptive survey method (iii) Standardized tests
d) Historical method (iv) Typical characteristic tests
Codes:
(A) a)(ii), b)(i), c)(iii), d)(iv) (B) a)(iii), b)(iv), c)(ii), d)(i)
(C) a)(ii), b)(iii), c)(i), d)(iv) (D) a)(ii), b)(iv), c)(iii), d)(i)
13. Which sequence of research steps is logical in the list given below?
(A) Problem formulation, Analysis, Development of Research design, Hypothesis
making, Collection of data, Arriving at generalizations and conclusions.
(B) Development of Research design, Hypothesis making, Problem formulation, Data
analysis, Arriving at conclusions and data collection.
(C) Problem formulation, Hypothesis making, Development of a Research design,
Collection of data, Data analysis and formulation of generalizations and conclusions.
(D) Problem formulation, Deciding about the sample and data collection tools,
Formulation of hypothesis, Collection and interpretation of research evidence.
14. A variable that cannot be manipulated by the researchers but has an effect on the dependent
variable is called
(A) Independent Variable (B) Extraneous Variable
(C) Moderate Variable (D) Intervening Variable
15. Which sampling method gives every member of the population an equal chance of
selection?
(A) Snowball Sampling (B) Simple Random Sampling
(C) Quota Sampling (D) Convenience Sampling
16. It is the last step in the data collecting and compilation process, and it serves as the entry
point for statistical analysis and interpretation, it is known as?
(A) Preparing of the Report (B) Hypothesis Testing
(C) Documentation (D) Tabulation
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17. ______ is an activity that produces an official count of a country's population at regular
intervals?
(A) Survey (B) Scheduled interview
(C) Census (D) Piolet survey
18. Which technique is generally followed when the population is finite?

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(A) Systematic Sampling Technique (B) Purposive Sampling Technique

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o of the parametric test?
(C) Area Sampling Technique (D) None of these
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19. Which test is thecpart
(A) Sign Testm
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s e Test (B) Run Test for Randomness
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(C) Kruskal-Willis (D) Z-test
20.
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_________
(A) Cross-sectional descriptive survey (B) Factorial survey method
(C) Pooled surveys (D) Analytical cross-sectional survey
21. Which of the following best describes the inductive method of research?
(A) Drawing specific conclusions from general principles.
(B) Drawing general conclusions or theories from specific observations or instances.
(C) Drawing more specific conclusions from already established specific observations or

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facts.
(D) None of the above.

e m a research hypothesis is NOT correct?
s that can be tested through various research
22. Which of the following statements regarding

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(A) A hypothesis is a tentative proposition
methodologies.
(B) A hypothesis helps delimit the scope of inquiry and provides direction to the research
process.
(C) A valid hypothesis must necessarily be proven true by the findings of the research.
(D) A hypothesis should be stated in clear, precise, and testable terms.
23. Which of the following statements correctly describe an open-ended questionnaire?
1. It allows respondents to answer in their own words, providing qualitative insights.

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2. It provides fixed alternatives such as "Yes/No" or multiple-choice options.

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3. It enables respondents to express opinions, experiences, and perceptions in greater
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4. It limits responses to predetermined categories, thereby limiting detailed explanations.

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(C) 2 and 4 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
24. Which of the following is an example of Secondary Data?
(A) Data collected through own survey
(B) Data from Census, reports, journals, government records etc.
(C) Data from interviews you conducted
(D) Data from experiments you performed

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25. What does ‘reliability’ of a research tool mean?
(A) It measures what it claims to measure (B) It gives consistent results on repeated use
(C) It is approved by experts (D) It has been published
26. In jurisprudence as per Salmond’s analysis of rights and duties, if X owes a duty to Y, and
X breaches it causing harm, X becomes liable. This is an example of:
(A) Strict liability (B) Absolute liability
(C) Vicarious liability (D) Sanctioned duty
27. The jurisdiction exercised by constitutional courts whereby a letter, postcard, or other
informal communication disclosing a violation of fundamental rights may be treated as a
writ petition is known as?
(A) Advisory Jurisdiction (B) Epistolary Jurisdiction
(C) Parens Patriae Jurisdiction (D) Curative Jurisdiction
28. Under the proviso to Article 368(2) of the Constitution of India, certain constitutional
amendments require ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States
before the amendment Bill can be presented to the President for assent. Which of the
following Articles is not among the provisions specifically requiring such State
ratification?
(A) Article 54 (B) Article 55 (C) Article 63 (D) Article 73
29. Under Central Civil Services (Pension) Rules, 2021, and Supreme Court judgment in D.S.
Nakara v. Union of India (AIR1983 SC 130), which principle governs liberalization of
pension?
(A) Pension rules can never be applied retrospectively
(B) Liberalized pension formula must be applied to all pensioners irrespective of date of
retirement
(C) Liberalization applies only to those retiring after the cut-off date
(D) Pension is a bounty and can be withdrawn by govt
30. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List - I List - II
a) Official Secrets Act (i) 1981
b) Essential Services Maintenance Act (ii) 1951
c) All India Services Act (iii) 1923
d) Central Civil Services (Conduct) Rules (iv) 1964
Options:
(A) a)-(iv), b)-(iii), c)-(i), d)-(ii) (B) a)-(iii), b)-(iv), c)-(i), d)-(ii)
(C) a)-(iv), b)-(i), c)-(iii), d)-(ii) (D) a)-(iii), b)-(i), c)-(ii), d)-(iv)
31. Who is credited with formulating the fundamental exchange principle in forensic science?
(A) Dr. Hans Gross (B) Dr. Edmond Locard
(C) Dr. Alphonse Bertillon (D) Dr. Francis Galton

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32. Pursuant to the powers conferred under Section 1(2) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023,
the Central Government may appoint different dates for the coming into force of different
provisions of this Sanhita. Which of the following provisions has presently been kept in
abeyance?
(A) Section 103(2) (B) Section 106(2) (C) Section 117(3) (D) Section 324(5)

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33. The Supreme Court of India permitted passive euthanasia, and allowed withdrawal of life

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support in which of the following recent case?

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(A) Supriya Kumari M.C v. The State of Kerala & Ors

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(B) Arti Mehta & Ors v. The State of Madhya Pradesh & Anr

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(C) Harish Rana v. Union of India
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(D) Roshan Lal v. The State of Haryana & Anr
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which provision deals with leading
questions?
(A) Section 144 (B) Section 145 (C) Section 146 (D) Section 147
35. The celebrated “Panchsheel” or the five golden principles governing cases based on
circumstantial evidence were laid down by the Supreme Court in which of the following
cases?
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(A) Nandlal Wasudeo Badwaick v. Lata Nandlal Badwaick
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(B) Mohd. Inayatullah v. State of Maharshtra

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(C) R.M Malkani v. State of Maharashtra

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agAdoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, a Hindu wife is
(D) Sharad Birdhichand Sarda v. State of Maharashtra
36. Under Section 18(2) of the Hindu
entitled to live separately from her husband without forfeiting her claim to maintenance on
certain specified grounds. Which of the following is not one of such grounds?
(A) The husband is guilty of desertion, that is, abandoning her without reasonable cause
and without her consent or against her wish, or of wilfully neglecting her.
(B) The husband has another wife living.
(C) The husband has ceased to be a Hindu by conversion to another religion.

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(D) The marriage has irretrievably broken down beyond the possibility of reconciliation.
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37. m Under Section 18 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, where a marriage .is solemnized in
. co contravention of the age requirement prescribed under Section 5(iii),sethemperson concerned
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shall be punishable with rigorous imprisonment which may extend

ag fine which may extend to:
(A) ₹50,000 (B) ₹1,00,000 (C) ₹2,00,000 (D) ₹5,00,000
38. A party approaches the High Court under Section 11 seeking appointment of an arbitrator.
The respondent contends that the document containing the arbitration clause itself is forged
and that no arbitration agreement was ever executed. In light of the Supreme Court's
decision in Rajia Begum v. Barnali Mukherjee (2026 INSC 106), which is the MOST
ACCURATE proposition?

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(A) The court must invariably refer the dispute to arbitration because allegations of fraud
are matters for the arbitral tribunal.
(B) The court may appoint an arbitrator because Section 11 proceedings cannot examine
the existence of an arbitration agreement.
(C) Where the very existence of the arbitration agreement is seriously disputed on
allegations of forgery or fabrication, appointment of an arbitrator may be legally
impermissible until the foundational issue is adjudicated.
(D) The court must appoint an arbitrator and leave the question of forgery exclusively to
determination under Section 34.
39. A is in peaceful possession of an immovable property. B, claiming to be the true owner,
forcibly dispossesses A on 1 January 2026, without A's consent and otherwise than in due
course of law. A does not file a suit under Section 6. On 15 August 2026, A institutes a suit
against B seeking recovery of possession on the basis of his prior possession, while B
relies upon his title to the property. Choose the correct answer:
(A) The suit is maintainable under Section 6 because Section 6 does not prescribe any
limitation period where dispossession was unlawful.
(B) The suit is maintainable under Section 6 because A was in prior possession,
notwithstanding B's title.
(C) The suit cannot be maintained under Section 6 because it was instituted more than six
months after the date of dispossession.
(D) The suit is maintainable under Section 6 because the defendant's title cannot be
considered in proceedings under that section.
40. With reference to the following cases and the principles associated with them, choose the
correct combination:
Column I- Case Column II- Principle / Ratio
a) Ashby v. White (i) An otherwise lawful act does not become actionable
merely because it is motivated by an improper or
malicious intention.
b) Gloucester Grammar (ii) A defendant who wrongfully causes personal injury
School Case is liable for the consequences even where the
claimant's unusual physical vulnerability makes the
extent of injury unforeseeably serious.
c) Smith v. Leech Brain (iii) Mere loss or damage is not actionable where there is
& Co. Ltd. no infringement of a legal right.
d) Bradford Corporation (iv) Where a legal right is infringed, the plaintiff may
v. Pickles obtain a remedy even in the absence of proof of
actual or pecuniary damage.
Choose the correct combination:
(A) a)-(iv), b)-(iii), c)-(ii), d)-(i) (B) a)-(iii), b)-(iv), c)-(i), d)-(ii)
(C) a)-(iv), b)-(ii), c)-(iii), d)-(i) (D) a)-(i), b)-(iii), c)-(ii), d)-(iv)
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41. Which of the following is not an agreement in restraint of trade?
(I) A sell the goodwill of his business with an agreement not to carry on a similar
business within specified local limits, so long as the buyer carries on a similar
business.
(II) A sell the goodwill of his business with an agreement not to carry on a similar

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business throughout India, so long as the buyer carries on a similar business.

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(III) A sell the goodwill of his business with an agreement not to engage in any business

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competing or liable to compete in any way with the business for the time being

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carried on by the buyer.
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Options:

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(A) I only (B) I and II only (C) I, II and III
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(D) None of these
42. a
With reference to communication of acceptance and revocation of acceptance, which of the
following statements is legally correct?
(A) Communication of acceptance is complete as against the acceptor when it is put in
the course of transmission to him, so as to be out of the power of the acceptor.
(B) Communication of revocation of acceptance is complete as against the person to
whom it is made when it is dispatched.
(C) Communication of acceptance is complete as against the proposer when it is put in a

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course of transmission to him, so as to be out of the power of the acceptor.
(D) Both (B) and (C).
c
. dissolution of a firm under the Indian
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e correlation between the following sections and
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43. With reference to the provisions governing

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Partnership Act, 1932, identify the correct

aColumn II - Mode of Dissolution
their respective modes of dissolution:
Column I - Section
a) Section 40 (i) Dissolution by notice of partnership at will
b) Section 41 (ii) Dissolution by the Court
c) Section 43 (iii) Dissolution by agreement
d) Section 44 (iv) Compulsory dissolution

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(B) a) - (iv), b) - (iii), c) - (ii),.d) - (i)
Choose the correct combination:

c. o m d) - (ii)
(D) a) - (iii), b) - (iv), c) -e(i),
(A) a) - (i), b) - (iv), c) - (iii), d) - (ii)
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(C) a) - (ii), b) - (i), c) - (iv), d) - (iii)

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A buyer who has accepted goods cannot ordinarily rejectathem merely because of a
ag breach of condition by the seller.
Reason (R):
Where a contract of sale is not severable and the buyer has accepted the goods, the breach
of a condition may be treated as a breach of warranty, unless the contract provides
otherwise.
Choose the correct answer:

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(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
45. Assertion (A):
Where the members of a company do not satisfy the numerical or shareholding threshold
prescribed under Section 244(1), the Tribunal may, on an application made to it on this
behalf, waive all or any of the requirements specified in clauses (a) or (b) of Section
244(1), thereby enabling such members to make an application under Section 241.
Reason (R):
The power of waiver under the proviso to Section 244(1) is available only where the
applicants satisfy at least one of the alternative thresholds prescribed in Section 244(1)(a)
or (b).
Choose the correct answer:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
46. With reference to the judgment of the Supreme Court in M.K. Ranjitsinh v. Union of India,
2024 INSC 280, choose the correct statement:
(A) The Supreme Court held that the right to be free from the adverse effects of climate
change is an absolute right and therefore necessarily overrides competing
developmental interests.
(B) The Court held that protection of the Great Indian Bustard requires a complete
prohibition on overhead transmission lines throughout its natural habitat, irrespective
of technical feasibility or the impact on renewable-energy development.
(C) The Court recognised that the right to be free from the adverse effects of climate
change is linked to Articles 14 and 21, while emphasising the need to balance
environmental protection with the country's developmental and renewable-energy
requirements.
(D) The Court held that climate-change concerns are purely matters of legislative policy
and cannot form the basis of a constitutional right enforceable under Articles
14 and 21.

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47. With reference to the different generations of human rights, identify the correct correlation
between the following categories and their principal characteristics:
Column I- Generation Column II - Principal Characteristic
a) First Generation (i) Economic, social and cultural rights requiring positive
measures for their realisation
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b) Second Generation (ii) Rights emerging in response to technological

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developments, particularly concerning digital

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c) ThirdeGeneration
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(iii) Civil and political rights primarily concerned with

d)gFourth Generation
individual liberty and participation
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a (iv) Collective or solidarity rights, including the right to
development and the right to a healthy environment
Choose the correct combination:
(A) a) - (i), b) - (iii), c) - (ii), d) - (iv) (B) a) - (iv), b) - (ii), c) - (iii), d) - (i)
(C) a) - (iii), b) - (i), c) - (iv), d) - (ii) (D) a) - (ii), b) - (iv), c) - (i), d) - (iii)
48. With reference to the relationship between the Right to Information Act, 2005 and the

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Official Secrets Act, 1923, consider the following Assertion and Reason:

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Assertion (A):

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The Right to Information Act, 2005 prevails over any inconsistent provision contained in
the Official Secrets Act, 1923.
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Reason (R):
Section 22 of the Right to Information Act, 2005 provides that the provisions of the Act
shall have effect notwithstanding anything inconsistent therewith contained in the
Official Secrets Act, 1923 or any other law for the time being in force.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

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(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

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49. With reference to digital signatures and electronic authentication under the Information

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Technology Act, 2000, consider the following statements:

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Statement I: The authentication of an electronic record by a subscriber through a digital

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signature involves the use of an asymmetric cryptosystem and a hash
a function.
Statement II: The Information Technology Act, 2000 recognises digital signatures as the
sole legally permissible means of authenticating an electronic record.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) Statement I only (B) Statement II only
(C) Both Statement I and Statement II (D) Neither Statement I nor Statement II

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50. In Novartis AG v. Union of India (AIR 2013 SC 1311), the Supreme Court considered the
scope of Section 3(d) of the Patents Act, 1970. Which of the following most accurately
reflects the Court's approach?
(A) Section 3(d) completely prohibits patents for all pharmaceutical substances that were
previously known.
(B) Section 3(d) permits patent protection for a new form of a known substance whenever
the new form exhibits any distinct physical property.
(C) For a new form of a known substance to qualify under Section 3(d), the applicant
must demonstrate enhancement of the known efficacy, with the nature of the efficacy
depending upon the substance involved.
(D) Section 3(d) is applicable only where the invention relates to a process and not to a
pharmaceutical product.
x-x-x
(ROUGH WORK)

(10)

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(ROUGH WORK)

(12)

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