Class 10 Question Paper 2025 Social Science

ANNUAL EXAMINATION

Question Paper
2025
NCERT BASED SYLLABUS

FOR CBSE AND STATE BOARD
FOLLOWING NCERT

KVS QUESTION PAPERS

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Series : GEF1H SET ~ 1
-
Roll No. Q.P. Code 32/1/1
- -
-
Candidates must write the Q.P. Code
on the title page of the answer-book.

SOCIAL SCIENCE
3 80
Time allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 80

/ NOTE #
(I) - 25 + 1
Please check that this question paper contains 25 printed pages +1 Map.
(II) - - - -

Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
(III) - 37
Please check that this question paper contains 37 questions.
(IV) , -
Please write down the Serial Number of the question in the
answer-book at the given place before attempting it.
(V) - 15 -
10.15 10.15 10.30 -
-
15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The
question paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to
10.30 a.m., the candidates will read the question paper only and will not
write any answer on the answer-book during this period.

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(i) - 37

(ii) - , , , ,
(iii) 1 20 1

(iv) 21 24 - 2
40

(v) 25 29 - 3
60

(vi) 30 33 - 5
120

(vii) 34 36 - -
4

(viii) 37 - 37
(2 37 3 5

(ix) ,

$
(20 1=20)

1. - 1866 ? 1

(A) -
(B)

(C)

(D)

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General Instructions :
Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :
(i) This question paper contains 37 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question paper is divided into six sections Section A, B, C, D, E
and F.
(iii) Section A Questions no. 1 to 20 are Multiple Choice type questions. Each
question carries 1 mark.
(iv) Section B Questions no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer type questions.
Each question carries 2 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed
40 words.
(v) Section C Questions no. 25 to 29 are Short Answer type questions. Each
question carries 3 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed
60 words.
(vi) Section D Questions no. 30 to 33 are Long Answer (LA) type questions. Each
question carries 5 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed
120 words.
(vii) Section E Questions no. 34 to 36 are Case/Source-based questions with three
sub-questions. Each question carries 4 marks.
(viii) Section F Question no. 37 is Map skill-based question with two parts
37(a) from History (2 marks) and 37(b) from Geography (3 marks). This
question carries total 5 marks.
(ix) In addition to this, NOTE that a separate question has been provided for
Visually Impaired candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs,
map etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually Impaired candidates
only.
SECTION A
(Multiple Choice Questions) (20 1=20)
1. Which one of the following regions became a part of unified Italy in
1866 ? 1
(A) Sardinia-Piedmont
(B) Venetia
(C) Sicily
(D) Papal State
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2.
: 1
I.
II. -
III.
IV.

(A) I, II III
(B) II, III IV
(C) I, III IV
(D) I, II IV

3. 1

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

4. 15 -
? 1

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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2. Read the following reasons of migration of people from Europe to America
till the 19th century and choose the correct option : 1
I. Poverty and hunger
II. Slaves for sale
III. Wide spread of diseases
IV. Religious conflicts and persecution

Options :

(A) Only I, II and III are correct.

(B) Only II, III and IV are correct.

(C) Only I, III and IV are correct.

(D) Only I, II and IV are correct.

3. The author of is : 1

(A) Marco Polo

(B) Columbus

(C) Vasco da Gama

(D) Alfred Crosby

4. Assume you are doing research on 15th century print culture. Which of
the following would be the most significant advantage for your research ? 1

(A) Easier access to rare manuscripts

(B) Reduced need for libraries

(C) Increase in the ability to copy text by hand

(D) Increased speed and accuracy of print

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5.
: 1
I.
II.
III.

(A) III, II, I
(B) I, II, III
(C) II, III, I
(D) III, I, II

6. ? 1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

7. I II : 1
I II
( ) ( )
a. i.
b. ii.
c. iii.
d. iv.

(A) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
(B) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(C) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(D) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

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5. Arrange the following categories of forests in India from the largest to the
smallest in terms of area and choose the correct option : 1
I. Reserved
II. Protected
III. Unclassed
Options :
(A) III, II, I
(B) I, II, III
(C) II, III, I
(D) III, I, II

6. 1
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Maharashtra

7. Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option : 1
Column I Column II
(Dam) (River)
a. Hirakud i. Chambal
b. Gandhi Sagar ii. Krishna
c. Nagarjuna Sagar iii. Kaveri
d. Mettur iv. Mahanadi
Options :
(A) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
(B) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(C) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(D) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

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8. : 1

(A) ,
(B) ,
(C) ,
(D) ,

9.

- ? 1

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

10. (A) (R)

: 1

(A) :

(R) :

(A) (A) (R) (R), (A)

(B) (A) (R) , (R), (A)

(C) (A) , (R)

(D) (A) , (R)

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8. Choose the correct option regarding major states involved in the
Krishna Godavari issue : 1
(A) Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu
(B) Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
(C) Gujarat, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh
(D) Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh and Odisha

9. Imagine you are travelling from Delhi to Chandigarh to attend a
wedding, by road in January. Which of the following crops will you notice
prominently in the fields during the journey ? 1

(A) Paddy

(B) Maize

(C) Wheat

(D) Jowar

10. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option : 1

Assertion (A) : Minerals are an indispensable part of our lives.

Reason (R) : All living things need minerals.

Options :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

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11. I II : 1
I II
( ) ( )
a. i.
b. ii.
c. iii.
d. iv.

(A) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii (B) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(C) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv (D) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

12.
? 1
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

13. 1

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

14. - ? : 1
I.
II.
III.
IV.

(A) I, II III
(B) II, III IV
(C) I, III IV
(D) I, II IV

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11. Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option : 1
Column I Column II
(Minerals) (Major Mines)
a. Iron ore i. Gaya
b. Mica ii. Singarauli
c. Bauxite iii. Chandrapur
d. Coal iv. Maikala
Options :
(A) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii (B) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(C) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv (D) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
12. Belgium solved its problem of majoritarianism by strengthening which of
the following types of government ? 1
(A) Unitary (B) Presidential
(C) Federal (D) Parliamentary
13. Choose the correctly matched pair from the following : 1
(Country) (System)
(A) Canada Unitary
(B) Bolivia Federal
(C) Australia Unitary
(D) Spain Federal
14. Which of the following are the main components of a political party ?
Choose the correct option : 1
I. Leaders
II. Active members
III. Followers
IV. Pressure groups
Options :
(A) Only I, II and III are correct.
(B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
(C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
(D) Only I, II and IV are correct.

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15.
: 1

1. 130
2. 148
3. 149
4. 150
- ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
16. -
? 1
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
17. :

? 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)

17
? 1
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

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15. World
and answer the questions given below : 1
S. No. Country HDI Rank in the world
1. India 130
2. Myanmar 148
3. Nepal 149
4. Pakistan 150
Amongst the given countries, which one of the following countries has the

(A) Pakistan (B) India
(C) Nepal (D) Myanmar
16.
1
(A) Primary (B) Secondary
(C) Tertiary (D) Quaternary

17. Look at the given picture and answer the question that follow :

The work being done in the picture falls under which sector of the economy ? 1
(A) Primary (B) Quaternary (C) Secondary (D) Tertiary

Note : The following question is for the Visually Impaired Candidates only,
in lieu of Q. No. 17.
The work of which of the following comes in the secondary sector of the
economy ? 1
(A) Bee-keeper (B) Moneylender
(C) Basket weaver (D) Fisherman

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18. ?
: 1
I.
II.
III.
IV.

(A) I, II III
(B) II, III IV
(C) I, II IV
(D) I, III IV

19. -
? 1
(A)
(B)
(C) ,
(D) ,

20. I II
: 1
I:

II :

(A) I II II, I
(B) I II II, I
(C) I , II
(D) I , II

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18. Why does it become difficult for farmers in rural areas to take loans from
government banks ? Read the following reasons and choose the most
appropriate option : 1
I. Lack of collateral
II. Complicated procedure
III. Higher cost of borrowing
IV. Lack of awareness
Options :
(A) Only I, II and III are correct.
(B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
(C) Only I, II and IV are correct.
(D) Only I, III and IV are correct.

19. Which of the following groups in urban India depend on informal sources
to meet their credit needs ? 1
(A) Poor households
(B) Households with few assets
(C) Both poor households and households with few assets
(D) Both well-off households and households with few assets

20. Two statements I and II are given below. Read both the statements
carefully and choose the correct option : 1
Statement I : Rapid improvement in technology has been one major
factor to stimulate the globalisation process.
Statement II : This has made much faster delivery of goods across long
distances possible at lower costs.
Options :
(A) Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct
explanation of statement I.
(B) Both statements I and II are correct, but statement II is not the
correct explanation of statement I.
(C) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect.
(D) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct.

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- (4 2=8)

21.
2

? 2

22.
2

23. 2

24. 1990
? 2

- (5 3=15)

25.
3

26.

?
1+2=3

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SECTION B
(Very Short Answer Type Questions) (4 2=8)

21. (a) Explain the role of anti-
2
OR
(b) - n by
giving two arguments. 2

22. Explain
indiscriminate use of resources. 2

23. Suggest any two measures to remove gender inequality. 2

24. How did the process of liberalisation initiated in India in the 1990s,
promote globalisation ? Explain. 2

SECTION C
(Short Answer Type Questions) (5 3=15)

25.
Explain the statement in the context
of Non-Cooperation Movement. 3

26. Read the story of Rinjha and answer the question that follows :

Story of Rinjha
Rinjha lived with her family in a small village at the outskirts of
Diphu in Assam. She enjoys watching her family members clearing,
slashing and burning a patch of land for cultivation. She often helps them
in irrigating the fields with water running through a bamboo canal from
the nearby spring. She loves the surroundings and wants to stay here as
long as she can, but this little girl has no idea about the declining fertility

season.

characteristics. 1+2=3
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27. - -
3

28. 3

? 3

29. 3

- (4 5=20)

30.
5

? 5

31.
5

- 5

32. 5

5

33.

5

5

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27.

Explain the statement with suitable arguments. 3

28. (a) Explain the importance of political parties in democracy. 3
OR
(b) Why did India adopt the multiparty system ? Explain with suitable
arguments. 3

29. Explain the difference between public and private sector of Indian
economy with example. 3

SECTION D
(Long Answer Type Questions) (4 5=20)

30. (a) Analyse
administrative system rational and efficient. 5
OR
(b) How was liberalism allied to national unity in Europe in the early
decades of the 19th century ? Analyse. 5

31. (a)
Justify the statement. 5
OR
(b) Justify the
statement. 5

32. (a) Explain any five bases for assessing the outcomes of democracy. 5
OR
(b) Explain any five values of democracy. 5

33. (a) Recent evidence suggests that overuse of groundwater is

the statement in the context of sustainability of development. 5
OR
(b)
5

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( - (3 4=12)

34. :

-
-
, , 22
18
1919
, ,
-
1942 90

(34.1) 1

(34.2) - ? 1

(34.3) ?
2

35.

-

13
- -
-
,

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SECTION E
(Case/Source-Based Questions) (3 4=12)
34. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :
Print and Censorship
The power of the printed word is most often seen in the way
governments seek to regulate and suppress print. The colonial
government kept continuous track of all books and newspapers published
in India and passed numerous laws to control the press.
During the First World War, under the Defence of India Rules,
22 newspapers had to furnish securities. Of these, 18 shut down rather
than comply with government orders. The Sedition Committee Report
under Rowlatt in 1919 further strengthened controls that led to imposition
of penalties on various newspapers. At the outbreak of the Second World
War, the Defence of India Act was passed, allowing censoring of reports of
war-related topics. All reports about the Quit India movement came under
its purview. In August 1942, about 90 newspapers were suppressed.
(34.1) 1
(34.2) Why did the colonial administration keep an eye on books and
newspapers ? 1
(34.3) Why did Gandhiji start a nationwide Satyagraha against the
Rowlatt Act ? Explain any two reasons. 2

35. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :
An Experiment in Brazil
A city called Porto Alegre in Brazil has carried out an
extraordinary experiment in combining decentralisation with
participative democracy. The city has set up a parallel organisation
operating alongside the municipal council, enabling local inhabitants to
take real decisions for their city. The nearly 13 lakh people in this city get
to participate in making the budget for their own city. The city is divided
into many sectors or what we call wards. Each sector has a meeting, like
that of the gram sabha, in which anyone living in that area can
participate. There are some meetings to discuss issues that affect the
entire city. Any citizen of the city can participate in those meetings. The
budget of the city is discussed in these meetings. The proposals are put to
the municipality that takes a final decision about it.

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(35.1) 1

(35.2) ,
? 1

(35.3) -
2

36.

, ,

2300

,

, ,

(36.1) ? 1

(36.2) + =1

(36.3) 2

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(35.1) Explain the meaning of participatory democracy . 1

(35.2) In the context of separation of powers, the given example defines
which type of government ? 1

(35.3) Describe the structure of the system in India which is almost
similar to the above example of Brazil. 2

36. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :
Loans From Cooperatives

Besides banks, the other major source of cheap credit in rural
areas are the cooperative societies (or cooperatives). Members of
a cooperative pool their resources for cooperation in certain areas. There
are several types of cooperatives possible such as farmers cooperatives,
weavers cooperatives, industrial workers cooperatives, etc. Krishak
Cooperative functions in a village not very far away from Sonpur. It has
2300 farmers as members. It accepts deposits from its members. With
these deposits as collateral, the Cooperative has obtained a large loan
from the bank. These funds are used to provide loans to members. Once
these loans are repaid, another round of lending can take place.
Krishak Cooperative provides loans for the purchase of
agricultural implements, loans for cultivation and agricultural trade,
fishery loans, loans for construction of houses and for a variety of other
expenses.

(36.1) Cooperative societies come under which source of credit ? 1

1 1
(36.2) Mention any two sources of capital of cooperative societies. + =1
2 2

(36.3) Explain the role of cooperative societies in increasing the income of
farmers. 2

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( - (2+3=5)

37. - 27 , o

2 1=2
A. 1920
B.

37

(i) 1920

(ii) 2 1=2

- ,
3 1=3
(i)
(ii)
(iii) -
(iv)

37
3 1=3
(i)
(ii)
(iii) -
(iv)

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SECTION F
(Map Skill-Based Questions) (2+3=5)

37. (a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given political
outline map of India (on page 27). Identify them with the help of
the following information and write their correct names on the
lines drawn near them : 2 1=2
A. The place where the session of Indian National Congress
was held in 1920.
B. The place where Gandhiji started Dandi March.
Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates
only, in lieu of Q. No. 37 (a).
(a) (i) Name the place where the session of Indian National
Congress was held in 1920.
(ii) Name the place where Gandhiji started Dandi March. 2 1=2

(b) On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any
three of the following with suitable symbols : 3 1=3
(i) Leading state in production of Jute
(ii) Atomic Power Plant located in Gujarat
(iii) Iron and Steel Plant located in Jharkhand
(iv) Sri Guru Ram Das Jee International Airport

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates
only, in lieu of Q. No. 37 (b).
(b) Attempt any three questions. 3 1=3
(i) Name the leading state in production of Jute.
(ii) Name the place where an Atomic Power Plant is located in
Gujarat.
(iii) Name the place where an Iron and Steel Plant is located in
Jharkhand.
(iv) Name the place where Sri Guru Ram Das Jee International
Airport is located.

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àíZ g§. 37 Ho$ {bE For question no. 37

^maV H$m amOZr{VH$ aoIm-_mZ{MÌ
Political Outline Map of India

B

A

32/1/1 Page 27 of 27 P.T.O.

Marking Scheme
Strictly Confidential
(For Internal and Restricted use only)
Secondary School Examination February - 2025
SUBJECT NAME: Social Science SUBJECT CODE 087 PAPER CODE 32/1/1

General Instructions: -

1. You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and correct assessment
of the candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to serious problems which may affect
the future of the candidates, education system and teaching profession. To avoid mistakes, it is
requested that before starting evaluation, you must read and understand the spot evaluation
guidelines carefully.
2. “Evaluation policy is a confidential policy as it is related to the confidentiality of the
examinations conducted, Evaluation done and several other aspects. Its’ leakage to public in
any manner could lead to derailment of the examination system and affect the life and future
of millions of candidates. Sharing this policy/document to anyone, publishing in any
magazine and printing in News Paper/Website etc may invite action under various rules of
the Board and IPC.”
3. Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It should not be done
according to one’s own interpretation or any other consideration. Marking Scheme should be
strictly adhered to and religiously followed. However, while evaluating, answers which are
based on latest information or knowledge and/or are innovative, they may be assessed for
their correctness otherwise and due marks be awarded to them. In Class-X, while evaluating
two competency-based questions, please try to understand given answer and even if reply is
not from marking scheme but correct competency is enumerated by the candidate, due
marks should be awarded.
4. The Marking scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers. These are in the nature
of Guidelines only and do not constitute the complete answer. The students can have their own
expression and if the expression is correct, the due marks should be awarded accordingly.
5. The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each evaluator on
the first day, to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the instructions given in the
Marking Scheme. If there is any variation, the same should be zero after delibration and discussion.
The remaining answer books meant for evaluation shall be given only after ensuring that there is
no significant variation in the marking of individual evaluators.
6. Evaluators will mark( √ ) wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer CROSS ‘X” be marked.
Evaluators will not put right (✓)while evaluating which gives an impression that answer is correct
and no marks are awarded. This is most common mistake which evaluators are committing.
7. If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part. Marks awarded
for different parts of the question should then be totaled up and written in the left-hand margin and
encircled. This may be followed strictly.
8. If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-hand margin and encircled.
This may also be followed strictly.
9. If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving more marks should
be retained and the other answer scored out with a note “Extra Question”.
10. No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be penalized only once.
11. A full scale of marks _____80_____(example 0 to 80/70/60/50/40/30 marks as given in Question
Paper) has to be used. Please do not hesitate to award full marks if the answer deserves it.
12. Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e., 8 hours every
day and evaluate 20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25 answer books per day in other
subjects (Details are given in Spot Guidelines).
13. Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by the Examiner in
the past:- Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
1

● Wrong totaling of marks awarded on an answer.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the title page.
Wrong question wise totaling on the title page.
● Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
● Wrong totaling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
● Wrong grand total.
● Marks in words and figures not tallying/not same.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
● Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick mark is
correctly and clearly indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with the X for incorrect
answer.)
● Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks awarded.
14. While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it should be
marked as cross (X) and awarded zero (0)Marks.
15. Any un assessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totaling error detected by
the candidate shall damage the prestige of all the personnel engaged in the evaluation work as also
of the Board. Hence, in order to uphold the prestige of all concerned, it is again reiterated that the
instructions be followed meticulously and judiciously.
16. The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the “Guidelines for spot
Evaluation” before starting the actual evaluation.
17. Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried over to the title
page, correctly totaled and written in figures and words.
18. The candidates are entitled to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on request on payment of the
prescribed processing fee. All Examiners/Additional Head Examiners/Head Examiners are once
again reminded that they must ensure that evaluation is carried out strictly as per value points for
each answer as given in the Marking Scheme.

2

Marking Scheme
Class X -Social Science (087)
SET-32/1/1
SET -1 MM-80
Q.No. Values Points Page Marks-
No.
Section A (20X1=20)
(Multiple Choice Questions)
1 (B) Venetia 21 H 1
2 (C) Only I, III and IV are correct 57, 58 1
H
3 (A) Marco Polo 54 H 1
Note- Due to lack of correct option, 1 mark should be awarded to all
students who attempted this question.
4 (D) Increased speed and accuracy of print 108 H 1
5 (B) I, II, III 15 G 1
6 (B) Rajasthan 15 G 1
7 (C) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii 24 G 1
8 (B) Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh 23 G 1
9 (C) Wheat 32 G 1
10 (A)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) 42 G 1
11 (A) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii 45 G 1
12 (C) Federal 4P 1
13 (D) Spain- Federal 14 P 1
14 (A) Only I, II and III are correct 48 P 1
15 (B) India 13 E 1
16 (A) Primary 21 E 1

17 (D) Tertiary 19 E 1
Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates
only, in lieu of Question No.17. 21 E
(C) Basket weaver
18 (C) Only I, II and IV are correct 49 E 1
19 (C) Both poor households and households with few assets 49 E 1
20 (A)Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct 62 E 1
explanation of statement I

3

Section B (4X2=8)
(Very Short Answer Type Questions)

21 (a) Explain the role of anti-colonial movement in the rise of ‘modern 29 H 2X1=2
nationalism’ in India.
(i) People began discovering their unity in the process of their
struggle with colonialism.
(ii) The sense of being oppressed under colonialism provided a
shared bond that tied many different groups together.
(iii) Each class and group felt the effects of colonialism differently,
their experiences were varied and their notions of freedom were
not always the same.
(iv) Anti-colonial movements like Non-Cooperation Movement,
Civil Disobedience Movement, Quit India Movement etc.
played a big role in the rise of the modern nationalism in India.
(v) Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained.
OR
(b) Why did Gandhiji say ‘Satyagraha is pure soul force’? Explain 31 H 2X1=2
by giving two arguments.
(i) Satyagraha is pure soul force because truth is the very
substance of the soul. That is why this force is called
Satyagraha.
(ii) The soul is informed with knowledge. In it burns the flame of
love. Non-violence is the supreme dharma.
(iii) According to Mahatma Gandhi, Satyagraha is not a physical
force.
(iv) A satyagrahi does not inflict pain on the adversity; he does not
seek his destruction. In the use of satyagraha, there is no ill-will
whatever.
(v) Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained.

4

22 Explain any two problems of the ‘global ecology’ arising due to 2G 2X1=2
indiscriminate use of resources.
(i) Human beings use the resources indiscriminately and this has
led to major problems.
(ii) This has led to global ecological crisis such as global warming.
(iii) Ozone layer is being depleted.
(iv) It has increased environmental pollution.
(v) Land degradation is also increasing.
(vi) Any other relevant point
Any two points to be explained.
2X1=2
23 Suggest any two measures to remove gender inequality. 33 P 2X1=2
(i) By increasing the literacy rate among women
(ii) By increasing the political representation of women
(iii) By investing in education of girls.
(iv) Legal protection to women in the employment sector
(v) Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be suggested.
24 How did the process of liberalization initiated in India in the 1990s 64 E 2X1=2
promote globalization? Explain.
(i) The process of Liberalization i.e. removing barriers or restrictions
set by the government was started in the 1990s.
(ii) The government decided that the time had come for Indian
producers to compete with producers around the globe.
(iii) It has facilitated the MNCs to set up their factories in India. Thus,
Indian economy was integrated to the world economy and process
of globalization started in India.
(iv) Several steps were taken to attract foreign investment. Many SEZs
were established in the country.
(v) Several steps were taken so that goods could be imported and
exported easily and also foreign companies could set up factories
and offices here. It has increased India’s foreign trade.
(vi) Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained.

5

Section C (5X3=15)
(Short Answer Type Questions)
25 “Tribal peasants interpreted the message of Mahatma Gandhi and 36 H 3X1=3
the idea of ‘Swaraj’ in yet another way.” Explain the statement in the
context of Non-Cooperation Movement.
(i) The Non-Cooperation Movement was initially started in cities,
spread to the villages and tribal areas rapidly. All of them responded
to the call of swaraj, but the term meant different to different people.
(ii) Tribal peasants interpreted the message of Mahatma Gandhi and the
idea of swaraj in yet another way.
(iii) In the Gudem Hills of Andhra Pradesh, for instance, a militant
guerrilla movement spread in the early 1920s – not a form of
struggle that the Congress could approve.
(iv) In other forest regions, the colonial government had closed large
forest areas, preventing people from entering the forests to graze
their cattle, or to collect fuelwood and fruits. This enraged the hill
people.
(v) Not only were their livelihoods affected but they felt that their
traditional rights were being denied.
(vi) When the government began forcing them to contribute begar for
road building, the hill people revolted.
(vii) Their leader, Alluri Sitaram Raju, claimed that he had a variety of
special powers:
(viii) He was inspired by the Non-Cooperation Movement, and persuaded
people to wear khadi and give up drinking.
(ix) He asserted that India could be liberated only by the use of force,
not non-violence.
(x) The Gudem rebels attacked police stations, attempted to kill British
officials and carried on guerrilla warfare for achieving swaraj. Raju
was captured and executed in 1924, and over time became a folk
hero
(xi) Any other relevant point.
Any three points to be explained.

6

26 Read the story of Rinjha and answer the question that follows: 30 G
Story of Rinjha
Rinjha lived with her family in a small village at the outskirts of Diphu
in Assam. She enjoys watching her family members clearing, slashing and
burning a patch of land for cultivation. She often helps them in irrigating
the fields with water running through a bamboo canal from the nearby
spring. She loves the surroundings and wants to stay here as long as she can,
but this little girl has no idea about the declining fertility of the soil and her
family’s search for a fresh patch of land in the next season.
What type of farming is Rinjha’s family doing? Describe any two of its
characteristics. 1+2=3
Type of farming- Primitive subsistence farming
Features of primitive subsistence farming:
(i) This farming is practiced on small patches of land.
(ii) It is done with the help of primitive tools like hoe, dao and
digging sticks.
(iii) It is done with the help of family or community labour.
(iv) This type of farming depends upon monsoon, natural fertility of
the soil and suitability of other environmental conditions to the
crops grown.
(v) Any other relevant point
Any two points to be described.
27 “That democratic system of government is considered good in which 64-72P 3X1=3
maximum number of citizens are made stakeholders in political
power.” Explain the statement with suitable arguments.
(i) The democratic system of government is considered good
because people are the source of all political power.
(ii) In a democracy people rule themselves through institutions of
self-government.
(iii) Democracy ensures active participation, representation and
decision-making opportunities for the people.
(iv) Democracy encourages public debates and opinions. These
public opinions are used in policy making.
(v) In democracy, people can make the government accountable as
the system gives enough scope for ensuring transparency.

7

(vi) It helps to reduce the possibility of conflicts between social
groups.
(vii) Democratic governments are elected by the people. It gives
legitimacy to the government. Thus, it is a good way to ensure the
stability of political order.
(viii) Any other relevant point.
Any three points to be explained.

28 (a) Explain the importance of political parties in democracy. 48,49 P 3X1=3
(i) Political parties are the most visible institution in a democracy.
(ii) They reflect fundamental political division in society.
(iii) Political parties contest elections.
(iv) Parties put forward different policies and programmes and the
voters chose them.
(v) Parties play a decisive role in making laws for the country.
(vi) Parties form and run government.
(vii) Parties play the role of opposition by voicing different views and
criticizing the government for its wrong policies.
(viii) Parties shape public opinion.
(ix) Parties provide people access to government machinery and
welfare schemes.
(x) Any other relevant point.
Any three examples to be explained.

OR
(b) Why did India adopt the multiparty system? Explain with 51 P 3X1=3
suitable arguments.
(i) Party system is not something any country can choose. Each
country develops a party system that is conditioned by its
special circumstances.
(ii) India adopted multi-party system due to its social diversity.
(iii) India has vast geographical diversity. So, in such a large
country diversity is not absorbed by two or even three
parties.

8

(iv) Multiparty system allows a variety of interest and opinions
to enjoy political representation.
(v) Any other relevant point.
Any three examples to be explained.

29 Explain the difference between public and private sector of Indian 33, 34E 3X1=3
economy with example.
(i) In the public sector the government owns most of the assets and
provides all the services while in the private sector the ownership
of assets and delivery of services is in the hands of private
individuals and companies.
(ii) Railways, Post office are examples of public sector whereas
companies like Tata Iron and Steel Company Limited (TISCO) or
Reliance Industries Limited are examples of private sector.
(iii) The motive of the public sector is not just to earn profits whereas
activities in the private sector are guided by the motive to earn
profit.
(iv) Government raises money through taxes to meet expenses
whereas private sector organizes its own funds.
(v) Public sector charges less for their services whereas private sector
charges much more.
(vi) Any other relevant point.
Any three points to be explained.

Section D (4X5=20)
(Long Answer Type Questions)
30 (a) Analyze the significance of the ‘Napoleonic Code’ in making the 20 H 5X1=5
administrative system rational and efficient.

The Civil Code of 1804 – usually known as the Napoleonic Code –
(i) It did away with all privileges based on birth,
(ii) It established equality before the law.
(iii) It secured the right to property.
(iv) Napoleonic Code simplified administrative divisions,

9

(v) It abolished the feudal system and freed peasants from serfdom
and manorial dues.
(vi) In the towns too, guild restrictions were removed.
(vii) Transport and communication systems were improved.
(viii) Peasants, artisans, workers and new businessmen enjoyed a
newfound freedom.
(ix) Businessmen and small-scale producers began to realize that
uniform laws, standardized weights and measures and a
common national currency facilitated the movement and
exchange of goods and capital from one region to another.
(x) Any other relevant point.
Any Five points to be analyzed.

OR
(b)How was liberalism allied to national unity in Europe in the early 9H 5X1=5
decades of the 19th century? Analyze
(i) For the new middle classes in the 19th century Europe, liberalism
stood for freedom for the individual.
(ii) It also stood for equality of all before the law.
(iii) Politically, it emphasized the concept of government by consent.
(iv) Since the French Revolution, liberalism had stood for the end of
autocracy and clerical privileges, a constitution and
representative government through parliament.
(v) In the economic sphere, liberalism stood for the freedom of
markets and the abolition of state-imposed restrictions on the
movement of goods and capital.
(vi) Formation of Zollverein to promote economic growth
(vii) Any other relevant point.
Any Five points to be analyzed.

31 (a) “Manufacturing industries are considered the backbone of the 58 G 5X1=5
economic development of a country.” Justify the statement.
(i) The economic strength of a country is measured by the
development of manufacturing industries.
(ii) Manufacturing industries help in modernizing agriculture.

10

(iii) They provide jobs in the secondary and tertiary sectors.
(iv) Industrial development is a pre-condition for eradication of
unemployment and poverty.
(v) Export of manufactured goods expands trade and commerce
and brings much needed foreign exchange.
(vi) Countries that transform their raw material into a wide
variety of finished goods of higher values are prosperous.
(vii) It is also aimed at bringing down regional disparities by
establishing industries in tribal and backward areas.
(viii) Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be justified.
OR
(b) “Agriculture and industries complement each other.” Justify the 58,59G 5X1=5
statement.
(i) Agriculture and industries are not exclusive of each other. They
move hand in hand.
(ii) For instance, Agro-industries in India have given a major boost to
agriculture by raising its productivity.
(iii) Industries depend on agriculture for raw material and provide their
products for example, irrigation pumps, fertilizers, insecticides,
pesticides, plastic and PVC pipes, machines and tools etc to the
agricultural sector.
(iv) The development and competitiveness of manufacturing industries
has not only assisted agriculturists in increasing their productions
but also made production process very efficient.
(v) In the present day of globalization, our industries need to be more
efficient and competitive. This will increase the productivity of
agriculture sector as well.
(vi) Any other relevant point.

Any five points to be justified.
32 (a) Explain any five bases for assessing the outcomes of democracy. 64,65 P 5x1=5
The outcomes of democracy can be assessed on the following basis:
(i) Promotes equality among citizens.
(ii) Enhances the dignity of the individual.

11

(iii) Improves the quality of decision making.
(iv) Provides methods to resolve conflicts.
(v) Allows room to correct mistakes.
(vi) Accommodates social diversity.
(vii) Produces a government that is accountable to the citizens.
(viii) Responsive to the needs and expectations of the citizens.
(ix) Based on ideas of deliberation and negotiations.
(x) Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be explained.
OR
(b) Explain any five values of democracy. 64,65 P 5x1=5
(i) Equal rights and opportunities.
(ii) Freedom to express oneself.
(iii) Choose their leaders and participate in the political process.
(iv) Based on respect, dignity and freedom.
(v) In a democracy, citizens have the right and means to
examine the process of decision making.
(vi) Accommodates social diversity.
(vii) Produces a government that is accountable to the citizens.
(viii) Responsive to the needs and expectations of the citizens.
(ix) Based on ideas of deliberation and negotiations.
(x) Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be explained.
33 (a) “Recent evidence suggests that the overuse of groundwater is 14E 5X1=5
becoming a serious threat in many parts of the country.” Evaluate
the statement in the context of sustainability of development.
(i) Sustainability refers to that kind of economic development that
should take place without damaging the environment and
development in the present should not compromise with the need
of the future generations.
(ii) Ground water is an example of renewable resources. These
resources are replenished by nature.
(iii) The over use ground water is becoming a serious threat in many
parts of the country due to population growth and agricultural
practices.

12

(iv) Excessive use of ground water for irrigation can deplete ground
water level.
(v) A lack of effective policies and regulation can lead to unsustainable
ground water use.
(vi) About 300 districts have reported a water level decline of over 4
meters during the past 20 years.
(vii) Nearly one third of the country is over using their ground water
reserves.
(viii) In another 25 years, 60 percent of the country would be doing the
same if the present way of using this resource continues.
(ix) Ground water overuse is particularly found in the agriculturally
prosperous regions of Punjab and Western Uttar Pradesh etc.
(x) Judicious use of water resources.
(xi) Control over dumping of excessive and toxic waste on land to
prevent pollution of ground water.
(xii) Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be evaluated.
OR
(b) “The development goals of different categories of people may 4,5E 5X1=5
differ.” Evaluate the statement.
(i) Each one of us seeks different things in our life.
(ii) People seek things that are most important for them, which can
fulfill their aspirations or desires.
(iii) At times, two persons or group of persons may seek things which
are conflicting.
(iv) For example, a girl expects as much freedom and opportunities as
her brother and that he also shares in the household work.
(v) What may be the development for one may not be the
development of others.
(vi) For example, an industrialist may want more dams for electricity
but for the people who are displaced might resent this.
(vii) Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be evaluated.

13

Section E 3X4=12
(CASE /SOURCE- BASED QUESTIONS)
34 Read the given source and answer the questions that follow: 127 H
Print and Censorship
The power of the printed word is most often seen in the way
governments seek to regulate and suppress print. The colonial
government kept continuous track of all books and newspapers
published in India and passed numerous laws to control the press.
During the First World War, under the Defence of India Rules, 22
newspapers had to furnish securities. Of these, 18 shut down rather
than comply with government orders. The Sedition Committee Report
under Rowlatt in 1919 further strengthened controls that led to
imposition of penalties on various newspapers. At the outbreak of the
Second World War, the Defence of India Act was passed, allowing
censoring of reports of war-related topics. All reports about the Quit
India movement came under its purview. In August 1942, about 90
newspapers were suppressed.
(34.1) Explain the meaning of 'censor'. 1
(i) Censor means tracking of all books and newspaper published.
(ii) It means controlling the publication of books and newspapers that
are critical of government policies.
(iii)Any other relevant point.
Any one point to be explained.
(34.2) Why did the colonial administration keep an eye on books and 1
newspapers?
(i) Several books and newspapers were critical of the Britishers
misrule and encouraged nationalist activities.
(ii) Vernacular press was assertively nationalist.
(iii) The colonial government kept an eye on books and newspapers
because the government wanted to supress print and passed
numerous laws to control the press.
(iv) These books and newspapers created a sense of unity amongst
Indians.
(v) Any other relevant point.
Any one point to be explained.

14

(34.3) Why did Gandhiji start a nationwide Satyagraha against the 2
Rowlatt Act? Explain any two reasons.
(i) The Rowlatt Act gave the government enormous powers to
repress political activities.
(ii) The act allowed the detention of political prisoners without trial
for two years.
(iii) Any other relevant point.
Any two point to be explained.

35 Read the given source and answer the questions that follow: 26 P
An Experiment in Brazil
A city called Porto Alegre in Brazil has carried out an extraordinary
experiment in combining decentralisation with participative
democracy. The city has set up a parallel organisation operating
alongside the municipal council, enabling local inhabitants to take real
decisions for their city. The nearly 13 lakh people in this city get to
participate in making the budget for their own city. The city is divided
into many sectors or what we call wards. Each sector has a meeting,
like that of the gram sabha, in which anyone living in that area can
participate. There are some meetings to discuss issues that affect the
entire city. Any citizen of the city can participate in those meetings. The
budget of the city is discussed in these meetings. The proposals are put
to the municipality that takes a final decision about it.
(35.1) Explain the meaning of 'participatory democracy'. 1
(i) Participatory democracy means participation or direct involvement
in decision making process.

(35.2) In the context of separation of powers, the given example 1
defines which type of government?
(i) Local Self Government.

(35.3) Describe the structure of the system in India which is almost 2
similar to the above example of Brazil.
(i) Local Self Government- Panchayati Raj, Municipality and
Municipal Corporation.

15

(ii) All bodies of Local Self Government are elected by the people.
(iii) Gram Sabha in the Gram Panchayat where people of that area
participate directly.
(iv) Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be described.
36 Read the given source and answer the questions that follow: 47 E
Loans from Cooperatives
Besides banks, the other major source of cheap credit in rural areas are
the cooperative societies (or cooperatives). Members of a cooperative
pool their resources for cooperation in certain areas. There are several
types of cooperatives possible such as farmers cooperatives, weavers
cooperatives, industrial workers cooperatives, etc. Krishak
Cooperative functions in a village not very far away from Sonpur. It
has 2300 farmers as members. It accepts deposits from its members.
With these deposits as collateral, the Cooperative has obtained a large
loan from the bank. These funds are used to provide loans to members.
Once these loans are repaid, another round of lending can take place.
Krishak Cooperative provides loans for the purchase of agricultural
implements, loans for cultivation and agricultural trade, fishery loans,
loans for construction of houses and for a variety of other expenses.
(36.1) Cooperative societies come under which source of credit? 1
(i) Formal sources of credit
(36.2) Mention any two sources of capital of cooperative societies. ½+½= 1
(i) Deposits from the members of the cooperative
(ii) With the deposit as collateral the co-opearatives obtain large loans
from banks.
(iii) Interest earned on loans given by Cooperatives.
(iv) Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be mentioned.
(36.3) Explain the role of cooperative societies in increasing the 2
income of farmers.
(i) Co-operative societies provide loans on low interest rates which
can be further used for increasing crop production.
(ii) They also give interest on deposits. This promotes small saving
habits for the farmers.

16

(iii) Co-operatives provide loans for variety of expenses such as the
purchase of agricultural implements fisheries loans etc. which
further leads to increase the income of farmers.
(iv) Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained.

Section F (2+3=5)
(Map Skill-Based Question)
37 (a) Two places ‘A’ and ‘B’ have been marked on the given political 2x1=2
outline map of India (on page 27). Identify them with the help of
the following information and write their correct names on the
lines drawn near them.
A. The place where the session of the Indian National Congress was
held in 1920. Nagpur
B. The place where Gandhiji started Dandi March. Sabarmati
Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates
only, in lieu of Q. No. 37 (a)
(a)(i) Name the place where the session of Indian National Congress
was held in 1920.
2x1=2
Nagpur/Kolkata (Calcutta)
(ii) Name the place where Gandhiji started Dandi March.
Sabarmati
(b) On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three
of the following with suitable symbols:
(i) Leading state in production of Jute- West Bengal
(ii) Atomic Power Plant located in Gujarat- Kakrapara
(iii) Iron and Steel Plant located in Jharkhand-Bokaro/Jamshedpur
(iv) Sri Guru Ram Das Jee International Airport-Amritsar
3x1=3
Note-For answers, see the attached map.
Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates
only, in lieu of Q. No. 37 (b)
(b)Attempt any three questions.
(i) Name the leading state in production of Jute.
West Bengal
(ii) Name the place where an Atomic Power Plant is located in
Gujarat.
Kakrapara
(iii)Name the place where an iron and Steel Plant is located in 3x1=3
Jharkhand.
Bokaro/ Jamshedpur
(iv) Name the place where Sri Guru Ram Das Jee International Airport
is located.
Amritsar
17

18

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