Is Karnataka 2nd PUC Question Bank for Chemistry free to download?

Yes. Karnataka 2nd PUC Question Bank for Chemistry can be viewed online and downloaded as a PDF free of cost on AglaSem Docs.

How many pages does Karnataka 2nd PUC Question Bank for Chemistry have?

Karnataka 2nd PUC Question Bank for Chemistry contains 252 pages, which you can read online or download together as a single PDF.

Where can I find more Class 12 study material?

You can find more Class 12 question papers, sample papers, syllabus, and answer keys on AglaSem Docs.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Question Bank for Chemistry

Q: How can I download Karnataka 2nd PUC Question Bank for Chemistry?

Open this page and click the Download button to save Karnataka 2nd PUC Question Bank for Chemistry as a PDF. It is completely free on AglaSem Docs.

Download Karnataka 2nd PUC Question Bank for Chemistry subject. Here at aglasem.com get latest question banks for II PUC exam. Karnataka 2nd PUC Chemistry Question Bank is given below. More Detail

2017 Question Bank Karnataka Board Chemistry Class 12 2026

Karnataka 2nd PUC Question Bank for Chemistry – Text

Read the full text of this question bank below — useful to quickly search, copy and reference the content online without downloading the PDF.

📄 View text version (252 pages)

Page 1

Government of Karnataka
Department of School Education
(Pre-University)

QUESTION BANK

Page 2

II PUC CHAPTERWISE MARKS ALLOTMENT
TIME: 3 HOURS 34 – CHEMISTRY Max Marks: 70

UNIT
UNIT NAME Marks Allotted Page Number
NUMBER

1 SOLUTION 12 01 - 24

2 ELECTROCHEMISTRY 13 25 - 48

3 CHEMICAL KINETICS 12 49 - 74

4 THE D-BLOCK ELEMENTS 10 75 - 90

5 COORDINATION COMPOUNDS 11 91 - 109

6 HALOALKANES AND HALOARENES 09 110 - 127

7 ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS AND ETHERS 10 128 - 152

ALDEHYDES, KETONES AND
8 12 153 - 172
CARBOXYLIC ACIDS

9 AMINES 07 173 - 190

10 BIOMOLECULES 09 191 - 216

TOTAL 105 ---

11 Link for Model Question Papers, Board Exam Question Papers, Model 218
Answers and Centum Papers

12 Answers for MCQ and Fill in the Blank Questions 219 - 230

IN THIS QUESTION BANK, THE LETTERS GIVEN IN BRACKETS INDICATE
THE DIFFICULTY LEVEL OF THE QUESTIONS: -
E = EASY A = AVERAGE D = DIFFICULT

Page 3

Unit 1
Solutions
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQS) (ONE MARK)
1.1 Types of Solutions;
1. Camphor in nitrogen gas, is an example of __________. (E)
a) liquid Solutions b) solid Solutions
c) gaseous Solutions d) aqueous solution
2. Out of following which one is not an example of a solution. (E)
a) Air b) Brass
c) amalgam d) benzene in water
3. Match the following Type solution with their examples: (E)
Type of solution Example
A. Gaseous solution p. dissolved oxygen in drinking water
B. Liquid solution q. amalgam of mercury with sodium
C. Solid solution r. atmospheric air
s. Silicon
a) A – q; B – r; C – p b) A – r; B – p; C – q
c) A – q; B – s; C – p d) A – s; B – r; C – q
4. Match the items given in Column I with the type of solutions given In Column II. (A)
Column I Column II
(i) Soda water A. A solution of liquid in solid
(ii) Sugar solution B. A solution of gas in gas
(iii) German silver C. A solution of solid in liquid
(iv) Air D. A solution of solid in solid
E. A solution of gas in liquid
a) (i) - B; (ii) - C; (iii) – D; (iv) – E; b) (i) - E; (ii) - C; (iii) – D; (iv) – B;
c) (i) - B; (ii) - E; (iii) – D; (iv) – B; d) (i) - E; (ii) - C; (iii) – B; (iv) – D;
1.2 Expressing concentration of solutions;
5. The concentration term depends on temperature is (E)
a) ppm b) mole fraction
c) molality d) molarity
6. Which of the following is dependent on temperature? (NEET-17) (E)
a) Molarity b) Mole fraction
c) Weight percentage d) Molality

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 1

Page 4

7. Increasing the temperature of an aqueous solution will cause (A)
a) decrease in molality b) decrease in molarity
c) decrease in mole fraction d) decrease in mass percentage (w/w)
8. The mass percentage (w/w) of glucose in water is 10% means (A)
a) 10g of glucose dissolved in 100g of water
b) 10g of glucose dissolved in 10g of water
c) 10g of glucose dissolved in 90g of water
d) 10g of glucose dissolved in 90ml of water
9. The mass percentage(w/v) of glucose in water is 10% means. (E)
a) 10g of glucose dissolved in 100 g of water b) 10g of glucose dissolved in 90 mL of water
c) 10g of glucose dissolved in 100 mL of water d) 10g of glucose dissolved in 90 g of water
10. The mole fraction of the solute in one molal aqueous solution is (D)
a) 0.009 b) 0.018
c) 0.027 d) 0.036
11. If one mole of a substance is present in one kg of solvent, then (E)
a) It shows molar concentration b) It shows molal concentration
c) It shows normality d) It shows strength g/g
12. A binary solution has two components ‘A’ and ‘B’. The mole fraction of component ‘A’ is 0.5, then
the number of moles of components ‘A and ‘B’ in the solution is (A)
a) nA  nB b) nA  nB

c) nA = nB d) All of these

13. The concentration of fluoride ions to be present in water to prevent tooth decay is (E)
a) 1 ppm b) 1.5 ppm
c) 2 ppm d) 2.5 ppm
14. The concentration of pollutants in water or atmosphere is expressed in terms of (E)
a) µg L–1 b) molarity
c) molality d) volume percentage (v/v)
15. Match the following concentration term of solution with their units: (A)
Quantity Units
A. molarity p. gmol-1
B. molality q. K kg/mol
C. mole fraction r. Mol/kg
D. molar mass s. mol/dm3
E. Ebullioscopic constant/ Cryscopic constant t. No unit
a) A - s; B - r; C – t; D –p; E –q b) A - s; B - t; C – p; D –r; E -q
c) A - s; B - r; C – p; D –t; E –q d) A - r; B - s; C – q; D –t; E -p

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 2

Page 5

1.3 Solubility;
16. The tanks used by most of scuba divers are filled with air diluted with helium of around (E)
a) 88.3% b) 56.2%
c) 32.1% d) 11.7%
17. A student took two glasses of pure water from a water filter. He cools glass–A in a fridge and warms
the other glass – B on a stove. On comparing the solubility of oxygen in H2O in glass–A and glass–B,
he states that glass- ‘A’ contains (A)
a) more oxygen than glass–B. b) less oxygen than glass–B.
c) same amount of oxygen as in glass–B. d) zero concentration of oxygen.
1.4 Vapor Pressure of liquid Solutions;
18. The dissolution of gas is in a liquid is governed (E)
a) Raoult’s law b) Henry's law
c) Dalton’s law of pressure d) van’t Hoff factor
19. PA and PB are the vapour pressures of pure liquid components, A and B, respectively of an ideal binary
solution. If XA represents the mole fraction of component A, the total pressure of the solution will be
(A)
a) PA + XA (PB – PA) b) PA + XA (PA – PB)
c) PB + XA (PB – PA) d) PB + XA (PA – PB)
20. The vapour pressure of two liquids P and Q are 80 and 60 torr, respectively. The total vapour pressure
of solution obtained by mixing 3 mole of P and 2 mol of Q would be (D)
a) 72 torr b) 140 torr
c) 68 torr d) 20 torr
21. Which of the following statements about the composition of the vapour over an ideal 1: 1 molar mixture
of benzene and toluene is correct? Assume that the temperature is constant at 25°C. (Given, vapour
pressure data at 25°C, benzene 12.8 kPa, toluene = 3.85 kPa). (A)
a) The vapour will contain equal amounts of benzene and toluene.
b) Not enough information is given to make a prediction.
c) The vapour will contain a higher percentage of benzene.
d) The vapour will contain a higher percentage of toluene.
22. An aqueous solution is 1.00 molal in KI. Which change will cause the vapour pressure of the solution
to increase? (A)
a) Addition of NaCl b) Addition of Na2SO4
c) Addition of 1.00 molal KI d) Addition of water

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 3

Page 6

1.5 Ideal and Non-ideal Solutions;
23. The mixture which shows positive deviation from Raoult’s Law is [NEET 2020] (E)
a) n-hexane and n-heptane b) Bromoethane and chloroethane
c) Ethanol and Acetone d) Chloroform and Acetone
24. The mixture which shows positive deviation from Raoult's law is (E)
a) ethanol + acetone b) benzene + toluene
c) acetone + chloroform d) chloroethane + bromoethane.
25. The mixture that forms maximum boiling azeotrope is (E)
a) heptane + octane b) water + nitric acid
c) ethanol + water d) acetone + carbon disulphide.
26. Which of the following statements is correct regarding a solution of two components A and B exhibiting
positive deviation from ideal behaviour? (E)
a) Intermolecular attractive forces between A-A and B-B are stronger than those between A-B.
b) ΔVmixH = 0 at constant T and P.
c) ΔVmixV = 0 at constant T and P.
d) Intermolecular attractive forces between A-A and B-B are equal to those between A-B.
27. A solution containing components A and B follows Raoult's law. (E)
a) A-B attraction force is greater than A - A and B-B
b) A-B attraction force is less than A - A and B – B
c) A-B attraction force remains same as A - A and B-B
d) volume of solution is different from sum of volume of solute and solvent.
28. All form ideal solution except (E)
a) C6H6 and C6H5CH3 b) C2H6Brand C₂H5I
c) C6H5Cl and C6H5Br d) C2H5I and C₂H5OH
29. An ideal solution is formed when its components (E)
a) have no volume change on mixing. b) have no enthalpy change on mixing.
c) have both the above characteristics. d) have high solubility.
30. 10 ml of liquid ‘A’ and 20 ml of liquid ‘B’ are mixed at 25oC. The volume of the solution was measured
to be 30.1 ml then, (A)
a) Hmix  0, Solution shows negative deviation from Raoult’s low.

b) Hmix  0, Solution shows negative deviation from Raoult’s low.

c) Hmix  0, Solution shows positive deviation from Raoult’s low.

d) Hmix  0, Solution shows positive deviation from Raoult’s low.

31. The mixture that forms maximum boiling azeotrope at specific concentration is (E)
a) heptane + octane b) water + Nitric acid
c) ethanol + water d) acetone + carbon disulphide

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 4

Page 7

32. Match the following Type of liquid - liquid solution with their examples: (A)
Type of liquid - liquid solution Example
A. Ideal solution p. ethanol - acetone
B. Non ideal solution with positive deviation q. acetone - chloroform
C. Non ideal solution with negative deviation r. benzene – toluene
a) A - p; B - q; C – r; b) A - p; B - r; C – q;
c) A - q; B - r; C – p; d) A - r; B - p; C – q;
1.6 Colligative Properties and Determination of Molar mass;
33. In a solution containing non-volatile solute, the mole fraction of solvent is 0.9. The relative lowering
of vapour pressure is (A)
a) 1 b) 0.1
c) 0.9 d) 1.1
34. During depression of freezing point in a solution the following are in equilibrium (A)
a) Liquid solvent, solid solvent b) Liquid solvent, solid solute
c) Liquid solute, solid solute d) Liquid solute, solid solvent
35. At 25°C the highest osmotic pressure is exhibited by 0.1 M solution of (assume complete dissociation)
(E)
a) Glucose b) urea
c) CaCl2 d) KCl
36. Of the following 0.10 m aqueous solutions, which one will exhibit the largest freezing point depression?
(assume complete dissociation) (E)
a) KCl b) C6H12O6
c) Al2(SO4)3 d) K2SO4
37. Which of the following aqueous solution has minimum freezing point? (Assume complete dissociation) (E)
a) 0.01 NaCl b) 0.005m C2H5OH
c) 0.005m MgI2 d) 0.005m MgSO4
38. For 0.1 M solution, the colligative property will follow the order (assume complete dissociation) (E)
a) NaCl > Na2SO4 > Na3PO4 b) NaCl < Na2SO4 < Na3PO4
c) NaCl > Na2SO4 ≈ Na3PO4 d) NaCl < Na2SO4 = Na3PO4
39. On assuming complete dissociation, the aqueous solution having highest Freezing point is (E)
a) 2M KCl, (i = 2) b) 2M K2SO4, (i = 3)
c) 2M Al2(SO4)3, (i= 5) d) 2M K3[Fe(CN)6], (i = 4)

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 5

Page 8

40. When compared to ∆Tf -value of a 0.01M glucose solution, the ∆Tf - value of 0.01M MgCl2 solution
a) increases about three times b) increases about six times (A)
c) increases about ten times d) remains same
41. Which of the following compounds can be used as antifreeze in automobile radiators? (E)
a) Methyl alcohol b) Nitrophenol
c) Glycol d) Ethyl alcohol
42. If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the value of molal depression constant (Kf) will be (A)
a) halved b) tripled
c) unchanged d) doubled.
43. When mercuric iodide is added to the aqueous solutions of potassium iodide then: (D)
a) freezing point is raised. b) freezing point is lowered.
c) freezing point does not change. d) boiling point does not change
44. If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the value of the molal depression constant (Kf) will be (E)
a) doubled b) halved
c) tripled d) unchanged
45. As a result of osmosis, the volume of the solution: (E)
a) gradually decreases b) gradually increases
c) is not affected d) suddenly increases
46. Pure water can be obtained from sea water by (E)
a) centrifugation b) plasmolysis
c) reverse osmosis d) sedimentation.
47. The relationship between osmotic pressure at 273 K when 10 g glucose (p₁), 10 g urea (p2), and 10 g
sucrose (p3) are dissolved in 250 mL of water is. (A)
a) P₂ > P₁> P3 b) P2>P3 > P1
c) P₁> P2> P3 d) P3> P₁> P2
48. From the colligative properties of solution, which one is the best method for the determination of
molecular weight of proteins and polymers? (E)
a) Osmotic pressure b) Lowering in vapour pressure
c) Lowering in freezing point d) Elevation in boiling point
49. Blood cells retain their normal shape in solution which are (E)
a) hypotonic to blood b) isotonic to blood
c) hypertonic to blood d) not equimolar to blood.
50. During osmosis, flow of water through a semipermeable membrane is (E)
a) from solution having lower concentration only
b) from solution having higher concentration only
c) from both sides of semipermeable membrane with equal flow rates
d) from both sides of semipermeable membrane with unequal flow rates.

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 6

Page 9

51. Solution (A) containing FeCI3 is separated from solution (B) containing K4Fe(CN)6 by a semipermeable
membrane. If FeCI3 on reaction with K4[Fe(CN)6] produces blue colour of Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3, the blue
colour will appear in (D)
a) A b) B
c) In both A and B d) Neither in A nor in B
52. During osmosis, the solvent molecules are moving from (E)
a) Hypotonic solution to hypertonic solution
b) Hypertonic solution to hypotonic solution
c) Higher concentrated solution to lower concentrated solution
d) Higher osmotic pressure solution to lower osmotic pressure solution.
53. Match the following Colligative property with their formulae: (A)
Colligative property Formula
A. Relative lowering of vapour pressure of the solvent i. = Kf m
R  M1  Tf2
B. Henry's law ii. =
1000   fus H

p10 − p1 n2
C. Depression in freezing point iii. =
p10
n1 + n 2

D. Cryscopic constant iv. p = KH.x
a) A - iii; B - iv; C – ii; D –i b) A - ii; B - iv; C – iii; D –i
c) A - iii; B - iv; C – i; D –ii d) A - ii; B - iv; C – i; D –iii
54. Match the following Colligative property with their formulae: (A)
Colligative property Formula
R  M1  Tb2
A. Raoult's law i. =
1000   vap H

B. Elevation of boiling point ii. = CRT
C. Ebullioscopic constant iii. p = x1p1° + x2p2o
D. Osmotic pressure iv. = Kb m
(a) A - iii; B - iv; C – ii; D –i (b) A - ii; B - iv; C – iii; D –i
(c) A - iii; B - iv; C – i; D –ii (d) A - ii; B - iv; C – i; D –iii

1.7 Abnormal Molar Masses
55. Which of the following salts has the same value of Van’t Hoff factor (i) as that of K3[Fe(CN)6]? (A)
a) Na2SO4 b) Al(NO3)3
c) Al2(SO4)3 d) NaCl

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 7

Page 10

56. The van't Hoff factor i for a compound which undergoes dissociation in one solvent (ethanoic acid in
water) and association in other solvent (ethanoic acid in Benzene) is respectively (A)
a) Greater than one and greater than one b) Less than one and greater than one
c) Less than one and less than one d) Greater than one and less than one
57. Compare these compounds with their van’t Hoff factor value (i). (A)
Column I (van't Hoff factor value (i)) Column II (Behaviour)
A. i > 1 i. There is association.
B. i < 1 ii. There is dissociation.
C. i = 1 iii. Impossible
D. i = 0 iv. No association or dissociation
a) A–ii, B–i, C–iv, D–iii b) A–iii, B–ii, C–i, D–iv
c) A–iii, B–i, C–iv, D–ii d) A–iii, B–iv, C–i, D–ii

Each question contains STATEMENT–1 and STATEMENT–2. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b),
(c) and (d) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Choose the correct option as under: (ONE MARK)
a) Both statement I and II are correct
b) Both statements I and II incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
58. Statement–1: One molar aqueous solution has always higher concentration than one molal solution.
Statement–2: One molar solution contains less solvent than one molal solution. (E)
59. Statement – 1: One molar aqueous solution has always lower concentration than one molal.
Statement – 2: The molality of a solution depends upon the density of the solution whereas molarity
does not. (E)
60. Statement – 1: Greater the value of Henry's constant of a gas in a particular solvent, greater is the
solubility of the gas at the same pressure and temperature.
Statement – 2: Solubility of a gas is directly proportional to its Henry's constant at the same pressure
and temperature. (E)
61. Statement I: On adding NaCl to water its vapour pressure increases
Statement II: Addition of non-volatile solute increases the vapour pressure. (E)
62. Statement – 1: If a liquid solute more volatile than the solvent, then the solute is added to a solvent,
the vapour pressure of the solution may increase, i.e., ps > P°.
Statement – 2: In the presence of the more volatile solute, only the solute will form the vapours and
solvent will not. (A)
63. Statement–1: If on mixing the two liquids, the solution becomes hot, it implies that it shows negative
deviation from Raoult's law. (E)
Statement–2: Solutions which show negative deviation are accompanied by decrease in volume.

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 8

Page 11

64. Statement–1: Vapour pressure of water is less than 1.013 bar at 373 K. (E)
Statement–2: Water boils at 373 K as the vapour pressure at this temperature becomes equal to
atmosphere pressure.
65. Statement – 1: Azeotropic mixtures are formed only by non–ideal solutions and they may have boiling
points either greater than or less than both the components. (A)
Statement – 2: The composition of the vapour phase is same as that of liquid phase of the azeotropic
mixture.
66. Statement – 1: Cooking time is reduced in pressure cooker. (A)
Statement – 2: Boiling point inside the pressure cooker is raised.
67. Statement – 1: Addition of a non–volatile solute to a volatile solvent increases the boiling point.
Statement – 2: Addition of a non–volatile solute results in lowering of vapour pressure. (E)
68. Statement – 1: The depression in freezing point depends on the amount of the solute dissolved and not
on the nature of the solute or solvent. (E)
Statement – 2: For aqueous solutions of different electrolytes, molal depression constant will have
different value.
69. Statement – 1: 0.1 M aqueous solution of glucose has higher increment in the freezing point than 0.1
M aqueous solution of urea at same condition. (E)
Statement – 2: Kf for both has different values.
70. Statement – 1: Higher the molal depression constant of the solvent used, higher the freezing point of
the solution. (E)
Statement – 2: Depression in freezing point does not depend on the nature of the solvent.
71. Statement – 1: Out of various colligative properties, osmotic pressure is used for determination of
molecular masses of polymers. (E)
Statement – 2: Polymer solutions do not possess constant boiling point or freezing point.
72. Statement–I: Any concentration of NaCl solution can be injected intravenously as NaCl, being a
common table salt, is a harmless chemical. (E)
Statement–2: 0.9% (mass/volume) NaCl solution is isotonic with the fluid inside the blood cells.
73. Statement I: If red blood cells were removed from the body and placed in pure water, pressure inside
the cells increases (E)
Statement II: The concentration of salt content in the cells increases.
74. Statement – 1: The molecular weight of acetic acid determined by depression in freezing point method
in benzene and water is found to be different. (E)
Statement – 2: Water is polar and benzene is non–polar in nature.
75. Statement – 1: van' t Hoff factor for benzoic acid in benzene is less than one. (E)
Statement – 2: Benzoic acid behaves as a weak electrolyte in benzene.

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 9

Page 12

Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets:
(ONE MARK)
Set-1
(Plasmolysis, mole fraction, Reverse osmosis, Solid, Liquid, Molarity)
1. Desalination of water is based on ________ (E)
2. The shrinking of a plant cell due to overflow of water is called________ (E)
3. Hydrated salts are solutions of ____________ in solid. (E)
4. 22 carat gold is an example of solid in ______ solution. (E)
5. According to Henry's law the plot of equilibrium pressure versus_________ is linear with slope equal
to KH. (E)
Set-2
(1, 0.9, lower, saturated solution, higher, unsaturated solution)
1. Red blood cells are isotonic with_________ % NaCl solution. (E)
2. For non-electrolytes, the van't Hoff factor (i) is _______ (E)
3. Greater the value of Henry's constant of a gas_________ is its solubility at the same partial pressure
and temperature. (E)
1. An ionic compound dissolves in water if hydration energy is _________ than lattice energy. (E)
2. A solution in which no more solute can be dissolved at the same temperature and pressure is
called_______ (E)
Set-3
(N2, Isotonic, O2, hypotonic, Cellulose acetate, CO2)
1. In deep sea diving the disease called Bends is caused due to the dissolution of _____ in the blood. (E)
2. At Altitude, concentration of _______ in the blood is low. people feel weak and unable to think properly
this disease is called anoxia. (E)
3. Solutions having the same osmotic pressure are called__________ (E)
4. A solution with lower osmotic pressure is called__________ with respect to a more concentrated
solution. (E)
5. The semipermeable membrane generally used in the reverse osmosis is made up of______. (E)
Set-4
(Azeotrope, solvent, association, solution, dissociation, solute)
1. Osmotic pressure is the minimum pressure that must be applied on the_________ side to prevent the
entry of solvent from solvent to solution. (E)
2. In osmosis, there is a net flow of solvent from ______ to solution. (E)
3. If van’t Hoff factor is less than unity this shows that the solute undergoes______ in the solution. (E)
4. If van’t Hoff factor is more than unity this shows that the solute undergoes______ in the solution. (E)
5. The constant boiling mixture of two miscible liquids of a definite mole fraction is called _______ (E)

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 10

Page 13

Set-5
(Helium, solvent, Xenon, increase, decrease, solute)
1. Molal elevation constant Kb depend upon the nature of the __________. (E)
2. Colligative properties depend on the number of ______particles dissolved in solution. (E)
3. Value of Henry's constant KH increases with ___________ in temperature. (E)
4. As dissolution is an exothermic process the solubility should _____ with increase of temperature. (E)
5. See diverse for breathing inside see use a mixture of O2 and inert gas _______. (E)
Set-6
(Anoxia, Edema, More, Non-ideal, Osmotic pressure, less)
1. People taking a lot of salt develop swelling or puffiness of their tissues. This disease is called___(E)
2. At the same temperature nitrogen gas is__________ soluble in water than oxygen. (E)
3. The best colligative property to determine the molecular mass of polymers is __________ (E)
4. A ________solution showing negative deviations forman azeotrope with highest boiling point. (E)
5. Less is the colligative property, _________ is the Molecular mass. (E)
Set-7
(One, increases, CCl2F2, decreases, concertation)
1. The most common freon used in industries_________. (E)
2. As temperature decreases solubility of gases in liquid __________. (E)
3. When a non-volatile solute is added to the pure solvent, the freezing point of solvent______ (E)
4. The utility or importance of solutions in life depends on their ________. (E)
5. The sum of mole fractions of all the components in a binary solution is equal to _________. (E)
TWO MARKS QUESTIONS:
1.1 Types of Solutions;
1. Define the term solution. Which component determines the physical state of the binary solution? (E)
2. Give an example of a solution containing (E)
a) gaseous solute in a gaseous solvent. b) liquid solute in a gaseous solvent.
c) solid solute in gaseous solvent. d) gaseous solute in a liquid solvent.
e) liquid solute in a liquid solvent. f) solid solute in a liquid solvent.
g) gaseous solute in a solid solvent. h) liquid solute in a solid solvent.
i) solid solute in a solid solvent.
1.2 Expressing concentration of solutions;
3. Differentiate between molarity and molality of a solution. How does a change in temperature influence
their values? (E)
4. Which aqueous solution has higher concentration: 1 molar or 1 molal solution of the same solute? Give
reason the answer. (A)

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 11

Page 14

5. Define mole fraction. What is the value of sum of mole fractions of all the components in a three-
component system? (E)
6. Define the following terms:
i) Solution ii) Mole fraction
iii) Molarity iv) Molality
v) saturated solution vi) Unsaturated solution
vii) dissolution viii) crystallisation. (E)
7. Molarity (M), molality (m) and mole fraction (χ) are some methods for expressing concentration of
solutions. Which of these are temperature dependent? Give reason. (E)
8. 18 g glucose (molar mass 180 g mol–1) is present in 500 cm3 of its aqueous solution. What additional
data is required if the molality of the solution is required to be calculated? (A)
1.3 Solubility;
9. What is the effect of temperature and pressure on solubility of solids in liquids? (E)
10. What is the effect of temperature and pressure on the solubility gas in liquid? (E)
10. Dissolution of CaCl2 in water is exothermic process and while that in ammonium nitrate is endothermic
process. What is the effect of temperature on solubility of these two solutions? (A)
11. Write the expression the solubility of gases in water related with their Henry's constants at the same
pressure and temperature. (E)
12. At the same temperature, hydrogen is more soluble in water than helium, which of them will have a
higher value of KH and why? (A)
13. Mention any two applications of Henry’s law. (E)
14. Why do gases always tend to be less soluble in liquids as the temperature increases? Explain. (A)
1.4 Vapor Pressure of liquid Solutions;
15. Define vapour pressure of a liquid. Name a law which helps us to determine partial vapor pressure of
a volatile component in solution. (E)
16. What happens to the vapour pressure when
(a) a volatile solute dissolve in the liquid and
(b) the dissolved solute is non–volatile. (A)
17. Draw a graph to show variation of vapour pressure of solvent and solution with respect to temperature.
(A)
18. Vapour pressure of a solution is different from that of pure solvent (A)
(a) Name the law which helps us to determine partial vapour pressure of a volatile component in
solution.
(b) State the above law.

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 12

Page 15

1.5 Ideal and Non-ideal Solutions;
19. State Raoult’s law as applied to a binary solution of Non‐volatile solute in a volatile solvent. (E)
20. What are ideal and non‐ideal solutions? (E)
21. Give an example of Ideal solution and non‐ideal solutions. (E)
22. What causes deviations from ideal behavior of solutions? Why do the vapour pressures of certain
solutions show negative or positive deviations from the Raoult’s law? (A)
23. When 50 mL of phenol and 50 mL of aniline are mixed, predict whether the volume of the solution is
equal to, greater than or less than 100 m. Give reason for your answer. (A)
24. Derive the relation between molar mass of solute and relative lowering vapour pressure. (A)
25. What is azeotropic mixture? Give example. (E)
26. What are the different types of azeotropic mixtures? Explain with example. (E)
27. What are differences between minimum boiling azeotropes and maximum boiling azeotropes? (E)
28. What type of azeotropes are formed by solutions with negative deviation from Raoult's law? Give an
example for it. (E)
29. What type of azeotropes are formed by solutions with positive deviation from Raoult's law? Give an
example for it. (E)
1.6 Colligative Properties and Determination of Molar mass;
30. What are colligative properties? Name any one colligative property. (E)
31. Write the mathematical relation between molality and elevation in boiling point. (E)
32. What happens to boiling point of water when salt is dissolved in it? Which one will have greater boiling
point: 0.1M NaCl, 0.1 M BaCl2? (A)
33. What will happen to the boiling point of a solution if (A)
(i) The weight of the solute dissolved is doubled
(ii) The weight of solvent taken is halved?
34. Write the mathematical relation between molality and depression in freezing point. (A)
35. Write the expression to relate cryoscopic constant and change in enthalpy of fusion. Explain the terms involved in
it. (E)
36. Define molal depression constant. Give one most important application of the phenomenon of
depression in freezing point in everyday life. (A)
37. With the help of a suitable diagram, show that the lowering of vapour pressure of a solution than the pure
solvent causes a lowering of freezing point for the solution compared to that of the pure solvent. (A)
38. Write a note on osmotic pressure. (E)
39. Define osmosis and semi permeable membrane. (E)
40. What is the importance of semipermeable membrane in osmosis? (E)

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 13

Page 16

41. Define osmotic pressure. What happens when the external pressure applied becomes more than the
osmotic pressure of the solution? (E)
42. Give an example for biological and industrial importance of osmosis. (E)
43. What is reverse osmosis? Mention one practical utility of it. (E)
44. BaCl2 on reaction with Na2SO4 in aqueous solution gives white precipitate. If the same two solutions
are separated by a semi-permeable membrane, will there be appearance of a white precipitate due to
osmosis? (A)
1.7 Abnormal Molar Masses
45. In the solution, what are the possible values of van't Hoff factor if the solute molecules undergo
(i) Association and (ii) Dissociation (E)
46. What is van't Hoff factor? What is the van't Hoff factor for a compound which undergoes
tetramerisation in an organic solvent? (A)
47. Give an example of a compound in which hydrogen bonding results in the formation of a dimer. What
is the van't Hoff factor for such compounds? (A)
THREE MARKS QUESTIONS:
1.1 Types of Solutions;
1. Name the two components present in binary solution. Which component determines the physical state
of binary solution? (E)
2. Match the items given in Column I and Column II. (A)
Column I Column II
(i) Saturated solution (a) A solution in solid phase.
Solution having same osmotic pressure at a given temperature as that
(ii) Binary solution (b)
of given solution.
(iii) Isotonic solution (c) A solution whose osmotic pressure is more than that of another.
(iv) Hypotonic solution (d) A solution whose osmotic pressure is less than that of another.
(v) Solid solution (e) Solution with two components.
A solution which contains maximum amount of solute that can be
(vi) Hypertonic solution (f)
dissolved in a given amount of solvent at a given temperature.

1.2 Expressing concentration of solutions;
3. Define the following terms i) Mass percentage
ii) volume percentage iii) Parts per million (ppm). (E)
4. Name the concentration term which is commonly used in medicine and pharmacy. Write the definition
and mathematical equation for that concentration term. (E)

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 14

Page 17

1.3 Solubility;
5. Name any three parameters which affects solubility of gas in liquid. (E)
6. State Henry’s law. Write its mathematical form. What is the significance of Henry’s Constant? (A)
7. Mention any three applications of Henry’s law (E)
1.4 Vapor Pressure of liquid Solutions;
8. Derive its mathematical expression of vapour pressure for a solution of a non–volatile solute in a
volatile solvent. (A)
9. Draw a suitable labelled diagram to express the relationship for ideal solution of A and B between
vapour pressure and mole fractions of components at constant temperature. (A)
1.5 Ideal and Non-ideal Solutions;
10. State Raoult's law. Write the conditions necessary for a solution to show ideal behaviour. (E)
11. What are ideal and non–ideal solutions? Give reasons for the formation of such solutions. Give one
example in each case. (E)
12. What are the different types of non–ideal solutions? Give an example for each type. (E)
13. Explain positive and negative deviation from ideal behaviour with suitable example of each type. (E)
14. Give any three differences between ideal and non-ideal solutions. (E)
15. Give any three differences between solutions showing positive and negative deviation from ideal
behavior. (E)
16. Match the following Type of liquid - liquid solution with their characters: (A)
Type of liquid - liquid solution pA ΔH mixing ΔV mixing
A. Idea solution > p0A xA –ve –ve
B. Non ideal solution with positive deviation = p0A xA = 0 +ve
C. Non ideal solution with negative deviation < p0A xA +ve =0

1.6 Colligative Properties and Determination of Molar mass;
17. What are colligative properties? Name the colligative property expressed in terms of mole fraction.
Write the mathematical equation of that colligative property. (E)
18. Show that the relative lowering of vapour pressure for a solution is equal to the mole fraction of the
solute when solvent alone is volatile. (D)
19. Derive an equation to express that relative lowering of vapour pressure for a solution is equal to the
mole fraction of the solute in it when the solvent alone is volatile. (A)
20. Show graphically how the vapour pressure of a solvent and a solution of a non–volatile solute change
with temperature? Show on this graph the boiling points of the solvent and the solution. Which is higher
and Give reason for answer. (A)
21. Define the term molal elevation constant and Molal depression constant. Give their SI unit. (E)

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 15

Page 18

22. With the help of vapour pressure – temperature diagram, explain the depression of freezing point of a
solution of a non‐volatile solute in a volatile solvent. How would you determine the molar masses of
solute using the above properties? (D)
23. What is semi permeable membrane? Give an example each for natural and synthetic semipermeable
membrane. (A)
24. Write three reasons to justify that osmotic pressure method has the advantage over other colligative
methods for the measurement of molar mass of proteins and polymers. (E)
25. Write three reasons to justify that osmotic pressure method has the advantage over other colligative
methods for the measurement of molar mass of the macromolecules. (E)
26. What is an isotonic, hypertonic and hypotonic solution? (E)
27. The osmotic pressure of fluid inside the blood cell is that of 0.9% (m/v) NaCl solution (Normal saline
solution). What happens when blood cell placed in (mention the follow of water inside or outside the cell?)
(a) 0.9% (m/v) NaCl solution.
(b) Greater than 0.9% (m/v) NaCl solution.
(c) Less than 0.9% (m/v) NaCl solution. (A)
28. What is reverse osmosis? Mention one of its practical uses and give an example for artificial
semipermeable membrane. (E)
29. Match the following (D)
Concentration of NaCl On size of the
Type of solution Effect on water flow
solution cell
No effect or
A. Isotonic solution i. Less than 0.9% (m/v) Neither entre nor leaves the Swells
system
B. Hypertonic solution ii. Greater than 0.9% (m/v) Water flow into the cell No change
C. Hypotonic solution iii. equal to 0.9% (m/v) Water flow out of the cell Shrink

1.7 Abnormal Molar Masses
30. What is abnormal molar mass? Define Van’t‐ Hoff’s factor. What would be the value of Van’t Hoff
factor for a dilute solution of K2SO4 in water if it undergoes complete dissociation.? (E)
31. Why do electrolytes show abnormal molecular masses? Name the factors responsible for abnormality. (A)

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 16

Page 19

32. Based on their nature of the compounds, assume that the compound will undergo either 100% association
or 100% dissociation. Compare these compounds with their van’t Hoff factor value (i). (A)
Compound name van’t Hoff factor value (i)
A. K2SO4 i. ½
B. NaCl ii. 5
C. FeCl3 OR K3[Fe(CN)6] iii. 2
D. K4[Fe(CN)6] OR Al2(SO4)3 iv. 4
E. Acetic acid in benzene v. 1
F. Urea or Glucose vi. 3

Give reason: (ONE MARK)
1.2 Expressing concentration of solutions;
1) Molality preferred over molarity in handling solutions in chemistry. (E)
2) The molality of a solution remains unchanged with temperature. (E)
1.3 Solubility;
3) Carbon tetra chloride and water are immiscible whereas ethanol and water are miscible in all
proportions. (E)
4) Aquatic species like fish feel more comfortable in the lakes in winter then in summer. (E)
5) When cold drink bottles are placed in salt to the box containing ice, cold drink bottles are cold for a
longer time. (E)
6) Aquatic animals are more comfortable in cold water than in warm water. (E)
7) Liquid ammonia bottle first cooled in ice before opening it. (A)
8) Dissolution of some solid compounds is exothermic while that of some others is endothermic. (A)
1.4 Vapor Pressure of liquid Solutions;
9) The vapour pressure of a liquid is constant at constant temperature. (A)
10) The vapour pressure of solution of a non–volatile solute in a given solvent is less than that of the pure
solvent. (A)
1.5 Ideal and Non-ideal Solutions;
11) Non-ideal solutions exhibit either positive or negative deviations from Raoult’s law. (E)
12) An increase in temperature observed on mixing chloroform with acetone. (A)
13) Mixture of ethanol and acetone (cyclohexane) shows positive deviation from Raoult's law. (E)
14) Pure ethyl alcohol cannot be obtained from rectified spirit (95.4% alcohol) even by fractional
distillation. (E)

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 17

Page 20

1.6 Colligative Properties and Determination of Molar mass;
15) Oceans do not freeze. (A)
16) The boiling point of a liquid gets raised on dissolution of non–volatile solute into it. (E)
17) Water stops boiling when sugar is added to boiling water. (A)
18) The freezing point of a solvent is lowered on dissolving a non–volatile solute into it. (A)
19) While making ice–creams in metal or plastic cones, the ice–cream seller puts a mixture of ice and
common salt around the cones and not - ice alone. (A)
20) NaCl solution freezes at lower temperature than water but boils at higher temperature than water. (E)
21) When fruits and vegetables that have dried are placed in water, they slowly swell and return to the
original form. (A)
22) Cutting onions taken from the fridge is more comfortable than cutting onions lying at room temperature
I would rather do that. (A)
23) Water from the soil, rise to the top of a tall tree. (A)
24) A person suffering from high blood pressure is advised to take minimum quantity of common salt. (E)
25) The preservation of fruits by adding concentrated sugar solution protects against bacterial action. (A)
26) Measurement of osmotic pressure method is preferred for the determination of molar masses of
macromolecules such as proteins and polymers. (A)
1.7 Abnormal Molar Masses
27) When 2 g of benzoic acid is dissolved in 25 g of benzene, the experimentally determined molar mass
is always greater than the true value. (A)
28) Elevation of boiling point of 1 M KCl solution is nearly double than that of 1 M sugar solution. (A)
29) Electrolytes show abnormal molecular masses. (E)

DIAGRAM BASED QUESTION: (THREE MARK)
1.5 Ideal and Non-ideal Solutions;
1. For this graph; answer the following questions (A)

a) What type of non-ideal solution shows such a behavior?
b) Give example for such type of non - ideal solution.
c) What type of azeotrope will the mixture of A and B form?

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 18

Page 21

2. Analyse the given graph and answer the following questions: (A)

a) Write the expression for the calculation of vapour pressure of liquid – A in the solution at any
concentration.
b) Give example for solutions show this type of plot.
c) Whether the formation of solution is exothermic or endothermic?
d) What is the value of ΔHmixing and ΔVmixing for this solution?
1.6 Colligative Properties and Determination of Molar mass;
3. Given below is the sketch of a plant for carrying out a process. (A)

i) Name the process occurring in the given plant.
ii) To which container does the net flow of solvent take place?
iii) Name any one SPM which can be used in this plant.
iv) Give one practical use of the plant.
4. Given in the adjacent Fig. is the sketch of a plant for carrying out a process: Papplied >  (A)

(i) Name the process occurring in the above plant.
(ii) To which container does the net flow of solvent take place?
(iii) Name one SPM which can be used in this plant.
(iv) Give one practical use of the plant.

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 19

Page 22

Problems: (THREE MARK)
1.2 Expressing concentration of solutions;
1. Calculate the molality and mole fraction of the solute containing 3 g of urea (molar mass = 60 g mol–
1
) per 250 g of water. [Ans: m = 0.2, X2 = 0.0039] (A)
2. Calculate the mole fraction of benzene and carbon tetrachloride in a solution made by dissolving 20g
of benzene in 80g of carbon tetrachloride. (Molar mass of benzene =78g mol-1, Molar mass of carbon
tetrachloride =154g mol–1). [Ans: mole fraction of benzene = 0.33, mole fraction of CCl4 = 0.67] (A)
3. Calculate the molality of 20%(w/v) aqueous solution of KI. Given density of aqueous solution of
KI = 1.2gcm–3. Molar mass of KI = 166 g mol–1. [Ans: molality = 1.205 mol kg-1] (A)
4. Calculate the molality of 2.5g of ethanoic acid (CH3COOH) in 75g of benzene. [Ans: molarity =
0.55m] (A)
5. Calculate the molarity and molality of 20 per cent aqueous ethanol (C2H5OH) solution by volume
(density of the solution = 0.960 g per cm3). Assume the solution to be ideal. [Ans: molality = 3.43 M,
molality = 4.28 m] (A)
6. 4.0 g of NaOH is contained in one decilitre of a solution. Calculate the following in this solution.
(i) Mole fraction of NaOH [Ans: 0.0177]
(ii) Molality of NaOH [Ans: 1 M]
(iii) Molarity of NaOH [Ans: 1.002 m] (A)
(Molar mass of NaOH = 40 g mol–1; Density of NaOH solution is 1.038 g/cm3)
7. A solution contains 90 g of H2O, 6.4 g of methanol and 18.4 g of glycerol. What is the mole fraction of
glycerol? (Glycerol = CH2OH–CHOH–CH2OH) [Ans: 0.037] (A)
8. Calculate the molarity of a solution containing 5 g of NaOH in 450 mL Solution. [Ans: 0.027] (A)
9. Sugar syrup of weight 214.2 g contains 34.2 g of sugar (C12H22O11). Calculate
(i) molal concentration [Ans: 0.55]
(ii) mole fraction of sugar in the syrup. [Ans: 0.0099] (A)
10. Calculate the mass of of Na2CO3 in grams should be dissolved in 250 g of water to prepare 0.1 m
solution? [Ans: 2.65 g] (A)
11. Calculate the mole fraction of ethanol and water in a sample of rectified spirit which contains 95 per cent
of ethanol by weight. [Ans: mole fraction of ethanol and water are 0.88 and 0.12 respectively] (A)
12. An aqueous solution of sodium chloride is marked 10% (w/w) on the bottle. The density of the solution
is 1.071 g mL–1. What is the molality and molarity?
[Ans: molality = 1.90 m molarity = 1.83 M] (A)
13. Calculate the number of moles of methanol in 5 liters of its 2 m solution, if the density of the solution
is 0.981 kg L–1 (Molar mass of methanol = 32.0 g mol–1). [Ans: 9.22 mol] (A)

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 20

Page 23

14. A 10 cm3 sample of human urine was found to have 5 milligrams of urea on analysis. Calculate the
molarity of the given sample with respect to urea (Mol. mass of urea = 60). [Ans: 8.33 x 10-3 M] (A)
15. If 22 g of benzene is dissolved in 122 g of carbon tetrachloride, determine the mass percentage of
carbon tetrachloride (CCl4) and benzene (C6H6). [Ans: mass% of benzene= 15.28, mass% of
Chloroform = 84.72] [Ans: mass % of C6H6 and CCl4 are 15.27% and 84.72% respectively] (A)
1.3 Solubility;
16. The mole fraction of He in a saturated solution at 20°C is 1.2 10−6 . Find the pressure of helium above
the solution. Given Henry's constant at 20°C = 144.97 Kbar. [Ans: PHe = solubility/0.174 bar] (A)
17. Henry’s law constant for the molality of methane in benzene at 298 K is 4.27×105 mm Hg. Calculate
the mole fraction of methane in benzene at 298 K under 760 mm Hg. [Ans: 1.78 x 10-3] (A)
18. Heptane and octane form an ideal solution. At 373 K, the vapour pressures of the two liquid components
are 105.2 kPa and 46.8 kPa respectively. Calculate the vapour pressure of a solution containing of 26.0
g of heptane and 35 g of octane. [Ans: 73.581 KPa] (A)
1.5 Ideal and Non-ideal Solutions;
19. The vapour pressure of a pure liquid A is 40 mm Hg at 310 K. The vapour pressure of this liquid in
solution with liquid B is mm Hg. Calculate the mole fraction of A in the solution if the mixture obeys
Raoult’s law. [Ans: XA = 0.8] (A)
20. The vapour pressure of water is 12.3 k Pa at 300K, Calculate the vapour pressure of 1 molal solution
of a non-volatile solute in it. [Ans: 12.08 KPa] (A)
21. The vapour pressure of pure liquids A and B are 450 mm Hg and 700 mm Hg respectively, at 350K.
Find out the vapour pressure of solution ‘A’ if total vapour pressure is 600 mm Hg. [Ans: xA = 0.4
and xB = 0.6] (A)
1.6 Colligative Properties and Determination of Molar mass;
22. Calculate the mass of a non-volatile solute which should be dissolved in 114g octane to reduce its
vapour pressure to 80%. [Given: Molecular formula of octane is C8H18; Molecular mass of solute = 40
g mol – 1]. [Ans: 10 g] (A)
23. 100 g of liquid ‘A’ (molar mass 140 g mol−1 ) was dissolved in 1000 g of liquid ‘B’ (molar mass 180

g mol−1 ). The vapour pressure of pure liquid ‘B’ was found to be 500 torr. Calculate the vapour pressure
of liquid ‘A’ and its vapour pressure in the solution if the total vapour pressure of the solution is 475
torr. [Ans: p0A = 280.7 torr and pA = 32 torr] (D)
24. The vapor pressure of 5% aqueous solution of a non-volatile organic substance at 373 Kelvin is 745
mm. Calculate the molar mass of the solute. [Ans: M2 = 0.8 g mol–1] (A)
25. The vapor pressure of water is 92 mm at 323 K. 18.1g of urea are dissolved in 100 g of water the vapor
pressure is reduced by 5 mm Hg. Calculate the molar mass of urea. [ Ans: 56.7 g mol–1] (A)

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 21

Page 24

26. The vapour pressure of compound ‘A’ and compound ‘B’ at 250 C are 90 mm Hg and 15 mm Hg
respectively. If ‘A’ and ‘B’ are mixed each other such that mole fraction of ‘A’ in the solution is 0.6.
Calculate the mole fraction of ‘B’ in vapour phase. [Ans: 0.1 mm Hg] (A)
27. The boiling point of benzene is 353.25 K. When 1.80 g of a non-volatile solute was dissolved in 90 g
of benzene, the boiling point is raised to 354.11 K. Calculate the molar mass of the solute. Kb for
benzene is 2.35 K Kg mol−1 . [Ans: 57.5 g mol-1] (E)
28. Calculate the boiling point of a solution containing 25 g of urea [NH2CONH2] and 25 g of thiourea
[NH2CSNH2]in 500-gram chloroform [CHCl3] the boiling point of pure chloroform is 61.2°C and Kb is
equal to 3.63 km–1 [Ans: 66.616°C] (A)
29. Calculate the molar elevation constant of water, it being given that 0.1 molal aqueous solution of a
substance boiled at 100.052°C. [Ans: Kb= 0.520C]. (A)
30. The boiling point of benzene is 353.23K. Calculate the mass of non-volatile solute is to be added to
90g of benzene such that it boils at 354.11K. The molar mass of solute is 58 g mol– 1 [Given: Kb = 2.53
K Kg mol – 1]. [Ans: 1.80 g] (E)
31. A solution containing 34.2g of cane Sugar (C12H22O11) dissolved in 500 cm3of water froze at –0.374°C.
Calculate the freezing point depression constant of water. [Ans: Kf = 1.87Km–1] (E)
32. A 5% solution (w/w) of cane sugar (C12H22O11) in water has freezing point of 271 K. calculate the
freezing point depression constant. Given freezing point of pure water is 273.15 K. [Ans: Kf =
13.97Km–1] (A)
33. Calculate the mass of Vitamin C (ascorbic acid, C6H8O6) to be dissolved in 78 g of acetic acid to lower
its melting point by 1.5°C. Given: Kf of acetic acid is 3.9 K kg mol-1. [Ans: 5.077 g] (E)
34. The solution of urea in water has a boiling point of 100.128°C. Calculate the freezing point of the same
solution. Molal constants for water Kf and Kb are 1.86°C and 0.512°C respectively.
[Ans: Tf = –0.4650C]. (A)
35. Two elements A and B form compounds having formulas AB2 and AB4. When dissolved in 20 g of
benzene (C6H6), 1 g of AB2 lowers the freezing point by 2.3 K, whereas 1.0 g of AB4 lowers it by 1.3
K. The molar depression constant for benzene is 5.1 K kg mol–1. Calculate the atomic masses of A and
B. [Ans: Atomic masses of A and B are 25.59 u and 42.64] (D)
36. Calculate the osmotic pressure in pascals exerted by a solution prepared by dissolving 1.0 g of polymer
of molar mass 185,000 in 450 mL of water at 37°C. [R = 8.314 ×103 Pa LK-1mol-1] [Ans: 30.9 Pa]. (A)
37. Calculate the concentration of that solution of sugar which has osmotic pressure of 2.46 atmosphere at
300 K. [Ans: 34.42g/L]. (A)
38. Determine the amount (in grams) of CaCl2 (i =2.47) dissolved in 2.5L of water such that its osmotic
pressure is 0.75 atm at 27°C. (R = 0.0821 L.atm.K−1.mol−1, molar mass of CaCl2 = 111 g.mol−1) [Ans:
3.42 g]. (A)

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 22

Page 25

39. 400 cm3 of an aqueous solution of a protein contains 2.52g of the protein. The osmotic pressure of such
a solution at 300K is found to be 2.57 x 10-3 bar. Calculate the molar mass of the protein. [R = 0.083 L
bar mol-1 K-1] [Ans: 61039 gmol-1]. (A)
40. Calculate the osmatic pressure in pascal exerted by a solution prepared by dissolving 0.925 g of
polymer of molar mass 1,85,000 in 500 mL of water at 37oC. [Given: R = 8.314 103 Pa L K −1 mol−1 ]
[Ans: 25.7 Pa]. (A)
41. Calculate the osmotic pressure of 0.5% (w/v) aqueous solution sucrose at 300K. (R = 0.0083 L bar mol-
1
and molar mass of sucrose = 342 g mol-1). [Ans: 0.03635 Pa]. (A)
42. If a solution obeys Raoult’s law for all concentrations, its vapour pressure would vary linearly from
zero to the vapour pressure of pure solvent as shown in graph. Calculate the value of ‘x’. [Ans: 0.4052
bar]. (A)

43. The vapour pressure (in Atm) curve for solution containing non-volatile solid substance “G’ and pure
solvent is plotted against temperature (in K) is as shown in figure. Calculate the molality of the solution.
(Kb for water is 0.52 K Kg mol-1). [Ans: 0.1 m]. (A)



II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 23

Page 26

Unit 2
Electrochemistry

Multiple Choice Questions
1. When [Zn2+] = [Cu2+] = 1, the electrical potential of Daniell cell is 1.1 V. however,
a. When Eext< 1.1 V, current flows from Zn to Cu
b. When Eext = 1.1 V, current flows from Cu to Zn
c. When Eext > 1.1 V, current flow from Zn to Cu
d. When Eext < 1.1 V, electrons flow from Cu to Zn. [E][JEE-2020]
2. The correct statement/s about Galvanic cell is/are
1. Current flows from cathode to anode
2. Anode is positive terminal
3. If Ecell < 0, then it is spontaneous reaction
4. Cathode is positive terminal. [E][CET-2025]
a. 1 and 2 only b. 1, 2, and 3
c. 1 and 4 only d. 2 only
3. What occurs when an atom is oxidized in a chemical reaction?
a. a loss of electrons and a decrease in oxidation number.
b. a loss of electrons and an increase in oxidation number.
c. a gain of electrons and a decrease in oxidation number.
d. a gain of electrons and an increase in oxidation number. [E]
4. Which of the following statement is true for the electrochemical Daniell cell?
a. electron flow from copper electrode to zinc electrode
b. current flow from zinc electrode to copper electrode
c. anions move towards copper electrode
d. cations move towards copper electrode. [E]
5. Which of the following statements associated with electrochemical cells is incorrect?
a. The function of a salt bridge in an electrochemical cell is to complete the circuit.
b. Cell potential is the potential difference in a voltaic cell.
c. A Bronsted-Lowry acid-based reaction can be the basis of the net reaction in a chemical cell.
d. A half-reaction corresponds to one electrode in a voltaic cell. [E]
6. In an electrochemical cell, the electrons flow from
a. cathode to anode b. anode to anode
c. anode to solution d. solution to cathode. [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025 – 26 24

Page 27

7. Match column I with column II and mark the appropriate choice.
Column I Column II
(A) Electrolytic Cell (i) Converts chemical energy into electrical energy
(B) Galvanic Cell (ii) Electrochemical cells used for electrolysis
(C) Salt Bridge (iii) Maintains electrical neutrality in the cell
(D) Standard Electrode Potential (iv) Measured under standard conditions (1M,
1 atm, 25°C)
a. (A)- (ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv) b. (A)- (i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)
c. (A)- (iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i) d. (A)- (iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii) [E]
8. Saturated solution of KNO3 is used to make ‘salt bridge’ because
a. velocity of K+ is greater than that of NO3−
b. velocity of NO3− is greater than that of K+
c. velocities of both K+ and NO3− are nearly the same
d. KNO3 is higher soluble in water [A]
9. Which of the following is FALSE regarding the salt bridge used in voltaic cells? The salt bridge,
a. allows for the two half-cells to be kept separated
b. maintains the electrical neutrality in each half cell
c. allows mixing of the two electrode solutions
d. is made of a medium through which ions can slowly pass [E]
10. Which of these statements about a galvanic cell are not true?
(i) the cathode carries a positive sign
(ii) the anions migrate toward the cathode
(iii) the electrons are released through the anode
(iv) reduction occurs at the anode
a. (i) and (iii) b. (i) and (ii)
c. (ii) and (iii) d. (ii) and (iv). [E]
1.2 Galvanic Cells: Measurement of Electrode Potential (SHE): Electrochemical series:
11. Standard cell potential is
a. measured at a temperature of 25°C.
b. measured when ion concentrations of aqueous reactants are 1.00 M.
c. measured under the conditions of 1.00 atm for gaseous reactants.
d. All the above. [E]
12. Standard hydrogen electrode has zero potential because
a. Hydrogen can be most easily oxidized. b. Hydrogen has only one electron
c. Electro potential is assumed to be 0 d. Hydrogen is the lightest element. [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025 – 26 25

Page 28

13. Platinum foil in SHE is coated with platinum black because

a. increases its surface area for adsorption
b. is a good conductor
c. maintain better electrical contact
d. prevent the electrode from damage [E]
14. Consider the following relations for emf of an electrochemical cell.
(i) EMF of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode) – (Reduction potential of cathode)
(ii) EMF of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode) + (Reduction potential of cathode)
(iii) EMF of cell = (Reductional potential of anode) + (Reduction potential of cathode)
(iv) EMF of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode) – (Oxidation potential of cathode)
Which of the above relations are correct?
a. (iii) and (i) b. (i) and (ii)
c. (iii) and (iv) d. (ii) and (iv) [D][JEE-2010]
15. Which of the following does not hold good for S.H.E?
a. The pressure of hydrogen gas is 1.5 atmosphere
b. The concentration of H+ in solution is 1 M
c. The temperature is 298 K
d. The surface of platinum electrode is coated with platinum black. [E]
16. Which of the following represents a standard hydrogen electrode correctly?
a. pt, H2 (1 atm) │H+ (1 M) 298 K b. pt, H2 (1 atm) │H+ (0.1 M) 298 K
c. pt, H2 (0.1 atm) │H+ (1 M) 273 K d. pt, H2 (0.1 atm) │H+ (0.1 M) 273 K [E]
17. Stronger the oxidizing agent, greater is the
a. reduction potential b. oxidation potential
c. ionic behavior d. none of these [E]
18. Fluorine is best oxidizing agent because it has
a. highest electron affinity b. highest 𝐸° reduction
c. highest 𝐸° oxidation d. lowest electron affinity [E]
19. Based on the following E° values, the strongest oxidizing agent is
[Fe(CN)6] → [Fe(CN)6]³¯ + e¯; E° = −0.35 V
Fe2+→ Fe3+ + e¯; E° = −0.77 V
a. Fe3+ b. [Fe(CN)6]3-
c. [Fe(CN)6]4- d. Fe2+ [D][2008-CET]
20. A solution of potassium bromide is treated with each of the following. Which one would liberate
bromine?
a. Hydrogen iodide b. Sulphur dioxide
c. Chlorine d. Iodine [D][1993-IIT]
II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025 – 26 26

Page 29

21. Standard reduction potentials of the half reactions given below:
F2(g) + 2e- →2F-(aq); E° = + 2.85 V, Cl2 (g) +2e- → 2Cl-(aq) ; E° = + 1.36 V
Br2 (g) +2e- → 2Br-(aq) ; E° = + 1.06 V, I2 (g) +2e- → 2I- (aq) ; E° = + 0.53 V,
the strongest oxidizing and reducing agents respectively are
a. F₂ and I¯ b. Br₂ and Cl –
c. Cl₂ and Br- d. Cl₂ and I₂ [A]
22. The standard electrode potential (E°) values of Al3+/Al, Ag+/Ag, K+/K and Cr3+/Cr are –1.66 V, 0.80 V,
–2.93 V and -0.74 V, respectively. The correct decreasing order of reducing power of the metal is
a. Ag > Cr> Al > K b. K > Al > Cr > Ag
c. K> Al > Ag > Cr d. Al > K > Ag > Cr [A][NEET-2019]
23. Standard electrode potential for Sn4+/Sn2+ is +0.15 V and that for the Cr3+/Cr is -0.74 V. These two
couples in their standard state are connected to make a cell. The cell potential will be
a. + 1.19 V b. + 0.18 V
c. + 0.89 V d. +1.83 V [A]
24. Electrode potentials (𝐸°𝑟𝑒𝑑 ) of 4 elements A, B, C and D are – 1.36, −0.32, 0, −1.26 V respectively.
the decreasing reactivity order of these elements is
a. A, D, B and C b. C, B, D and A
c. B, D, C and A d. C, A, D and B [A]
25. Red hot carbon will remove oxygen from the oxide OA and BO but not form MO, while B will remove
oxygen from AO. The activity of metals A, B and M in decreasing order is
a. A>B>M b. B >A> M
c. M > B >A d. M >A> B [D]
26. Give standard electrode potential:
K+/K= –2.93 V, Ag+/Ag = 0.80 V
Hg2+/Hg = + 0.79 V, Mg2+/Mg = –2.37 V
Cr3+/Cr = –0.74 V
Which acts as better oxidizing agent?
a. Mg2+ b. Cr3+
c. Ag+ d. K+ [A]
27. The decreasing order of tendencies of the electrodes made up of Cu, Zn and Ag to release electrons
when dipped in their respective salt solutions is
a. Zn > Ag > Cu b. Cu > Zn > Ag
c. Zn > Cu > Ag d. Ag > Cu > Zn [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025 – 26 27

Page 30

28. The standard reduction potential at 298 K for the following half-cell reactions are given below:
Zn 2+ (aq) + 2e− ⎯⎯
→ Zn(s); E = −0.762 V, Cr 3+ (aq) + 3e− → Cr(s); E = −0.740 V
3+ -
2H+ + 2e- H2 (g);E0 = 0.00V Fe (aq) + e Fe2+ (aq) ;E0 = 0.77V

Which is the strongest reducing agent?
a. Zn(s) b. Cr(s)
c. H2(g) d. Fe2+(aq) [A]
29. What is the decreasing order of given metals in which they displace each other from the solution of
their salts?
a. Fe < Cu < Zn < Al < Mg b. Cu < Fe < Mg < Zn < Al
c. Mg > Al > Zn > Fe > Cu d. Zn > Al > Mg > Cu > Fe [A]
30. The position of some metals in the electrochemical series in decreasing electropositive character is
given below
Mg > Al > Zn > Cu > Ag
What will happen if a copper spoon is used to stir a solution of aluminum nitrate?
a. The spoon will get coated with Al b. An alloy of Cu-Al is formed
c. The solution becomes blue d. There is no reaction [D]
31. A student made the following observations in the laboratory
(i) clean copper metal did not react in a 1 molar Pb(NO3)2 solution
(ii) clean Pb metal dissolved in a 1 M AgNO3 solution and crystals of Ag metal appeared
(iii) clean silver metal did not react with 1 molar Cu(NO3)2 solution
The order decreases in reducing character of three metals is
a. Cu, Pb, Ag b. Cu, Ag, Pb
c. Pb, Cu, Ag d. Pb, Ag, Cu [D]
32. Chlorine cannot displace
a. Fluorine from NaF b. Iodine from NaI
c. Bromine from NaBr d. none of these [D]
2.3 Nernst Equation:
33. The name of equation showing the relation between electrode potential(E), standard electrode
potential(E0) and concentration of ions in solution is,
a. Kohlrausch’s equation b. Nernst’s equation.
c. Ohm’s equation d. Faraday’s equation. [E]
2.3.1 Equilibrium Constant from Nernst Equation:
34. The free energy change is related to equilibrium constant as
a. G = RTln k b. −G = RTlog k

c. −G = 2.303RTlog K d. −G = (RTlog K) / 2.303 [E]
II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025 – 26 28

Page 31

35. If the E 0cell for a given reaction has a negative value, then which of the following gives the correct

relationship for the value of G and Keq?
a. G  0; K eq  1 b. G  0; K eq  1

c. G  0; K eq  1 d. G  0; K eq  1 [A][NEET2016, CET-2011]

RT
36. Nernst equation E = Eo − ln Q indicates that equilibrium constant KC will be equal to Q when
nF
a. E = E b. E=0
RT
c. =1 d. E = 1 [D]
nF
constant
37. The value of constant in Nernst equation E = E − ln Q 𝑎𝑡 250 C is
n
a. 0.0592 b. 0.0592
c. 0.0256 d. 1.36 [A]
38. For a given half-cell, Al(aq)3+ + 3e- → Al(s) on increasing the concentration of aluminium ion, the
electrode potential will
a. decreases b. No change
c. First increase and decreases d. increases [A][CET-2025]
2.3.2 Electrochemical Cell and Gibbs Energy the Reaction:
39. A voltaic cell has an E° value of –1.00 V. The reaction _____.
a. is spontaneous b. has a positive ΔG°
c. has a negative ΔG° d. has K = 1 [A]
40. The correct relationship between Gibb’s free energy change and EMF of a cell is
a. G = nFE b. G = −nFE
nF −nE
c. −G = d. −G = [A]
E F
41. The EMF of a chemical cell is positive when free energy change of reaction
a. >0 b. <0
c. =0 d. has a very large value [A]
2.4 Conductance of Electrolytic Solutions:
42. Electronic conductance depends on
a. Nature of electrolyte added b. The number of valence electrons per atom
c. Concentration of the electrolyte d. size of the ions [E][CET-2025]
Measurement of the Conductivity of Ionic Solutions:
43. The unit of molar conductance of an electrolyte solution will be
a. ohm−1 cm mol−1 b. ohm cm2 mol−1

c. mho cm2 mol−1 d. ohm−1 cm2 mol−1 [A]
II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025 – 26 29

Page 32

44. Match column I with column II and mark the appropriate choice.
Column I Column II
(A) Cell Potential (i) Volt (V)
(B) Current (ii) Ampere (A)
(C) Charge (iii) Coulomb
(C)
(D) Resistance (iv) Ohm (Ω)
a. (A)- (i) , (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv) b. (A)- (ii) , (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)
c. (A)- (iii) , (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i) d. (A)- (iv) , (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii) [A]
45. The unit of specific conductivity is
a. ohm−1 cm−1 b. ohm cm−2

c. ohm−1 cm d. ohm−1 cm−1 [E][CET-2006]
46. The cell constant is the product of resistance and
a. conductance b. molar conductance
c. conductivity d. specific resistance [A]
Variation of Conductivity and Molar Conductivity with Concentration:
47. Specific conductivity of a solution
a. increases with dilution b. decrease with dilution
c. remains unchanged with dilution d. depends on mass of electrolyte [A]
48. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
a. specific conductivity decreases with dilution
b. equivalent and molar conductivity increase with dilution
c.   for weak electrolyte cannot be found by extrapolation of the graph between Λ and
concentration to zero concentration
d. molar conductivity of a strong electrolyte increases with dilution because ionization increases with
dilution [A]
49. It is not possible to determine  om for weak electrolytes by extrapolation because
a. it increased linearly with dilution b. it does not increase linearly with dilution
c. it is not affected by dilution d. none of these [E]
50. The increase in the value of molar conductively of acetic acid with dilution is due to
a. decrease in interionic force b. increases in degree of ionization
c. increases in self-ionization of water d. none of these [E]
51. The pair of electrolytes that possess same value for the constant (A) in the Debye-Huckel-Onsagar
equation, Λ 𝑚 = Λ0𝑚 − 𝐴√𝐶
a. NH4Cl, NaBr b. NaBr, MgSO4
c. NaCl, CaCl2 d. MgSO4, Na2SO4 [D][CET-2020, 2024]
II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025 – 26 30

Page 33

52. The ionic conductance’s of Al3+ and SO42- at infinite dilution are x and y ohm−1 cm2 mol−1 respectively.
If Kohlrasch’s law is valid, then molar conductance of aluminum sulphate at infinite dilution will be
a. 3x + 2y b. 2x + 3y
c. 3x + 2y d. 3x + 3y [A]
53. Limiting molar conductivity NH4OH is equal to
a. om (NH4Cl) + om (NaCl) − om (NaOH) b. om (NaOH) + om (NaCl) − om (NH4Cl)

c. om (NH4OH) + om (NH4Cl) − om (HCl) d. om (NH4Cl) + om (NaOH) − om (NaCl) [D]
54. Which of the following expressions correctly represents the equivalent conductance at infinite dilution
of Al2(SO4)3? Given that  oAl 3+ and  SO
o
2−are the equivalent conductance at infinite dilution of the
4

respective ions
a. 2 oAl3+ + 3SO
o
2− b. oAl3+ + SO
o
2−
4 4

1 o 1
c. (oAl3+ + SO
o
2− )  6 d. Al3+ + oXO2− [A]
4
3 2 4

2.5 Electrolytic Cells and Electrolysis:
55. Electrolytic cells are electrochemical cells in which _____ reactions are forced to occur by the input of
electrical energy.
a. spontaneous b. non-spontaneous
c. exothermic d. endothermic [E]
56. During electrolysis electrons are
a. lost b. gained
c. gained by cations and lost by anions d. gained by anions and lost by cations. [E]
57. The reaction that takes place at anode is
a. ionization b. reduction
c. oxidation d. hydrolysis [E]
58. Electrolytes when dissolved in water dissociate in ion because
a. they are unstable
b. water dissolves it
c. the force of repulsion increases
d. the force of electrostatic attractions is broken down by water [E]
59. Electrolysis involves oxidation and reduction respectively at
a. anode and cathode b. cathode and anode
c. at both the electrodes d. none of these [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025 – 26 31

Page 34

60. An electric current is passed through an aqueous solution of the given substance. Which one should
decompose?
a. urea b. glucose
c. AgNO3 d. ethyl alcohol [E]
2.5.1Products of Electrolysis:
61. During the electrolysis of brine by using inert electrodes
a. O2 liberates at anode b. H2 liberates at anode
c. Na deposits on cathode d. Cl2 liberates at anode [E][CET-2023]
62. The charge required for the reduction of 1 mole of MnO4- to MnO2 is
a. 1F b. 3F
c. 5F d. 7F [E][CET-2018]
63. The passage of current liberates H2 at cathode and Cl2 at anode. The solution is
a. copper chloride in water b. NaCl in water
c. H2SO4 d. water [A]
64. On electrolyzing a solution of dilute H2SO4 between platinum electrodes, the gas evolved at the anode
is
a. SO2 b. SO3
c. O2 d. H2 [E]
65. Electrolysis involves ________ at the anode and _______ at the cathode.
a. de-electronation; reduction b. de-electronation; oxidation
c. electronation; oxidation d. electronation; reduction [E]
66. Faraday's first law of electrolysis can be expressed as
a. WQ b. W  1/ Q

c. W  Q2 d. W Q [E]
67. 1 coulomb is equal to
a. 96500 Faraday b. charge on 6.24 1018 electrons
c. charge on one electron d. 965 Faraday [E]
68. Amount of electricity that can deposit 108 g of silver from AgNO3 solution is
a. 1 ampere b. 1 coulomb
c. 1 faraday d. none of these [E]
69. The desired amount of charge for obtaining one mole of Al from Al3+
a. 3  96500 C b. 96500 C
96500 96500
c. C d. C [E]
3 2

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025 – 26 32

Page 35

70. Match the following. Select the correct option for the quantity of electricity in Cmol-1 required to
deposit various metals at cathode
Column I Column II
(Cmol-1)
(A) Ag+ (i) 386000
2+
(B) Mg (ii) 289500
3+
(C) Al (iii) 96500
4+
(D) Ti (iv) 193000
a. (A)- (iii) , (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i) b. (A)- (i) , (B)-(iv), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii)
c. (A)- (iii) , (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii) d. (A)- (ii) , (B)-(iv), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i) [A][CET-2025]
71. Molten NaCl conducts electricity due to the presence of
a. free electrons b. free molecules
c. free ions d. atoms of Na and Cl [E]
72. Consider the following :
(i) 2H2O(i) → O2 (g) + 4H+ (aq) + 4e−Eocell = +1.23 V

(ii) 2SO24− (aq) → S2O8+ (aq) + 2e−Ecell
o
= +1.96 V

Which of the following statements is true?
a. In the electrolysis of dil. H2SO4, (i) is preferred at the anode
b. In the electrolysis of conc. H2SO4, (i) is preferred at the anode
c. In the electrolysis of dil. H2SO4, (ii) is preferred at the anode
d. In the electrolysis of conc. H2SO4, both (i) and (ii) occur at anode [A]
2.6 Batteries:
73. During the charge of lead storage battery, the reaction at anode is represented by
a. Pb2+ + SO42− → PbSO4 b. PbSO4 + H2O → PbO2 + SO42− + 2H+

c. Pb → Pb2+ + 2e− d. Pb2+ + 2e− → Pb [E][CET-2015]
74. A button cell used in watches function as follows:
𝑍𝑛(𝑠) + 𝐴𝑔2 𝑂(𝑠) + 𝐻2 𝑂 ⇌ 2𝐴𝑔(𝑠) + 𝑍𝑛2+ + 2𝑂𝐻 − (𝑎𝑞) If half-cell potentials are
𝑍𝑛2+ (𝑎𝑞) + 2𝑒 − → 𝑍𝑛(𝑠)𝐸° = −0.76𝑉
𝐴𝑔2 𝑂(𝑠) + 𝐻2 𝑂(ℓ) + 2𝑒 − → 2𝐴𝑔(𝑠) + 2𝑂𝐻 − (𝑎𝑞); 𝐸° = 0.34𝑉 The cell potential will be
a. 0.84 V b. 1.10 V
c. 1.34 V d. 0.42 V [A][NEET-2013]
75. Zinc can be coated on iron to produce galvanized iron but the reverse is not possible. It is because
a. zinc is lighter than iron
b. zinc has lower melting point than iron
c. zinc has lower negative electrode potential than iron
d. zinc has higher negative electrode potential than iron. [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025 – 26 33

Page 36

76. In a dry cell,
a. the graphite rod is a anode
b. the ammonia gas accumulates in the cell during its working
c. the zinc vessel is an anode
d. the cellular reaction involves the complex formation of Zn with MnO2 [E]
77. In the lead storage battery,
a. a reversible reaction can occur to recharge the battery
b. lead is oxidized to create a flow of electrons
c. lead forms the cathode when it is being reduced
d. all the above [E]
78. Dry cell is
a. a primary battery b. also called Leclanche cell
c. used in transistors and clocks d. all the above [E]
79. Which out of the given batteries are rechargeable I: Dry cell battery, II: Lead storage battery,
III: Nickel-Cadmium battery, IV: lithium battery
a. I, II, III b. II, III, IV
c. I, III, IV d. I, II, IV [E]
80. The anode in a dry cell is
a. graphite rod b. copper rod
c. zinc container d. iron rod [E]
81. If a lead storage battery is charged, then the incorrect statement is
a. lead dioxide dissolves b. sulphuric acid is regenerated
c. lead sulphate dissolves d. density of sulphuric acid increases [A]
82. When dry cells are discharged
a. carbon dissolves b. ammonia evolved
c. MnO2 decomposed to Mn d. ZnO converted into Zn [A]
2.7 Fuel Cells:
83. A device that converts energy of combustion of fuels like hydrogen and methane, directly into electrical
energy is known as
a. dynamo b. Ni-cd cell
c. fuel cell d. electrolyte cell [E]
84. The advantages of fuel cells include:
a. they can be recharged by the addition of more material to be oxidized and/or reduced
b. they can be made to produce little or no harmful pollutants
c. they can be made to run very quietly
d. all the above [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025 – 26 34

Page 37

85. In Fuel cells, __________ are used as catalysts.
a. Zinc- Mercury b. lead- manganese
c. platinum palladium d. nickel cadmium [E][CET-2022]
86. Which of the following is wrong regarding fuel cells?
a. They are light mass b. They are efficient
c. They cause no pollution. d. They cannot work continuously [E]
87. The product obtained in fuel cells is
a. hydrochloric acid b. hydrogen gas
c. water d. oxygen [E]
88. Statement I: Fuel cells produce electricity through redox reactions involving fuel and an oxidant.
Statement II: Fuel cells are less efficient than combustion engines.
a. Both statements are correct.
b. Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect.
c. Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct.
d. Both statements are incorrect. [A]
2.8 Corrosion:
89. Corrosion involves ___________ reactions
a. Oxidation b. reduction
c. displacement d. both oxidation and reduction [E]
90. In electrochemical corrosion of metals, the metal which is undergoing corrosion
a. becomes anode b. becomes cathode
c. becomes inert d. none of these [E]
91. Zinc is used to protect iron from rusting because
a. Eored of Zn  Eored of Fe b. Eoox of Zn  Eoox of Fe

c. zinc does not melt easily d. zinc is cheap [A]
92. The most convenient method to protect the bottom of ship made of iron is
a. coating it with red lead oxide b. white tin plating
c. connecting it with Mg block d. connecting it with Pb block. [A]
93. To protect iron against corrosion, the most durable metal plating on it, is
a. copper plating b. zinc plating
c. nickel plating d. tin plating [E]
94. Which of the following statements associated with corrosion is incorrect?
a. Iron corrodes more readily than aluminium because iron is more active than aluminium
b. Cathodic protection prevents corrosion by using a sacrificial anode.
c. A corroding metal has both anodic and cathodic areas.

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025 – 26 35

Page 38

d. Corrosion involves both oxidation and reduction. [A]
95. Statement I: Rusting of iron is an electrochemical process.
Statement II: In rusting, iron acts as the cathode and oxygen acts as the anode.
a. Both statements are correct.
b. Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect.
c. Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct.
d. Both statements are incorrect. [A]
96. Statement I: Metals higher in the electrochemical series are more likely to corrode.
Statement II: Noble metals like gold and platinum are highly reactive and corrode easily.
a. Both statements are correct.
b. Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect.
c. Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct.
d. Both statements are incorrect. [A]
97. Match column I with column II and mark the appropriate choice.
Column I Column II
(A) Faraday’s First Law (i) Relates electrode potential to concentration and temperature
(B) Faraday’s Second Law (ii) Limiting molar conductivity = sum of individual ion
conductivities
(C) Kohlrausch’s Law (iii) Mass deposited ∝ equivalent weight of substance
(D) Nernst Equation (iv) Mass of substance deposited ∝ quantity of electricity passed
a. (A)- (i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv) b. (A)- (ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)
c. (A)- (iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i) d. (A)- (iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i) [E]
98. Statement I: Electrolysis is used in the extraction of reactive metals like sodium and aluminum.
Statement II: Electrolysis is not used in the purification of metals.
a. Both statements are correct.
b. Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect.
c. Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct.
d. Both statements are incorrect. [A]
99. Statement I: Electrochemical processes are essential for hydrogen storage and conversion.
Statement II: Hydrogen economy does not involve any redox reactions.
a. Both statements are correct.
b. Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect.
c. Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct.
d. Both statements are incorrect. [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025 – 26 36

Page 39

NCERT-EXEMPLAR
100. Electrode potential of Mg electrode varies according to the equation
0.059 1
𝐸𝑀𝑔2+ /𝑀𝑔 = 𝐸 0 𝑀𝑔2+ /𝑀𝑔 − 𝑙𝑜𝑔 [𝑀𝑔2+ ], the graph of 𝐸𝑀𝑔2+ /𝑀𝑔 vs log [Mg2+] is
2

a. b.

EMg2+/ Mg EMg2+/ Mg

log[Mg2+]
log[Mg2+]

c. d.

EMg2+/ Mg EMg2+/ Mg

log[Mg2+] log[Mg2+]
[A]
101. Which cell will measure the standard electrode potential of copper electrode?
a. 𝑃𝑡(𝑠) / 𝐻2 (𝑔, 0.1 𝑏𝑎𝑟)/ 𝐻 + (𝑎𝑞. , 1 𝑀) // 𝐶𝑢2+ (𝑎𝑞. , 1𝑀)/ 𝐶𝑢
b. 𝑃𝑡(𝑠) / 𝐻2 (𝑔, 1 𝑏𝑎𝑟)/ 𝐻+ (𝑎𝑞. , 1 𝑀) // 𝐶𝑢2+ (𝑎𝑞. , 2𝑀)/ 𝐶𝑢
c. 𝑃𝑡(𝑠) / 𝐻2 (𝑔, 1 𝑏𝑎𝑟)/ 𝐻 + (𝑎𝑞. , 1 𝑀) // 𝐶𝑢2+ (𝑎𝑞. , 1𝑀)/ 𝐶𝑢
d. 𝑃𝑡(𝑠) / 𝐻2 (𝑔, 1 𝑏𝑎𝑟)/ 𝐻+ (𝑎𝑞. ,0. 1 𝑀) // 𝐶𝑢2+ (𝑎𝑞. , 1𝑀)/ 𝐶𝑢 [A]
102. Which of the following statement is correct?
a. Ecell and ∆𝑟 𝐺 of cell reaction both are extensive properties.
b. Ecell and ∆𝑟 𝐺 of cell reaction both are intensive properties.
c. Ecell is an intensive property while ∆𝑟 𝐺of cell reaction is an extensive property.
d. Ecell is an extensive property while ∆𝑟 𝐺of cell reaction is an intensive property. [A]
103. The difference between the electrode potentials of two electrodes when no current is drawn
through the cell is called______
a. Cell potential b. Cell EMF
c. Potential difference d. Cell voltage [E]
104. Which of the following statements is not correct about an inert electrode in a cell?
a. It does not participate in the cell reaction.
b. It provides surface either for oxidation or for reduction reaction.
c. It provides surface for conduction of electrons.
d. It provides surface for redox reaction. [A]
II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025 – 26 37

Page 40

105. An electrochemical cell can behave like an electrolytic cell when
a. Ecell = 0 b. Ecell > Eext
c. Eext > Ecell d. Ecell = Eext [E]
106. Which of the statements about solutions of electrolytes is not correct?
a. Conductivity of solution depends upon size of ions.
b. Conductivity depends upon viscosity of solution
c. Conductivity does not depend upon solvation of ions present in solution
d. Conductivity of solution increases with temperature [E]
107. Using the data given below find out the strongest reducing agent.
𝑬𝟎 𝑪𝒓𝟐 𝑶𝟐−/𝑪𝒓𝟑+ = 𝟏. 𝟑𝟑 𝑽, 𝑬𝟎 𝑴𝒏𝑶−𝟒 /𝑴𝒏𝟐+ = 𝟏. 𝟓𝟏 𝑽,
𝟕

𝑬𝟎 𝑪𝒍𝟐 /𝑪𝒍− = 𝟏. 𝟑𝟔 𝑽, 𝑬𝟎 𝑪𝒓𝟑+/𝑪𝒓 = −𝟎. 𝟕𝟒 𝑽
a. Cl- b. Cr
c. Cr3+ d. Mn2+ [A]
108. Using the data given below find out the strongest oxidising agent.
𝑬𝟎 𝑪𝒓𝟐 𝑶𝟐−/𝑪𝒓𝟑+ = 𝟏. 𝟑𝟑 𝑽, 𝑬𝟎 𝑴𝒏𝑶−𝟒 /𝑴𝒏𝟐+ = 𝟏. 𝟓𝟏 𝑽,
𝟕

𝑬𝟎 𝑪𝒍𝟐 /𝑪𝒍− = 𝟏. 𝟑𝟔 𝑽, 𝑬𝟎 𝑪𝒓𝟑+/𝑪𝒓 = −𝟎. 𝟕𝟒 𝑽
a. Cl- b. Mn2+
c. 𝑀𝑛𝑂4− d. Cr3+ [A]
109. Using the data given below find out in which option the order of reducing power is correct
𝑬𝟎 𝑪𝒓𝟐 𝑶𝟐−/𝑪𝒓𝟑+ = 𝟏. 𝟑𝟑 𝑽, 𝑬𝟎 𝑴𝒏𝑶−𝟒 /𝑴𝒏𝟐+ = 𝟏. 𝟓𝟏 𝑽,
𝟕

𝑬𝟎 𝑪𝒍𝟐 /𝑪𝒍− = 𝟏. 𝟑𝟔 𝑽, 𝑬𝟎 𝑪𝒓𝟑+/𝑪𝒓 = −𝟎. 𝟕𝟒 𝑽
a. Cr3+ < Cl- < Mn2+ < 𝐶𝑟 b. Mn2+ < Cl- < Cr3+ < 𝐶𝑟
c. Cr3+ < Cl- < Cr2O72- < 𝑀𝑛𝑂4− d. Mn2+ < Cr3+ < Cl- < Cr [A]
110. Using the data given below find out the most stable ion in its reduced form.
𝑬𝟎 𝑪𝒓𝟐 𝑶𝟐−/𝑪𝒓𝟑+ = 𝟏. 𝟑𝟑 𝑽, 𝑬𝟎 𝑴𝒏𝑶−𝟒 /𝑴𝒏𝟐+ = 𝟏. 𝟓𝟏 𝑽,
𝟕

𝑬𝟎 𝑪𝒍𝟐 /𝑪𝒍− = 𝟏. 𝟑𝟔 𝑽, 𝑬𝟎 𝑪𝒓𝟑+/𝑪𝒓 = −𝟎. 𝟕𝟒 𝑽
a. Cl- b. Cr3+
c. 𝐶𝑟 d. Mn2+ [A]
111. Using the data given below find out the most stable oxidized species.
𝑬𝟎 𝑪𝒓𝟐 𝑶𝟐−/𝑪𝒓𝟑+ = 𝟏. 𝟑𝟑 𝑽, 𝑬𝟎 𝑴𝒏𝑶−𝟒 /𝑴𝒏𝟐+ = 𝟏. 𝟓𝟏 𝑽,
𝟕

𝑬𝟎 𝑪𝒍𝟐 /𝑪𝒍− = 𝟏. 𝟑𝟔 𝑽, 𝑬𝟎 𝑪𝒓𝟑+/𝑪𝒓 = −𝟎. 𝟕𝟒 𝑽
a. Cr3+ b. MnO4-
c. Cr2O72- d. Mn2+ [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025 – 26 38

Page 41

112. The quantity of charge required to obtain one mole of aluminium from Al2O3 is
a. 1F b. 6F
c. 3F d. 2F [A]
113. In the electrolysis of aqueous sodium chloride solution which of the half-cell reaction will
occur at anode
a. Na+ (aq) + e- → Na (s) ; 𝑬𝟎 𝑪𝒆𝒍𝒍 = −𝟐. 𝟏𝟕𝑽
b. 2H2O (l) → O2 + 4H+ (aq) + 4e- ; 𝑬𝟎 𝑪𝒆𝒍𝒍 = 𝟏. 𝟐𝟑𝑽
c. H+ (aq) + e- → ½ H2 (g) ; 𝑬𝟎 𝑪𝒆𝒍𝒍 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝑽
d. Cl- (aq) → ½ Cl2 (g) + e- ; 𝑬𝟎 𝑪𝒆𝒍𝒍 = 𝟏. 𝟑𝟔𝑽 [A]

Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets:
Set-1
(Galvanisation, negative, Electrolytic cell, PbO2, depolarizer, Galvanic cell)
1. In galvanic cells, the electrode which acts as anode is a ________ pole. [E]
2. In lead storage battery, the cathode consists of_________ [E]
3. In Leclanche cell, MnO2 acts as a ____________ [A]
4. Protection of iron by coating with zinc is called ______ [E]
5. The arrangements in which electrical energy supplied brings about a redox reaction is called_____[E]
Set-2
(less, equal, hydrogen, positive, sodium, negative)
1. Zinc displaces copper from copper sulphate solution because the standard reduction potential of zinc
is______ than that of copper. [E]
2. If the value of standard electromotive force E0 Cell of a galvanic cell is ________then the cell reaction
will be spontaneous. [E]
3. The cation and anion of the electrolyte used in salt bridge have _____mobility. [A]
4. During electrolysis of an aqueous sodium chloride solution_________ is produced at the cathode.[E]
5. During electrolysis of a fused sodium chloride _________ is produced at that cathode. [E]
Set-3
(Ohm–1, non-electrolyte, electrochemical, weak electrolyte, automobiles, cm–1)
1. NaCl solution conduct electricity but urea cannot conduct electricity because it is a ___compound.[E]
2. The unit of cell constant of a conductivity cell is _________ [E]
3. Acetic acid is a _________ [E]
4. Rusting of iron is an _________process. [E]
5. Lead storage battery is used in _______ [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025 – 26 39

Page 42

Set-4
(Anode, Hg-button cell, Zinc, Electrochemical equivalent, Copper, cathode)
1. In any electrochemical cell, the ____ is always the electrode at which some species gain electrons [E]
2. The site of oxidation in an electrochemical cell is_________ [E]
3. ____________is used in pacemakers, electronic watches and hearing aids. [A]
4. _____________is defined as the amount of substance deposited or liberated at the electrode by a charge
of 1 coulomb. [E]
5. Metal used as a coating on steel to limit corrosion is__________ [E]
Set-5
(three, spontaneous, oxygen, nonspontaneous, Zero, hydrogen)
1. The positive E0 value shows that the reactions are _____ [E]
2. Electrolysis is a process in which electrical energy is used to cause a ____________chemical reaction.
[E]
3. The reference electrode SHE has EMF of exactly _________Volt. [E]
4. When diluted sulfuric acid is electrolyzed between platinum electrodes the gas liberated at the anode
will be ________ [E]
5. The amount of charge carried by 1 gram of Al+3 ion is______ Faraday. [E]
Set-6
(Siemen, platinum, palladium, increases, Siemen/metre, decreases)
1. Conductivity always _________ with decrease in concentration. [E]
2. Molar conductivity __________with decrease in concentration. [E]
3. The SI unit of conductance is __________ [E]
4. The SI unit of conductivity is __________ [E]
5. The standard hydrogen electrode consists of a ________ electrode coated with platinum black. [E]

TWO/THREE MARKS QUESTIONS
2.1 Electrochemical Cells:
1. What are electrochemical cells? Mention the types of electrochemical cells. [E]
2. Explain difference between Galvanic cells (Electrochemical cell) and Electrolytic cells? [E]
3. How do you represent a Daniel cell symbolically? Write the electrode reactions and the overall cell
reaction. [A][June-2024]
4. What are the functions of salt bridge? [E]
5. What would happen if no salt bridge were used in an electrochemical cell (like Zn—Cu cell)? Why is
it necessary to use a salt bridge in a Galvanic cell? [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025 – 26 40

Page 43

2.2 Galvanic Cells: Measurement of Electrode Potential (SHE): Electrochemical series:
1. What do you understand by the following?
a) Negative standard electrode potential
b) Positive standard electrode potential. [E]
2. Define i) electrode potential? ii) Standard electrode potential? [E]
3. What is the effect of change in (a) concentration (b) temperature on the electrode potential of a given
half-cell? [A]
4. What is an electrochemical series?
i) How does it help in predicting whether a redox reaction is feasible in a given direction or not?[D]
ii) How does it help in calculating the e.m.f. of a standard cell? [E]
5. Give the reason why blue copper sulphate solution is discharged slowly when an iron rod is dipped in
it. Given EoCu /Cu = 0.34 V, EoFe /Fe = −0.44 V
2+ 2+ [A]

6. What is meant by reduction electrode potentials of zinc and copper being –0.76 V and +0.34 V
respectively? Can an aqueous solution of CuSO4 be stored in a zinc vessel? Answer with reason. [A]
7. Is it safe to stir AgNO3 solution with a copper spoon? Justify. Given EoAg /Ag = 0.80 V volt and
+

E o
Cu 2+ /Cu
= 0.34 V volt. [A]
8. I2 and F2 are added to a solution containing 1 M each of I– and F–. What reaction will take place? Given
that the reduction potentials of I2 and F2 are 0.54 volt and 2.87 volts respectively. [D]
9. How can the reduction potential of an electrode be increased? [E]
10. Give reason : Copper displaces silver from silver nitrate solution. [A]
11. Describe the construction and working of SHE or standard hydrogen electrode. [A][March-2025]
12. Mention the uses of standard hydrogen electrode? [E]
13. Give reasons:
i) Zinc displaces copper from copper sulphate solution.
ii) Zinc displaces hydrogen from HCl, but copper does not.
iii) Iron displaces copper from copper sulphate solution, but copper cannot displace iron from ferrous
sulphate solution. [A]
Problems (3Marks)
1. For the standard cell Cu(s)/Cu2+(aq)//Ag+/Ag(s) 𝑬𝟎 𝑪𝒖𝟐+/ 𝑪𝒖 = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟒𝑽, 𝑬𝟎 𝑨𝒈+ / 𝑨𝒈 = 𝟎. 𝟖𝟎𝑽
i. identify the cathode and the anode as the current is drawn from the cell.
ii. Write the reaction taking place at the electrodes.
iii. Calculate the standard cell potential. [A]
2. The Standard electrode potential for Daniel cell is 1.1 V. Calculate the standard Gibbs
free energy for the reaction: Zn (s) + Cu2+(aq) → Zn2+ (aq)+ Cu(s) [E][March-2025]
3. The Standard electrode potential for a cell is 0.235 V. Calculate the standard Gibbs
free energy for the reaction: 2Fe3+ (aq) + 2I- (aq) → Fe2+ (aq)+ I2(s) [E][May-2025]
II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025 – 26 41

Page 44

2.3 Nernst Equation:
1. i) Write the relation between E°cell and equilibrium constant (K) of cell reaction.
ii) Write down the Nernst equation for electrode potential. [E]
2. What are the factors that electrode potential depends on? [E]
3. Write the Nernst equation and emf of the following cells at 298 K.
2+ 2+
(i) 𝑀𝑔(𝑠)|𝑀𝑔(0.001𝑀) ∥ 𝐶𝑢(0.0001𝑀) |𝐶𝑢(𝑠)
2+ +
(ii) 𝐹𝑒(𝑠)|𝐹𝑒(0.001𝑀) ∥ 𝐻(1𝑀) ||𝐻2 (𝑔)(1𝑏𝑎𝑟)|𝑃𝑡(𝑠)
2+ +
(iii) 𝑆𝑛(𝑠)|𝑆𝑛(0.050𝑀) ∥ 𝐻(0.020𝑀) |𝐻2 (𝑔)(1𝑏𝑎𝑟)|𝑃𝑡(𝑠) [A]
4. Write the Nernst equation for the following cell Zn/Zn2+(aq)//Cu2+(aq)/Cu. [A]
Problems (3Marks)
1. Calculate the potential of hydrogen electrode in contact with a solution whose pH is 10. [D]
2. Two students use same stock solution of zinc sulphate and a solution of copper sulphate the EMF of
one cell is 0.03 Volt higher than the other. The concentration of copper sulphate in the cell with higher
EMF value is 0.5M. Find out the concentration of copper sulphate in the other cell (2.303 RT/F=0.06).
[D]
3. Calculate the emf of the cell in which the following reaction takes place
Ni(s) + 2Ag+ (0.002M) →Ni2+(0.160M) +2Ag(s) Given that Eo cell=1.05 V [A]
4. Calculate the emf of the cell in which the following reaction takes place at 298K.
Mg(s) + 2Ag+ (0.0001M) →Mg2+ (0.2M) +2Ag(s) Given that Eo cell= 3.17 V. [A][June-2025]
5. Calculate the emf of the cell in which the following reaction takes place at 298 K.
Mg(s) + Cu2+ (0.001M) →Mg2+ (0.01M) +Cu(s) Given that Eo cell= 2.71 V. [A][June-2024]
6. If E1o , Eo2 and E3o are the standard electrode potential for Fe / Fe2+ , Fe2+ / Fe3+ and Fe / Fe3+ electrodes

respectively derive a relation between E1o , Eo2 and E3o . [D]
𝑜 𝑜
7. For the cell reaction 𝑆𝑛(𝑠) + 𝑃𝑏 2+ (𝑎𝑞) → 𝑆𝑛2+ (𝑎𝑞) + 𝑃𝑏(𝑠) 𝐸𝑆𝑛2+ = −0.140𝑉, 𝐸𝑃𝑏 2+ /𝑃𝑏 =
𝑆𝑛

2+ 2+
−0.126𝑉. Calculate the ratio of concentration of Pb to Sn ion at which the cell reaction will be
reversed? [D]
8. EMF of Daniel cell was found using different concentration of Zn2+ ion and Cu2+ion. A graph was then
Zn 2+
plotted between Ecell and log . The plot was found to be linear with intercept on Ecell axis equal to
Cu 2+
2+ 2+
1.10 volt. Calculate Ecell for 𝑍𝑛/𝑍𝑛(0.1𝑀) ∥ 𝐶𝑢(0.01𝑀) /𝐶𝑢 [D]
9. The EMF of the cell corresponding to the reaction
Zn(s) + 2H+ (aq) → Zn (0.1M)
2+
+ H2(g, 1atm) is 0.28V at 250C. Write the half-cell reactions and calculate the pH

of the solution at hydrogen electrode. EoZn /Zn = −0.76 V, EoH /H = 0.0 V
2+ +
2
[A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025 – 26 42

Page 45

2+ +
10. Calculate the emf of the following cell at 298 K. Sn(s) /𝑆𝑛0.050𝑀 //𝐻0.020𝑀 /H2(1bar) /Pt(s) ; Given:
0
𝐸𝑆𝑛 2+ /𝑆𝑛 = −0.14𝑉. [A]
11. Calculate the emf of the cell in which the following reaction takes place at 298K.
+ 2+ o
Cu(s) + 2𝐴𝑔(1 ×10−3 ) → Cu (0.250M) +2Ag(s) Given that E cell= 2.97 V. [A]

2.3.1 Equilibrium Constant from Nernst Equation:
1. How can the Nernst equation be applied in the calculation of the equilibrium constant of any cell
reaction? [A]
2.3.2 Electrochemical Cell and Gibbs Energy the Reaction:
1. What is free energy and free energy change? Explain how free energy is related to cell potential? Also
explain its significance in predicting the feasibility of the cell reaction. [A]
2. What is the free energy change for (a) galvanic cell (b) electrolytic cell? [A]
Problems (PART-E)
1. The cell in which of the following reaction occurs 2Fe3+ (aq) + 2I− (aq) → 2Fe2+ (aq) + I2 (s) has

Eocell = 0.236V at 298K. Calculate the standard Gibbs energy change and the equilibrium constant of the

cell reaction. [A]
2. Calculate the equilibrium constant for the reaction.
2𝐹𝑒 3+ + 3𝐼 − ⇌ 2𝐹𝑒 2+ + 𝐼3− . The standard reduction potentials in acidic conditions are 0.77 and 0.54
V respectively for Fe3+/Fe2+ and I3–/I– [A]
3. Calculate the equilibrium constant of the reaction at 298 K. Cu(s) + 2Ag+(aq) → Cu2+(aq) +2Ag(s) 𝐸𝐶𝑒𝑙𝑙
0
=
0.46V . [A]
2.4 Conductance of Electrolytic Solutions:
2.4.1 Measurement of the Conductivity of Ionic Solutions:
1. Why is alternating current used in place of direct current in measuring the electrolytic conductance?
[E]

2.4.2 Variation of Conductivity and Molar Conductivity with Concentration:
1. What is conductivity? Mention the SI unit of conductivity? [E]
2. Write an expression for cell constant. What is SI unit of specific resistance? [E]
3. Write the SI units for i) Specific conductance. (ii) Molar conductance. [E]
4. Define molar conductivity? How does it vary with increase in concentration of solution?
[E][May-2025]
5. What is an electrolyte? Give an example for strong and weak electrolytes. [E]
6. Why is it necessary to platinize the electrodes of a conductivity cell before it is used for conductance
measurement? [A]
II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025 – 26 43

Page 46

7. Define limiting molar conductivity and how it is related to molar conductivity of strong electrolyte?
[A]
8. Copper is conducting as such while copper sulphate is conducting only in molten state or in aqueous
solution. Explain. [A]
9. Which will have greater molar conductivity and why?
Sol. A. 1 mol KCl dissolved in 200 cc of the solution.
Sol. B. 1 mol KCl dissolved in 500 cc of the solution. [D]
10. In case of the following pairs, which will allow greater conduction of electricity and why?
a) Silver wire at 20oC, Same silver wire at 50oC
b) NaCl solution at 20oC, Same NaCl solution at 50oC
c) NH4OH solution at 20oC, Same NH4OH solution at 50oC
d) 0.1 M acetic acid solution, 1 M acetic acid solution. [A]
11. Write Debye - Onsager equation and mention the various terms. [A]
12. What is the effect of temperature on molar conductivity? [E]
13. What is the effect of dilution on conductivity and molar conductivity? [E]
14. Why Λm for CH3COOH cannot be determined experimentally? [A]
15. Out of HCl and NaCl, which do you expect will have greater value for Λ0m and why? [E]
16. 0.1 M aqueous of Na2SO4 is diluted by adding water. What will happen to the values of its conductance
(G), conductivity () and molar conductivity (Λm)? [A]
17. Give reason: Conductivity of an electrolyte solution decreases with the decrease in concentration. [E]
18. State Kohlrausch’s law. What are its applications? [A]
19. Mention any three factors which affect electrolytic conductivity. [A][May-2024]
20. The curves obtained when molar conductivity Λm(y-axis) is plotted against the square root of
concentrationC1/2 for two electrolytes A and B are shown in the given figure.
a) What can you say about the structure of the two electrolytes A and B
b) How do you account for the increase in the molar conductivity Λm for electrolytes A and B on
dilution? [D]

21. Depending on the magnitude of conductivity of the materials, mention the three types of materials with
an example. [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025 – 26 44

Page 47

Problems (PART-E)
1. The resistance of a 0.01 N solution of an electrolyte is 100 ohms. Calculate its (a) conductance, (b)
Conductivity and (c) resistivity. The cell constant of the cell is 1 cm. [D]
2. The molar conductivity of 0.025 molL–1methanoic acid is 46.1 Scm2mol-1 Calculate its degree of
dissociation and dissociation constant. Given λ0 (H+) =349.6 Scm2mol–1 and λ0 (HCOO–) = 54.6
Scm2mol–1. [D]
3. Conductivity of 0.0241M ethanoic acid is 7.896 × 10−5 Scm2mol-1. Calculate its Molar Conductivity.
If limiting molar conductivity for ethanoic acid is 390.5 Scm2mol-1. What is its degree of dissociation?
[D][May, June-2024]
4. Show that 0.08 molar solution having conductivity equal to 2 10−2 Ω–1cm–1 has higher molar
conductance than 0.10 molar solution having resistivity equal to 58 cm. [D]
5. Solutions of two electrolytes A and B each having a concentration of 0.2 M have conductivities 2 10−2
and 4 10−4 cm–1 respectively. Which will offer greater resistance to the flow of current and why?
[D]
6. The molar conductivity of acetic acid solution at infinite dilution is 390.7 Ω–1cm–2mol–1 Calculate the
molar conductivity of 0.01 molar acetic acid solution given that the dissociation constant of acetic acid
is 1.8 10−5 [D]
7. The Λ0m values for NaCl and KCl are 126.5 and 149.9 Ω–1cm–2mol–1 respectively. The ionic
conductance’s of Na+ at infinite dilution is 50.1 Ω–1cm-2mol–1. Calculate the ionic conductance at
infinite dilution for K+ ion. [A]
8. Which of the following solutions has larger molar conductance?
(i) 0.08 M solution having conductivity equal to 2.0 10–2 Ω–1cm–1
(ii) 0.1 M solution having resistivity equal to 58 Ωm. [A]
9. The resistance of a conductivity cell containing 0.001M KCl solution at 298 K is 1500 Ω. What is the
cell constant if the conductivity of 0.001M KCl solution at 298 K is 0.146 × 10–3 S cm-1 [A]
10. The conductivity of 0.001028 molL-1 acetic acid is 4.95 × 10−5 S cm-1. Calculate its dissociation
constant if Λ0𝑚 for acetic acid is 390.5 Scm2mol-1 [A][March-2025]
11. For strong electrolyte, molar conductivity increases slowly with dilution and represented by equation:
Λm = Λ0m - A c1/2. The plot of molar conductivity (Scm2mol-1) of strong electrolyte ‘X’ v/s c1/2 (molL-
1 1/2
) is as shown in the figure. Determine the value of ‘A’ and limiting molar conductivity for solute
‘X’. [D]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025 – 26 45

Page 48

12. The limiting molar conductivity of CH3COOH is 390 Scm2/mol. Using the graph and given
information calculate the limiting molar conductivity of CH3COOK. [D]

13. A column containing 0.05 M NaOH has an area of cross section 0.785cm2 and length of 1m shows a
resistance of 1.11×104 . Calculate the molar conductivity of the solution. [A]
14. Calculate the limiting molar conductivity of Cl- ion by using the data: 𝜆𝐶𝑎2+ = 119.0 Scm2mol-1 and
Λ0 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑙2 = 271.6 Scm2mol-1. [A]
2.5 Electrolytic Cells and Electrolysis:
1. State Faraday’s first and second law of electrolysis. Give its mathematical expression and mention any
two factors that determine the product of electrolysis. [A][June-2025]
2. Define electrochemical equivalent. How is it related to the equivalent weight of the element? [A]
3. How much substance is deposited by 1 coulomb? What is it called? [E]
4. Why does the electrolysis of NaBr and NaI give Br2 and I2 respectively while that of NaF gives O2
instead of F2? [D]
5. How much electricity is required in coulomb for the oxidation of
(i) 1mol of H2O to O2? (ii) 1 mol of FeO to Fe2O3? [A][MAY-2025]
6. How much charge is required for the following reductions?
(i) 1mol of Al3+ to Al
(ii) 1mol of Cu2+ to Cu
(iii) 1 mol of MnO4– to Mn2+ [A][June-2024]
Problems (PART-E)
1. How much electricity is required in terms of Faraday to produce
(i) 20.0 g of Ca from molten CaCl2?
(ii) 40.0 g of Al from molten Al2O3? [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025 – 26 46

Page 49

2. A solution of Ni(NO3)2 is electrolyzed between platinum electrodes using a current of 5 amperes for
20 minutes. What mass of Ni is deposited at the cathode? [A][MAY-2025]
3. An electric current of 100 ampere is passed through a molten liquid of sodium chloride for 5 hours.
Calculate the volume of chlorine gas liberated at the electrode at NTP. [D]
4. How long has a current of 3 amperes to be applied through a solution of silver nitrate to coat a metal
surface of 80 cm2 with 0.005 cm thick layer? Density of silver is 10.5 g/cm3. [D]
5. If a current of 0.5 ampere flows through a metallic wire for 2hrs, then how many electrons flow through
the wire? [A][June-2025]
6. How many grams of chlorine can be produced by the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride the current
of 1 amp for 15 min? Also calculate the number of chlorine molecules liberated. [D]
7. The following electrochemical cell has been set up
𝑜 𝑜
𝑃𝑡1 /𝐹𝑒 2+ , 𝐹𝑒 3+ ∥ 𝐶𝑒 4+ , 𝐶𝑒 3+ /𝑃𝑡2 , 𝐸𝐹𝑒 3+ /𝐹𝑒 2+ = 0.77𝑉, 𝐸𝐶𝑒 4+ /𝐶𝑒 3+ = 1.61𝑉. If an ammeter is
connected between the two platinum electrodes predict the direction of flow of current. Will the current
increase or decrease with time? [D]
Products of Electrolysis:
1. On electrolysis of an aqueous solution of NaCl, why is H2 and not Na liberated at the cathode? [D]
2. Give the products obtained at each electrode respectively when molten NaCl, aqueous NaCl and
acidulated H2O undergoes electrolysis. [A]
Batteries:
1. Give the following information about ‘Nickel-Cadmium storage cell’:
i) Electrolyte used
ii) Reactions involved at the anode and cathode
iii) Approximate voltage of the cell.
iv) Material of the cathode
v) Material of the anode [A]
2. Give reason: Why does a dry cell become dead after a long time even if it has not been used. [A]
3. Write a note on dry cells and mercury cell? [A]
4. What is the role of ZnCl2 in a dry cell? [A]
5. Why does a mercury cell give a constant voltage throughout its life? [A]
6. What are batteries? Mention the types of batteries with examples. [E]
7. Write a cathodic and anodic reaction of lead storage battery at both discharge and recharge process.
[A][March-2025]
8. Write the overall reaction of Ni-Cd battery. Mention the anode and cathode of it. [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025 – 26 47

Page 50

Fuel Cells:
1. Write a neat diagram of H2-O2 Fuel cell and express its cathodic and anodic reactions. [A][May-2025]
2. What are fuel cells? [E][June-2024]
2.8 Corrosion:
1. Describe any two of the techniques used for preventing corrosion of metals. [A]
2. Explain: corrosion is an electrochemical phenomenon. [A]
3. Rusting iron is quicker in saline water than in ordinary water. Explain. [A]
4. We can use aluminium in place of zinc for cathodic protection of rusting. Comment. [A]
5. What is corrosion? Mention the Factors which affect corrosion. [E]
6. Give reason:
a) Rusting of iron pipe can be prevented by joining it with a piece of magnesium.
b) Iron pipes are usually coated with zinc.
c) Why is zinc better than tin protecting iron from corrosion? [A]
7. Three iron sheets have been coated separately with three metals A, B and C whose standard electrode
potentials or given below. [D]
Metal Eovalue

A –0.46V
B –0.66V
C –0.20V
Iron –0.44V

Identify in which case rusting will take place faster when coating is damaged.


II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025 – 26 48

Page 51

Unit 3
Chemical kinetics
Multiple Choice Questions (ONE MARK)
1. The reactions which occurs very fast are
a) mixing aqueous solutions of silver nitrate and sodium chloride
b) Rusting of iron.
c) Inversion of cane sugar
d) Hydrolysis of starch. [E]
2. The slope for the plot of concentration of products Vs time will be equal to
a) Rate b) Molecularity
c) Order d) Half -life [E]
3. In the rate equation, when the concentration of reactants is unity then rate is equal to
a) Specific rate constant b) average rate constant
c) instantaneous rate constant d) None of above [A]
4. The rate of reaction between two specific time intervals is called
a) Instantaneous rate b) average rate
c) specific rate d) ordinary rate [E]
1
5. For the reaction 2 A + 3B + C ⎯⎯
→ P , the correct rate of the reaction is
2
− d[A] −2 d[B] d[C] − d[A] −3 d[B] −1 d[C]
a) = = −4 b) = =
dt 3 dt dt dt 2 dt 4 dt
+ d[A] +3 d[B] +1 d[C] + d[A] +2 d[B] d[C]
c) = = d) = = +4 [D]
dt 2 dt 2 dt dt 3 dt dt
6. For the hypothetical reaction; A → Products; rate = -k [A]. The negative sing used in the rate expression
indicate that
a) The rate is decreasing with time
b) The concentration of reactants decrease with time
c) There are repulsive forces between the reactants
d) The reaction is reversible. [E]
7. For a gaseous reaction, the units of rate of reaction are
a) L atm S-1 b) atm S-1
c) atm mol-1 S-1 d) mol S-1 [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 49

Page 52

8. Determination of instantaneous rate is not always convenient because.
a) measures rate at given instant of time.
b) it is measured always by determination of slope of the tangent at point ‘t’
c) easier to determine rate law and order of the reaction.
d) It involves differential rate equation. [A]
9. The term – dx/dt in a rate equation refers to:
a) The conc. of a reactant b) The decrease in conc. of the reactant with time
c) The velocity constant of reaction d) None of these [E]
10. For a reaction P + Q → 2 R + S, the incorrect statement is
a) Rate of disappearance of P = Rate of appearance of S
b) Rate of disappearance of Q = 2 x Rate of appearance of R
c) Rate of disappearance of Q = Rate of disappearance of P
d) Rate of disappearance of Q = 1⁄2 x Rate of appearance of R [A]
11. Instantaneous rate of a chemical reaction is
a) Rate of reaction in the beginning b) Rate of reaction at the end
c) Rate of reaction at a given instant d) Rate of reaction between two specific time intervals. [E]
12. During the decomposition of H2O2 to give oxygen, 48 g O2 is formed per minute at a certain point of time.
The rate of formation of water at this point is [AIIMS-2015] [A]
a) 0.75 mol/min b) 1.5 mol/min
c) 2.25 mol/min d) 3.0 mol/ min
13. 100 cm3 of 1M acetic acid is mixed with 100 cm3 of 2M methanol to form an ester. The change in the initial
rate if each solution is diluted with equal volumes of water would be [KCET-2015] [A]
a) 4 times b) 0.25 times c) 2 times d) 0.5 times.
3.2 Factors influencing rate of a reaction
14. The acceptable value of molecularity of a reaction is
3
a) 1 b)
2
c) –2 d) 0 [D]
15. The following factor which does not affect the rate of reaction is
a) Molecularity b) temperature
c) Catalyst d) concentration of reactant [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 50

Page 53

16. Compounds A and B react according to the following chemical equation 2A(g) + B(g) ⎯⎯
→ 2C(g)

concentration of either A or B were changed by keeping the concentrations of one of the reactants constant
and the rates were measured as a function of initial concentration. Following results were obtained. Choose
the correct option for the rate equation for this reaction.
Experiment Initial Concentration of Initial Concentration of Initial Concentration
trial [A] mol L-1 [B] mol L-1 of [C] mol L-1
1 0.40 0.40 0.10
2 0.40 0.80 0.40
3 0.80 0.40 0.20
a) Rate = k [A]2[B] b) Rate = k [A] [B] 2
c) Rate = k [A][B] d) Rate = k [A]2 [D]
17. When the concentration of the reactant in the reaction A ---→ Products, is doubled, then the reaction is
found to increase by 4 times and when tripled, the rate increased by 9 times. The rate of reaction is
proportional to:
a) Concentration of A b) square of concentration of A
c) Cube root of concentration of A d) cube of concentration of A [E]
18. A reaction was found to be second order with respect to the concentration of carbon monoxide. If the
concentration of carbon monoxide is doubled, with everything else kept the same, the rate of reaction will;
a) Remain unchanged b) triple
c) Increase by a factor of 4 d) double [E]
19. The decomposition of phosphine on tungsten at low pressure is a first order reaction. It is because the
a) Rate is proportional to the surface coverage
b) Rate is inversely proportional the surface coverage
c) Rate is independent of the surface coverage
d) Rate of decomposition is very low. [NEET-2016] [E]
20. For a reaction, 2NH3 (g) ⎯⎯⎯⎯1130K
Pt −Catalyst
→ N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) the rate is
1
a) Rate = K  NH3 2 b) Rate = K  NH3 

Rate = K  NH3  Rate = K
2
c) d) [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 51

Page 54

21. The following results have been obtained during kinetic studies of the reaction A(aq) + 2B(aq ) ⎯⎯
→ C(aq ) .

Choose the correct option for the rate equation for the above reaction.
Concentration of [A] Concentration of [B] Rate of formation of ‘C’
Experiment
( molL )
−1
( molL )
−1
( molL min )
−1 −1

I 0.1 0.1 6.0 10−3
II 0.2 0.3 7.2 10−2
III 0.1 0.4 2.4 10−2
IV 0.4 0.3 2.88 10−1

Rate = K  A  B Rate = K  A  B
1 2 1 0
a) b)

Rate = K  A  B Rate = K  A  B
2 1 4 1
c) d) [D]

22. The unit of rate constant of Zero order reaction is
a) s-1 b) molL-1s
c) molL-1s-1 d) mol-1Ls-1 [MAY-2023] [E]
23. When initial concentration of a reactant is doubled in a reaction, its half-life period is not affected. The order
of the reaction is:
a) First b) Second
c) More than zero but less than first d) Zero [A]
24. The order of the reaction KClO3 + 6FeSO4 + 3H2SO4 ⎯⎯
→ KCl + 3Fe2(SO4)3 + 3H2O is
a) 1 b) 2
c) 4 d) 10 [E]
25. The unit of rate of gaseous reaction when the concentration is expressed in partial pressure is
a) mol L–1s–1 b) M s–1
c) atm s–1 d) atm L–1 s–1 [E]
26. In a reaction, when the concentration of reactant is increased two times, the increase in rate of reaction was
four times. Order of reaction is :
a) zero b) 1
c) 2 d) 3 [A]
27. Order of reaction is decided by
a) Temperature b) Mechanism of reaction as well as relative concentration of reactants
c) Molecularity d) Pressure [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 52

Page 55

28. Which one of the following statements for the order of a reaction is incorrect?
a) Order can be determined only experimentally.
b) Order is not influenced by stoichiometric coefficient of the reactants.
c) Order of reaction is sum of power to the concentration terms of reactants to express the rate of
reaction.
d) Order of reaction is always whole number. [E]
29. Units of rate constant of first and zero order reactions in terms of molarity M unit are respectively
a) sec–1, M sec–1 b) sec–1, M
c) M sec–1, sec–1 d) M, sec–1. [A]
30. Order of a reaction in which unit of rate of reaction and rate constant are same
a) 0 b) 1
c) 1/2 d) 2 [A]
31. The conversion of molecules X to Y follows second order kinetics. If concentration of X is increased to
three times, the rate of formation of Y will
a) Increase by three times b) Decrease by three time
c) Increase by nine times d) Decrease by nine times [D]
32. The initial rates of reaction 3A + 2B +C → products, at different initial concentrations are given below:
Initial rate , ms-1 [A] 0,M [B] o, M [C] o, M

5.0x10-3 0.010 0.005 0.010

5.0x10-3 0.010 0.005 0.015

1.0x10-2 0.101 0.010 0.010

1.25x10-3 0.005 0.005 0.010

The order with respect to the reactants A, B and C are respectively
a) 3,2,0 b) 3,2,1
c) 2,1,0 d) 2,2,1 [D]
33. The chemical reaction 2 O3 → 3 O2 proceeds as follows.
i) O3 O2 + O ……. (fast)
ii) O + O3 → 2O2 …….. (slow)
The rate law expression should be
a) r=K’[O3]2 b) r=K’[O3]2 [O2]-1
c) r=K’[O3][O2] d) unpredictable. [D]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 53

Page 56

34. Statement 1: The order of a reaction cannot have a fractional value.
Statement 2: The order of reaction cannot be written from the balanced chemical equation.
a) Both statement I and II are correct
b) Both statement I and II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct. [E]
35. Statement 1: Molecularity greater than three is not observed.
Statement 2: The overall molecularity of a complex reaction is equal to molecularity of the slowest step.
a) Both statement I and II are correct
b) Both statement I and II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct. [E]
36. For a certain reaction, the rate=k[A]2[B], when the initial concentration of A is tripled keeping concentration
of B constant, the initial rate would
a) Increase by a factor of nine c) Decrease by a factor of nine
b) Increase by a factor of three d) Increase by a factor of six. [NEET-2023] [A]
37. When initial concentration of the reactant is doubled, the half- life period of a zero order reaction
a) is halved b) is doubled
c) is tripled d) remains unchanged [NEET-2018] [A]
3.3 Integrated rate equation
38. All natural and artificial radioactive decay of unstable nuclei take place by
a) zero order kinetics b) half order kinetics
c) first order kinetics d) second order kinetics [E]
39. For a zero order reaction, the intercept for the plot of concentration of reactants Vs time is equal to
a) –k b) log k
c) [R0] d) log [R0] [D]
40. For a first order reaction, the slope for the plot of log of concentration of reactants Vs time is equal to
a) –2. 303 k b) –k / 2.303
c) –2.303 / k d) k / 2.303 [D]
41. For a first order reaction, the intercept for the plot of log of concentration of reactants Vs time is equal to
a) –2. 303 k b) –k / 2.303
c) [R0] d) log [R0] [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 54

Page 57

[𝑅 ]
42. For a first order reaction, the plot of log [𝑅]0 Vs time ‘t’ will be

a) straight line with negative slope and positive intercept
b) straight line with positive slope and positive intercept
c) straight line with positive slope and zero intercepts
d) straight line with zero slope and zero intercepts [A]
43. The thermal decomposition of HI in presence of gold is an example for a reaction of
a) first order b) zero order
c) half order d) second order [E]
44. Decomposition of N2O5 and N2O are some examples for reaction with
a) first order kinetics b) zero order kinetics
c) half order kinetics d) second order kinetics [E]
45. Half life of zero order reaction is inversely proportional to
a) initial concentration b) finial concentration
c) rate constant d) rate of a reaction. [E]
46. When the initial concentration of reactant is doubled in a reaction, its half-life period is not affected. Then
the order of the reaction is
a) First b) Second
c) More than zero but less than first d) Zero [A]
47. The rate law for the reaction: A + B → P is Rate = k[A]1[B]1. if ‘B’ is taken large excess, then the order of
reaction is
a) 2 b) 1
c) 0 d) ½ [A]
48. In a 1st order reaction, reactant concentration C varies with time t as :
a) 1/C increases linearly with t b) log C decreases linearly with t
c) C decreases with 1/t d) log C decreases with 1/t [D]
49. For a first order reaction, a plot of log (a – x) against time is a straight line with a slope equal to
−k
a) b) −2.303k
2.303
2.303 Ea
−
c) k d) 2.303R [A]
50. The plot that represents the zero order reaction is :

(a) [R] (b) [R] (c) [R] (d) [R]
t t t t [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 55

Page 58

51. Which of the following is correct for a first order reaction?

a) t1/ 2   b) t1/ 2 
1


c) –1 d) t1/ 2   2 [E]

52. A substance undergoes first order decomposition. The decomposition follows the parallel first order reactions
as
k1 B k1 = 1.26 x 10-4 s-1
A
k2 C k2 = 3.8 x 10-5 s-1
The percentage distribution of B and C are
a) 76.83, 23.17 b) 60,40
b) 24.9, 75.1 d) 50, 50 [D]
53. Point out the wrong statement: For a first order reaction
a) Time for half-change (t1/2) is independent of initial concentration
b) Change in the concentration unit does not change the rate constant (k)
c) Time for half-change × rate constant = 0.693
d) The unit of k is mole–1min–1 [E]
54. An example of a pseudo first-order reaction is,
a) The decomposition of gaseous ammonia on a hot platinum surface
b) Photochemical reaction between hydrogen and chlorine
c) Inversion of cane sugar
d) Hydrogenation of ethane [MARCH-2025] [E]
55. The plot of concentration of the reactant vs. time for a reaction is a straight line with a negative slope. The
reaction follows a
a) zero order rate equation b) first order rate equation
c) second order rate equation d) third order rate equation [A]
56. Match the following
I II
A t1/2 =constant p) 1st order
B t1/2 α [R] q) Third order
C 1 r) second order
t1/2 α [𝑅]

D 1 s) zero order
t ½ α [𝑅]2

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 56

Page 59

a) A-p, B-r, C-q, D- s b) A-p, B-s , C-r, D- q
c) A-p, B-s , C-q, D- r d) A-p, B-r, C-s, D- r [E]
57. Match the following
I II
A) Rate= K x Intensity of light i) Second order
B) Rate =K [A]1/2 [B]1/2 ii) Zero order
C) Rate =K [A]3/2[B]1/2 iii) First order
D) Rate =K [A]2[B]1 iv) Third order
a) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D- iv b) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D- iv
c) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D- i d) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D- ii [E]
58. Half -life of a reaction is found to be inversely proportional to the cube of initial concentration. The order
of the reaction is
a) 3 b) 4
c) 2 d) 5 [A]
59. Which among the following is a false statement?
a) Molecularity of a reaction may be zero or fraction
b) For a first order reaction, t ½ = 0.693/k.
c) Rate of zero order reaction is independent of initial concentration of the reactant.
d) Half - life of a third order reaction is inversely proportional to the square of the initial
concentration of the reactant. [E]
60. Which is correct about zero order reaction?
a) Rate of reaction depends on decay constant
b) Rate of reaction is independent of concentration
c) Unit of rate constant is conc–1
d) Unit of rate constant is conc–1 time–1 [E]
61. Which of the following graphs is correct representation for the reaction of type A + 2B → C?

[D]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 57

Page 60

62. Which of the following graphs represents a zero-order rate of reaction?

[D]
63. If 50% of a reaction occurs in 100 seconds and 75% of the reaction occurs in 200 seconds, the order of
this reaction is
a) 1 b) 2 c) zero d) 3 [A]
64. The formation of gas at the surface of tungsten due to adsorption is the reaction of order
a) 1 b) 2 c) zero d) 3 [E]
65. Higher-order (>3) reactions are rare due to:
a) Shifting of equilibrium towards reactants due to elastic collision
b) Loss of active species on collision
c) Low probability of simultaneous collision of all the reacting species
d) Increase in entropy and activation energy as more molecules are involved. [E] [KCET-2021]
66. A reaction involving two different reactants
a) Can never be second order reaction
b) Can never be unimolecular reaction
c) Can never be bimolecular reaction
d) Can never be first order reaction. [AIEEE-2015][E]
67. In the sequence of reaction,
A ⱪ B k2 C k3 D
k3 > k2 > k1 then the rate determining step of the reaction is [A]
a) A B c) C D
b) B C d) A D
68. The following mechanism has been proposed for the reaction of NO with Br2 to form NOBr;
NO (g) + Br2 NOBr2 (g)
NOBr2 (g) + NO (g) 2NOBr (g)
If the second step is rate determining step, the order of the reaction with respect to NO (g) is
a) 1 b) 0
c) 3 d) 2 [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 58

Page 61

69. A reaction A2 + B2 2AB occurs by the following mechanism
A2 → A + A ………. (Slow)
A + B2 → AB + B ……. (Fast)
A+B → AB ………. (Fast)
Its order would be
a) 3/2 b) 1
c) Zero d) 2 [A]
70. The half – time of a first order decomposition nitramide is 2.1 h at 150C
NH2NO2(aq) → N2O(g) + H2O (l)
If 6.2 g of nitramide is allowed to decompose then time taken for it to decompose 99% will be
a) 2.1 h b) 12 h
c) 13.96 h d) 33 h [A]
71. For a first order reaction A→ products, initial concentration of A is 0.1 M, which becomes 0.001M after 5
minutes. Rate constant for the reaction in min-1 is
a) 1.3818 b) 0.9212
c) 0.4606 d) 0.2303 [NEET-2022][A]
72. If half- lives of a first order and zero order reactions are same, then the ratio of the initial rates of the first
order reaction to that of zero order reaction is
a) 1/0.693 b) 2x0.693
c) 2/0.693 d) 6.93 [A]
73. The rate constant for a first order reaction is 4.606x10-3 S-1. The time required to reduce 2.0 g of the
reactant to 0.2 g is
a) 100 S b) 200 S
c) 500 S d) 1000 S [NEET-2020] [A]
74. Half -life of a reaction is found to be inversely proportional to the fifth power of its initial concentration.
The order of the reaction is
a) 6 b) 4 c) 2 d) 5 [KCET-2022] [A]
75. A bimolecular reaction can behave as first order reaction
a) When both reactants have same concentration
b) When the reaction is in equilibrium
c) When one of the reactants is in large excess
d) When the activation energy of reaction is less. [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 59

Page 62

76. A first order reaction is completed in 45 min. How long it need 99.9% of the reaction to be completed?
a) 10 hours b) 20 hours
c) 7.5 hours d) 5 hours. [KCET-2022] [A]
77. If the rate constant for a first order reaction is K, the time (t) required for the completion of 99% of the
reaction is given by
a) t=4.606/K b) t=2.303/K
c) t= 0.693/K d) t=6.909/K [KCET-2021] [A]
78. The time required for 60% completion of a first reaction is 50 min. The time required for 93.6% completion
of the same reaction will be
a) 83.8 min b) 50 min
c) 150 min d) 100 min. [KCET-2020] [A]
3.3 Temperature dependence of the rate of a reactions
79. The representation of rate of reaction in terms of concentration of the reactants is known as
a) Rate law b) Law of kinetics
c) Arrhenius law d) Van’t Hoff law [E]
80. Select the incorrect statement with respect to pre exponential factor.
a) It is also called frequency factor.
b) It is constant for a particular reaction.
c) Its value is specific for a particular reaction
d) It is represented by Ea in Arrhenius equation. [E]
81. Kinetic energy possessed by maximum fraction of molecules is called
a) average kinetic energy b) most probable kinetic energy.
c) maximum kinetic energy. d) root mean square kinetic energy. [E]
82. The area under the Maxwell Boltzmann distribution curve is
a) fraction of molecules reacting at time ‘t’ and is constant.
b) total energy of a reaction
c) activation energy of a reaction.
d) enthalpy of a reaction. [E]
83. Statement I: Catalyst alters the Gibbs energy
Statement II: Catalyst catalyses the forward as well as the backward reactions to the same extent
Identify the correct statement
a) Both Statement I and II are correct
b) Both Statement I and II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement I is in correct and Statement II is correct. [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 60

Page 63

84. Which of the following explains the increase in the reaction rate by a catalyst?
a) Catalyst decreases the rate of backward reaction so that rate of forward reaction increases
b) Catalyst provides extra energy to reacting molecules, so that they produce effective collisions
c) Catalyst provides an alternative pathway by reducing the activation energy between the reactants and
products
d) Catalyst increases the number of collisions between the reacting molecules [E]
85. The energy required to form activated complex is known as
a) Kinetic energy b) Potential energy
c) Activation energy d) Collision frequency [E]
− Ea − Ea
86. In Arrhenius equation, k = Ae RT the factor e RT corresponds to
a) The fraction of molecules that have kinetic energy greater than energy of Activation.
b) The fraction of molecules that have kinetic energy less than activation energy.
c) The fraction of molecules that have kinetic energy greater than threshold energy.
d) The fraction of molecules that have kinetic energy less than threshold energy. [E]
87. A catalyst
a) Increases Gibb’s energy of a reaction.
b) Does not change equilibrium constant of a reaction.
c) Alters the equilibrium state.
d) Catalyses non-spontaneous reaction. [E]
88. Pieces of wood burn faster than a log of wood of the same mass because
a) Surface area of log of wood is larger and needs more time to burn
b) Pieces of wood have large surface area
c) All pieces of wood catch fire at the same time
d) Block of wood has higher density than pieces of the same wood [E]
89. If the reaction rate at a given temperature becomes slower
a) energy of activation is higher b) energy of activation is lower
c) Entropy changes d) Initial concentration of reactants remain constant. [E]
90. Which of the following does not affect the rate of reaction?
a) Amount of the reactants taken b) ∆H of reaction
c) Physical state of the reactants d) Size of the vessel. [A]
91. The diagram below shows the potential energy variation for a reaction using a catalyst and for the same
reaction without a catalyst. Which of the following represents the enthalpy change (ΔH) and activation
energy (Ea) for the reaction with a catalyst?

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 61

Page 64

a) ∆H = z and Ea with catalyst = x + z b) ∆H = z and Ea with catalyst = y +
c) ∆H = x + z and Ea with catalyst = x d) ∆H = z and Ea with catalyst = y [D]
92. The slope of Arrhenius plot (lnK vs 1/T) of first order reaction is -5x103 K. The value of Ea of the reaction
is
a) -83KJ/mol b) 41.5 KJ/mol
c) 83.0 KJ/mol d)166KJ/mol [NEET-2021] [A]
93. An increase in the concentration of the reactants of a reaction leads to change in
a) Activation energy b) Heat of reaction
c) Threshold energy d) Collision frequency [NEET-2020] [E]
94. The rate of reaction is doubled for every 10oC rise in temperature. The increase in reaction rate as a result of
temperature rise from 10oC to 80oC is
a) 112 b) 512
c) 256 d) 128 [E]
3.5 Collision theory of Chemical reactions
95. Under what condition will a reaction occur according to collision theory?
a) A reaction will occur regardless of the energy of the colliding molecules.
b) A reaction will only occur if the colliding molecules have energy greater than or equal to the activation
energy
c) A reaction will occur if the colliding molecules have any energy
d) A reaction will occur only if the products have lower energy than the reactants. [E]
96. Activation energy of any chemical reaction can be calculated if one knows the value of
a) Rate constant at standard temperature b) Probability of collision [NEET-2024] [E]
c) Orientation of reactant molecules during collision d) Rate constant at two different temperature.
97. The rate of a reaction quadruples when temperature changes from 27oC to 57oC the energy of activation is
(Given R=8.314J/K/mol, log 4 = 0.6021 )
a) 38.04KJ/mol b) 380.4KJ/mol c) 3.80KJ/mol d) 3804 KJ/mol. [D] [NEET-2024]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 62

Page 65

98. Collision theory is applicable to [E]
a) First order reactions b) Zero order reactions
c) Bimolecular reactions d) Intramolecular reactions
99. The activation energy of a reaction is zero. The rate constant of the reaction is
a) Increases with increase of temperature b) Decreases with increase of temperature
c) Decreases with decrease of temperature d) is nearly independent of temperature. [A]
100. A plot between ln K vs 1/T, the slope is equal to
a) Ea/R b) Ea/2.303R
c) –Ea/R d) –Ea/2.303R
101. Threshold energy is equal to
a) Activation energy b) Activation energy+ energy of molecules
c) Activation energy- energy of molecules d) kinetic energy [E]
102. In collision theory of chemical reactions, ZAB represents
a) The fraction of molecules with energies equal to energy of activation.
b) The fraction of molecules with energies greater than energy of activation.
c) The collision frequency of reactants A & B
d) Steric factor. [E]
103. The rate constant of a reaction is given by k= PZe-Ea/RT under standard notation. In order to speed up the
reaction. Which of the following factors has to be decreased?
a) Both Z &T b) Ea
c) T d) Z [KCET-2020]
104. The catalyst in a chemical reaction provides an alternate pathway or reaction mechanism by decreasing:
a) activation energy b) Kinetic energy
c) Normal energy of reacting species d) Potential energy [MARCH-2024]

Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets:
(ONE MARK)
Set-1
(instantaneous, decreases, balanced equation, increases, rate expression, mol L–1)
1. Unit of rate is ____ [E]
2. The rate at a particular moment of time is ______rate. [E]
3. With the passage of time rate of a reaction ________. [E]
4. The equation that relates rate of reaction and concentration of reactants is _____. [E]
5. Rate law for any reaction cannot be predicted by __________ [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 63

Page 66

Set-2
(molecularity, order, zero, elementary, rate constant, complex)
1. Sum of powers of the concentration of the reactants in the rate law expression is called ______. [E]
2. The order of reaction, if the rate of reaction is independent of the concentration of reactants is ____ [E]
3. The reactions taking place in one step are called _______reactions. [E]
4. Oxidation of ethane to CO2 and H2O is an example of ________ reaction. [E]
5. The S.I. units of _____for depends on order of reaction. [E]

Set-3
(zero, three, order, slowest step, zero order, molecularity)
1. The number of species taking part in an elementary reaction, which collide to bring about a chemical
reaction is called ____________of a reaction. [E]
2. Reactions with the molecularity _______are slow to proceed. [E]
3. Molecularity of the ____________ is same as the order of the overall reaction. [E]
4. _______of a reaction is an experimental quantity. [E]
5. Reactions which occur on metal surfaces are a few examples of ________reactions. [E]

Set-4
(pseudo first, sec–1, half-life period, mol sec–1, Joules mol–1, first)
1. Hydrogenation of ethene is an example of _________order reaction. [E]
2. For a first order reaction, _________is constant. [E]
3. Inversion of cane sugar is an ____________ order reaction. [E]
4. S.I unit of rate constant of first order reaction is _______. [E]
5. S.I unit of activation energy is _______. [E]

Set-5
(increases, decreases, internal energy, Gibbs energy, activation energy, Pre-exponential factor)
1. ______ is constant specific to a particular reaction. [E]
2. Rate of reaction _________ with raise in temperature. [E]
3. As activation energy ________ rate of reaction increases. [E]
4. Catalyst does not alter __________ . [E]
5. Catalyst reduces __________ [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 64

Page 67

Set-6:
(kinetic gas, steric, Arrhenius, collision frequency, effective collision, equilibrium constant)
1. Collision theory is based on ________ theory. [E]
2. Catalyst does not change the _______ of a reaction. [E]
3. The number of collisions per second per unit volume of the reaction mixture is known as ______. [E]
4. The collisions in which molecules collide with sufficient kinetic energy and proper orientation is called
___________. [E]
5. ___________ factor accounts for effective collision and proper orientation. [E]

TWO MARK QUESTIONS
3.2 Factors influencing rate of a reaction
1. Define a) order b) Molecularity [E]
2. State Rate Law. What is S.I unit of rate. [E]
3. Identify the order of the reaction from the unit of rate constants. i) Lmol–1s–1 ii) M–1 min– [A]
4. Write the order of the reaction and unit of the rate constant for the reaction: CH3CHO → CH4 (g) + CO (g).
Rate = k [CH3CHO]3/2 [E]
5. 2A → P; is second order reaction. How is the rate of the reaction affected if the concentration of A is
(a) doubled (b) reduced to half? [A]
6. For the equation, A + 2B → C + D + E the following results were obtained to determine the initial rate of
the reaction.
Experiment [A] / mol dm-3 [B] / mol dm-3 Initial rate / mol dm-3 s-1
1 4 1 0.50
2 4 0.5 0.50
3 2 0.5 0.25
(i) What is the order of reaction with respect to A and B? Justify.
(ii) Write down the overall rate equation. [D]
7. Differentiate between order and molecularity. [E]

3.3 Integrated rate equations
8. What is first order reaction? Write the expression for the relation between partial pressure and rate constant
of first order gas phase reaction. [E]
9. Define half-life period. Write the relationship between half-life period and order of a reaction. [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 65

Page 68

10. What are Elementary reaction and complex reaction? [E]
[𝑅 ]
11. For a first order reaction, plot a graph of log [𝑅]0 Vs time ‘t and write the value of slope for this graph. [D]

12. What is Pseudo first order reaction? Give an example. [E]
13. Give two examples for first order reaction. [E]
14. The following graph shows half-life (t1/2) v/s initial reactant concentration reactant

a) What is the order of the reaction?
b) What is the unit of k for this reaction? [D]
15. For the graph of t½ vs [R] was given below

i) What is the order of the reaction?
ii) What are the unit of rate constant K for the reaction? [D]
16. For a general reaction A→ B, plot of concentration of A v/s time is given is figure

a) What is the order of the reaction?
b) What is the shape of the curve? [D]
17. What happens to half life time of a first order reaction when temperature is increased? Give reason. [A]
18. Draw a graph of concentration of R versus time for a zero-order reaction R → P. What is the intercept of
the line equal to? [D]
19. What is the effect of temperature on the (i) rate constant and (ii) t1/2 of a reaction? [E]
20. Show that half-life of zero order reaction depends on initial concentration of reactant. [E]
21. Show that half-life of first order reaction is independent on initial concentration of reactant. [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 66

Page 69

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 67

Page 70

3.4 Temperature dependence of the rate of a reaction
22. Write Arrhenius equation. Explain the terms involved in it. [E]
23. Write any two properties of catalyst. [E]
24. What is activation energy? How do its value effects rate of reaction? [A]
25. What is catalyst? Whether a catalyst catalyses non spontaneous reaction? [E]
26. Graphically represent Arrhenius equation and how do you calculate activation energy from it? [E]
27. Plot Maxwell Boltzmann distribution curve. Mark the position of Ea [E]
28. What is most probable kinetic energy? How does it is affected by increase in temperature? [E]
29. With the help of graph explain the effect of temperature on rate of reaction. [E]
30. With the help of graph explain the effect of catalyst on rate of reaction. [E]
31. Draw the plot of the distribution curves showing the temperature dependence on the rate of the reaction at
two temperature stand (t+10). Mark Ea and shade the relevant regions to show that fraction of molecules
having energy greater than Ea doubles when temperature is increased by10°C. [E]
32. Illustrate graphically the effect of catalyst on activation energy
33. Catalyst has no effect on the equilibrium constant. Why? [E]
34. In the graph, what do the intercept and slope of the line represent? [A]

35. For the reaction: H2 (g) + I2 (g) → 2HI (g); draw the diagram showing plot of potential energy versus reaction
coordinate to explain the role of activated complex in a reaction.
36. What is meant by chemical kinetics? Give any two importance of study chemical kinetics.
37. State rate law? Write the rate expression and differential rate equation for general reaction.
aA + bB ⎯⎯
→ cC + dD.

3.5 Collision theory of chemical reactions
38. According to collision theory give any two criteria for effective collision. [E]
39. Give any two drawbacks of collision theory. [E]
40. What does P and ZAB represent in the equation: rate = PZABe-EaRT? [E]
41. What is collision Frequency? Give equations that represent relation between collision frequency and steric
factor. [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 68

Page 71

THREE MARK QUESTIONS
3.2 Factors influencing rate of a reaction
42. Write any three factors effecting rate of reaction. [E]
3.3 Integrated rate equations
43. Derive integrated rate equation for zero order reaction. [E]
44. Derive integrated rate equation for first order reaction. [E]
45. Derive integrated rate equation for first order gas phase reaction A(g) + B(g) ⎯⎯
→ C(g) [E]
46. A reaction is first order in X and second order in Y:
i) Write the differential rate law of the reaction.
ii) How is the rate affected on increasing the concentration of Y three times?
iii) Write the SI unit for the rate constant. [A]
47. For a reaction R→P, plot of concentration of R v/s time is given. Answer the following questions:

i) What is the order of the reaction?
ii) Write its integrated rate equation.
iii) What is the unit of the rate constant? [D]
48. For a certain chemical reaction, variation in the concentration ln[R] vs time plot is given: For this reaction

i) Write the Order of the reaction?
ii) What is the unit of rate constant k?
iii) What does the slope of the line indicate? [D]
49. Graphically represent:
(i) Concentration of a reactant X vs time for a ZERO order reaction.
(ii) Rate of reaction vs concentration of a reactant X for a ZERO order reaction.
(iii) Rate of reaction vs concentration of a reactant X for a FIRST order reaction [D]
3.6 Temperature dependence of the rate of a reaction

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 69

Page 72

50. Plot a graph of potential energy vs reaction coordinate. Indicate activation energy and enthalpy. [A]
51. Explain the effects of following on rate of reaction
a) Temperature
b) Catalyst
c) Concentration. [E]
52. If a homogenous catalytic reaction can take place through three alternative paths, as depicted below, the
catalytically efficiency of P, Q & R respectively. Which reaction path proceeds easily or faster? Give
reason. [D]

53. For the reaction R(s) → P(g), the potential energy diagram is given below:

60

PE (KJ)
R
20

P
5

Time

By observing the above diagram, answer the following.
a) What is the value of activation energy of the reaction?
b) What is the value of ΔH of the reaction?
c) Draw potential energy diagram for the reaction P(g) → R(s). [D]
54. What is the effect of catalyst on a reaction with respect to its
i) energy of activation
ii) ΔG of the reaction
iii) time required for 50% of the reaction to be completed? [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 70

Page 73

PROBLEMS: (THREE MARK)
3.1 Rate of a chemical reaction
1. The decomposition of N2O5 in CCl4 at 318K was studied. Initially the concentration of N2O5 is 2.33molL–
1
and after 184 minutes, it was reduced to 2.08molL–1. The reaction takes place according to the equation
2N 2O5 (g) ⎯⎯
→ 4NO2 (g) + O 2 (g) , Calculate the average rate of this reaction in terms of seconds. What is the

rate of production of NO2 during this period? [A: 2.71X10-3 mol/L/min] [A]
2. Mention the factors which affect the rate of a reaction. In a reaction 2A → products, the concentration of A
decreases from 0.5 to 0.4 mol L–1 in 10 minutes. Calculate the rate of reaction during this interval.
[A: 5×10-3 M min–1] [E]
3. Show that in a first order reaction, time required for completion of 99.9% reaction is 10 times of half-life
(t1/2) of the reaction. [A]
4. For the reaction R ⎯⎯
→ P, the concentration of a reactant changes from 0.03M to 0.02M in 25 minutes.
Calculate the average rate of reaction using units of time both in seconds. What is the rate of production
of P during this period? [A:6.667x10-6M/S] [A]
5. In a reaction, 2A ⎯⎯
→ R, Products, the concentration of A decreases from 0.5 mol L–1 to 0.4 mol L–1 in 10
minutes. Calculate the rate during this interval? [A:5x10-3M/min] [A]
1
6. The initial concentration of N2O5 in the following first order reaction N 2O5 (g) ⎯⎯
→ 2NO2 (g) + O2 (g) was
2
1.24 × 10–2 mol L–1 at 318 K. The concentration of N2O5 after 60 minutes was 0.20 × 10–2 mol L–1.
Calculate the rate constant of the reaction at 318 K. [A:0.0304/min] [D]
7. The following data were obtained during the first order thermal decomposition of N2O5(g) at constant volume:
2N 2O5 (g) ⎯⎯
→ 2N 2O 4 (g) + O 2 (g) . Calculate the rate constant. [D]
S. No. Time/s Total Pressure/(atm)
1 0 0.5
2 100 0.512
8. A first order reaction is found to have a rate constant, k = 5.5 × 10-14 s-1.
Find the half-life of the reaction. [E]
9. A first order reaction has a rate constant 1.15 × 10-3 s–1. How long will 5g of this reactant take to reduce to
3g? [A:444S] [E]
10. Time required to decompose SO2Cl2 to half of its initial amount is 60 minutes. If the decomposition is a
first order reaction, calculate the rate constant of the reaction. [A: 1.925x10-4/S] [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 71

Page 74

11. The rate constants of a reaction at 500K and 700K are 0.02s–1 and 0.07s–1 respectively. Calculate the values
of Ea and A. [A: Ea=18.228KJ/mol; A=1.604] [A]
12. The first order rate constant for the decomposition of ethyl iodide by the reaction
→ C2H 4 (g) + HI(g) at 600K is 1.60 × 10–5 s–1. Its energy of activation is 209 kJ/mol. Calculate
C2H5I(g) ⎯⎯

the rate constant of the reaction at 700K. [A: K2=6.3552x10-3/S] [A]
13. The rate of the chemical reaction doubles for an increase of 10K in absolute temperature from 298K.
Calculate Ea. [A:52.897KJ/mol] [E]
14. → H 2 + I 2 is 209.5kJmol–1 at 581K.Calculate the fraction
The activation energy for the reaction 2HI(g) ⎯⎯
of molecules of reactants having energy equal to or greater than activation energy? [A:1.471x10-19] [A]
15. The rate constant for the first order decomposition of H2O2 is given by the following equation: log k =
14.34 – 1.25 × 104K/T. Calculate Ea for this reaction (R=8.314 JK-1mol−1). [E]
16. Sucrose decomposes in acid solution into glucose and fructose according to the first order rate law, with
t1/2 = 3.00 hours. What fraction of sample of sucrose remains after 8 hours? [A: 1/6.34] [E]
17. The rate constant for the decomposition of N2O5 at various temperatures is given below: [A]
1/T0C 0 20 40 60 80
105 × k/s-1 0.0787 1.70 25.7 178 2140
Draw a graph between ln k and 1/T and calculate the values of A and Ea. [Ea=128.035KJ/mol;A=3.38x1019]
18. For a first order action, show how time required for 99% completion is related to the time required for the
completion of 90% of reaction. [A]
19. Look at the following graph

Calculate
a) Ea for forward reaction
b) Enthalpy change of the reaction
c) Ea of backward reaction. [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 72

Page 75

20. The time of half – life period of a certain reaction, A→ products is 1hr. When the initial concentration of
the reactant ‘A’ is 2.0mol L-1. How much time does it take for its concentration to come from 0.50mol L-1
to 0.25mol L-1, if it is a zero order reaction? [A:0.25hour] [A]
21. During the kinetic study of the reaction 2A + B → C + D, following result were obtained

Run [A] /mol L-1 [B]/ mol L-1 Initial rate of formation of D/ mol L-1 min -1

1 0.1 0.1 6.010-3
2 0.3 0.2 7.210-2
3 0.3 0.4 2.8810-1
4 0.4 0.1 2.4010-2
a) Write the rate law
b) What is the order with respect to reactant A & B. [D]
21. 75% of a first order reaction is completed in 30 minutes. What is the time required for 93.75% of the reaction?
(In minutes) [A:60 min] [E]
22. The rate constant of a first order reaction increases from 2×10–2s–1 to 4×10–2s–1 when the temperature
changes from 300 K to 310 K. Calculate the energy of activation (Ea). [E]
[log 2 = 0.3010, log 2.5 = 0.3979, log 4 = 0.6020, R = 8.314 JK-1mol-1]
23. A first order reaction takes 40 min for 25% completion. Calculate rate constant of the reaction. [E]
24. Show that in a first order reaction, time required for completion of 99.9% is 10 times of half-life (t1/2) of
the reaction. [A]
(1.28 103 )K
25. The rate constant of a reaction is given by: log k = 13.25 − . Calculate the activation energy
T
and pre-exponential factor (A). [A]
26. The rate of a reaction quadruples when the temperature changes from 293 K to 313 K. Calculate the energy
of activation of the reaction assuming that it does not change with temperature.
[A=52.86KJ/mol] [A]
27. A reaction is first order in A and second order in B.
(i) Write the differential rate equation.
(ii) How is the rate affected on increasing the concentration of ‘B’ three times and decreasing the
concentration of ‘A’ by half times?
(iii) How is the rate affected when the concentrations of both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are tripled? [A]
28. The rate constant for a reaction is 60 s–1. How much time will it take to reduce the initial concentration of
the reactant to its 1/16thvalue? [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 73

Page 76

29. In the given reaction A→B, the rate constant k is 2.0 x 10–2 lit mol-1s-1, find initial rate of reaction when
[A] = 0.5 M at 298K. [A]
30. The first order rate constant at 600 K is 2 10−5 s−1 and energy of activation is 209.8 k J mol−1 for a reaction.

Calculate the rate constant at 700 K. [Given: R=8.314 JK−1mol−1 ] [D]
31. The rate of a reaction quadruples when the temperature changes from 293K to 313K. Calculate the energy
of activation of the reaction assuming that it does not change with temperature. [E]
th
3
32. The C-14 content of an ancient piece of wood was found to have of that of living tree. Calculate the
10
age of that piece of wood.
[Given that; Half-life of C-14 = 5730 years, log 3 = 0.4771, log 7 = 0.8540]. [A]
33. A first order reaction has rate constant of 2.3×10–5 s–1 at 500 K. At what temperature rate constant of the
reaction becomes 17.25×10–4 s–1? (Ea = 191.472 KJ mol-1 and R =8.314 J K–1mol–1) [D]
34. A first order reaction has half-life of 23 min. How much time will be needed for 30% completion of the
reaction? [E]
35. The following data were obtained the first order thermal decomposition of SO2Cl2 at a constant volume:
Calculate the rate of the reaction.
SO2Cl2 (g) → SO2 (g) + Cl2 (g) [D]
Experiment Time/s–1 Total pressure/atm

1 0 0.5
2 100 0.6
36. The rate constants of reactions at 600 K and 700 K are 1.60 x 10–5 s–1 and 6.40 x 10–3 s–1 respectively.
Calculate the value of Ea. [E]
37. Analyse the given graph, drawn between concentration of reactant in molL–1 v/s time in minute, calculate
the average rate of the reaction in terms of minutes and seconds. [D]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 74

Page 77

38. At 318 K, Nitrogen pentoxide decomposes according to the equation; 2N2O5 → 4NO2 + O2 in gas phase.
The plot of log [N2O5] v/s time ‘t’ shows a straight line with negative slope as shown in figure. Calculate
the rate constant.

39. The decomposition of a hydrocarbon follows the equation: k = 4.5×1011 e–28000/T. Calculate Ea. Given
R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1. [A: 232.79 kJ] [E]
40. The activation energy for a reaction at the temperature T was found to be 2.303RT Jmol–1. Calculate the ratio
of the rate constant to Arrhenius factor. [A:1.25×10–2] [A]
41. Milk turns sour at 40oC three times faster as at 0oC. Calculate the energy of activation for souring of milk.
[A: Ea=4.693 Kcal] [E]
42. How faster would a reaction proceed at 25oC than at 0oC if the activation energy is 65 KJ?
[A: K2/K1= 11.05] [A]



II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 75

Page 78

Unit 4
d-and f-Block Elements
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (ONE MARK)
4.1 The transition Elements:
1. According to IUPAC transition metals are defined as
a. Metals which have incomplete d subshell either in neutral atom or in their ions.
b. Metals which have complete d subshell in neutral only atom.
c. Metals with chemical properties were transitional between those of s and p-block elements.
d. Metals with chemical properties were transitional between those of p and f- block elements[E]
2. The correct electronic configuration of Cr is [E](KCET-13)

a. [Ar]4s23d4 b. [Ar] 4s23d4
c. [Ar]4s03d5 d. [Ar]4s13d5
3. In which of the following pairs, both the elements do not have same outer shell electronic configuration?
a. Zn ,Cd b. Cu, Ag
c. Cu, Zn d. Ti, Zr [E]
4. In general, the melting and boiling points of transition metals
a. increases gradually across the period from left to right.

b. decreases gradually across the period from left to right.
c. first increases till the middle of the period and then decreases towards the end.
d. first decreases regularly till the middle of the period and then increases towards the end.[E]
5. The correct order of melting point is.
a. Cr >Mn> Fe b. Fe >Mn>Cr
c. Cr > Fe >Mn d. Mn> Fe >Cr [A]
6. Which one of the following does not correctly represent the correct order of the property indicated
against it?
a. Ti< V < Cr <Mn : increasing number of oxidation states
b. Ti3+< V3+< Cr3+< Mn3+ : increasing magnetic moment
c. Ti< V < Cr <Mn : increasing melting points
d. Ti< V <Mn<Cr : increasing 2nd ionization enthalpy [A]
7. The element having minimum volatility among the following is
a. Cr b. W
c. Os d. Zn [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 76

Page 79

8. The correct statement among the following is
a. Metals with very high enthalpy of atomisation tend to be noble in their reactions.
b. Metals with very low enthalpy of atomisation tend to be noble in their reactions.
c. Metals with very low enthalpy of ionisation tend to be noble in their reactions.
d. Metals with very high enthalpy of atomisation tend to be highly reactive in their reactions. [A]
9. Statement 1: Metals of the 4d and 5d series have greater enthalpies of atomisation than the
corresponding elements of the 3d series.
Statement 2: More frequent metal – metal bonding are found in compounds of the heavy transition
metals.
Identify the correct statement
a. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
b. Both Statement I and II are incorrect
c. Both Statement I and II are correct
d. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct [E]
10. In transition elements( 5d and 6d series), a regular decrease in atomic radii is a result of
a. The filling of (n-1)fbefore ndorbital b. The filling of nfbefore (n-1)dorbital
c. The filling of (n-1) f after n d orbital d. The filling of nfafter (n-1)dorbital [A]
11. The element with least density is
a. Cr b. Ni
c. Zn d. Sc [E]
12. Exchange energy is approximately proportional to the
a. total number of possible pairs of parallel spins in the generate orbitals.
b. total number of possible pairs of antiparallel spins in the degenerate orbitals.
c. total number of possible pairs of parallel spins in the degenerate orbitals.
d. total number of possible pairs of parallel spins in the generate orbitals [A]
4.3 Physical Properties:
13. The electronic configuration of Cr is 3d54s1instead of 3d44s2is due to
a. The energy gap between the two sets (3d and 4s) of orbitals is big enough to prevent electron
entering the 3d orbitals.
b. The energy gap between the two sets (3d and 4s) of orbitals is small enough to prevent electron
entering the 4sorbital.
c. The energy gap between the two sets (3d and 4s) of orbitals is big enough to prevent electron
entering the 4sorbital.
d. The energy gap between the two sets (3d and 4s) of orbitals is small enough to prevent electron
entering the 3d orbitals. [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 77

Page 80

14. The common oxidation state shown by the element with atomic number 21 is
a. +3 b. +4
c. +5 d. Both +3 and +4 [E]

15. The maximum oxidation state shown by V (Z = 23), Cr (Z = 24), Co (Z = 27), Sc (Z = 21) is
respectively
a. +5, +6, +4, +3 b. +3, +4, +5, +2
c. +5, +3, +2, +1 d. +4 in each case [E]
16. Among Cu, Hg, Cd and Cn which is/are not regarded as transition elements
a. Cu only b. Hg and Cd only
c. Hg, Cd and Cn only d. Hg, Cu and Cn only [E]
17. The d-block element not having general electronic configuration of (n-1)d1– 10ns1–2 is
a. Pt b. Pd
c. Zn d. Cr [E]
18. Four successive members of the first series of the transition metals are listed below. For which one of
them the standard potential ( E0M2+ / M ) value has a positive sign?

a. Co (Z = 27) b. Ni (Z = 28)
c. Cu (Z = 29) d. Fe (Z = 26) [D]
19. The element with highest density is
a. Cr b. Ni
c. V d. Sc [E]
20. Exchange energy is maximum in
a. Sc b. Mn
c. Ti d. Zn [A]
21. The most stable manganese compound is
a. Mn2O7 b. MnF4
c. MnO2 d. MnSO4 [A]
22. The element having stable minimum oxidation of state (+1) is
a. Cr b. Cu
c. Zn d. Sc [E]
23. Which of the following statements is wrong? [E](KCET-19)
a. In highest oxidation states, the transition metals show acidic character
b. Mn3+ and Co3+ are oxidising agents in aqueous solution
c. Metals in highest oxidation states are more stable in oxide than in fluorides
d. All elements of 3d series exhibit variable oxidation states.

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 78

Page 81

24. Which of the following ions has the least magnetic moment?
a. Co2+ b. Cu2+
c. Ni2+ d. Fe2+ [A]
25. The element having highest magnetic moment is
a. Zn b. Cu
c. Mn d. Ni [A]
26. Identify the set of paramagnetic ions among the following. [E](KCET-20)
a. V2+, Co2+, Ti4+ b. Ni2+, Cu2+, Zn2+
c. Ti2+, Cu2+, Mn3+ d. Sc3+, Ti3+, V3+
27. Identify the correct sequence of number of unpaired electrons of the following ions.
a. Ti+3> Cr3+> Fe3+> Ni2+ b. Fe3+> Ni2+> Ti+3> Cr3+
c. Fe3+ > Cr3+> Ni2+ > Ti+3 d. Fe3+ > Cr3+>Ti+3> Ni2+ [E]
28. A compound of a metal ion Mx+ (Z = 24) has a spin only magnetic moment of 15 Bohr Magnetons.
The number of unpaired electrons in the compound are
a. 2 b. 4
c. 5 d. 3 [A]
29. Which of the following does not represent property stated against it? [E](KCET-21)
a. Co2+< Fe2+< Mn2+ - Ionic size b. Ti< V<Mn – Number of oxidation states
c. Cr2+< Mn2+< Fe2+- paramagnetic behaviour d.Sc<Cr < Fe- density
30. Statement1: Fe+3 ions show paramagnetic and magnetic moment of 5.92 BM
Statement 2: Fe+3 ions have d3 electronic configuration
Identify the correct statement
a. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
b. Both Statement I and II are incorrect
c. Both Statement I and II are correct
d. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect [A]
31. The stability of particular oxidation state of a metal in aqueous solution is determined by
a. enthalpy of sublimation of the metal b. ionisation energy
c. enthalpy of hydration of the metal ion d. all of these [E]
32. In aqueous solution, Electronic configuration of Cu(II) ion is 3d9 but electronic configuration of
Cu(I) ion is 3d10, which of the following is correct?
a. Cu(II) ion is less stable b. Cu(II) ion is more stable
c. Cu(I) and Cu(II) ions are equally stable d. Cu(I) ion is more stable [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 79

Page 82

33. The stability of Cu2+ (aq) rather than Cu+(aq) is due to
a. Less negative ∆hydHo of Cu2+ (aq) than Cu+
b. More negative ∆hydHo of Cu2+ (aq) than Cu+
c. More positive ∆hydHo of Cu2+ (aq) than Cu+
d. ∆hydHo of Cu2+ (aq) is zero and that of is Cu+ positive [A]
34. Match the following transition metal/compounds with their catalytic activity in the corresponding
processes.

Transition metal/compounds Name of the process
(i) TiCl4 + Al ( CH3 )3 (A. Wacker process
(ii) PdCl2 (B. Contact process
(iii) Ni (C. manufacture of polyethene
(iv) V2O5 (D) hydrogenation of fat
a. i-B, ii-C, iii-D, iv-A b. i-C, ii-A, iii-D, iv-B
c. i-A, ii-C, iii-D, iv-B d. i-D, ii-A, iii-B, iv-C [A]
35. Which of the following is not a condition for complex formation?
a. Small atomic size b. High nuclear charge
c. Variable oxidation states d. Availability of vacant d orbitals [E]
4.4 Important Compounds of d-Block Elements:
36. The correct increasing order of oxidising power is
a. VO2+<Cr2O72–< MnO4– b. VO2+> Cr2O72-> MnO4–
c. Cr2O72–< VO2+< MnO4–. d. MnO4–< Cr2O72–< VO2+ [D]
37. Statement–I: Potassium permanganate is a powerful oxidant.
Statement–II: KMnO4 oxidises I−to IO3−in acidic solution.
a. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
b. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
c. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
d. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. [D]
38. The product obtained when I- reacts with KMnO4 in faintly alkaline or neutral medium is
a. IO3– b. IMnO4+
c. I2 d. I3O− [A]
39. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a. KMnO4 oxidises iodide ion to iodine in acid medium
b. Permanganate is diamagnetic
c. Copper liberates hydrogen from acids
d. Ti2+ liberates hydrogen from dilute acids [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 80

Page 83

40. The reaction of aqueous KMnO4 with H2O2 in acidic conditions gives:
a. Mn4+ and O2 b. Mn2+ and O2
c. Mn2+ and O3 d. Mn4+ and MnO2 [A]
41. The oxidation state of chromium in the final product formed by the reaction between KI and acidified
potassium dichromate solution is:
a. +3 b. +2
c. +6 d. +4 [D]
42. Which of the following statements is not correct?
a. Scandium does not exhibit variable oxidation states
b. Brass is an alloy of copper and zinc
c. Actinoid contraction is greater than lanthanoid contraction
d. Mn2+ is colourless [A]
43. The basic oxide among the following is
a. CrO3 b. Cr2O3
c. CrO d. CrO4 [A]
44. The correct decreasing order of ionic character in the following oxides is
a. Mn2O7>MnO2>MnO b. MnO>MnO2>Mn2O7
c. Mn2O7>MnO>MnO2 d. MnO>Mn2O7>MnO2 [A]
45. The composition of chromite ore is
a. FeCr2O3 b. FeCrO3
c. FeCrO4 d. FeCr2O4 [E]
46. Choose the correct increasing order of the oxidation state of the central metal atom in the following
oxoanions. VO+2 , VO2+ , TiO2+ , CrO24−

a. VO2+ VO+2  TiO2+  CrO24− b. VO2+ TiO2+  VO+2  CrO24−

c. CrO24−  TiO2+  VO+2  VO2+ d. TiO2+  VO2+ VO2+  CrO42− [E]
47. Which of the following pair of metal oxides are amphoteric?
a. V2O5, Cr2O3 b. Mn2O7, CrO3
c. V2O5, V2O4 d. CrO, V2O5 [E]
48. Transition metal A forms highest oxidation state only with oxygen, which is acidic and covalent and
its divalent ion has a maximum magnetic moment. Its oxide oxidises iodide ion to Iodate ions in neutral
medium, the metal is
a. Sc b. Mn
c. Ag d. Cr [D]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 81

Page 84

49. In the dichromate dianion, the nature of bonds are
a. four equivalent Cr–O bonds
b. six equivalent Cr–O bonds and one O–O bond
c. six equivalent Cr–O bonds and one Cr–Cr bond
d. six equivalent Cr–O bonds and one Cr–O–Cr bond [D]
50. A mixture of NaCl and K2Cr2O7 is heated with conc H2SO4 deep red vapours are formed. Which of
the following statements is false? [E][KCET-19]
a. The vapours give a yellow solution with NaOH
b. The vapours contain CrO2Cl2 and Cl2
c. The vapours contain CrO2Cl2 only
d. The vapours when passed into lead acetate in acetic give a yellow precipitate

51. The ability of fluorine to stabilise the highest oxidation state of transition elements is due to
a. low lattice energy and high bond enthalpy. b. high lattice energy and high bond enthalpy
c. high lattice energy and low bond enthalpy. d. low lattice energy and low bond enthalpy. [A]
52. On heating potassium permanganate, one of the following compound is not obtained: [E] [KCET-15]
a. O2 b. MnO
c. MnO2 d. K2MnO4
53. Match the List - I(complex) with List - Il (central metal) and select the correct option
List I List II
A. Blood pigment i) Rh
B. Chlorophyll ii) Co
C. Vitamin B12 iii) Mg
D. Wilkinson Catalyst iv) Fe
a. A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv b. A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D – i
c. A - iv, B - ii, C - iii, D - i d. A - i, B - iii, C- ii, D – iv [D]
54. Which of the following transition metals cannot displace H2 from acids?
a. Sc b. Ti
c. Zn d. Cu [A]
55. Statement I: Cu displaces H2 gas from dilute acids.
Statement II: Cu2+ ions get reduced more easily than H+ ions.
a. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
b. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
c. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
d. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. [D]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 82

Page 85

4.5 Lanthanoids:
56. Lanthanoids react with water to form
a. Ln(OH)2 b. LnOH
c. Ln2O3 d. Ln(OH)3 [E]
57. The radius of La3+ (Z = 57) is 106 pm. Which one of the following given values will be closest to the
radius of Lu3+ (Z = 71)?
a. 160 pm b. 140 pm
c. 106 pm d. 85 pm [A]
58. Which of the following oxidation states is the most common among the lanthanoids?
a. 3 b. 4
c. 2 d. 5 [E]
59. What is the percentage of lanthanoid metal in mischmetall?
a. 90% b. 20%
c. 5% d. 95% [E]
60. Incorrect statement with reference to Ce (Z=58) is [E] [KCET-19]
a. Ce4+ is a reducing agent.
b. Ce in +3 oxidation state is more stable than in +4.
c. atomic size of Ce is more than that of Lu.
d. Ce shows common oxidation states of +3 and +4.
61. Although +3 is the characteristic oxidation state for lanthanoids but cerium also shows + 4 oxidation
state because of
a. Cerium+ 4 has less stable half filled 4f7-orbital.
b. Cerium+ 4 has more stable half filled 4f7-orbital
c. Cerium + 4 has noble gas configuration 4f0 5d0 6s0.
d. Cerium + 4 has more stable completely filled 4f14-orbital. [A]
62. The correct statement is [E] [KCET-14]
a. The extent of actinoid contraction is almost the same as lanthanoid contraction.
b. Ce+4 in aqueous solution is not known.
c. The earlier members of lanthanoid series resemble calcium in their chemical properties.
d. In general, lanthanoids and actinoids do not show variable oxidation states.
63. Trivalent lanthanoid ions to be colourless is/are
a. Eu b. La
c. Er d. Ce [A]
64. Lanthanoids on heating with carbon produces
a. mixtures of Ln3C, Ln2C3 and LnC2 b. mixtures of Ln2C, LnC3 and LnC
c. mixtures of LnC4 and LnC d. only LnC [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 83

Page 86

65. Reason of lanthanoid contraction is: -
a. Negligible screening effect of ‘f ’ orbitals. b. Increasing nuclear charge.
c. Decreasing nuclear charge. d. Decreasing screening effect. [E]
66. Identify the incorrect statement from the following: -
a. Zirconium and Hafnium have identical radii of 160 pm and 159 pm, respectively as a
consequence of lanthanoid contraction.
b. Lanthanoids reveal only +3 oxidation state.
c. The lanthanoids other than the f0 type and the f14 type are all paramagnetic.
d. The overall decrease in atomic and ionic radii from lanthanum to lutetium is called lanthanoid
contraction. [A]
67. Because of lanthanoid contraction, which of the following pairs of elements have nearly same atomic
radii? (Numbers in the parenthesis are atomic numbers).
a. Zr (40) and Nb (41) b. Zr (40) and Hf (72)
c. Zr (40) and Ta (73) d. Ti (22) and Zr (40) [E]
68. Match the following d and f - block elements with their properties or reactions: -
Column A (Elements/Compounds) Column B (Properties/Reactions)
A. Potassium Dichromate 1. Shows +3 and +5 oxidation states
B Manganese (Mn) 2. Used in Breathalyzer test for detecting alcohol
C Lanthanum (La. 3. Shows multiple oxidation states from +2 to +7
D Chromium (Cr) 4. Exhibits +3 oxidation state and is a typical lanthanoid
a. A-2B-3C-4D–1 b. A-1B-2C-4D–3
c. A-2B-1C-3D–4 d. A-3B-1C-2D–4 [D]
4.6 Actinoids:
69. Actinoids to show maximum oxidation states is
a. Ac b. No
c. Np d. U [E]
70. The reason for greater range of oxidation states in actinoids is attributed to :
a. Actinoid contraction. b. 5f, 6d and 7s levels having comparable energies.
c. 4f and 5d levels being close in energies. D. The radioactive nature of actinoids. [E]
71. The incorrect statement among the following is [E] [NEET-21]
a. actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially when finely divided.
b. actinoid contraction is greater for element to element than lanthanoid contraction.
c. most of the trivalent lanthanoid ions are colourless in the solid state.
d. lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and electricity.

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 84

Page 87

Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets:
(ONE MARK)
Set - 1
(exchange energy, increase, chromium, oxidation number, scandium)
1. Ionization energies ___________only slightly along the 3d series. [E]
2. The loss of __________ increases the stability. [E]
3. All the transition metals except _________form ionic metal oxides. [E]
4. As the ___________of a metal increase, ionic character decreases. [E]
5. Element with more unpaired electron in 3d series is ________ [E]
Set - 2
(Chromate, KClO4, K2Cr2O7, Zr, Ln, melting point)
1. The high __________ of 6th group elements is due to more unpaired electrons. [E]
2. The ________ ion is tetrahedral. [E]
3. _______ is the primary standard in volumetric analysis. [E]
4. Potassium permanganate crystals are isostructural with ________. [E]
5. Hf and ______ have almost identical radii. [E]
Set - 3
(Carbon dioxide, sodium dichromate, zinc, tin, Ln, +3)
1. Some_____ oxides are used as phosphors in television screens. [E]
2. Actinoids generally show ______ oxidation state. [E]
3. Acidified permanganate solution oxidises oxalates to ____________. [E]
4. Sodium chromate when acidified with sulphuric acid gives ________. [E]
5. Brass is an alloy of copper and ________. [E]
Set - 4
(Cu, Zero, Interstitial, Cr2+, catalytic, Mn+2)
1. Spin only magnetic moment of _______is 5.9 BM. [E]
2. The element of 3d series to have positive standard electrode potential is _____. [E]
3. The oxidation state of Fe in Fe(CO)5 is _____. [E]
4. The ion ______is strong reducing agents and will liberate hydrogen from a dilute acid. [E]
5. ______________ compounds are usually non stoichiometric. [E]
Set - 5
(zinc sulphate, Zn2+, increases, Interstitial, unpaired electrons, decrease)
1. Lanthanoid contraction is a overall ___________in atomic radii from La to Lu. [E]
2. Manganous salt is oxidised to MnO2in the presence of __________ [E]
3. _________ compounds chemically inert. [E]
4. The magnetic moment ___________ with the increasing number of unpaired electrons. [E]
5. ___________ forms colourless compounds. [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 85

Page 88

Set - 6
(Ag, high, Ti, low, +3, Hf)
1. Zr and ___________ have similar atomic radii. [E]
2. _____ salts show light sensitive properties. [E]
3. Mn has _____ 3rd ionisation properties. [E]
4. Oxide of _____ used in pigment industry [E]
5. The common oxidation states of lanthanoids is _____ [E]
Set - 7
(unpaired, Ce, Cu, +3, Hydrogen, +4)
1. Paramagnetismarised from the presence of ________ electrons. [E] [E1-2025]
2. The element of 3d series to have positive standard electrode potential is____ [E] [E3-2025]
3. A number of lanthanoid series which is well known to exhibit +4 oxidation state is___[E] [E3-2024]
4. The gas liberated when lanthanoids (Ln) react with acids is______ [E]
5. The general oxidation state of actinoids _____ [E]
Set – 8
(ferromagnetic, +2, +3, polyethylene, 0, 2.84BM,)
1. Oxidation state of ‘Ni’ in [ Ni (CO)4] is ---------- [E]
2. Ziegler catalyst is used in manufacture of ------------- [E]
3. Spin only magnetic moment of Ti2+ is -------------- [E]
4. The lowest common oxidation state of first row transition metals is ------------ [E]
5. The substances which are attracted very strongly to the magnetic field are said to be -------- [E]
TWO MARKS QUESTIONS:
4.2. Electronic Configurations of the d-Block Elements
1. Write the electronic configuration of Cr and Cu. [E]
2. On what ground can you say that scandium (Z=21) is a transition element but zinc (Z=30) is not?
[A][S-2021]
4.3. General Properties of the Transition Elements
3. Name the 3d series elements having
a) Maximum melting point
b) Minimum melting point [A]
4. Why do the transition elements exhibit higher enthalpies of atomisation? [A]
5. Why do the transition elements exhibit higher enthalpies of atomisation? [A]
6. The atomic sizes of Fe, Co, Ni are nearly same. Explain with reason [D]
7. Why density increases from Ti (Z=22) to Cu (Z=29)? [A]
8. For what reason transition metals have high melting points? [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 86

Page 89

4.3.3 Ionisation Enthalpies
9. Which element has highest 2nd ionisation enthalpy and lowest enthalpy of atomisation in first transition
series? [A]
10. Give reason: Ionisation enthalpy increases along transition elements from left to right. [A]
4.3.4 Oxidation States
11. Why Manganese exhibit maximum oxidation of +7 only with oxide? [D]
12. To what extent does electronic configuration decide stability of oxidation states? Give example. [D]
13. Name the transition metal which exhibits its higher oxidation state of +7 only with oxide.
Give reason. [D]
14. Which metal in the first series of transition metal exhibits +1 oxidation state most frequently and why?
[A]
4.3.5. Trends in the M2+ /M Standard Electrode Potentials
15. Give reasons: Cu+2 (aq) is more stable than Cu+
16. Why is Cr2+ reducing and Mn3+ oxidising when both have d4 configuration? [A]
17. The Eo(M2+/M) value for copper is positive (+0.34V). Give reason for this? [A]
18. Why is the Eo value for the Mn3+/Mn2+ couple much more positive than that for Cr3+/Cr2+ or Fe3+/Fe2+?
Explain. [E]
19. Which is a stronger reducing agent Cr2+ or Fe2+ and why? [A]
4.3.7. Trends in Stability of Higher Oxidation States
20. To what extent do the electronic configurations decide to stability of oxidation states in the first series
of transition elements? Illustrate your answer with example. [D]
21. Give any two examples for amphoteric oxides of 3d series. [E]
22. Give any two examples for acidic oxides of 3d series. [E]
23. The lowest oxidation state of manganese is basic while the highest is acidic. Explain. [A]
4.3.9. Magnetic Properties
24. Calculate the magnetic moment of Ti3+ ion? [E][S-2019] [Ans: 1.73 BM]
4.3.10. Formation of Coloured Ions
25. Transition elements forms colour compounds, Give two reasons? [E][S-2014]
4.3.12 Catalytic Properties
26. The transition metals and their compounds are known for their catalytic activity. Give two reasons.
[E] [A-2019,2020,2024, S-2018]
27. Iron (III) catalyses the reaction between iodide and persulphate ions in the reaction:
2I− + S2O82− ⎯⎯
→ I 2 + 2SO24− . Explain the catalytic action of catalyst iron (III) by using chemical
reactions. [D]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 87

Page 90

4.3.13 Formation of Interstitial Compounds
28. Write any two characteristics of interstitial compounds. [E][E1-2025]
4.3.14 Alloy Formation
29. What are the compositions of alloy a) Brass b) Bronze? [E][A-2022]
4.4. Some Important Compounds of Transition Elements
30. Draw the structure of dichromate ion? What is the value of bond angle of Cr-O-Cr in it? [A]
31. Draw the structure of permanganate ion (MnO4and magnate ion (MnO4 )2- . [A]
The Lanthanoids
4.5.3 Oxidation States
32. What is the common oxidation state shown by Lanthanoids? Mention any one consequence of
Lanthanoid contraction. [E]
4.5.4. General Characteristics
33. What is lanthanoid contraction? (A-14, S-16, A-17, S-18, E1-24) [A-2014, 2017, S-2016,2018, E1-24]
How Lanthanoid contraction influence on covalent nature of d block elements. [A]
34. Write any two differences between Lanthanoids and actinoids? [E]
35. What is the composition of Mischmetall? Write one use of it. [A]
36. Give reason: i) Separation of lanthanoids is difficult from their natural occurrence [A]
ii) Study of actinoids is difficult. [E]
37. Which organic compounds conversion is involved in Wacker process? Write the formula of the catalyst.
[A]
4.7. Some Applications of d- and f-Block Elements
38. Tungsten metal is used as a filament in bulb but zinc metal cannot be used in bulb. Why? [A]
39. Write one use of lanthanoids and actinoids. [A]
THREE MARKS QUESTIONS:
4.3. General Properties of the Transition Elements
1. The transition metals form a large number of complex compounds. Give three reasons. [A][MQP]
2. a) Give a reason for each of the following: [E][2024E1]
i) The spin only magnetic moment of Sc3+ is zero.
ii) Alloys are readily formed by transition metals. [E]
3. Write any 3 characteristic properties of interstitial compounds. [E] [2024E2]
2+
4. a) Calculate the magnetic moment of Fe by using spin only formula. (Atomic no. of Fe = 26) [E]
[Ans: 4.89 BM]
b) Write the equation for the reaction of lanthanoids with oxygen. [A][2025E2]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 88

Page 91

5. Give reason for the following: [E][2025E2]
a) Zn+2 is colourless.
b) Cerium shows +4 oxidation state.
c) Zr and Hf exhibit similar radii.
d) The melting points of transition metals increase up to d5configuration. Give reason. [A]
6. What are interstitial compounds? Write any two characteristics of them. [E][2024E3] [2025E2]

7. What are interstitial compounds? Give two examples. [E][MQP]
8. Calculate the spin only magnetic moment of M 3+ ion. (Z = 24). [E][Ans: 3.87 BM]
9. Considering the elements of 3d transition series, write the element which is
(i) Unable to form a monoxide.
(ii) Having positive E0 (M2+/M) value.
(iii) a base element of Ziegler Catalyst used to manufacture polythene. [D]
10. Name the oxometal anions of the first series of the transition metals in which the metal exhibits the
oxidation state equal to its group number. [D]
11. In general, transition metal ions of same charge in a given series show progressive decrease in atomic
and ionic radius with increase in their atomic number. Give two reasons this change in radius. Name
the phenomenon associated with this decrease. [A]
12. The enthalpies of atomization of Zinc and Copper are given. Match the correct enthalpies of
atomization of Zinc and Copper correctly. Give reason for your answer. [D]
Element Enthalpy of atomisation/ kJmol-1
Zinc 339
Copper 130
13. The graph below shows the first, second and third ionisation energies of a first series of transition
elements. In the graph, we can see a deviation in the fifth element in the trend for second ionisation
energy and a deviation in the sixth element in the trend for third ionisation energy. Identify the elements
and give reason for the deviation occurs. [D]
14. Use the data to answer the following and also justify giving reasons:
Cr Mn Fe Co
E0(M2+/M) -0.91 -1.18 -0.44 -0.28
0 3+ 2+
E (M /M ) -0.41 +1.57 +0.77 +1.97
Give reason:
(i) Among Cr2+ or Fe2+; which is a stronger reducing agent in aqueous medium.
(ii) Which is the most stable ion in +2 oxidation state? [D]
15. a) which metal in the first series of transition metal exhibhits +1 oxidation state most frequently and why?
[A]
b) What are interstitial compounds? [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 89

Page 92

4.4. Some Important Compounds of Transition Elements
16. Write the balanced chemical equations for the reactions involved in preparation of potassium
permanganate from MnO2. Write the structure of manganate ion. [A][MQP]
17. Write the balanced chemical equations for the reactions involved in preparation of potassium
dichromate from chromite ore. [A][2024E1][2025E1][2025E3]
18. Write the balanced chemical reaction for the following. [D][MQP]
a) Reaction between potassium dichromate and iodide ion in acidic medium.
b) Reaction between potassium dichromate and sulphide ion in acidic medium.
c) Reaction between potassium dichromate and stannous ion in acidic medium.
19. Write the balanced chemical reaction for the following [D][MQP]
a) Reaction between potassium permanganate and iodide ion in acidic medium.
b) Reaction between potassium permanganate and iodide ion in neutral medium.
c) Reaction between potassium permanganate and oxalate ion in acidic medium.
20. a) How does MnO4—reacts with iodide in acid solution and neutral solution? [D][2024E3]
b) Write formula to calculate spin only magnetic moment. [E]
21. Among sulphuric acid and hydrochloric acid, which acid will be preferred for permanganate
titrations?Give reason. [D][MQP]
22. a) Name the ore used in the preparation of Potassium dichromate [E][2024E2]
b) Complete the following equations:
(i) Cr2O72-- + 14 H+ + 6 Fe+2 -------→
(ii) 10 I-- + 2 MnO4-- + 16 H+ -------→ [A]
23. With the help of chemical reaction show that chromate and dichromate ions are inter convertible in
aqueous solution depending upon pH of the solution. Write the structure of dichromate ion. [A]
24. When a chromite ore "A" is fused with sodium carbonate in free excess of air and the product is
dissolved in water, a yellow solution of compound "B" is obtained. After treatment of this yellow
solution with H2SO4 , compound "C" can be crystallised from the solution. When the compound "C" is
treated with KCl, orange crystals of compound "D" is crystallised out. Write all reactions involved in
the conversion of “A" to "D". [D][MQP]
25. A blackish brown coloured solid 'A' when fused with alkali metal hydroxide in presence of air
produces a dark green coloured compound 'B' which on electrolytic oxidation in alkaline medium
givesa dark purple coloured compound 'C'. Identify A, B and C. [D] [MQP]
26. Explain the structure of dichromate ion (Cr2O7 2- ). [A]
27. a) ---------- + Na2CO3 + 7O2 -------→8 Na2CrO4 + 2 Fe2O3 + 8CO2 [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 90

Page 93

28. Explain the preparation of potassium permanganate from MnO2 with balanced equations. Mention the
gas evolved when KMnO4 is heated at 513 K.

4.5.4 General Characteristics of Lanthanoids and actinoids
8.5.2 Atomic and Ionic Sizes
29. What is Lanthanoid Contraction? Mention two consequences of it. [E][2024E1]
30. Write the products formed when lanthanoids reacts with [A][MQP]
a) Carbon b)Nitrogen c) acids
31. Give reasons for the following [A][MQP]
a) Actinoids show higher oxidation states.
b) Actinoids contraction is greater from element to element than lanthanoid contraction.
c) Chemical properties of actinoids are less known.
32. (a) Among lanthanoids and actinoids which series has more radioactive elements?[A][2024E2]
(b) Write any two consequences of lanthanoid contraction.
33. a) What is lanthanoid contraction? Mention the cause for it. [E][2024E3]
b) Which gas is liberated when lanthanoids reacts with acids? [A]
34. What is lanthanoid contraction? Write one comparison and one difference between
lanthanoids and actinoids with respect to oxidation states shown by them. [A][2025E1]
35. Mention the lanthanoid product formed in the following reactions: [A][MQP]
2773𝐾
i) Ln + C →
ii) Ln + C→
𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡
iii) Ln + S →
36. Write the formula of the three different types of compounds formed when lanthanoids reacts with
carbon or heated with carbon? [A][MQP]
37. Give reason for the following.; [D][MQP]
(i) Ce(III) is easily oxidised to Ce(IV).
(ii) Actinoids show wide range of oxidation states.
(iii) The second and third transition series elements have almost similar atomic radii.
38. a) Name two trivalent lanthanoid ions that is colourless. [A][2025E3]
b) What type of lanthanoid compounds are employed as catalyst in petroleum cracking?[A]
39. a) Among lanthanoid and actinoid series, which series show contraction greater from element to
element? Why? [E][MQP]
b) Name the element of actinoids that does not exhibit +3 oxidation state. [D]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 91

Page 94

4.7 Some Applications of d- and f-Block Elements
40. Write the composition for the following [A][MQP]
a) UK copper
b) Silver UK coins
c) Ziegler catalyst.
41. Name the catalyst used in the following. [A][MQP]
a) Haber process
b) Wacker process
c) Hydrogenation of fats.
42. Write any three uses of lanthanoids and actinoids. [A][MQP]



II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 92

Page 95

UNIT - 5
COORDINATION COMPOUNDS
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (ONE MARK)
5.1 Werner’s theory of coordination compounds
1. For each mole of PdCl2.4NH3 gives 2 moles of AgCl on reaction with excess of AgNO3. The secondary
valency of metal is
a) 6 b) 2 c) 0 d) 4 [A]
2. The conductivity of [CoCl2(NH3)4]Cl in solution corresponds to
a) 1 mole of ions b) 2 moles of ions
c) 3 moles of ions d) 4 moles of ions [D]
3. Which among the following has highest molar conductivity?
a) K4[Fe(CN)6] b) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
c) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 d) [Ni(CO)4] [A]
4. The primary and secondary valencies of [Fe(C2O4)3]3– complexes are [KCET-2025]
a) 3 and 3 b) 3 and 6
c) 6 and 3 d) 0 and 3 [A]
5. Which of the following octahedral complex has least conductivity in aqueous solution?
a) Co(NH3)5Cl3 b) Co(NH3)6Cl3
c) Co(NH3)4Cl3 d) Co(NH3)3Cl3 [D]
6. The compound does not give test of sulphate ion in aqueous solution is
a) K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O b) [Cu(H2O)4]SO4.H2O
c) FeSO4.(NH4)2SO4.6H2O d) [CoSO4(NH3)5]Br [A]
7. When a complex K 4 Fe ( CN )6  is dissolved in H2O, it dissociates in to

a) Fe2+ and 6 CN – ions b) 4K + and [Fe(CN)6] 4 – ions
c) 4K +, Fe2+ and 6 CN – ions d) 4K +, Fe3+ and 6 CN – ions [D]
8. A purple compound ‘M’ has a formula Co(NH3)6Cl3, on adding excess AgNO3 to one mole of ‘M’ produces
2 moles of AgCl. If secondary valence of Co is 6 then correct formula of the complex will be?
a) [CoCl3(NH3)6] b) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
c) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2.NH3 d) [Co(NH3)6Cl]Cl2 [D]
9. Which among the following is not a double salt?
a) Mohr’s Salt b) Potash Alum
c) Carnallite d) Potassium ferrocyanide. [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 93

Page 96

10. The correct order of the stoichiometries of AgCl formed when AgNO3 in excess is treated with the
complexes: CoCl3.6NH3, CoCl3.5NH3, CoCl3.4NH3 respectively is (coordination valency is 6):
a) 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl, 2 AgCl b) 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl, 1 AgCl
c) 2 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl d) 1 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl [NEET-17] [D]
11. In Complex compounds the metal atom or ion acts as
a) Lewis acid b) Lewis base
c) Bronsted acid d) Bronsted base [E]
12. The complex PtCl2.4NH3Br2 is treated with excess of AgNO3 solution, two mole of AgBr is precipitated.
The primary and secondary valence of this complex is
a) 6 and 1 b) 6 and 2
c) 4 and 6 d) 3 and 6 [D]
13. When one mole of complex Pt.Br2.4NH3 is treated with excess of silver nitrate solution, two moles of
silver bromide is precipitated then the primary and secondary valence of this complex is respectively,
a) 2 and 6 b) 6 and 2
c) 4 and 6 d) 2 and 4 [A]
14. Coordination number of the central atom/ion is determined by
a) only by the number of pi bonds formed by the ligand with the central atom/ion.
b) both by the number of sigma and pi bonds formed by the ligand with the central atom/ion.
c) only by the number of sigma bonds formed by the ligand with the central atom/ion.
d) by the total number of electrons present in ligand. [E]
15. In the complex ion [Fe(C 2O4)3] 3−, the co-ordination number of Fe is [E] [KCET-2025]
a) 3 b) 6
c) 4 d) 5
16. On treating 100 mL of 0.1 M aqueous solution of the complex CrCl3 ⋅6H2O with excess of AgNO3, 2.86g
of AgCl was obtained. The complex is [E] [KCET-2024]
a) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl⋅2H2O b) [Cr(H2O)5 Cl − ]Cl2 ⋅H2O
c) [Cr(H2O)6 Cl3] d) [Cr(H2O)3 Cl3]⋅3H2O
17. The complex hexamineplatinum(IV)chloride will give number of ions on ionisation. [E] [KCET-2022]
a) 5 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
18. The coordination number of Fe and Co in the complex ions, Fe(C2O4)3]3− and [Co(SCN)4]2− are
respectively [A] [KCET-2020]
a) 6 and 8 b) 3 and 4
c) 6 and 4 d) 4 and 6

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 94

Page 97

19. Out of the following complex compounds, which of the following compound will be having minimum
conductance in solution? [A] [NEET-2025]
a) [Co(NH3)4Cl2] b) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
c) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] d) Both (A) and (C)
20. Cobalt(III)chloride forms several octahedral complexes with ammonia. Which of the following will not
give test chloride ions with silver nitrate at 25oC? [NEET-2015]
a) CoCl3.6H2O b) CoCl3.3H2O
c) CoCl3.5H2O d) CoCl3.4H2O
21. Match the coordination number and type of hybridization with distribution of hybrid orbitals in space based
on valence bond theory [NEET-2020]
Coordination number and type of hybridization Distribution of hybrid orbitals in space
i. 4, sp3 p. trigonal bipyramidal
ii. 4, dsp2 q. octahedral
iii. 5, sp3d r. tetrahedral
iv. 6, d2sp3 s. square planar
a) i-q, ii-r, iii-s, iv-p b) i-s, ii-p, iii-q, iv-r
c) i-r, ii-p, iii-s, iv-q d) i-r, ii-s, iii-p, iv-q
5.2 Definitions of some important terms pertaining to coordination compounds
22. H2N -CH2-CH2-NH2 is a:
a) Monodentate ligand b) Chelating ligand
c) ambidentate ligand d) Cationic ligand [E]
23. Which of the following is true about metal in 3d series and EDTA complex?
a) The ratio of moles of metal & EDTA in complex is 1:6
b) The ratio of moles of metal & EDTA in complex is 6:1
c) 3d metal ion cannot bonded with EDTA
d) The ratio of moles of metal & EDTA in complex is 1:1 [E]
24. Which of the following is homoleptic complex?
a) Co ( NH3 )3 Cl3  b) Co ( NH3 )5 Cl  Cl2

c) Co ( NH3 4 ( H2O )2  Cl3 d) [Co ( NH3 )6 ]Cl3
[E]
25. Metal-Isothiocyanato is indicated by
a) M-NCS b) M-SCN
c) M-CNS d) M-CSN [E]
26. Donar atoms in EDTA4- are [NEET-21]
a) N and O b) N and H
c) N and C d) N and N [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 95

Page 98

27. An ambidentate ligand is
a) Cl– b) CN–
c) OH– d) NO +2 [E]
28. The ligand which forms more stable coordination complexes is
2−
a) NH3 b) C2O4
−
c) CN d) H2O [A]
29. The counter ion in the coordination compound [Co(NH3)5(NO2)]Cl2 is
a) Ammine b) Cobalt
c) Chloride d) Nitro [E]
30. Which of the following complex does not have chelation?
a) K3[Al(C2O4)3] b) [Pt(en)2]Cl2
c) K2[Ni(EDTA)] d) [Ag(NH3)2]Cl [A]
31. Which is the most stable complex among the following?
a) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ b) [Fe(NH3)6]3+
c) [Fe(C2O4)3]3- d) [FeCl6]3- [A]
32. Match the ligand given in column I with property in column II:
Ligand Property
(A) H2NCH2CH2NH2 (P) bidentate
(B) EDTA4- (Q) ambidentate
(C) NO2 (R) Tridentate
(D) NH(CH2CH2NH2)2 (S) hexadentate
a) A→R, B→P, C→P, D→Q b) A→P, B→R, C→P, D→P
c) A→P, B→S, C→Q, D→R d) A→P, B→ Q, C→P, D→ R [E]
33. A ligand which has two different donor atoms and either of the two ligates with the central metal atom/ion
in the complex is called [E] [KCET-2025]
a) Ambidentate ligand b) Unidentate ligand
c) Polydentate ligand d) Chelate ligand
34. Homoleptic complexes among the following are [E] [KCET-2021]
(A) K3[Al(C2O4)3] (B) [CoCl 2(en)2] + (C) K2[Zn(OH)4]
a) C only b) A and B only
c) A only d) A and C only
35. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate ion is a/an: [E] [NEET-2024]
a) bidentate ligand b) monodentate ligand
c) hexadentate ligand d) ambidentate ligand

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 96

Page 99

36. Which of the following is not an ambidentate ligand? [NEET-2024]
a) SCN− b) C2O42−
c) NO2− d) CN−
37. Given below are two statements: [NEET-2024]
Statement I: [Co(NH3)6]3+ is a homoleptic complex whereas [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ is a heteroleptic complex.
Statement II: Complex [Co(NH3)6] 3+ has only one kind of ligands but [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ has more than
one kind of ligands.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
c) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
d) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
38. Homoleptic complex from the following complexes is: [NEET-2024]
a) Diamminechloridonitrito - N-platinum (II) b) Triamminetriaquachromium (III) chloride
c) Potassium trioxalatoaluminate (III) d) Pentaamminecarbonatocobalt (III) chloride
39. A chelating agent has two or more than two donor atoms to bind to a single metal ion. Which of the
following is not a chelating agent? [Examplar]
a) thiosulphato b) oxalato
c) glycinato d) ethane-1,2-diamine
5.3 Nomenclature of coordination compounds
40. The correct IUPAC name of K3[Cr(C2O4)3] is
a) Potassiumtrioxalatochromium(III) b) Potassiumtrioxalatochromate(III)
c) Potassiumtrisoxalatochromate(III) d) Potassium oxalatochromate(III) [A]
41. IUPAC name for the complex [Cu(NH3)4] SO4 is
a) cuprammonium sulphate b) copper tetraammonia sulphate
c) tetraamminecopper(II) sulphate d) copper ammonium(IV )sulphate [A]
42. The IUPAC name of the complex [Ni(NH3)6]Cl2
a) Hexaammine nickel(II) Chloride b) Hexaammine nickel(IV) Chloride
c) Nickel(II) hexaammine Chloride d) Nickel(IV) hexaammine Chloride [A]
43. The formula of the complex tris (ethylene diamine) cobalt (III) sulphate is
a) [Co(en)2SO4] b) [Co(en)3SO4]
c) [Co(en)3]SO4 d) [Co(en)3]2(SO4)3 [A]
44. Which formula and its name combination is incorrect? [KCET-2025]
a) [Pt(NH3)2Cl(NO2)], Diamine chloridonitrito−N− Platinum (II)
b) [CoCl2(en)2]Cl, Dichloridobis (ethane - 1,2 - dimine) cobalt (III) chloride
c) K3[Cr(C2O4)3], Potassium trioxalatochromate (III)
d) [Co(NH3)5(CO3)]Cl, Pentaamine carbonylcobalt (III) chloride

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 97

Page 100

45. Which formula and name combination is incorrect? [KCET-2023]
a) K3[Al(C2O4)3] − Potassium trioxalatoaluminate (III)
b) [Pt(NH3)2Cl(NO2)] − Diamminechloridonitrito -N-platinum (II)
c) [Co(NH3)4(H2O)Cl]Cl2 − Tetraammineaquachloridocobalt (HI) chloride
d) [CoCl2(en)2 ]Cl − Dichloridodiethylenediammine cobalt (II) chloride
46. The correct IUPAC name of cis-platin is [KCET-2022]
a) diamminedichloridoplatinum (II) b) dichloridodiammineplatinum (IV)
c) diamminedichloridoplatinum (IV) d) diamminedichloridoplatinum (0)
47. The IUPAC name of [Co(NH3)5(CO3)]Cl is [KCET-2021]
a) carbonatopentamminecobalt (III) chloride b) pentaammine cobalt (III) carbonate chloride
c) pentaamminecarbonatocobalt (III) chloride d) pentaamminecarbonatocobaltate (III) chloride
48. The formula of penta aquanitrato chromium (III) nitrate is, [KCET-2019]
a) [Cr(H2O)6](NO2)2 b) [Cr(H2O)5(NO3)](NO3)2
c) [Cr(H2O)5(NO2)]NO3 d) [Cr(H2O)6](NO3)3
5.4 Isomerism in coordination compounds
49. In a complex, the ligand that shows linkage isomerism is
−
a) NO2 b) NH3

c) CO d) H2N-CH2-CH2-NH2 [A]
50. [Pt(NH3)4Cl2] Br2 complex can show:
a) Hydrated as well as ionization isomerism
b) Ionization as well as geometrical isomerism
c) Linkage as well as geometrical isomerism
d) Ionization as well as optical isomerism [D]
51. Possible isomerism in complexes [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3] and [Co(NH3)5(NO2)]Cl2, respectively are:
a) Linkage and optical b) Geometrical and linkage
c) Optical and ionization d) Linkage and ionization [A]
52. Which of the following coordination entity form racemic mixture when mixed in equimolar
concentration?
a) trans-[Co(en)2Cl2]+ b) [Cr(OX)3]3-
c) [Co(en)Cl4]- d) All [D]
53. The complexes [Co(NO2) (NH3)5] Cl2 and [Co(ONO) (NH3)5] Cl2 are the examples of
a) Coordination isomerism b) Ionisation isomerism
c) Geometrical isomerism d) Linkage isomerism [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 98

Page 101

54. The number of geometrical isomers of [Co(NH3)3(NO3)3] are :
a) 0 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4 [E]
55. Both geometrical and optical isomerism are shown by
a) [Cr(H2O)2(C2O4)2]+ b) [Co(en)3]3-
c) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ d) [Co(NH3)5Cl]+2 [D]
56. In the reactions [CoCl2(NH3)4]++ Cl– → [CoCl3(NH3)3] + NH3 two isomers of the product are obtained.
The initial complex is
a) cis isomer b) trans isomer
c) cis or trans isomers d) None of these [D]
57. Which of the following is not a subdivision of structural isomerism?
a) Coordination isomerism b) Linkage isomerism
c) Ionisation isomerism d) Geometrical isomerism [E]
58. Square planar complex of the type [MABXL] (where A, B, X, L are unidentate) shows
a) Two Cis and one Trans b) Two cis and Two trans
c) One Cis and two Trans d) one Cis and One Trans [E]
59. Which type of complexes shows geometrical isomerism?
a) [MX4] Tetrahedral. b) [MX4] Square planar
c) [MX2L2] Square planar d) [MX2L2] Tetrahedral [E]
60. Which type of complexes doesn’t shows geometrical isomerism?
a) [MX2L2] Tetrahedral. b) [MABXL] Square planar
c) [MX2L2] Square planar d) [MX4L2] Octahedral [E]
61. The optical active complex is
a) trans -[PtCl2(en)2]2+ b) Cis -[PtCl2(en)2]2+
c) trans- [CrCl2(ox)2]3- d) both a) and c) [A]
62. Linkage isomerism arises in a coordination compound containing
a) ambidentate ligand b) unidentate ligand
c) bidentate ligand d) Chelate ligand [E]
63. The type of isomerism arises from the interchange of ligands between cationic and anionic entities of
different metal ions present in a complex is
a) Linkage isomerism b) ionisation isomerism
c) Solvate isomerism d) co-ordination isomerism [A]
65. The complex compounds [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br and [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 are [KCET-2024]
a) optical isomers b) coordination isomers
c) ionisation isomers d) geometrical isomers

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 99

Page 102

64. Match the coordination compounds given in column I with type of isomerism exhibited by them in column
II:
Column I (Coordination compound) Column II (Isomerism)
i. [Co(en)3]Cl3 A. Linkage isomerism
ii. [Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] B. Optical isomerism
iii. [Co(NH3)5(SCN)]+2 C. Geometrical isomerism
iv. [Co(NH3)3Cl2]+ D. Coordination isomerism
a) i→ B, ii→ D, iii→ A, iv→ C b) i→C, ii→ D, iii→ A, iv→ B
c) i→ D, ii→ A, iii→ A, iv→ C d) i→ B, ii→ A, iii→ C, iv→ D [A]
66. Number of stereoisomers exhibited by [Co(en)2Cl2]+ is [KCET-2020]
a) 5 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
5.5 Bonding in coordination compounds
67. Among [Ni(CN)4]2- and [NiCl4]2-
a) [Ni(CN)4]2- is diamagnetic and [NiCl4]2- is paramagnetic
b) [Ni(CN)4]2- is paramagnetic and [NiCl4]2- is diamagnetic
c) Both [Ni(CN)4]2- and [NiCl4]2- are diamagnetic
d) Both [Ni(CN)4]2- and [NiCl4]2- are paramagnetic [A]
68. The complex ion [Co(NH3)6]3+ is diamagnetic, while [CoF6]3- is paramagnetic. This is due to
a) coordination number of cobalt b) oxidation state of cobalt
c) nature of ligand d) charge on complex ion [A]
69. sp3d 2 hybridisation is present in
a) [CoF6]3- b) [Ni(CO)4 ]
c) [Co(NH3)6]3+ d) [Ni(CN)4]2- [A]
70. The inner orbital complex is
a) [Co(NH3)6]3+ b) [CoF6]3+
c) [Co(H2O)6]3+ d) [CoCl6]3+ [D]
71. The high spin complex is
a) [Co(NH3)6]3+ b) [Co(CN)6]3
c) [Co(en)3]3+ d) [CoF6]3+ [A]
72. The tetrahedral complex is
a) [Ni(CN)4]2– b) [Ni(NH3)4]2+
c) [NiCl4]2– d) [Ni(en)2]2+ [D]
73. Square complex is
a) [Ni(CN)4]2– b) [NiF4]2–
c) [NiCl4]2– d) [Ni(CO)4]2+ [D]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 100

Page 103

74. Complex with maximum magnetic moment is
a) K4[Fe(CN)6] b) K3[Fe(CN)6]
c) [CoF6]3– d) [Co(NH3)6]3+ [D]
3−
 Mn ( CN )6  and  FeF6 
3−

75.  are
a) Inner orbital and outer orbital complexes respectively.
b) Both inner orbital complexes.
c) Outer orbital and inner orbital complexes respectively.
d) Both outer orbital complexes. [A]
76. The incorrect statement about Valence Bond theory
i. It involves a number of assumptions.
ii. It gives quantitative interpretation of magnetic data.
iii. It does not explain the colour exhibited by coordination compounds.
iv. It gives a quantitative interpretation of the thermodynamic or kinetic stabilities of coordination
compounds.
a) i only b) i and iv
c) ii and iv d) iii and iv [A]
77. Statement 1: The crystal field theory (CFT) is an electrostatic model which considers the metal-ligand
bond to be ionic.
Statement 2: The crystal field theory (CFT) considers ligands as point dipoles in case of neutral molecules
Identify the correct statement [A]
a) Both Statement I and II are correct c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
b) Both Statement I and II are incorrect d) Statement I is in correct and Statement II is correct
78. The degeneracy of d-orbitals of isolated gaseous metal is maintained when
a) Negative charges of dipole molecules surround the central metal.
b) Spherically symmetrical field of negative charges surrounds the metal.
c) Spherically unsymmetrical field of negative charges surrounds the metal.
d) Non spherical unsymmetrical field of negative charges surrounds the metal. [E]
79. In a complex with secondary valence six, the set of d-orbitals which experience more repulsion with
electrons of ligands are
a) dx2-y2 & dz2 b) dxy, dyz & dzx
c) dxy, dyz & dx2-y2 d) dyz, dzx & dz2 [E]
80. Arrange the following complexes in the increasing order of crystal field splitting;
3− 3+
Co ( CN )6  ,  CoF6  , Co ( H 2O )6  and  NiCl 4 
3− 2−

3+
a)  NiCl4    CoF6   Co ( H 2O )6   Co ( CN )6 
2− 3−

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 101

Page 104

3− 3+
b) Co ( CN )6   Co ( H 2O )6   CoF6    NiCl 4 
3− 2−

3− 3+
c) Co ( CN )6   Co ( H 2 O )6    Nicl4    CoF6 
2− 3−

3+ 3−
d)  CoF6    Nicl4   Co ( H 2O )6   Co ( CN )6 
3− 2−

[D]
81. According to spectral chemical series, the strongest field ligand is [KCET-2019]
a) CO b) NH3
c) H2O d) F– [E]
82. The correct electronic configuration of d4 coordination entities in a weak field ligand is
a) t2g3 eg1 b) t2g4 eg0
c) t2g2 eg2 d) t2g1 eg3 [A]
83. In an octahedral crystal field, the t2g orbitals are
a) Raised in energy by 0.4Δo b) Lowered in energy by 0.4Δo
c) Raised in energy by 0.6Δo d) Lowered in energy by 0.6Δo [E]
84. If Δo > P, the correct electronic configuration for d4 system will be:-
a) t2g4 eg0 b) t2g3 eg1
c) t2g0 eg4 d) t2g2 eg2 [A]
85. In octahedral complex ML6n+, Mn+ has five d-electrons and L is Strong field ligand. According to crystal
field theory, the magnetic properties of the complex ion correspond to how many unpaired electrons
a) 5 b) 1
c) 2 d) 3 [D]
86. The arrangement of ligands in the increasing order of ligand field strength based on spectrochemical series
is
a) I−  Cl−  OH −  H 2O  CO b) CO  H 2 O  OH −  Cl−  I −

c) I −  Cl−  H 2 O  OH −  CO d) H 2 O  CO  I −  Cl−  OH − [E]
87. The magnitude of CFSE (crystal field splitting complex, ∆0) can be related to the configuration of d-orbitals
in a coordination entity is
a) if ∆0 < P, the configuration is t32ge1g b) if ∆0 > P, the configuration is t32ge1g
c) if ∆0 > P, the configuration is t22ge2g d) if ∆0 < P, the configuration is t42ge0g [D]
88. If ethane-1,2-diamine is progressively added to green coloured [Ni(H2O)6]2+ in the molar ratios en:Ni, 1:1,
2:1, 3:1, then the correct order of colour changes of complexes would be
a) green, pale blue, blue, colourless b) green, pale blue, blue, violet
c) green, violet, blue, pale blue d) green, violet, pale blue, blue [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 102

Page 105

89. The relation between crystal field splitting energy of octahedral and tetrahedral complexes is
a) ∆t = (4/9) ∆o b) ∆o = (4/9) ∆t
c) 4∆t = 9∆o d) ∆t = (9/4) ∆o [E]
90. Match the coordination compounds given in column I with wavelength of light absorbed in column II:
Column I (Coordination compound) Column II (wavelength of light absorbed)
1. [CoCl(NH3)5]2+ A. 475nm
2. [Co(NH3)5(H2O)]3+ B. 310nm
3. [Co(NH3)6]3+ C. 500nm
4. [Co(CN)6]3- D. 535nm
a) 1→ B, 2→ D, 3→ A, 4→ C b) 1→C, 2→ D, 3→ A, 4 → B
c) 1→ D, 2→ C, 3→ A, 4→ B d) 1→ B, 2→ A, 3→ C, 4→ D [A]
91. Which of the following statements are true about [NiCl4 ] 2− ? [KCET-2025]
(A) The complex has tetrahedral geometry
(B) Co-ordination number of Ni is 2 and oxidation state is +4
(C) The complex is sp3 hybridised
(D) It is a high spin complex
(E) The complex is paramagnetic
a) A, C, D and E b) A, B, C and D
c) B, C, D and E d) A, B, D and E
92. Which of the following statements are true about [CoF6 ]3− ion? [KCET-2024]
I. The complex has octahedral geometry.
II. Coordination number of Co is 3 and oxidation state is +6 .
III. The complex is sp3d2 hybridised.
IV. It is a high spin complex.
a) II and IV b) II, III and IV
c) I, II and IV d) I, III and IV
93. If a didentate ligand ethane-1, 2-diamine is progressively added in the molar ratio en : Ni ::1:1, 2:1, 3:1
to [Ni(H 2O)6] 2+ aq solution, following co-ordination entities are formed.
I. [Ni(H2O)4 en] 2+ (aq) − pale blue
II. [Ni(H2O)2(en) 2] 2+ (aq) − blue/purple
III. [Ni(en)3] 2+ (aq) – violet
94. The wavelength in nm of light absorbed in case of I and III are respectively [KCET-2023]
a) 300nm and 475nm b) 600nm and 535nm
c) 475nm and 310nm d) 310nm and 500nm

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 103

Page 106

95. Which of the following system in an octahedral complex has maximum unpaired electrons?
a) d6(low spin) b) d9 (high spin)
c) d7 (high spin) d) d4 (low spin) [KCET-2023]
96. The correct order for wavelengths of light absorbed in the complex ions [CoCl(NH3)5]2+ , [Co(NH3)6]3+
and [Co(CN)6]3− is [KCET-2021]
a) [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [CoCl(NH3)5]2+ > [Co(CN)6]3−
b) [Co(CN)6]3− > [CoCl(NH3) 5]2+ > [Co(CN)6]3−
c) [Co(NH3)6]3+ >[Co(CN)6]3− > [CoCl(NH3)5 ]2+
d) [CoCl(NH3) 5]2+ > [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [Co(CN)6]3−
97. Which of the following are paramagnetic? [NEET-2025]
A. [NiCl4]2− B. Ni(CO)4 C. [Ni(CN)4] 2−
D. [Ni(H2O)6]2+ E. Ni(PPh3)4
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a) B and E only b) A and C only
c) A, D and E only d) A and D only
98. The correct order of the wavelength of light absorbed by the following complexes is, [NEET-2025]
A. [Co(NH3)6]3+ B. [Co(CN)6 ]3−
C. [Cu(H2O)4] 2+ D. [Ti(H2O)6 ]3+
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a) B<A<D<C b) B<D<A<C
c) C<A<D<B d) C<D<A<B
99. Given below are two statements: [NEET-2024]
Statement I: Both [Co(NH3)6]3+ and [CoF6]3− complexes are octahedral but differ in their magnetic
behaviour.
Statement II: [Co(NH3)6]3+ is diamagnetic whereas [CoF6]3− is paramagnetic.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
5.6 Bonding in metal carbonyls
100. The shape of pentacarbonyl iron(0) is
a) square pyramidal b) tetrahedral
c) trigonal bipyramidal d) Octahedral [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 104

Page 107

101. The number of bridged CO groups in Octacarbonyldicobalt (0) is
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 0 [E]
102. No. of Bridging CO ligands in Mn2(CO)10 is
a) Zero b) two
c) one d) three [E]
103. The structure of tetracarbonyl nickel(0) is,
a) tetrahedral b) trigonal bipyramidal
c) octahedral d) square pyramidal [E]
104. [Mn2(CO)10] and [Co2(CO)8] structures have [NEET-2024]
A. Metal-Metal linkage B. Terminal CO groups
C. Bridging CO groups D. Metal in zero oxidation state
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
a) Only A, B, C b) Only B, C, D
c) Only A, B, D d) Only A, C, D
105. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is: [E]
a) tetranuclear b) dinuclear
c) mononuclear d) trinuclear
5.7 Importance and applications of coordination compounds
106. In black and white photography, the developed film is fixed by washing with hypo solution which
dissolves the undecomposed AgBr to form a complex ion, the formed complex ion is:
a) [Ag(S2O3)2]3– b) [Ag(SO4)2]3–
c) [Ag(S2O8)2]3– d) [Ag(S2O4)2]3– [E]
107. Match the coordination compounds given in column I with central metal atom in column II:
Column I (Coordination compound) Column II (Central metal atom)
1. Chlorophyll A. Rhodium
2. Blood B. Cobalt
3. Wilkinson catalyst C. Magnesium
4. Vitamin B12 D. Iron
a) 1→ B, 2→ D, 3→ A, 4→ C b) 1→C, 2→ D, 3→ A, 4 → B
c) 1→ D, 2→ A, 3→ A, 4→ C d) 1→ B, 2→ A, 3→ C, 4→ D [E]
108. Wilkinsons catalyst, [Rh (PPh3)3 Cl] is used for
a) Hydrogenation of oils b) Polymerisation of alkenes
c) Hydrogenation of alkenes d) Hydrogenation of alkynes [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 105

Page 108

FILL IN THE BLANKS BY CHOOSING THE APPROPRIATE WORD FROM THOSE GIVEN IN
THE BRACKETS: (ONE MARK)
Set-1
(Primary, potash alum, Lewis acids, Ferricyanide, polyhedra, secondary)
1. The number of groups bound directly to the metal ion is _________valence [E]
2. The _________ valences are normally ionisable. [E]
3. The spatial arrangements are called coordination_____. [E]
4. __________dissociate into simple ions completely when dissolved in water. [E]
5. In a coordination entity central atoms/ions are referred as __________ [E]
Set-2
(ambidentate, Octahedral, sigma bonds, Homoleptic, Square planar, chelate)
1. When a ligand uses its two or more donor atoms simultaneously to bind a single metal ion, then it is a
_______ ligand. [E]
2. Ligand which has two different donor atoms and either of the two ligetes in the complex is
called_________ ligand. [E]
3. Coordination number of the central atom is determined by the number of _______ formed by the ligand
with the central atom. [E]
4. ________ complexes do not show geometric isomerism. [E]
5. Fac-Mer isomerism is shown by ______complexes of the form MX3L3 [E]

Set-3
(EDTA, ambidentate, trigonal bipyramidal, Werner, VBT, cis)
1. Example for polydentate ligand is ______ [E]
2. In a coordination entity [PtCl2(en)2]2+ _____isomer shows optical activity. [E]
3. Linkage isomerism arises in a coordination compound containing ________ligand. [E]
4. _______ theory fails to explain the bonds in coordination compounds have directional properties. [E]
5. sp3d hybrid orbitals have _________ shape. [E]

Set-4
(high spin, diamagnetic, zero, Sp3, dsp2, [Co(CN)6]3–)
1. [Co(NH3)6]3+forms _________ octahedral complex. [E]
2. [NiCl4]2+ is a ______ complex. [E]
3. _______ is an inner orbital complex. [E]
4. The oxidation state of Ni in [Ni(CO)4] complex is _______ [E]
5. The hybridisation of [Ni(CN)4]2– is _______ [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 106

Page 109

Set -5
(Weak, tetrahedral, paramagnetic, five, four, Ethylenediaminetetra acetate]
1. __________ion can bind through two nitrogen and four oxygen atoms to a central metal ion. [E]
2. [Ni(CO)4] complex _____________ and diamagnetic. [E]
3. [FeF6]3– has a paramagnetic moment of ____unpaired electrons. [E]
4. [MnCl6]3– is outer orbital ____________ complex. [E]
5. According to spectrochemical series Iodide ion is ________ ligand. [E]
Set -6
(tetrahedral, crystal field, colourless, valence bond, violet, t32g e1g)
1. In high spin complexes d4 has __________configuration. [E]
2. In crystal field splitting the subscript ‘g’ is not used for ___________ complex.
3. If a complex having d1 electron absorbs light with energy in blue-green region than complex appears to be
_______ . [E]
4. The ____theory attributes the colour of the coordination compounds to d-d transition of the electron. [E]
5. Removal of water from [Ti(H2O)6]Cl3 on heating gives ___________compound. [E]
Set-7
(Cobalt, magnesium, NO2-, zero, one)
1. ambidentate ligand is__________. [E]
2. Vitamin B12 is a coordination compound of ___________metal. [E]
3. Oxidation State of ‘Ni’ in [Ni(CO)4] is _________. [E]
4. Chlorophyll is a coordination compound of metal ________. [E]

TWO/THREE MARKS QUESTIONS:
5.1 Werner’s theory of coordination compounds
1. Write any two differences between double salt and coordination complex. [E]
2. What is meant by double salt? Give one example. [E]
3. Write any two differences of primary and secondary valencies. [E]
4. In a given complex [MnCl6]3– indicate primary and secondary valencies. [A]
5. If secondary valence of Co3+ is 6 then number of moles of AgCl formed when excess AgNO3 is added to
a) CoCl3.6NH3 b) CoCl3.5NH3 is. [D]
6. Indicate the type of valences having following properties
i) Ionisable and satisfied by negative ions:
ii) Valences having characteristic spatial arrangements: [A]
7. What are primary and secondary valences if a complex with formula PdCl2.4NH3 precipitates 2 moles of
AgCl per mole of compound with excess AgNO3? [D]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 107

Page 110

8. The complex NiCl2.6H2O gives 2moles of AgCl on reaction with excess of AgNO3. Formulate the complex
and how many moles of ions were obtained for each mole of complex dissolved in excess of water.
[D]
9. Give the postulates of Werner theory of coordination compounds. [E]
10. One mole of a complex having empirical formula CoCl3. 4NH3 gives one mole of AgCl on reaction with
excess of AgNO3. Formulate the complex and write the possible geometrical isomers. [D]
11. Write the IUPAC name of i) [Ti(H2O)6]3+ ii) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ iii) [Co(en)3]3+ [A]
12. For the complex [Fe(en)2Cl2]Cl (At.No.Fe:26)
i) What is the oxidation state of metal ion?
ii) Mention the geometry of hybrid orbitals.
iii) How many moles of AgNO3 is required to react with one mole of the complex [A]
13. For the complex, Mercury (I) tetrathiocyanato-S-cobaltate (III)
a) What is coordination number of Co.
b) Identify the ligand present in this complex.
c) Does ionization isomer for the following compound exist? [A]
14. Differentiate [Fe(CO)5] and K[Fe(NH3)2(CN)4] with respect to
i) Oxidation state of metal
ii) shape
iii) in which complex synergic bond will formed [A]

5.2 Definitions of some important terms pertaining to coordination compounds
15. What is chelate ligand? Give one example. [E]
16. What is a) co-ordination polyhedral b) counter ions. [E]
17. What are heteroleptic complex? Give an example. [E]

5.3 Nomenclature of coordination compounds
18. Using IUPAC names write the formulae for the following: (1markeach)
Tetrahydroxidozincate(II)
Tris(ethane-1,2-diamine)platinum(II)nitrate
Potassiumtrioxalatochromate(III)
Dichloridobis(ethane-1,2-diamine)platinum(IV)nitrate.
Potassiumtetracyanatonickelate(II)
Pentaamminenitrito-O-cobalt(III) [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 108

Page 111

19. Write the IUPAC name of the following (1mark each)
Sl. No Co-ordination compound
1 K[Au(CN)2]
2 [Fe(en)3]Cl3
3 [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
4 [Co(NO2)3(NH3)3]
5 [Ag(CN)2]–
6 K3[Fe(CN)5(CO)]
7 K3[Co(C2O4)2Cl2]
8 [Cr(NH3)3(H2O)3]Br3
9 [Cr(C2O4)3]3-
10 [Ag(NH3)2][Ag(CN)2]
11 [Co(SCN)4]-
[A]
5.4 Isomerism in coordination compounds
20. Explain geometrical isomerism in coordination compounds with an example. [E]
21. Explain optical isomerism in coordination compounds with suitable example. [E]
22. What type of isomerism is exhibited by the following pairs of complexes?
i) [Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] and [Co(CN)6][Cr(NH3)6]
ii) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 and [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2H2O [A]
23. Draw structure of geometrical isomers of [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+. [A]
24. Draw structures of geometrical isomers of [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3]. [A]
25. Draw the geometrical isomers of [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]. [E]
26. Among tetrahedral and square planar complex, which will not show geometrical isomerism? Why? [E]
27. Draw structures of optical isomers of [Co(en)3]3+. [D]
28. Draw structures of optical isomers of [PtCl2(en)2] 2+ [D]
29. Indicate the types of isomerism exhibited by the following complexes
(i) K[Cr(H2O)2(C2O4)2]
(ii) [Co(en)3]Cl3 [D]
30. The ratio of metal (M), didentate ligand (L-L) and monodentate ligand (X) in a complex is 1:2:2. Draw
the geometrical isomers of the complex and mention the optically active isomer. [D]
31. Mention the number of cis and trans isomers are possible for the complex [Pt(NH3)(Br)(Cl)(Py)] and
how many of these will exhibit optical isomerism? [A]
32. Write the geometrical isomers of [Pt(NH3)(Br)(Cl)(Py)] [D]
33. For the complex [Co(NH3)2(en)2]. Write the IUPAC name and draw the optical isomers. [D]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 109

Page 112

34. Two complexes A and B have same empirical formula CoClSO4. 5NH3. For each mole complexes,
complex ‘A’ give 1mole of BaSO4 on reaction with excess of BaCl2 but does not react with AgNO3 and
complex ‘B’ give 1mole of AgCl on reaction with excess of AgNO3 but does not react with BaCl2
solution. Name the type of isomerism exhibited by the complexes and formulate the complex A and B.[D]
35. Write the Geometrical isomers and mention the secondary valency for [Cr(NH3)3(H2O)3]Cl3 complex. A]
36. For the complex [Co(NH3)5(NO2)]Cl2. Write the linkage isomer and IUPAC name of both isomers. [A]

5.5 Bonding in coordination compounds
37. [Fe(H2O)6]3+ is strongly paramagnetic whereas [Fe(CN)6]3- is weakly paramagnetic. Explain. [A]
38. Why [Co(NH3)6]3+is an inner orbital complex where as [CoF6]3- is an outer orbital complex? [E]
39. The spin only magnetic moment of [MnBr4]+2 is 5.9 B.M. predict the geometry of the complex. [D]
40. Write any two merits of crystal field theory. [E]
41. What is crystal field splitting? Why subscript ‘g’ is not used for tetrahedral complexes. [A]
42. Both anhydrous CuSO4 and CuSO4.5H2O contains unpaired electrons but anhydrous CuSO4 is
colourless while CuSO4.5H2O is blue in colour. Why? [A]
43. How does nature of ligands (NH3, H2O, Cl-, CN-) affect the absorption wavelength of complex having
Co3+ central metal ion? [A]
44. Write the energy level diagram for the crystal field splitting in octahedral complex. [E]
45. Explain crystal field splitting in tetrahedral co-ordination entities with a neat labelled diagram. [E]
48. How does the crystal field splitting effect the electronic configuration of a metal ion (d6) in weak field
and strong field ligand of octahedral complex? [A]
48. Using Crystal field theory, explain the colour of [Ti(H2O)6]3+complex. [E]
49. Illustrate the influence of ligand on colour in [Ni(H2O)6]2+ complex. [A]
50. Write any 3 limitations of valence bond theory. [E]
51. Using VBT explain hybridisation, magnetic property and shape of [Ni(CN)4]2– complex. [E]
52. Using valence bond theory account for hybridization, geometry and magnetic property of [CoF6]3-. [E]
53. Using valence bond theory account for hybridization, geometry and magnetic property of [Co(NH3)6]3+.
[E]
54. Write the name, structure and magnetic behavior of the complex K2[NiCl4], which is a low spin complex.
[E]
55. Applying VBT, predict the number of unpaired electrons in the square planar [Pt(CN)4]-2 ion. (Given
outer EC of Pt = 5d96s1) [A]
56. Draw energy level diagram of crystal field splitting in octahedral complex. What is spectrochemical
series? [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 110

Page 113

57. A metal complex has t2g5eg0 electronic configuration, then
i) What is the coordination number of the metal?
ii) What is the nature of the ligand
iii) How many unpaired electrons are present [D]
58. a) Based on crystal field theory, write the configuration for metal with d6 electron system, when
i) ∆o< P ii) ∆o> P.
b) What is pairing energy? [E]

5.6 Bonding in metal carbonyls
59. Name the Metal present in a) hemoglobin b) vitamin B12. [E]
60. How are M-C σ and M-C π bond formed in metal carbonyls? [E]
61. How many square pyramidal units are present in Decacarbonyldimanganese (0)? Write the formula and
structure of Decacarbonyldimanganese (0). [E]
62. Write the formula and structure of Octacarbonyldicobalt (0). How many bridged carbonyl ligands are
present in it? [E]
63. With the help of structure explain synergic effect in metal carbonyls? How it effects on M-CO bond
strength in such compounds? [E]
5.7 Importance and applications of coordination compounds
64. Write the structure of (EDTA)2– ion. Explain how Na2EDTA is used to estimate hardness of water by
simple titration method? [E]
65. Give one example each for the applications of coordination compounds in
a) Extraction of metals b) Analytical chemistry c) Biological systems [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 111

Page 114

Unit 6
Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (ONE MARK)
6.1 Classification;
1. Chlorine containing antibiotic, produced by microorganisms which is very effective for the treatment
of typhoid fever is (E)
a) Chloramphenicol b) Thyroxine
c) Chloroquine d) Halothane.
2. The halogen containing compound used as anaesthetic during surgery. (E)
a) Chloramphenicol b) Thyroxine
c) Chloroquine d) Halothane.
3. Match the items List-I with match List II (E)
List-I List-II
A) Chloramphenicol i) Anaesthetic
B) Thyroxine ii) Typhoid fever
C) Chloroquine iii) Goiter
D) Halothane iv) Malaria
v) Potential blood substitutes
a) A-(ii), B- (iii), C-(iv), D-(i) b) A-(iii), B-(v), C-(iv), D-(i)
c) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(v), D-(iv) d) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
6.2 Nomenclature;
4. 1,1 Dichloroethane is also called (A)
a) Ethylidene chloride b) Ethane chloride
c) Ethylene dichloride d) Pyrene.
5. The IUPAC name of the given compound is (E)

a) Chlorotoluene b) Benzoyl chloride
c) Chlorophenyl methane d) Chloromethyl benzene

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 112

Page 115

6. Vicinal dihalides are obtained from reaction of (A)
a) Alkene and HBr b) Alkene and Br2
c) Alkanes and Br2 d) Alkanes and HCl
7. An example of vinyl halide is (E)
a) 1-Chloro-cyclohex-1-ene b) 1-Chloro-cyclohex-2-ene
c) 1-Chloro-cyclohexane d) 2-Chlorocyclohexane
8. Sym-Tribromobenzene is (E)
a) 1,2,3-Tribromobenzene b) 1,1,1-Tribromobenzene
c) 2,4,6-Tribromobenzene d) 1,3,5-Tribromobenzene.
9. An example of allyl halide is (E)
a) Chloroethene b) 2-Chloropropene
c) 3-Chloropropene d) Isopropyl chloride
10. 1,2-Dichloroethane is an example of (E)
a) Alkylene dihalides b) Alkylidene halides
c) Vinyl dihalides d) Gem-dihalides.
11. Match the items List-I with match List II (A)
List-I List-II
A) sec-Butyl chloride i) Chloroethene
B) neo-Pentyl bromide ii) 2-Bromo-2-methylpropane
C) Vinyl chloride iii) 1-Bromo-2,2-dimethylpropane
D) Allyl bromide iv) 2-Chlorobutane
v) 3-Bromopropene
a) A-(ii), B- (iii), C-(iv), D-(i) b) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(v)
c) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(v) d) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
12. Which of the following is an example for vicinal dihalides? (A)
a) Dichloromethane b) Allyl chloride
c) Ethylidene dichloride d) 1,2-Dichloroethane
6.3 Nature of C-X Bond
13. The total number of structural isomers possible for compound having molecular formula C5H11Br is
(D)
a) 4 b) 5
c) 8 d) 6
14. Which among the following has chiral carbon? (A)
a) 2-Chloro propane b) 3-Chloro-pentane
c) 2-Chloro butane d) 2-Chloro-2-methyl-propane.

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 113

Page 116

15. The number of isomers possible for compound having formula C4H9Br (A)
a) 4 b) 3
c) 2 d) 1
16. The alkyl compound having largest C-X bond length (A)
a) CH3 – Cl b) CH3 – Br
c) CH3 – I d) CH3 – F
17. The alkyl compound having highest C-X bond enthalpy (A)
a) CH3 – Cl b) CH3 – Br
c) CH3 – I d) CH3 – F
18. The alkyl compound having least dipole moment (A)
a) CH3 – Cl b) CH3 – Br
c) CH3 – I d) CH3 – F
19. The compound having highest dipole moment (E)
a) CH3-F b) CH3-Cl
c) CH3-Br d) CH3-I
6.4 Methods of Preparation of Haloalkanes;
20. The best reagent used to produce pure alkyl halides from alcohols is (A)
a) Concentrated HCl b) Concentrated HBr
c) SOCl2 d) NaBr
21. SOCl2 replaces -OH group of a compound to -Cl group, the halo compound that cannot be obtained
from this method is (A)
a) Benzyl chloride b) Chlorobenzene
c) Benzoyl chloride d) Isopropyl chloride.
22. Aryl halide cannot be prepared from phenol because (D)
a) Phenol is more reactive than aryl halide.
b) Aryl halide is more reactive than phenol.
c) Carbon-oxygen bond in phenols has a partial double bond character.
d) Carbon-oxygen bond in phenols has a less bond energy.
23. Good yields of R—I may be obtained by heating alcohols with sodium or potassium iodide in (E)
a) 95% Orthophosphoric acid b) 98% Orthophosphoric acid
c) 78% Orthophosphoric acid d) 48% Orthophosphoric acid
24. The reaction that produces single haloalkane in low yield. (E)
a) Reaction between alcohol and Concentrated HCl in presence of ZnCl2
b) Reaction between alcohol and SOCl2 in presence of pyridine.
c) Reaction between alkene and HBr in presence of H2O2
d) Free radical chlorination of alkanes.

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 114

Page 117

25. Free radical chlorination or bromination of alkanes is not preferred to prepare halo alkanes.
i) Reaction takes place in sunlight. ii) Reaction produces single product
iii) Difficult to separate pure compounds iv) Yield of single product is low.
The correct reason that justify above statement is/are (A)
a) iii only b) iii and iv only
c) i, ii and iii d) iv only
26. Addition of bromine to alkene in CCl4 is an important method for detection of unsaturation (double
bond), the product formed in this method is (A)
a) Tertiary halo compounds b) Allyl halides
c) Geminal dihalides d) Vicinal dihalides
27. In Finkelstein reaction NaX formed is precipitated by dry Acetone and favours forward reaction, this
is according to (E)
a) Markovnikov’s rule. b) Anti Markovnikov’s rule.
c) Le Chatelier’s Principle d) Zaitsev Rule.
28. Match the items List-I with match List II (A)
List-I List-II
A) ROH + SOCl2 i) R-I
B) CH2=CH2 + Br2 ii) R-Cl
C) R-Br + NaI iii) R-OH
D) R-Cl + aq NaOH iv) BrCH2-CH2Br
a) A-(ii), B- (iii), C-(iv), D-(i) b) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
c) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii) d) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
29. Among the isomeric alkanes of molecular formula C5H12, identify the one that on photochemical
chlorination yields A single monochloride (E)
a) n-Pentane b) 2-Methyl butane
c) Cyclo pentane d) 2,2-Dimethyl-propane
30. Among the isomeric alkanes of molecular formula C5H12, identify the one that on photochemical
chlorination yields three isomeric monochlorides (A)
a) n-Pentane b) 2-Methylbutane
c) Cyclopentane d) 2,2-Dimethyl-propane
31. Among the isomeric alkanes of molecular formula C5H12, identify the one that on photochemical
chlorination yields four isomeric monochlorides (A)
a) n-Pentane b) 2-Methyl butane
c) Cyclopentane d) 2,2-Dimethyl-propane
32. The alkanes which on monochlorination produces chiral compounds (A)
a) Propane b) Ethane
c) Butane d) Methane.

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 115

Page 118

33. When an alkene reacts with a component ‘X’ in CCl4 reddish brown colour of component ‘X’ disappears
to yield vicinal dihalide. Component ‘X’ is (A)
a) Cl2 b) HBr
c) Br2 d) I2
6.5 PREPARATION OF HALOARENES;
34. The major product A obtained in the (E)

35. Dry acetone is used in Finkelstein reaction because. (D)
a) It is volatile solvent.
b) It contains ketone group
c) NaCl and NaBr formed is precipitated and favours forward reaction.
d) R-I formed is precipitated and favours forward reaction.
36. Metallic fluoride not used in Swartz reaction is. (A)
a) AgF b) NaF
c) SbF3 d) Hg2F2
37. Statement I: Iodination of benzene are reversible.
Statement II: Iodination of benzene requires the presence of an oxidising agent to oxidise HI formed.
Identify the correct statement (D)
a) Both Statement I and II are correct
b) Both Statement I and II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 116

Page 119

38. Select the incorrect match (A)
i) Swartz reaction ----- CoF2 ii) Finkelstein reaction---NaI
iii) Sandmeyer’s reaction---CuCl2 iv) Wurtz reaction ----Na/dry ether
a) i only b) i and iii
c) iii only iv) i and ii
39. A compound X with molecular formula C2H4 reacts with HBr to give compound Y, which on further
reacts with NaI in dry acetone to give compound Z. Identify compound Z (D)
a) C2H5I b) C2H5F
c) C2H5Br d) C2H4IBr
40. The correct name of the reaction R − X + NaI ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Dryacetone
→ R − I + NaX is (E)
a) Finkelstein reaction b) Wurtz reaction
c) Swarts reaction d) Friedel –Craft reaction
41. The haloarene cannot be prepared from Sandmeyer’s reaction is (A)
a) C6H5-Cl b) C6H5-Br
c) C6H5-F d) Both a and b
42. A hydrocarbon C5H10 does not react with chlorine in dark but gives a single monochloro compound
C5H9Cl in bright sunlight. The hydrocarbon is (D)
a) 2-Pentene b) 2-Methyl but-2-ene
c) Cyclopentane d) 2,2-Dimethyl-propane
43. Statement I: Replacement of the diazonium group by iodine does not require the presence of cuprous
halide.
Statement II: Iodobenzene is difficult to prepare from diazonium salts. (A)
Identify the correct statement
a) Both statement I and II are correct
b) Both statement I and II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.
44.

(E)
a) Swarts reaction b) Sandmeyer reaction
c) Wurtz reaction d) Fittig reaction

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 117

Page 120

45. Match the items List-I with match List II (E)
List-I List-II
A) Cu2Cl2 i) Swarts reaction
B) CoF2 ii) Finkelstein reaction
C) NaI iii) Sandmeyer’s reaction
D) Na/Dry ether iv) Wurtz reaction
a) A-(ii), B- (iii), C-(iv), D-(i) b) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
c) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii) d) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
46. The reagent used in Sandmeyer’s reaction is (E) (May-2025, MQP- 2025)
a) Cu2Cl b) Cu and HCl
c) Cu2Cl2 d) CuCl2
6.6 Physical Properties;
47. Gaseous halo compound at room temperature. (D)
a) Pyrene b) Ethylchloride
c) Chlorobenzene d) Chloroform
48. The boiling points of alkyl halides decrease in the order: (A)
a) RI > RBr > RCl > RF b) RI < RBr < RCl < RF
c) RBr >RCl > RI > RF d) RBr < RCl < RI < RF
49. Select the correct order of melting points of isomeric dichlorobenzenes. (A) (March-2025)
a) o-dichlorobenzene > m-dichlorobenzene > p-dichlorobenzene
b) p-dichlorobenzene > m-dichlorobenzene > o-dichlorobenzene
c) p-dichlorobenzene > o-dichlorobenzene > m-dichlorobenzene
d) m-dichlorobenzene > o-dichlorobenzene > p-dichlorobenzene
50. Four haloalkane compounds represented by the letters M, N, O and P having boiling point are 24.2°C,
38°C, 3.56°C and 101.6°C respectively. Among the four compounds N most likely to be (A)
a) CH3Cl b) CH3Br
c) C2H5Br d) C3H7I
51. Statement I: Alkyl halides are colourless when pure
Statement II: Bromides and iodides develop colour when exposed to light
Identify the correct statement (E)
a) Both Statement I and II are correct
b) Both Statement I and II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 118

Page 121

52. Statement I: Many volatile halogen compounds have sweet smell (E)
Statement II: Molecules of organic halogen compounds are generally nonpolar.
Identify the correct statement
a) Both Statement I and II are correct
b) Both Statement I and II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
53. Statement I: Boiling points of isomeric dihalobenzenes are in the order of Ortho isomer> Para isomer
> Meta isomer (E)
Statement II: Melting points of isomeric dihalobenzenes are in the order of Para isomer > Ortho isomer
> Meta isomer
Identify the correct statement
a) Both Statement I and II are correct
b) Both Statement I and II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
54. Compounds P and Q have the same molecular formula C4H9Br. Compound P on reaction with aqueous
KOH gives racemic mixture and Compound Q on reaction with aqueous KOH gives alcohol that reacts
with Lucas reagent only on heating. Compound P and Q are (D)
a) P= 2-Bromo, 2-Methyl propane, Q = 2-Bromo butane
b) P = 2-Bromo butane , Q = 1-Bromo propane
c) P = Tertiary butyl bromide. Q = 1-Bromo butane.
d) P = 1-Bromo butane, Q = Tertiary butyl bromide
55. Para-isomers of dihalobenzenes have high melting points compared to their ortho and meta-isomers. It
is due to (D)
a) Lower dipole moment of para isomer.
b) Lesser repulsion in para isomer.
c) Symmetry of para-isomers that fits in crystal lattice better.
d) Unsymmetry of para-isomers that fits in crystal lattice better.
56. Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their density (A)

a) I < III < IV < II b) IV < III < II < I
c) I < II < III < IV d) II < IV < III < I

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 119

Page 122

6.7 Chemical Reactions;
57. Match the items List-I with match List II (A)
List-I List-II
A) C2H5-Br + KCN i) C2H5-NC
B) C2H5-Br + AgCN ii) C2H5OH
C) C2H5-Br + alcoholic NaOH iii) C2H5-CN
D) C2H5-Br + aq NaOH iv) CH2=CH2
a) A-(ii), B- (iii), C-(iv), D-(i) b) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
c) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii) d) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
58. The number of atoms/groups bonded to carbon of transition state in SN2 mechanism is/are (A)
a) 4 b) 5
c) 3 d) 2
59. The haloalkane which reacts fast with SN2 mechanism (E)
a) Methyl chloride b) Methyl iodide
c) Isopropyl chloride d) Tertiary butyl bromide.
60. The haloalkane which reacts fast with SN1 mechanism (E)
a) Methyl chloride b) Methyl iodide
c) Isopropyl chloride d) Tertiary butyl bromide.
61. The incorrect statement among the following is (D)
a) Enantiomers possess identical physical properties.
b) Enantiomers only differ with respect to the rotation of plane polarised light.
c) Enantiomers are stereoisomers which are non-superimposable mirror images.
d) Enantiomers are optically inactive.
62. The alkyl halide which produce racemic mixture in SN1 reaction is. (D) (May-2025)
a) Isopropyl chloride b) Tertiary butyl bromide
c) 2- Chloro butane d) Methyl iodide
63. The major product formed when (+) 2-Bromo butane reacts with aqueous NaOH (D)
a) (+) 2-Butanol b) (-) 2-Butanol
c) (±) 2-Butanol d) (+) 2-Butene
64. The main product obtained when alkyl halides react with AgCN is (A)
a) Alkyl cyanide b) Alkyl Isocyanide
c) Alkyl nitrite d) Nitroalkane
65. The major product formed in the following reaction is (A)

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 120

Page 123

a) 1-Butene b) 2-Butanol
c) 1-Bromobutane d) 2-Butene
66. The major product formed when 2-bromopentane reacts with alcoholic KOH (A)
a) Pent-1-ene b) Pent-2-ene
c) Pent-2-ol d) Pent-1-ol
67. Identify C in the following compound (D)

68. The alkyl halide that produces equimolar mixture of dextro and leavorotatory isomers in SN1 reaction
is (A)
a) Tertiary butyl bromide b) 2-Bromobutane
c) Isopropyl chloride d) Methyl chloride
69. Statement I: Enantiomers are non-superimposable mirror images on each other. (A)
Statement II: A racemic mixture shows zero optical rotation.
Identify the correct statement
a) Both statement I and II are correct
b) Both statement I and II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.
6.8 Polyhalogen Compounds.
70. Synthetic halogen compounds used for the treatment of malaria is (E)
a) Chloroquine b) Halothane
c) Chloramphenicol d) Thyroxine
71. In animals DDT is deposited and stored in (E)
a) Stomach b) Blood
c) Fatty tissues d) Lungs.
72. The chemical that is effectiveness against the mosquito that spreads malaria and lice that carry typhus
is (E)
a) Chloramphenicol b) Thyroxine
c) Chloroquine d) DDT.

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 121

Page 124

73. The chemical name of phosgene is (E)
a) Chromyl chloride b) Triphenylphosphine
c) Phosphorusoxychloride d) Carbonyl chloride.
74. Triiodomethane was used earlier as an antiseptic. The antiseptic properties are due to (A)
a) Presence of iodoform. b) Liberation of iodine.
c) Objectionable smell. d) Presence of methane.
75. Match the items List-I with match List II (A)
List-I List-II
A) Dichloromethane i) Liver Cancer
B) Chloroform ii) Typhus
C) Tetrachloromethane iii) Phosgene
D) DDT iv) Human central nervous system
a) A-(iv), B- (iii), C-(i), D-(ii) b) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
c) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii) d) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
76. Match the items List-I with match List II (E)
List-I List-II
A) Chlorination i) Freons
B) Swarts reaction ii) Biphenyl
C) β-elimination iii) Chlorobenzene
D) Fittig reaction iv) Alkenes
a) A-(iv), B- (iii), C-(i), D-(ii) b) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
c) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii) d) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
77. The synthesis of alkyl fluorides is best accomplished by (E) (NEET-15)
a) Finkelstein reaction b) Swarts reaction
c) Free radical fluorination d) Sandmeyer's reaction
78. The first chlorinated organic insecticide prepared is: (A) (KCET-2024)
(a) Gammexane (b) Chloroform
(c) COCl2 (d) DDT
79. Identify chiral molecule in the following compounds. (A) (March 2023)
a) 2-Bromobutane b) 1-Bromobutane
c) 2-Bromopropane d) 2-Bromo-2-methyl-propane.
80. The stereo isomers related to each other as non-superimposable mirror images are called (E)(March 2024)
a) Enantiomers b) Diastereomers
c) Anomers d) Racemic mixture

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 122

Page 125

FILL IN THE BLANKS BY CHOOSING THE APPROPRIATE WORD FROM
THOSE GIVEN IN THE BRACKETS: (ONE MARK)
Set-1
(hydrocarbon, carbocation, ionic, Grignard reagent, alkyl cyanides, covalent)
1. Alkyl halide reacts with magnesium in dry ether to produce ____ (E)
2. Grignard reagent on hydrolysis with water yields ______. (A)
3. SN1 reaction involves ________intermediate (E)
4. The carbon magnesium bond in Grignard reagent is _____ and polar (E)
5. Haloalkanes react with KCN to form _______ as major product. (A)

Set-2
(Increases, SN1, density, Cu2Cl2, alkyl isocyanides, SN2)
1. Haloalkanes react with AgCN to form _______ as cheif product (A)
2. With the increase in size and mass of halogen atom boiling point________ (E)
3. The__________ increases with increase in number of carbon atoms. (E)
4. The catalyst used in Sandmeyer’s reaction is _________. (E)
5. The reaction involving in two step mechanism is _______. (E)

Set-3
(Swartz, Dehydrohalogenation, Sandmeyer’s, Finkelstein, Wurtz, Fitting)
1. ___________ reaction produces hydrocarbon with double the carbon in haloalkanes. (A)
2. The reaction that converts bromo ethane to fluoro ethane is ________ reaction (E)
3. Chlorobenzene is prepared from benzenediazonium chloride in _________ reaction (E)
4. In _______ reaction bromo ethane yields ethene (A)
5. Alkyl iodides are prepared by the reaction of alkyl bromides with NaI in dry acetone. This reaction is
known as ____________reaction. (E)
Set-4
(SN2, inversion, achiral, Zaitsev, retention, SN1)
1. ________reactions are generally carried out in polar protic solvents. (A)
2. ________ reaction follows single step reaction mechanism. (E)
3. SN2 reactions forms products with __________ in configuration. (E)
4. Propan-2-ol is an ______molecule. (E)
5. Dehydrohalogenation of halo alkanes follows___________ rule. (E)

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 123

Page 126

Set-5
(less, Grignard reagent, electron withdrawing, more, toluene, biphenyl)
1. Bromo benzene on reaction with Na in dry ether forms _______. (E)
2. Methyl chloride and chlorobenzene on heating with sodium produces _______. (A)
3. Haloarenes are _____ reactive for nucleophilic reactions. (E)
4. An example for organometallic compounds is ______. (E)
5. The presence of _______groups increase nucleophilic reaction of halo arenes. (A)
Set -6
(Methylene chloride, iodoform, tetrachloromethane, freons, Chloroform, phosgene)
1. Chloroform on oxidation with air in presence of light forms _________ . (E)
2. _________harms the human central nervous system. (E)
3. ________was widely used as a cleaning fluid. (E)
4. The unreactive, non toxic and easily liquifiable gases is _____. (E)
5. Earlier_________was used as antiseptic. (E)
Set -7
(geminal dihalide, vicinal dihalides, allyl halide, Isopropyl chloride, alkenes, alcohols,)
1. ______ is an example of secondary halo alkanes. (E)
2. Ethylidene chloride is a ________ (E)
3. Alkyl halides are best prepared from____. (E)
4. Addition of bromine in CCl4 to an alkene results in synthesis of ______ (E)
5. A halo alkane with beta hydrogen atom is heated with alcoholic KOH yields _______ (E)
Set -8
(non polar, electron withdrawing group, alkanes, racemisation, (+)-octan-2-ol, polar)
1. In the Grignard reagent, the carbon-magnesium bond is covalent and highly ______ . (E)
2. Rate of nucleophilic reaction of halo arenes are increased by presence of _______________ group (E)
3. The process of conversion of enantiomer into a racemic mixture is known as __________. (E)
4. When (–)-2- Bromooctane is reacted with sodium hydroxide, the product formed is _______. (E)
5. In Wurtz reaction, alkyl halides react with sodium in dry ether to gives ______________. (E)
Set -9
(Carbonyl chloride, liver, freon, DDT, Tetrachloromethane, Chloroform)
1. The polyhalo compound used as an anesthetic during surgery was _____. (E)
2. Chloroform is metabolised to phosgene in _____________. (E)
3. Phosgene is also known as ____________. (E)
4. Using Swartz reaction Freon12 is manufactured from _________________. (E)
5. In Stratosphere, natural ozone balance is upset by initiation of radical chain reactions by ______ (E)

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 124

Page 127

TWO MARKS QUESTIONS:
6.1 Classification;
1. Classify the following into geminal and vicinal dihalides (A)
a) Ethylene dichloride
b) Methylene chloride.
2. Classify the following into allyl and vinyl halides (A)
a) 3-Chloropropene
b) 1-Chloro ethene.
3. Give one example for each of the following.
a) Geminal dichloride b) Vicinal dihalides
6.4 Methods of Preparation of Haloalkanes;
4. Why the free radical halogenation of alkane’s method is not advised for the preparation of haloalkanes?
(D)
5. Halo arenes cannot be prepared from phenols. Why? (D)
6. Explain Swartz reaction with an example. (E)
7. Explain Finkelstein reaction with an example. (E)
6.5 Preparation of Haloarenes;
8. Write the product obtained when toluene reacts with i) Cl2 in sunlight ii) Cl2 with FeCl3 (A)
9. Why Iodobenzene and fluorobenzene cannot be prepared from halogenation of benzene. (D)
10. Write the structures of different dihalogen derivatives of propane. (A)
11. Write the reactions involved in the preparation of bromobenzene from Aniline. (A)
12. Explain Sandmeyer’s reaction with an example. (E)
6.6 Physical Properties;
13. Haloalkanes are very slightly soluble in water? Give reasons. (A)
14. Explain why halo alkanes are more soluble in organic solvents than in water? (A)
15. Boiling points of chlorides, bromides and iodides are higher than hydrocarbon of comparable molecular
mass. Justify your answer with two reasons. (A)
6.7 Chemical Reactions;
16. Give two differences between SN2 and SN1. (E)
17. What are optically active compounds? Name the instrument used to measure optical activity. (E)
18. How the plane polarized light is produced? Name the instrument used to measure optical rotation (E)
19. What are enantiomers? Name one physical property which differentiates enantiomers. (E)
20. Write the product obtained when ethyl bromide reacts with
i) alcoholic KCN ii) AgNO2 (A)

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 125

Page 128

21. What are ambident nucleophiles? Give an example. aa (E)
22. What is Grignard reagent? Write its general formula. (E)
23. Complete the following reaction and name the reaction. C6H5 − Br + CH3Br ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Na/dry ether
→ X + 2NaBr (A).

24. Which of the following compound will react faster in SN2 reaction with –OH? (E)
(i) CH3Br or CH3I (ii) (CH3)3CCl or CH3Cl.
26. What is meant by racemic modification? “Racemic mixtures are optically inactive”. Give reason. (A)
27. Complete the following reaction
i) C6 H5MgBr + C2 H5ONa ⎯⎯
→ (A)

ii) CH3Br + KNO2 ⎯⎯
→B (A)
28. Although chlorine is an electron withdrawing group, yet it is ortho-, para- directing in electrophilic
aromatic substitution reactions. Why? (D)
29. Explain Zaitsev (Saytzeff) rule with an example. (E) (MAY-2025)
30. Explain Wurtz reaction with suitable example. (E) (March 2019, March 2025)
31. Explain Wurtz-Fittig reaction with suitable example. (E)
32. Explain Fittig reaction with suitable example. (E) (March 2016, March 2018, MAY-2025)
33. Explain Friedel-Craft’s alkylation for chlorobenzene. Give equation. (E)
34. Which of the following alkyl halide more reactive towards SN2 mechanism? (A)
i) CH3–Br or (CH3)3C–Br
ii) (CH3)3CCH2Br or C2H5–Br
35. Identify (A) and (B) in the following reactions. (A)
i) A + Na ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Dryether
→(CH3 )3 C − C(CH3 )3 + NaBr
h
ii) B + O2 ⎯⎯ → COCl2 + HCl

36. Why Grignard reaction should be carried out in dry condition? (A)
37. With the help of chemical reaction show that presence of electron withdrawing group fastens
nucleophilic reactions of haloarenes. (D)
38. Write the IUPAC name of major product obtained when chlorobenzene reacts with acetyl chloride in
presence of anhydrous AlCl3. Name this reaction. (A)
39. p-Dichlorobenzene has higher m.p. than those of o- and m-isomers. Give reasons. (A)
40. Write the structure of DDT and mention one of its uses. (E)
41. Name the reaction involved in the preparation of Freon-12 from tetrachloromethane. Mention one of
its uses. (A)
42. Mention one use of chloroform in each field of medical and industry. (E)
43. What is racemic mixture? Represent the butan-2-ol in racemic mixture form. (E)
44. Write the IUPAC name of product obtained when ethyl bromide reacts with sodium iodide in dry
acetone. Name the reaction. (A)(March-2024)

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 126

Page 129

45. Complete the following equation: (A)
a) 2C6H5-X + 2Na ____________ + 2NaX (March 2014)
CCl4
b) H2C=CH2 + Br2 _____________ (March-2024)

c) C2H5OH + SOCl2 _____________ (March-2014)

46. Write the IUPAC name of product obtained when chlorobenzene reacts with sodium in dry ether. Name
the reaction. (A) (March-2015)

THREE MARKS QUESTIONS.
6.4 Methods of Preparation of Haloalkanes;
1. Compound (M) with formula C3H6 on reaction with HBr forms a compound (N), compound N on
heating with Na metal in dry ether produces hydrocarbon X. Write the IUPAC names of compound M,
N and X. (D).
2. Complete the following reaction sequences.
C6H6 + Br2 ⎯⎯⎯
FeBr3
→ Y ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Mg/dryether
→ Z ⎯⎯⎯
RNH 2
→ (A).
3. When alkyl chlorides are reacts with sodium iodide in dry acetone gives alkyl iodide. (A)
(i) Name this reaction.
(ii) Write the general equation.
(iii) Mention the role of dry acetone.
6.7 Chemical Reactions;
4. Write the steps involved in the mechanism of conversion of 2-Chloro-2-methyl butane in to 2-Methyl-
butan-2-ol. Which type of solvent favors such reaction? (A)
5. Write the steps involved in mechanism of conversion of Ethyl chloride in to ethanol. What order of
kinetics it follows? (A)
6. Why Haloarenes are least reactive towards Nucleophilic reactions Mention three reasons. (E)
(March-2014, March 2017, March-2023)
7. With the help of resonance structures show that presence of nitro group on meta positions does not
effects reactivity of haloarenes towards nucleophilic reactions. (D)
8. With the help of resonating structures explain why chlorine directs electrophile towards ortho and para
positions of haloarenes in spite of its electron withdrawing nature? (D)
9. Illustrate Zaitsev rule with an example. (A)
10. Primary alkyl halide C4H9Br (A) reacted with alcoholic KOH to give compound (B).Compound (B) is
reacted with HBr to give (C) which is an isomer of (A). Write the structure of A, B and C. (D)
11. Define the following a) Racemic mixtures b) Enantiomers c) Optical isomers. (E)

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 127

Page 130

12. Write the equations for the steps involved in the mechanism for the conversion of tert-butyl bromide to
tert-butyl alcohol. Among polar protic solvent and non-polar solvent, which solvent is generally used
in SN1 reaction. (A)
13. Out of C6H5CH2Cl and C6H5CHClC6H5, which is more easily hydrolysed by aqueous KOH? Justify
your answer. (A)
14. Complete the following equation: (A)
H CH3
i) HBr ?

H H

ii)

Cl

iii) i.NaOH, 623K, 300 atm ?
+
ii. H

15. Write the chemical reaction for the conversion of 1-Bromo-propane to 2-Bromo-propane. Name the
rules/principles involved in the above conversions. (A)

16. The treatment of alkyl chlorides with aqueous KOH leads to the formation of alcohols but in the
presence of alcoholic KOH, alkenes are the major products. Explain (A)
17. Write the SN2 mechanism for the conversion of chloromethane to methanol. Mention its order
(M-2024, March 2016, M-2025) (E).
18. Explain SN1 mechanism of conversion of tertiary butyl bromide to tertiary butyl alcohol. (March-2014,
March 2015, March 2016, March 2018, March 2019, March-2023, MAY-2025).
19. Identify the product of A, B and C in the following equation. (March 2015)

FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS.
CASE STUDY TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Primary alkyl halide C4H9Br (A) reacted with alcoholic KOH to give compound (B). Compound (B) is
reacted with HBr to give (C) which is an isomer of (A). When (A) is reacted with sodium metal it gives
compound (D), C8H18 which is different from the compound formed when n-butyl bromide is reacted
with sodium. Give the structural formula of (A) and write the equations for all the reactions. (D).

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 128

Page 131

2. A compound M with molecular formula C3H6 reacts with HBr to give compound N which on reaction
with sodium metal in dry ether produces compound P. Compound N on reaction with some reagent R
yields compound M. Compound M on reaction with reagent X produces isomer of Compound N. Write
the structure of M, N and P. Mention reagents R and X. (D)
3. A researcher performed reaction of 1-Butene with HCl yielded a compound A, which rotated plane
polarised light towards right. He then treated compound A with aqueous KOH to produces compound
B. When compound A was heated with reagent C he got a compound D that was isomer of 1-butene.
Write the structures of Compound A, B and D. Mention reagent C. What will be the optical activity of
compound B? (D)
4. Benzene on reaction with Cl2 and FeCl3 gives compound A. Compound A on reacting with CH3Cl and
anhydrous AlCl3 produces compound B. Compound B can also be prepared from compound A by other
reagent X. Write the structures of Compound A and B. Indicate the other reagent X. Name the two
reactions involved in conversion of compound A to compound B. (D)
5. In laboratory, a student named Sanju of class 2nd PU reacted organic compound X (C3H6) with HBr to
obtained compound Y and later he repeated same reaction along with hydrogen peroxide to get
compound Z. He made to react compound Y with sodium metal in ether to get compound A. Similarly,
Sanju reacted compound Z with sodium metal in another reaction vessel separately to get compound
B. Write the structures of X, Y, Z, A and B. (D)




II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 129

Page 132

Department of School Examination (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination Assessment Board

Unit 7
Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQS) (ONE MARK)

7.1 Classification:
1. The general formula of an aliphatic alcohol is
a) R-H b) R-OH
c) R-CHO d) R-COOH [E]
2. The chemical formula of glycerol is,
a) C3H6O2 b) C3H3O3
c) C2H8O2 d) C3H8O3 [A]
3. In glycerol,
a) One – OH group is attached to 10 – carbon and one at 20 – carbon
b) Both – OH groups attached to 20 – carbon
c) One – OH group is attached to 10 – carbon and two at 20 – carbon
d) Two –OH groups attached to 10 – carbon and one at 20 – carbon [D]
4. The dihydric alcohol is
a) isobutyl alcohol b) ethylene glycol
c) glycerol d) secondary butyl alcohol [A]
7.2 Nomenclature:
5. Match the column I with column II and mark the appropriate choice
Column I Column II
A) Tertiary alcohol i) Butan – 2 – ol
B) Allylic alcohol ii) 2 – Methylpropano – 2 – ol
C) Secondary alcohol iii) Propan – 1 – ol
D) Primary alcohol iv) Prop – 2 – en – 1 – ol
a) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii b) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
c) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv d) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii [D]
6. In allylic and benzylic alcohols, – OH group is attached to
a) sp2and sp2 – hybridized carbon atom respectively
b) sp 3and sp3 – hybridized carbon atom respectively
c) sp 2and sp 3 – hybridized carbon atom respectively
d) sp 3and sp 2 – hybridized carbon atom respectively [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 130

Page 133

Department of School Examination (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination Assessment Board

7. In vinylic alcohols, – OH group is bonded to
a) sp 2 – hybridized carbon atom of the benzene ring
b) sp 3 – hybridized carbon atom of alkane
c) sp 2 – hybridized carbon atom of alkene
d) Both a and c [E]
8. Match the column I with column II and mark the appropriate choice
Column I Column II
A) 20 – alcohol i) CH2 – CH(OH) – CH = CH2
B) Allylic alcohol ii) CH2 = CH – OH
C) Benzylic alcohol iii) CH2 – CH(OH) – CH2 – CH2
D) Vinylic alcohol iv) C6H5 – CH2 – OH
a) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i b) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
c) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii d) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii [D]
9. Catechol is an example of
a) Dihydric alcohol b) Monohydric alcohol
c) Trihydric alcohol d) Benzylic alcohol [E]
10. Quinol is
OH OH OH OH
OH
a) b) c) d) [E]
OH HO OH
OH
11. The correct IUPAC name of Isobutyl alcohol is
a) Butan – 2 – ol b) Butan – 1 – ol
c) 2 – Methylpropan – 1 – ol d) 2 – Methylpropan – 1 – ol [A]
12. Match the List – I with List – II
List – I List – II
A) m – Cresol i) Benzene – 1,4 – diol
B) Resorcinol ii) Propane – 1,2,3 – triol
C) Hydroquinol iii) 3 – Methyl phenol
D) Glycerol iv) Benzene – 1,3 – diol
a) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i b) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
c) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-ii d) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii [D]
CH3

CH3 O CH CH3
13. The common and IUPAC name of the fallowing compound are
a) methylpropyl ether and 2 – methoxypropane
b) diethyl ether and 1 – methoxylpropane
c) ethylmethy ether and 1 – methoxypropane
d) methylisopropyl ether and 2 – methoxypropane[A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 131

Page 134

Department of School Examination (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination Assessment Board

7.3 Structures of Functional Groups:
14. The C – O bond length in phenol is less than that in methanol due to
a) Partial double bond character of oxygen with aromatic ring
b) sp2– hybridized carbon atom to which oxygen atom attached
c) Unshared electron pairs of oxygen conjugated with the aromatic ring
d) All the above [A]
15. The correct order of C – O bond length in ethanol, phenols and methoxymethane are
a) ethanol> phenols >methoxymethane
b) ethanol≅ phenols > methoxymethane
c) ethanol≅ methoxymethane > phenols
d) phenols>methoxymethane> ethanol [D]
16. The C – O – H bond angles of P, Q and R are found to be 111.7o, 109o, 108.9o respectively,
compound P, Q and R are
a) P = Phenol, Q = Methanol,R = Methoxy Methane.
b) P = Methoxy Methane, Q = Methanol, R = Phenol.
c) P = Methanol, Q = Phenol, R = Methoxy Methane.
d) P = Methoxy Methane, Q = Phenol, R = Methanol. [D]
17. Statement I: The C – O – C bond angle in ethers is slightly greater than the tetrahedralangle
Statement II: The C – O – C bond angle in ethers is slightly greater than alcohols due to the greater
repulsive interaction between the two bulky (–R) groups.
a) Both statement I and II are correct b) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect
c) Statement I is incorrect and II is correct d) Both statement I and II are incorrect [A]
7.4. Alcohols and Phenols
7.4.1 Preparation of Alcohols:
18. An alkene CH3CH=CH2 is trated with B2H6 in presence of H2O2. The final product formed is [D]

OH O
a) b) OH
O c) d)

19. The hydroboration – oxidation reaction of alkene takes place accordance with the
a) Markovnokov’s rule b) Saytzeff’s rule
c) Anti – markovnokov’s rule d) None of these [E]
20. The markovnikove’s rule is not fallowed in
a) Reaction of HBr with symmetric alkenes b) Oxymercuration–demercuration
c) Alkenes react with H2O in the presence of acid d) Hdroboration–oxidation [D]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 132

Page 135

Department of School Examination (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination Assessment Board

21. Compound C3H6 on hydrolysis with dil. acid give a product ‘X’ and the same compound on
hydroboration oxidation give a product ‘Y’. Find X and Y
a) X= 1 – propanol and Y= 1 – propanol b) X= 2 – propanol and Y= 2 – propanol
c) X= 1 – propanol and Y= 2 – propanol d) X= 2 – propanol and Y= 1 – propanol [E]
22. The compound that is most difficult to protonate is
a) Ph – O – H b) H2O
c) CH3OH d) CH3 – O – CH3 [D]
Pd or Pt
23. Identify the product A of the following reaction, R − CHO + H2 → A
a) RCOR b) R – H
c) R – CH2 – OH d) None of these [A]
24. The reducing agent used to reduce ketone to secondary alcohols is
a) K2Cr2O7/H+ b) NaBH4
c) KMnO4/H+ d) All the above [A]
25. The reducing agent used to reduce carboxylic to primary alcohols in excellent yield is
a) Palladium b) LiAlH4
c) NaBH4 d) Nickel [A]
26. Find the product ‘A’ in the following reaction [E]
O
O
CH2 C OCH3

OH OH
OH O

C b) CH2 C OCH3
a) CH2 OCH3

O OH
OH
CH2 C OCH3 CH2 CH2 OH
c) d)

27. Primary alcohols can be prepared by the reaction of
a) Formaldehyde and methyl magnesium iodide
b) Acetaldehyde and methyl magnesium iodide
c) Acetaldehyde and ethyl magnesium iodide
d) Acetone and ethyl magnesium iodide [E]
28. IUPAC name of the product obtained when reaction of ethanal with methyl magnesium bromide
fallowed by hydrolysis
a) Propan – 1 – ol b) Butan – 2 – ol
c) Propan – 2 – ol d) 2 – methylpropan – 2 – ol [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 133

Page 136

Department of School Examination (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination Assessment Board

29. IUPAC name of the product obtained when reaction of acetone with methyl magnesium iodide
followed by hydrolysis is
a) Propan – 2 – ol b) Butan – 2 – ol
c) Butan – 2 – ol d) 2 – Methylpropan – 2 – ol [E]

MgX
CH2OH

30. X H2O

a) X= HCHO b) X= CH3CHO
c) X= CH2OH d) X=H2O [A]
31. The IUPAC name of the product ‘B’ in the fallowing reaction is
O

H
a) 2 – Methylbutan – 3 – ol b) 2 – Methylbutan – 2 – ol
c) Butan – 2 – ol d) 3 – Methylbutan – 2 – ol [A]
7.4.2 Preparation of Phenols:
32. In which of the following reaction will not yield phenol? [E]
Cl

(i) Fusion with NaOH at 623K and 300atm
a)
(ii)H2O / H

(i) Oleum
b)
(ii)H2O / H
NH2

(i) NaNO2 + HCl
c)
(ii)H2O warm
Cl

(i) conc. H2SO4
d)

33. The chemical name of Cumene is
a) Isomethylbenzene b) Isopropylbenzene
c) Neopropylbenzene d) Neomethylbenzene [E]
(i) O2
34. Cumene X + Y
(i) H2O, H

a) Phenol + Ethanol b) Phenol + Acetaldehyde
c) Phenol + Acetone d) Toulene + Acetone [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 134

Page 137

Department of School Examination (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination Assessment Board

35. The name and structure of intermediate ‘A’ in the following reaction [D]
CH3

H 3C C H OH
O
O2
A + CH3 C CH3
are

CH3

a) Cumene hydroperoxideoxide, H3C C O OH

CH3

b) Cumene oxide, H3C C O H

CH3

c) Cumene hydroperoxideoxide, H3C C O OH

CH3
d) Cumene oxide
H3C C O H

36. The product ‘C’ in the following reaction is (CET-2018)
Cl
Anhy. AlCl3
+ CH3 C CH3
- HCl
A 130O C 2
0 B
dil. H2SO4
1000 C
Phenol + C

a) Propanone b) Water
c) Ethanol d) Methanol [A]
37. Most popular worldwide production of phenol is from
a) Haloarene b) Diazonium salt
c) Benzenesulphonic acid d) Cumene [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 135

Page 138

Department of School Examination (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination Assessment Board

7.4.3 Physical Properties:
38. The correct order of boiling points for 10–alcohols
a) CH3OH > C2H5OH > C3H7OH > C4H9OH
b) C4H9OH > C3H7OH > C2H5OH > CH3OH
c) C4H9OH > C2H5OH > C3H7OH > CH3OH
d) CH3OH > C4H9OH > C3H7OH > C2H5OH [E]
39. Arrange the following sets of compounds in the order of their increasing boiling points
i) Propan–1–ol ii) Butan–1–ol
iii) Butan–2–ol iv) Pentan–1–ol
a) (iv) > (ii) > (iii) > (i) b) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)
c) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv) d) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv) [A]
40. Arrange the following sets of compounds in the order of their decreasing boiling points
i) Propan – 2 – olii) Butan – 2 – ol iii) Butan – 1 – ol iv)2–Methylpropan – 2 – ol
a) 2 – methylpropan – 2 – ol>Butan – 2 – ol>Butan – 1 – ol>Propan – 2 – ol
b) 2 – methylpropan – 2 – ol>Butan – 1 – ol>Butan – 2 – ol>Propan – 2 – ol
c) Butan – 1 – ol>Butan – 2 – ol> 2 – Methylpropan – 2 – ol>Propan – 2 – ol
d) Butan – 1 – ol>Butan – 2 – ol>Propan – 1 – ol> 2 – Methylpropan – 2 – ol [A]
41. Statement I: The boiling point of alcohols and phenols are higher than ethers and hydrocarbons.
Statement II: Due to intramolecular hydrogen bonding in ethers and hydrocarbons, boiling point
decreases.
a) Both statement I and II are correct b) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect
c) Statement I is incorrect and II is correct d) Both statement I and II are incorrect [E]
42. The correct orders of increasing boiling points of the compound is
i) Pentan – 1 – ol ii) n – Butane
iii) Pentanal iv) Ethoxyethane
a) n – butane <Ethoxyethane<Pentanal<Pentan – 1 – ol
b) n – butane <Ethoxyethane<Pentan – 1 – ol<Pentanal
c) n – butane <Pentan – 1 – ol<Ethoxyethane<Pentanal
d) n – butane <Pentan – 1 – ol<Pentanal<Ethoxyethane [A]
43. Solubility of alcohols in water is due to
a) their ability to form hydrogen bonds with H2O molecules
b) they are lighter than water
c) they do not form hydrogen bonds with H2O molecules
d) None of the above [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 134

Page 139

Department of School Examination (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination Assessment Board

7.4.4 Chemical Reactions:
44. Ability of alcohols and phenols to donate a proton to stronger base demonstrates that they are
a) Lewis acids b) Bronsted acids
c) Lewis bases d) Arrhenius acids [A]
45. The acidic character of alcohols is due to
a) lone pairs of electrons on ‘O’ atom b) they can accept a proton from strong acid
c) they can accept a proton from strong base d) the polar nature of –OH bond [E]
46. The increasing order of acidic strength of 1 , 2 and 3 – alcohols are
0 0 0

a) 30 – alcohols < 20 – alcohols < 10 – alcohols
b) 10 – alcohols < 20 – alcohols < 30 – alcohols
c) 10 – alcohols < 30 – alcohols < 20 – alcohols
d) 30 – alcohols < 10 – alcohols < 20 – alcohols [A]
47 Statement I: Alcohols react with aqueous sodium hydroxide to form sodium alkoxide.
Statement II: Alkoxide ion is not a better proton acceptor than hydroxide ion.
a) Both statement I and II are correct
b) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect
c) Statement I is incorrect and II is correct
d) Both statement I and II are incorrect [A]
48. Find the incorrect statement regarding phenol
a) Phenoxide ion is more resonance stabilized than phenol
b) Phenols are more acidic than alcohols
c) In phenols, ‘O’ atom attached to sp2 hybridised carbon
d) There is more hydrogen bonding in phenol than alcohol [D]
49. Statement I: pKa value of phenol is 10.0 and pKa value of ethanol is 15.9
Statement II: Phenol is million times more acidic than ethanol
a) Both statement I and II are correct b) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect
c) Statement I is incorrect and II is correct d) Both statement I and II are incorrect [A]
50. The correct increasing order of their acidic strength is
a) Methanol < Ethanol <Propan – 1 – ol<Butan – 1 – ol
b) Methanol <Propan – 1 – ol< Ethanol <Butan – 1 – ol
c) Butan – 1 – ol<Propan – 1 – ol< Ethanol < Methanol
d) Butan – 1 – ol< Ethanol <Propan – 1 – ol< Methanol [A]
51. The correct increasing order of their acidic strength is
a) Propan – 1 – ol<Propan – 2 – ol< 2 – Methylpropan – 2 – ol< H2O
b) 2 – Methylpropan – 2 – ol<Propan – 2 – ol<Propan – 1 – ol< H2O
c) H2O < 2 – Methylpropan – 2 – ol < Propan – 2 – ol < Propan – 1 – ol
d) H2O < Propan – 1 – ol < Propan – 2 – ol < 2 – Methylpropan – 2 – ol [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 135

Page 140

Department of School Examination (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination Assessment Board

52. The correct increasing order of their acidic strength is [E](CET-2017)
a) Phenol < o – nitrophenol< o,p – dinitrophenol< Picric acid
b) Picric acid < Phenol < o – nitrophenol< o,p – dinitrophenol
c) Picric acid < o,p – dinitrophenol< o – nitrophenol< Phenol
d) Phenol < Picric acid < o – nitrophenol< o,p – dinitrophenol
53. The correct increasing order of their acidic strength is [D] (CET-2017)
a) Phenol < p – Cresol < m – Cresol < o – Cresol
b) p – Cresol < m – Cresol < o – Cresol< Phenol
c) m – Cresol < p – Cresol < Phenol < o – Cresol
d) m – Cresol < Phenol < o – Cresol < p – Cresol
54. Match the column I with column II and mark the appropriate choice [A] (CET-2019)
Column I Column II
A) Ethanol i) pKa = 15.9
B) Phenol ii) pKa = 10.0
C) m – cresol iii) pKa = 10.1
D) o – nitrophenol iv) pKa = 7.2
a) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i b) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv
c) A – iv, B – iii, C – i, D – ii d) A – iii, B – i, C – ii, D – iv
55. The reaction between alcohol and carboxylic acid gives
a) ketone b) aldehyde
c) ether d) ester [E]
56. Esterification is the reaction of
a) alcohols and phenols with carboxylic acids in presence of small amount of conc. sulphuric acid
b) alcohols and phenols with acid chlorides in presence of small amount of conc.sulphuric acid
c) alcohols and phenols with acid anhydrides in presence of pyridine
d) All the above [A]
57. Assertion: Alcohols and phenols react with acid chloride to form ester in presence of pyridine base
Reason: Pyridine is used to neutralize HCl formed during the reaction
a) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is a correct explanation of assertion
b) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not a correct explanation of assertion
c) If assertion is correct and reason is not correct
d) If both assertion and reason are not correct [E]
58. In the esterification reaction, the correct order of reactivity of alcohols is
a) (CH3)2CHOH > C2H5OH > CH3OH b) CH3OH > C2H5OH > (CH3)2CHOH
c) (CH3)2CHOH > CH3OH > C2H5OH d) CH3OH > (CH3)2CHOH > C2H5OH [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 136

Page 141

Department of School Examination (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination Assessment Board

59. For a given alcohol, the order of reactivity of carboxylic acids towards esterificationreaction is
a) C2H5COOH > CH3COOH > HCOOH b) C2H5COOH > HCOOH > CH3COOH
c) HCOOH > CH3COOH > C2H5COOH d) CH3COOH > HCOOH >C2H5COOH [A]
60. The role of conc. Sulphuric acid during esterification reaction is
a) Catalyst b) Dehydrating agent
c) Both a and b d) None of the above [A]
OH
61. (i) CO2 (ii) (CH3CO)2O
NaOH
A B Y (Majorproduct)
(ii) H (ii) H
; Y in the fallowing reaction is
a) picric acid b) Spsalicylic acid
c) aspirin d) cumene [A]
62. Aspirin synthesis is an example of
a) acidification b) acetylation
c) alkylation d) esterification [A]
63. The property/ies of aspirine is/are
a) analgesic b) anti-pyretic
c) anti – inflammantory d) All the above [A]
64. The correct IUPAC name of aspirin is
a) o – Acetylsalicylicacid b) 2 – Acetoxybenzoicacid
c) o – Acetoxybenzoicacid d) 2 – Acetylsalicylicacid [E]
COOH
OH
(CH3CO)2O
65. A + B
H

COOH COOH
OCOCH3 COCH3
+ CH3COOH + CH3COOH

COOH OCOCH3
COCH3 OCOCH3
+ CH3CHO + CH3CHO
[A]
66. Choose the incorrect statement
a) Lucas test is a distinguish test for alcohols
b) Lucas reagent is a mixture of conc. HCl and anhydrous ZnCl2
c) Primary alcohols give turbidity at room temperature
d) Secondary and tertiary alcohols give turbidity at room temperature [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 137

Page 142

Department of School Examination (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination Assessment Board

67. Choose the incorrect statement
a) Tertiary alcohols do not produce turbidity at room temperature
b) Tertiary alcohols produce turbidity at room temperature
c) Primary alcohols produce turbidity on heating
d) Secondary alcohols produce turbidity after few minutes [E]
68. CH3CH(OH)CH3 on reaction with Lucas reagent gives
a) immediate turbidity b) turbidity on heating
c) turbidity after few minutes d) no turbidity [A]
69. Ethanol undergoes dehydration by
a) conc.H2SO4 b) conc. H3PO4
c) Al2O3 d) All the above [A]
70. Secondary alcohols are dehydrated by
a) 20% H3PO4 b) 85% H3PO4
c) Both a and b d) None of the above [A]
71. The correct order regarding the ease of dehydration in alcohols is
a) 10 – alcohols < 20 – alcohols < 30 – alcohols
b) 30 – alcohols < 20 – alcohols < 10 – alcohols
c) 10 – alcohols < 30 – alcohols < 20 – alcohols
d) 30 – alcohols < 10 – alcohols < 20 – alcohols [E]
72. Primary alcohols on oxidation to give
a) aldehydes b) carboxylic acid
c) ketones d) Both a and b [A]
73. Better reagent for oxidation of primary alcohols to aldehydes in good yield is [E] (CET-2023)
+
a) PCC b) KMnO4 / H
+
c) K2CrO7 / H d) Both b and c
74. Pyridiniumchlorochromate (PCC) is [A] (CET-2024)
a) A complex of chromium trioxide with pyridine and HCl
b) A complex of chromium with pyridine and HCl
c) A complex of chromium trioxide with pyridine and chlorine
d) A complex of chromium trioxide with pyridine, HCl and chlorine

OH O

75. R CH R R C R; The oxidizing agent used for this
conversion is
a) CrO3 b) Cu / Ag at 573K
c) K2CrO7 / H+ d) Both a and b [D]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 138

Page 143

Department of School Examination (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination Assessment Board
CH3

H3C C OH ; identify ‘X’ [E]

CH3
CH3
O X
CH3 C CH3 CH3 OH H3C C CH2

CH3 CH2 OH
CH3 CH3

H3C C OH H3C C CH2

CH3

a) Cu at 573K b) conc.H2SO4
c) 20% H3PO4 at 358K d) All the above [D]

OH

CH3 ; the product ‘X’ in the following reaction is
CH CH3

O
CH3 CH CH2
CH3 C CH3

CH3 CH2 CHO [A]
79. Identify compound Y and Z in the fallowing reaction sequence
Cl

(i) NaOH, 623K and 300 atm

(ii) HCl

a) o – nitrophenol + p – nitrophenol b) o – nitrophenol + m – nitrophenol
c) p –nitrophenol + m – nitrophenol d) Phenol + m – nitrophenol [E]
80. The method used for the separation of ortho and paranitrophenol is
a) evoparation b) filtration
c) steam distilation d) condensation [E]
81. Between ortho and paranitrophenol, the one which is steam volatile is
a) p – nitrophenol due to intramolecular hydrogen bonding
b) o – nitrophenol due to intramolecular hydrogen bonding
c) p – nitrophenol due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding
d) o – nitrophenol due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 139

Page 144

Department of School Examination (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination Assessment Board

82. Identify compound Z in the fallowing reaction sequence
Cl

(i) NaOH, 623K and 300 atm (ii) HCl

a) o – nitrophenol b) p – nitrophenol
c) o and p – nitrophenol d) picric acid [D]
83. The correct IUPAC name of picric acid is
a) 2,4,6 – trinitrophenol b) 2,4 – dinitrophenol
c) 2 – nitrophenol d) 2,3,5 – trinitrophenol [E]
84. The structure of picric acid is
OH COOH
O2N NO2 O2N NO2

NO2 NO2

COCH3
CHO
O2N NO2
O2N NO2
[A]

NO2
85. Treating NO
phenol
2 with concentrated sulphuric acid produces compound ‘X’ and then ‘X’ reacts with
conc. HNO3 to form a product ‘Y’. Find ‘X’ and ‘Y’.
a) X= Phenol – 2 – sulphonic acid, Y=2,4,6 – trinitrophenol
b) X= Phenol –2,4 – disulphonic acid, Y=2,4, – dinitrophenol
c) X= Phenol – 2,4 – disulphonic acid, Y=2,4,6 – trinitrophenol
d) X= Phenol – 2 – sulphonic acid, Y=2 – nitrophenol [D]
86. The major product obtained when phenol is treated with excess of bromine water is
a) 4 – bromophenol b) 2,4 – dibromophenol
c) 2,4,6 – tribromophenol d) 2,3,5 –tribromophenol [E]
OH OH OH
Br

87. ; the reagent X for this conversion is,

Br
a) bromine water at low temperature
b) bromine in CS2 at low temperature
c) bromine in ethanoic acid at high temperature
d) CH3Br in CS2 at high temperature [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 140

Page 145

Department of School Examination (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination Assessment Board
OH

88. ; the correct IUPAC name of the compound Z is

a) o-hydroxybenzoicacid b) o-hydroxybenzoicacid
c) 1-hydroxybenzoicacid d) 2-hydroxybenzoicacid [A]
89. In Kolbe’s reaction, the reagents used is
a) NaOH, CO2, H+ b) CHCl2, aqueous NaOH
c) conc. H2SO4 + O2 d) conc. HNO3 + O2 [A]
90. The product obtained in the Kolbe’s reaction is
a) salicylaldehyde b) benzoic acid
c) salicylic acid d) phenol [E]
OH

91. [A] (CET-2023)

; the correct IUPAC name of the compound Z is
a) 2-hydroxybenzoic acid b) 2-hydroxybenzaldehyde
c) 2-hydroxybenzophenone d) phenol
92. On treatment of phenol with chloroform in the presence of sodium hydroxide, a –CHO group is
introduced at ortho position of benzene ring. This reaction is known as
a) Kolbe’s reaction b) Reimer – Tiemann reaction
c) Oxidation reaction d) Reduction reaction [E]
93. The intermediate ____________ hydrolysed in the presence of alkali to produce salicylaldehyde.
a) benzene b) benzaldehyde
c) benzoic acid d) substituted benzal chloride [D]
94. Phenol is treated with Zn dust, to give
a) hydroquinol b) benzaldehyde
c) benzene d) benzoic acid [E]

OH
95. ; the product X in the following reaction is
O

O

CHO COOH

[A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 141

Page 146

Department of School Examination (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination Assessment Board

96. In the presence of air, phenols are slowly oxidised to produce
a) benzoic acid b) benzaldehyde
c) benzene d) quinone [D]
7.5 Some Commercially Important Alcohols:
97. Wood spirit is known as
a) ethanol b) methanol
c) ethanal d) methanal [E]
98. CO + 2 H2 CH3OH. The catalyst ‘X’ in the reaction is
a) ZnO– Cr2O3 b) Fe
c) V2O5 d) Al2O3 [A]
99. The alcohol which is commercially obtained by the fermentation of sugar cane juice is
a) propanol b) methanol
c) butanol d) ethanol [E]
100. In fermentation process, the enzyme which converts sucrose into glucose and fructose is
a) Zymase b) Maltase
c) Invertase d) Lipase [A]
101. Ethanol is mixed with copper sulphate and pyridine to make unfit for drinking is called
a) denaturation of alcohol b) hydrolysis of alcohol
c) oxidation of alcohol d) reduction of alcohol [E]
7.6 Ethers:
7.6.1 Preparation of Ethers:
102. Ethanol is converted in to ethoxyethane [D] (CET-2025)
a) by heating excess of ethanol with conc.H2SO4 at 1400C
b) by heating excess of ethanol with conc.H2SO4 at 443K
c) by treating with conc. H2SO4 at room temperature
d) by treating with conc. H2SO4 at 273K
103. CH3ONa + CH3Br CH3OCH3 + NaBr ; the reaction fallows
a) radical mechanism b) SN2 mechanism
c) SN1 mechanism d) E1 mechanism [A]
104. (CH3)3CONa + CH3Br (CH3)3CO CH3 + NaBr ; the reaction fallows
a) SN1 mechanism b) SN2 mechanism
c) E1 mechanism d) E2 mechanism [D]
105. The method used to prepare (CH3)3OC2H5, with a good yield
a) mixing (CH3)3CBr with C2H5ONa b) mixing C2H5Br with (CH3)3CONa
c) mixing C2H5OH with (CH3)3COH d) mixing C2H5COOH with (CH3)3COH [D]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 142

Page 147

Department of School Examination (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination Assessment Board

106. The major product obtained in the reaction of (CH3)3CBr with CH3ONa and this reaction follows
a) ether and nucleophilic substitution reaction
b) ether and elimination reaction
c) alkene and nucleophilic substitution reaction
d) alkene and elimination reaction [D]
7.6.2 Physical Properties:
107. The boiling point of ethyl alcohol is much higher than that of dimethyl ether thoughboth have the
same molecular weight because
a) ether is insoluble in water b) methyl groups are attached to oxygen in ether
c) dipole moment of ethyl alcohol is less d) ethyl alcohol shows hydrogen bonding [E]
7.6.3 Chemical Reactions:
108. Anisole is obtained by the action of
a) phenol with methyl magnesium iodide b) phenol with methanol
c) iodobenzene with sodium methoxide d) sodium phenate with methyl iodide [A]
109. CH3 – O – C2H5 + HI→ X + Y ; X and Y are
a) CH3OH + C2H5I b) CH3I + C2H5OH
c) CH3OH + C2H5OH d) CH3I+ C2H5I [A]
110. The heating of ethyl phenyl ether with HI produces
a) phenol and ethyl iodide b) iodo benzene and ethyl alcohol
c) iodo benzene with ethyl iodide d) phenol and ethyl alcohol [A]
111. Phenetole +HI → X + Y; X and Y are
a) C6H5I + CH3OH b) C6H5I + CH3CH2OH
c) C6H5OH + CH3CH2I d) C6H5OH + CH3I [D]
112. The one which produce methyl alcohol on treatment with hot concentrated HI is
a) (CH3)3CO CH3 b) CH3 – CH(CH3) – O – CH3
c) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – O – CH3 d) CH3 – CH2 – CH(CH3) – O – CH3 [D]
113. The order of reactivity of HX to break the C – O – C bond in ether is
a) HCl>HBr> HI b) HBr>HCl> HI
c) HI >HBr>HCl d) HI >HCl>HBr [A]
114. CH2 = CH – O –CH2 – CH3 reacts with one mole of HI, the product formed is
a) ethane b) ethanol
c) ethanal d) iodoethane [D]
115. An ether (A), C5H12O, when heated with excess of hot concentrated HI produced two alkyl halides
which when treated with NaOH yielded compounds (B) and (C) Oxidation of (B) and (C) gave a
propanone and an ethanoic acid respectively. The IUPAC name of the ether(A) is:

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 143

Page 148

Department of School Examination (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination Assessment Board

a) Ethoxypropane b) 2 – Methoxybutane
c) 2 – Ethoxypropane d) Methoxybutane [D]
116. Statement I: Anisole undergoes bromination with Br2 in ethanoic acid
Statement II: Anisole undergoes bromination even in the absence of FeBr3
a) Both statement I and II are correct b) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect
c) Statement I is incorrect and II is correct d) Both statement I and II are incorrect [D]
117. Methyl phenyl ether on reaction with methyl chloride in presence of anhydrous aluminium chloride
gives
a) 2 – Methoxytoulene and 3 – Methoxytoulene
b) 2 – Methoxytoulene and 4 – Methoxytoulene
c) 3 – Methoxytoulene and 4 – Methoxytoulene
d) Toulene and benzene [A]
118. A compound (A) with molecular formula C7H8O react with ethanoyl chloride to produce‘X’ and ‘Y’
with molecular formula C9H11O2 . The major product obtained is
OCH3
OCH3
COCH3

COCH3

OCH3 OCH3
COCH3

COCH3 COCH3
OCH3

119. ; The ‘X’ is [D]

a) 2 – nitroanisole b) 4 – nitroanisole
c) 3 – nitroanisole d) 4 – nitrophenol [E]
120. Match the following column and choose the correct option.
Column A (Compounds) Column B (Properties/Uses)
A) Ethanol 1. Used as a solvent and antiseptic
B) Phenol 2. Exhibits acidic nature and used as disinfectants
C) Methanol 3. Widely used as an anaesthetic and organic solvent
D) Diethyl ether 4. Used as antifreeze and can cause blindness if ingested
a) A-1B-2C-4D-3 b) A - 4 B - 2 C - 3 D – 1
c) A-1B-3C-2D–4 d) A - 3 B - 1 C - 2 D – 4 [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 144

Page 149

Department of School Examination (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination Assessment Board

Graph based questions:
121. Study the graph showing the reactivity of alcohols with sodium metal and identify the compounds:

a) 1 = Methanol, 2 = Ethanol, 3 = Propanol, 4 = Butanol
b) 1 = Ethanol, 2 = Propanol, 3 = Methanol, 4 = Butanol
c) 1 = Butanol, 2 = Methanol, 3 = Ethanol, 4 = Propanol
d) 1 = Propanol, 2 = Methanol, 3 = Butanol, 4 = Ethanol [A]
122. Study the graph showing the reactivity of alcohols with sodium metal and identify the compounds:

a) 1= phenol, 2- cresol, 3= hydroquinone, 4= catechol
b) 1 = catechol, 2- cresol, 3= hydroquinone, 4= phenol
c) 1= catechol, 2= hydroquinone, 3 = cresol, 4= phenol
d) 1- cresol, 2 = catechol, 3= phenol, 4= hydroquinone [D]
123. Study the graph showing the melting (BOILING) points of ethers and identify the compounds:

OR

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 145

Page 150

Department of School Examination (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination Assessment Board

a) 1 = Dimethyl ether, 2 = Ethyl methyl ether, 3 = Diethyl ether, 4 = Propyl ethyl ether
b) 1 = Ethyl methyl ether, 2 = Propyl ethyl ether, 3 = Dimethyl ether, 4 = Diethyl ether
c) 1 = Diethyl ether, 2 = Dimethyl ether, 3 = Propyl ethyl ether, 4 = Ethyl methyl ether
d) 1 = Propyl ethyl ether, 2 = Diethyl ether, 3 = Ethyl methyl ether, 4 = Dimethyl ether [D]

Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets:
(ONE MARK)
Set - 1
(dihydric, sp3, phenol, three, alcohols, thrihydric)
1. Hydroxyl (−OH) derivatives of alkane are called __________. [E]
2. In allylic alcohols hydroxyl group is attached to ______ hybridized carbon adjacent to the carbon –
carbon double bond. [A]
3. The simplest hydroxy derivative of benzene is ________. [E]
4. Ethylene glycol is an example for ___________ alcohol. [A] (E3-2025)
5. Glycerol containing ______ hydroxyl groups. [D]
Set - 2
(ol, Two, carbolicacid, cyclo, tert-butylalcohol, one)
6. Phenol, also known as ________, was first isolated in the early nineteenth century from coal tar. [E]
7. ______ is the suffix used in the IUPAC names of the alcohols. [E]
8. Cyclic alcohols are named using the prefix _________. [A]
9. The number of −OH groups present in 1,4-benzenediol are ________. [A]
10. _________ is the common name of 2-Methylpropan-2-ol. [D]
Set - 3
(Morkovnikov’s, primary, sigma, anti-Morkovnikov’s, greater, secondary)
11. In alcohols, the oxygen of the – OH group is attached to carbon by a ________ bond. [A]
12. The bond angle in alcohols is slightly ______ than the tetrahedral angle. [A]
13. In hydroboration – Oxidation, the product formed in accordance with __________ rule. [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 146

Page 151

Department of School Examination (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination Assessment Board

14. Ethene react with water in the presence of acid as catalyst to form 2 – ethanol. The reaction takes
place in accordance with________________. [D]
15. Aldehyde react with H2 in presence of finely divided palladium to give ____ alcohols. [A]
Set - 4
(nitrous acid, cumene hydroperoxide, oleum, formaldehyde, acetone, secondary)
16. Ketone reacts with sodium borohydride to give _______ alcohols. [A]
17. Grignard reagent with ____________ produces a primary alcohol. [D]
18. When benzene is sulphonated with _______ gives benzene sulphonic acid. [E]
19. A diazonium salt is formed by treating an aromatic primary amine with _________. [E]
20. ________ is produced when isopropyl benzene is oxidised in the presence of air. [A]
Set - 5
(weaker, Phenol, Bronsted bases, Benzene diazoniumchloride, Acetone)
21. _________ are hydrolysed to phenols by warming with water. [D]
22. In the manufacture of phenol from cumene, ________ a by-product formed. [A]
23. Alcohols are _______ acids than water. [A]
24. Alcohols act as ________ due to the presence of unshared electron pairs on oxygen. [A]
25. ________ is obtained by acidification of sodium phenoxide. [A]
Set - 6
(phenol, increase, decrease, intermolecular, alkoxides, intramolecular)
26. Cresols are less acidic than _______. [A]
27. The boiling points of alcohols and phenols ______ with increase in the number of carbon atoms. [E]
28. In alcohols, the boiling points _________ with increase of branching in carbon chain. [A]
29. The –OH group in alcohols and phenols is involved in ________hydrogen bonding. [A]
30. Alcohols react with active metals such as sodium, potassium and aluminium to yield corresponding
_______. [E]
Set - 7
(ethoxybenzene, cumene, picric acid, esters, stronger, weaker)
31. The reaction of phenol with aqueous sodium hydroxide indicates that phenols are _____ acids than
alcohols and water. [A]
32. Alcohols and phenols react with carboxylic acids, acid chlorides and acid anhydrides to form
_______. [E]
33. 2,4,6-trinitrophenolis commonly known as _________. [E]
34. In the presence of air, ______ are slowly oxidized to dark coloured mixture containing quinones. [D]
35. Phenetole is also called as __________. [A]
Set - 8
(FeBr3, mixed, picric acid, CS2, greater)
36. Unsymmetrical ethers are also called as ____________ ethers. [E]
37. The bond angle of ether is ________ than bond angle of alcohol. [A]
38. Mono bromination of phenol is carried out with low polarity solvents CHCl3 or ____. [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 147

Page 152

Department of School Examination (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination Assessment Board

39. Methylphenylether undergo bromination with bromine in ethanoic acid even in the absence of
______catalyst. [D]
40. Nitration of phenol with conc. HNO3 yields _____________. [E]
TWO-MARK QUESTIONS
1. What are vinyl alcohols? Give an example. [E]
2. What are allylic alcohols? Give an example. [E]
3. What are Benzylic alcohols? Give an example. [E]
4. What are symmetrical ethers? Give an example. [A]
5. What are unsymmetrical ethers? Give an example. [A]
6. Write a short note on bonding C–O–H in alcohols. [D]
7. Write a short note on bonding C–O–H in phenol. [D]
8. Alcohols are comparatively more soluble in water than hydrocarbons of comparable molecular
masses. Give reason. [A]
9. Identify the major product formed in the following reaction. Write its IUPC name.

[A]
10. Explain the preparation of alcohol from aldehyde by catalytic hydrogenation with suitable example. [A]
11. Name the class of alcohol formed when ketones react with sodium borohydride. Write the chemical
equation. [A]
12. Write the general reaction for the conversion of ketone to alcohol by using Grignard reagent. [D]
13. Give the structures and IUPAC names of the products expected from the following reactions:
a) Catalytic reduction of butanal. [A]
b) Reaction of propanone with methyl magnesium bromide followed by hydrolysis. [A]
14. What is Lucas reagent? Which class of alcohol does produces turbidity immediately with it? [E] (E1-2025)
15. How is phenol prepared from chlorobenzene? Write the chemical reaction. [A]
16. Explain the preparation of phenol from benzene sulphonic acid. Write chemical equation. [E]
17. How does tert-butyl alcohol react with aluminium? Write chemical equation. [D]
18. How does butan-2-ene-1-ol react with PCC? Write chemical equation. [A]
19. Write the reactions involved in preparation of phenol from cumene. [E]
20. Comparing the solubility of 1-butanol and 1-pentanol in water, which is likely to be less soluble in
water? and give reason. [A]
21. How do you convert isopropyl benzene into phenol? Write equations. [D](E2-2025)
22. Explain Kolbe’s reaction with an example. [E]
23. Write the reaction for acetylation of salicylic acid with acetic anhydride. Name the aromatic product
of this reaction. [D]
24. Complete the following equation and name the reaction.

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 148

Page 153

Department of School Examination (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination Assessment Board

[A]
25. Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’ in the following reaction.

[A]
26. Explain Reimer-Tiemann reaction with an example. [E]
27. How does anisole react with methyl chloride? [E] (E-2020)
28. How anisole react with bromine in ethanoic acid? write the chemical equation for the reaction.
[E] (E-2018)
29. What is the action of bromine in ethanoic acid on anisole? Give equation. [E] (E-2016)
30. What is the effect of following groups on the acidity of phenol? I) –CH3 II) -NO2 [A] (E-2016)
31. Name the following reaction and identify product ‘A’.

32. Compound has a molecular formula C4H10O. Considering the reactions given below, identify
compound A and write its IUPAC name.

[D]
33. Explain Williamson’s ether synthesis. [E] (E1-2025)
34. Explain the preparation of methoxyethane by Willamson’s synthesis. Give equation. [E]
35. Classify anisole and methoxymethane into simple ether and mixed ether. [A]
36. The boiling points of four compounds, an ether, an aldehyde, an alcohol, and a haloalkane of
comparable molecular weights, are given (not necessarily in the same order) in the table below.
Identify which of the four compounds is the alcohol? [A]
Compound Boiling point
P 35 0C
Q 76 0C
R 47 0C
S 118 0C

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 149

Page 154

Department of School Examination (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination Assessment Board

37. How does phenol react with conc. nitric acid? Give equation. [E]
38. While separating a mixture of ortho and paranitrophenols by steam distillation, name the isomer
which will be steam volatile. Give reason. [A] (E1-2025)
Ka Ka
39. Between p-nitrophenoland p-cresol, which has highest p and least p values? [D]
40. Name the product formed when phenol is treating with acidified solution of Na2Cr2O7. Write
chemical equation. [A]
41. Among alcohols and phenols, which one is more acidic? and why? [A] (E-2018)
42. Write the products formed when anisole reacts with ethanoyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous
AlCl3 catalyst. [E] (E-2017)
43. Complete the following equations: [A] (E2-2025)

44. Complete the following reactions;

[A]
45. Name the enzyme involved in fermentation of glucose into ethanol and write its chemical equation. [E]
46. Distinguish between: (i) ethanol and phenol (ii) propan-2-ol and 2-methylpropan-2-ol [A]
THREE-MARK QUESTIONS
1. What are primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols? [E]
2. An alcohol has the formula C5H11OH. Draw the structural formulae of any one of its isomers that
satisfy following conditions:
(i) a primary alcohol and has an IUPAC name based on propane
(ii) a secondary alcohol and has a IUPAC name based on butane
(iii) a tertiary alcohol [D]
3. Lucas reagent is an important reagent which helps to distinguish between three classes of alcohols.
Write the chemical composition of the Lucas reagent and explain how the above reagent helps to
distinguish 10 and 30-alcohols? [D](E1-2025)
4. Write the mechanism involved in the acid catalysed hydration of propene. [D]
5. Write the steps in mechanism of acid catalysed hydrolysis of ethene to ethanol. [A] (E3-2025)

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 150

Page 155

Department of School Examination (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination Assessment Board

6. The mechanism of formation of alcohols from alkenes is given below. identify the errors in the
mechanism and rewrite the corrected steps.

[A]
7. Explain the preparation of phenol from cumene. Write chemical equation. [E] (E-2014)
8. Explain the preparation of phenol from aniline. Write chemical equation. [A]
9. What is the effect of;
(i) Electron withdrawing group on acidity of phenols. [E]
(ii) Electron donating group on acidity of phenols. [E]
(iii) Boiling point of alcohols on increasing number of carbon atoms. [A]
10. Write the mechanism of acid catalysed dehydration of ethanol to ethene. [E] (E2-2025)
11. Mention the products obtained when the vapours of primary, secondary and tertiaryalcohols are
passed over heated copper at 573 K. [A]
12. Write the organic products of the following reactions.
(i) C2 H5OH ⎯⎯⎯
H2SO4
443K
→ [A], (ii) HCHO ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
(i) CH3MgX
(ii) H2O
[E]

(iii)CH3CH(OH)CH3 ⎯⎯⎯
Cu
573K
→ [A]

13. Three different types of alcohols prepared by using three different compounds P, Q, and R with
methyl magnesium bromide followed by hydrolysis.
(a) ‘’P’’ forms an alcohol with molecular formula C2H6O.
(b) Compounds ‘’Q’’ and ‘’R’’ are isomers with the molecular formula C3H6O.
(c) Compound ‘’Q’’ does not form any silver mirror with Tollen's reagent
(d) Compounds ‘’P’’ and ‘’R’’ form silver mirror with Tollen's reagent.
(i) Give the IUPAC name of compound P.
(ii) Give the IUPAC names of the compounds formed from Q and R.
(iii) Write the reaction showing the formation of the primary and tertiary alcohols. [A]
14. How is salicylic acid prepared from phenol? Explain with an equation. [A]
15. Write the three steps involved in the acid catalysed dehydration of ethanol to ethoxy ethane at 413 K.[E]
16. Give the details of two commercially important alcohols. What is denaturation of alcohol? [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 151

Page 156

Department of School Examination (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination Assessment Board

17. How do you prepare aspirin from salicylic acid? Write chemical equation and deduce its IUPAC
name. [E]
18. Phenol reacts with dil. HNO3 at low temperature. The products are separated into two beakers. The
boiling point of the compounds, are as given in the tables below:
Beaker Number 1 2
Boiling Point 489 K 387 K
Identify the compounds present in beaker -1 and beaker -2. Give a reason for your answer. [A]
19. An alkene X (C3H6) reacts with H2O/H+ to give compound Y, compound Y further undergoes reaction
with CrO3-H2SO4 to produce compound Z. Write the IUPAC name of compounds X, Y and Z. [D]
20. An organic compound ‘A’ having molecular formula C3H6 on treatment with aqueous H2SO4 gives
‘B’ which on treatment with HCl/ZnCl2 gives ‘C’. The compound C on treatment with ethanolic
KOH gives back the compound ‘A’. Identify the compounds A,B,C. [D]
21. An organic compound ‘A’ having molecular formula C6H6O gives a characteristic colour with aq.
FeCl3 solution. When ‘A’ is treated with CO2 and NaOH at 400 K under pressure ‘B’ is formed. The
compound ‘B’ on acidification gives ‘C’ which reacts with acetyl chloride to form ‘D’ which is
popular pain killer. Write the structure of A, B, C and D. [A]
22. What happens when
(i) Phenol reacts with bromine water? [E]
(ii) Ethanol reacts with CH3COCl /pyridine? [A]
(iii) Anisole reacts with HI? [E]
Write the chemical equations involved in the above reactions.
23. An alcohol ‘A’ (C4H10O) on oxidation with acidified K2Cr2O7 gives a carboxylic acid ‘B’ (C4H8O2).
Treatment of ‘C’ with warm aq. H2SO4 gives ‘D’(C4H10O), an isomer of ‘A’. The compound ‘D’ is
resistant to oxidation. Identify compounds A, B, C and D. Write all the reactions involved. [D]



II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 152

Page 157

Unit 8

Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQS) (ONE MARK)
Introduction:
1. Which of the following compounds do not contain a carbonyl group?
a) Alcohol b) Aldehyde
c) Ketone d) Carboxylic acid [E]
2. How many carbon atoms does formaldehyde has?
a) 0 b) 1
c) 2 d) 3 [E]
8.1 Nomenclature:
3. What is the common name of the compound which has a -CHO group attached to the sp2 hybridised
carbon of a benzene ring?
a) Benzanal b) Benzaldehyde
c) Benzenecarbaldehyde d) Phthaldehyde [A]
4. Which of the following is the incorrect name for the following compound?

a) 3-Methylbutanal b) Isovaleraldehyde
c) β-Methylbutyraldehyde d) γ-Methylbutyraldehyde [A]

5. The IUPAC name of
a) 3-Bromobutyraldehyde b) 2-Bromopropanaldehyde
c) 3-Bromobutanal d) 2-Bromobutanal [A]
6. The prefix valer is generally used for naming aldehydes with how many carbon atoms in the structure?
a) 3 b) 4
c) 5 d) 6 [D]
7. What is the correct IUPAC naming of the compound shown below?

a) Benzenecarbaldehyde b) Cyclohexanal
c) Cyclohexyl aldehyde d) Cyclohexanecarbaldehyde [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 153

Page 158

8. CH3-CO-CH2-CH2-CH3 IUPAC name of this compound is
a) Butan-1-one b) Butan-2-one
c) Pentan-1-one d) Pentan-2-one [A]
9. ________ ketones are named by prefixing the word phenone with the name of the acyl group.
a) Methyl ethyl b) Dialkyl
c) Alkyl phenyl d) Phenyl alkyl [E]
10. Butanal’s common name
a) iso-Butyraldehyde b) Butanaldehyde
c) Butyraldehyde (n-Butyraldehyde) d) None of these [E]
11. Which of the following ketone has the common term acetone?
a) Dimethyl ketone b) Ethyl methyl ketone
c) Diethyl ketone d) N-propyl ketone [E]
12. According to IUPAC nomenclature, the suffix used for naming open-chain aldehydes is
a) -ol b) -one
c) -al d) -oic acid [E]
13. The common name for the simplest ketone, CH₃COCH₃, is
a) Acetaldehyde b) Acetone
c) Propanone d) Formaldehyde [E]
8.1.2 Structure of the Carbonyl Group:
14. The angle between the carbonyl >C=O bond and the bond between the carbonyl carbon and the atom
connected to it is
a) 60 degrees b) 90 degrees
c) 120 degrees d) 135 degrees [D]
15. The carbon-oxygen double bond in carbonyl compounds is polar, making the carbon atom
a) Non-polar b) Amphoteric
c) Nucleophilic (Lewis base) d) Electrophilic (Lewis acid) [A]
16. In the following resonating structures “A” and “B”, the number of unshared electrons in valence shell
present on oxygen respectively are ________.

a) 2,4 b) 2,6
c) 4,6 d) 6,4 [D]
17. The carbonyl group (>C=O) consists of a carbon-oxygen double bond. The hybridization of the
carbonyl carbon atom is
a) sp² b) dsp²
c) sp³ d) sp [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 154

Page 159

8.2.1 Preparation of Aldehydes and Ketones:
18. Which of the following methods cannot produce aldehydes?
a) Oxidation of primary alcohols b) Dehydrogenation of secondary alcohols
c) Ozonolysis of alkenes d) Hydration of ethyne with acid [E]
19. Which of the following reactions can produce ketones?
a) Oxidation of primary alcohols b) Dehydrogenation of primary alcohols
c) Dehydrogenation of tertiary alcohols d) Oxidation of secondary alcohols [E]
20. Toluene on oxidation using CrO3 in the presence of acetic anhydride followed hydrolysis gives
a) acetophenone b) benzophenone
c) benzoic acid d) benzaldehyde [E]
21. What is the catalyst used in the hydrogenation of acetyl chloride to produce ethanal?
a) Pt over BaSO4 b) Pt over CuSO4
c) Pd over BaSO4 d) Pd over CuSO4 [E]
22. Which of the following carbonyl compounds can be prepared from Rosenmund reaction?
a) Methanal b) Acetone
c) Butanone d) Benzaldehyde [E]
23. The Rosenmund reduction involves the hydrogenation of an acyl chloride using palladium on barium
sulphate catalyst to produce
a) An alcohol b) A ketone
c) A carboxylic acid d) An aldehyde [E]
24. The Stephen reaction involves the reduction of nitriles using stannous chloride and HCl, followed by
hydrolysis, to yield
a) Carboxylic acids b) Ketones
c) Aldehydes d) Amines [E]
25. Oxidation of methylbenzene (toluene) with chromyl chloride (CrO₂Cl₂) followed by hydrolysis yields
benzaldehyde. This reaction is called (KCET 2025)
a) Etard reaction b) Clemmensen reduction
c) Rosenmund reduction d) Gatterman-Koch reaction [E]
26. Identify ‘X’ in the reaction given below.

a) CrO3 b) CrO2Cl2
c) Alkaline KMnO4 d) Anhydrous AlCl3 [D]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 155

Page 160

27. In the following reaction,

a) benzoic acid b) benzaldehyde
c) acetophenone d) benzene [D] (KCET 2018)
28. Friedel-Crafts acylation of benzene with an acyl chloride (RCOCl) in the presence of anhydrous AlCl₃
produces
a) An aldehyde b) A ketone
c) A carboxylic acid d) An alkylbenzene [A]
29. The catalyst used in Rosenmund's reduction is
a) HgSO4 b) Anhyd. AlCl3
c) Pd/BaSO4 d) Anhyd. ZnCl2 [E]
30. Conversion of alkyl cyanide to aldehyde using SnCl2 and HCl is known as
a) Etard reaction b) Stephen reaction
c) Rosenmund reduction d) Gatterman-Koch reaction [A]
8.3 Physical properties of aldehydes and ketones:
31. If the boiling points of methoxyethane and propan-1-ol are 281 K and 370 K respectively, predict the
boiling point of propanal.
a) 273 K b) 281 K
c) 322 K d) 370 K [A]
32. Which of the following has the least pungent odour?
a) Methanal b) Ethanal
c) Propanal d) Butanal [D]
33. Two compounds ‘A’ and ‘B’ were being tested for their boiling points. It was observed that ‘A’ started
boiling after ‘B’, when both were subjected to same conditions. If the compound ‘B’ is acetone, which
of the following can be compound ‘A’?
a) Methoxyethane b) Propan-1-ol
c) Propanal d) n-Butane [D]
34. Which compound has a higher boiling point, propanal (CH₃CH₂CHO) or propan-1-ol
(CH₃CH₂CH₂OH)?
a) Propanal b) Propan-1-ol
c) Cannot be determined d) They have nearly identical boiling points [A]
8.4 Chemical reactions of aldehydes and ketones:
35. Aldehydes and ketones undergo __________ reactions.
a) electrophilic addition b) electrophilic substitution
c) nucleophilic addition d) nucleophilic substitution [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 156

Page 161

36. What is the correct order of reactivity of the following towards nucleophilic addition?
a) Methanal > Ethanal > Acetone b) Acetone > Ethanal > Methanal
c) Methanal > Acetone > Ethanal d) Ethanal > Methanal > Acetone [D]
37. What is the correct order of reactivity towards nucleophilic addition?
a) Benzaldehyde > Benzophenone > Acetophenone
b) Benzophenone > Benzaldehyde > Acetophenone
c) Acetophenone > Benzaldehyde > Benzophenone
d) Benzaldehyde > Acetophenone > Benzophenone [D]
38. Identify the catalyst in the nucleophilic addition of HCN to acetone.
a) NaOH b) HCl
c) NaCl d) NaCN [A]
39. Acetone reacts with ethylene glycol in dry HCl gas to form _________
a) hemiacetals b) acetals
c) cyclic acetals d) cyclic ketals [E]
40. Which of the following products is formed when an aldehyde reacts with an amine in acidic medium?
a) Imine b) Schiff’s base
c) Oxime d) Hydrazone [E]
41. The product of Clemmensen reduction on acetophenone is
a) Benzaldehyde b) Methyl benzene
c) Ethyl benzene d) Benzophenone [E]
42. A compound on treatment with hydrazine followed by heating up to 473K with KOH in ethylene glycol
gives propane. Identify the compound.
a) Methanal b) Ethanal
c) Propanal d) Acetone [D]
43. Tollens’ reagent is
a) Ammoniacal silver nitrate solution
b) Aqueous copper sulphate
c) Alkaline sodium potassium tartaratel
d) Mixture of sodium carbonate, sodium citrate and Cu2+ complex [A]
44. When an aldehyde is heated with Fehling’s solution, a reddish-brown precipitate is formed due to which
compound?
a) CuS b) AgBr
c) Cu2O d) CdS [E]
45. The following compounds can be distinguished from iodoform test is
a) Benzaldehyde and benzophenone b) Benzaldehyde and formaldehyde
c) Acetophenone and acetaldehyde d) Acetophenone and benzophenone [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 157

Page 162

46. Pentan-2-one and Pentan-3-one be differentiated from
a) Iodoform test b) Benedict’s test
c) Fehling’s test d) Aldol condensation test [D]
47. Which of the following is used in the preservation of biological specimens?
a) Methanal b) Ethanal
c) Benzaldehyde d) Acetone [E]
48. Aldol condensation is
a) electrophilic substitution reaction b) nucleophilic substitution reaction
c) elimination reaction d) addition reaction [D]
49. Which compound is obtained when acetaldehydes are treated with a dilute solution of caustic soda?
a) Sodium acetate b) Aldol
c) Ethyl acetate d) Resinous mass [D]
50. Aldol condensation involves:
a) Acidic medium b) Basic medium
c) Neutral medium d) Alcoholic medium [A]
51. Benzaldehyde does NOT show positive test with
a) Schiff reagent b) Tollens’ reagent
c) Sodium bisulphite solution d) Fehling solution [D]
52. Tollens’ reagent is used to test for:
a) Ketones b) Aldehydes
c) Carboxylic acids d) Alcohols [E]
53. Which of the following gives iodoform test?
a) Acetone b) Formaldehyde
c) Benzaldehyde d) Formic acid [E]
54. Aldehydes are generally more reactive than ketones towards nucleophilic addition reactions because
a) Aldehydes are less polar
b) Ketones have stronger C=O bonds
c) Ketones form more stable intermediates
d) Aldehydes have less steric hindrance and a more electrophilic carbonyl carbon [D]
55. In Clemmensen reduction, carbonyl compound is treated with
a) Zinc amalgam + conc. HNO3
b) Zinc amalgam + conc. HCl
c) Sodium amalgam + conc. HNO3
d) Sodium amalgam + conc. HCl [A]
56. The addition of HCN to aldehydes or ketones yields
a) Cyanohydrins b) Oximes
c) Hydrazones d) Acetals [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 158

Page 163

57. The formation of cyanohydrin from a ketone is an example of:
a) electrophilic addition b) nucleophilic addition
c) nucleophilic substitution d) electrophilic substitution [D]
58. The reaction of aldehydes and ketones with ammonia derivatives (H₂N-Z) typically involves
nucleophilic addition followed by
a) Hydrolysis b) Reduction
c) Dehydration (loss of water) d) Oxidation [D]
59. Which reagent is used in the Clemmensen reduction to reduce the carbonyl group (>C=O) to a
methylene group (-CH₂-)? [D]
a) Hydrazine and KOH/ethylene glycol b) LiAlH₄
c) NaBH₄ d) Zinc-amalgam (Zn-Hg) and concentrated HCl
60. Tollens’ test involves the reaction of an aldehyde with ammoniacal silver nitrate solution and results in
the formation of
a) Evolution of CO₂ gas b) A bright silver mirror (Ag)
c) A red precipitate (Cu₂O) d) A yellow precipitate (CHI₃) [D]
61. Fehling’s solution B is
a) Rochelle salt b) potassium citrate [E]
c) alkaline CuSO4 d) mixture of alkaline CuSO4 and sodium potassium tartarate
62. The haloform reaction (e.g., iodoform test) is given by aldehydes and ketones that possess which
structural feature?
a) An aromatic ring
b) At least one alpha-hydrogen
c) A carbon-carbon double bond
d) A methyl group attached to the carbonyl carbon (CH₃CO–) [D]
63. The Aldol condensation reaction occurs between two aldehyde or ketone molecules possessing
a) An aromatic ring b) No alpha-hydrogens
c) At least one alpha-hydrogen d) Only beta-hydrogens [A]
64. Aldehydes lacking alpha-hydrogens undergo which reaction when treated with concentrated alkali?
a) Cannizzaro reaction b) Haloform reaction
c) Wolff-Kishner reduction d) Etard reaction [E]
65. As a result of Wolff-Kishner reduction, the following conversions can be made:
a) Benzaldehyde into Benzyl alcohol
b) Cyclohexanol into Cyclohexane
c) Cyclohexanone into Cyclohexanol
d) Benzophenone into Diphenylmethane [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 159

Page 164

66. Acetone reacts with hydrazine to form:
a) Oxime b) Hydrazone
c) Semicarbazone d) Phenylhydrazone [A]
67. In Cannizaro reaction:
a) aldehyde is converted into alcohol
b) alcohol is converted into aldehyde
c) a primary amine is converted into isocyanide
d) aldehyde is converted into alcohol and salt of carboxylic acid [E]
68. Cannizzaro reaction is shown by
a) Formaldehyde b) Acetone
c) Propanal d) Acetaldehyde [E]
69. Cannizzaro reaction is not given by
a) Formaldehyde b) Trimethyl acetaldehyde
c) Benzaldehyde d) Acetaldehyde [E]
70. Benzaldehyde undergoes Cannizzaro reaction to give
a) sodium benzoate and benzyl alcohol b) benzoic acid and benzyl alcohol
c) phenol and benzoic acid d) sodium benzoate and methyl alcohol [A]
71. Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
(Products formed) (Reaction of carbonyl compound with)
(A) Cyanohydrin (i) NH2OH
(B) Acetal (ii) RNH2
(C) Schiff’s base (iii) Alcohol
(D) Oxime (iv) HCN
a) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i b) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
c) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i d) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i [D]
72. Silver mirror test is given by
a) aldehyde b) ketone
c) amines d) ethers [E]
73. Arrange the following compounds in their decreasing order of reactivity towards Nucleop addition
reaction.
CH3COCH3, CH3COC2H5, CH3CHO
a) CH3CHO > CH3COCH3 > CH3COC2H5
b) CH3COCH3 > CH3CHO > CH3COC2H5
c) CH3COC2H5 > CH3COCH3 > CH3CHO
d) CH3CHO > CH3COC2H5 > CH3COCH3 [D] (KCET 2025)

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 160

Page 165

74. The general name of the compound formed by the reaction between aldehyde and alcohol is
a) acetal b) glycol
c) acetate d) ester [A] (KCET 2022)
75. The test to differentiate between pentan-2-one and pentan-3-one is
a) Benedict’s test b) Fehling’s test
c) Iodoform test d) Baeyer’s test [D] (KCET 2022)
76. The carbonyl compound that does not undergo aldol condensation is
a) acetone b) dichloro acetaldehyde
c) trichloro acetaldehyde d) acetaldehyde [A] (KCET 2020)
77. Which of the following compounds undergoes haloform reaction?
a) CH3COCH3 b) HCHO
c) CH3CH2Br d) CH3-O-CH3 [D] (KCET 2018)
78. Nucleophilic attack on carbonyl carbon atom changes its hybridization from;
a) sp to sp2 b) sp2 to sp3
c) sp3 to sp2 d) sp to sp3 [A]
79. The appropriate reagent for the following transformation is

a) Zn-Hg/HCl b) H2N-NH2, KOH/ethylene glycol
c) Ni/H2 d) NaBH4 [D] (KCET 2018)
80. The product formed by the reaction of aldehyde with primary amine is
a) Schiff base b) benzaldehyde
c) carboxylic acid d) ketone [E]
8.5 Uses of Aldehydes and Ketones:
81. Formalin is
a) Pure aldehyde b) 40% formaldehyde in water
c) Mixture of formaldehyde and alcohol d) 10% formic acid in water [E]
82. Phenol-formaldehyde resin is called
a) urea b) bakelite
c) formalin d) urea-formaldehyde glues [A]
83. Which among following is commonly used as food preservative?
a) Sodium benzoate b) Sodium ethanoate
c) Sodium methanoate d) Silver benzoate [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 161

Page 166

84. A bakelite is obtained from formaldehyde by reacting it with
a) benzene b) chlorobenzene
c) nitrobenzene d) phenol [E]
8.6 Nomenclature and Structure of Carboxyl Group:
85. The carboxylic group is represented as:
a) –CO– b) –OH
c) –COH d) –COOH [E]
86. Dicarboxylic acid is
a) Acetic acid b) Formic acid
c) Oxalic acid d) Benzoic acid [E]
87. Carboxyl group is not present in
a) aspirin b) picric acid
c) benzoic acid d) ethanoic acid [E]
8.7 Methods of preparation of Carboxylic acids:
88. How can ethyl magnesium bromide be converted to propanoic acid?
a) Jones reagent b) KMnO4-KOH; heat
c) H3O+; heat d) CO2-dry ether; H3O+ [D]
89. Jones reagent is
a) KMnO4 in alkaline medium b) CrO3 in H2SO4
c) K2Cr2O7 in acidic medium d) KMnO4 in H2SO4 [A]
90. Identify X in the following conversion.

a) Alkaline KMnO4; H3O+ b) KOH; heat
c) H3O+; heat d) KMnO4–KOH; heat [D]
91. Toluene can be oxidized to benzoic acid by
a) KMnO4 (acidic) b) Pd/BaSO4
c) K2Cr2O7 (Alkaline) d) Anhyd. AlCl3 [A]
92. Carboxylation of alkyl magnesium halide in dry ether followed by hydrolysis gives
a) a carboxylic acid b) an alcohol
c) an anhydride d) an aldehyde [E]
93. C6 H5MgBr ⎯⎯⎯⎯
(i)CO2
(ii)H O+
→ P, in the given reaction product ‘P’ is
3

a) C6H5COOH b) C6H5CHO
c) C6H5CH2COOH d) C6H5OH [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 162

Page 167

8.8 Physical Properties of Carboxylic acids:
94. The correct order of boiling points of the following
a) HCOOH > CH3COOH > C2H5COOH b) C2H5COOH > CH3COOH > HCOOH
c) HCOOH > C2H5COOH > CH3COOH d) CH3COOH > HCOOH > C2H5COOH [D]
95. Carboxylic acid having higher boiling points than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of comparable
molecular mass due to
a) formation of intramolecular H-bonding
b) formation of carboxylate ion
c) more extensive association of carboxylic acid via van der Waals force of attraction
d) formation of intermolecular H-bonding [D]
96. In vapour phase, most of the carboxylic acids exists as a
a) monomers b) dimers
c) trimers d) polymers [E]
8.9 Chemical Reactions of Carboxylic acids:
97. Carboxylic acids are generally stronger acids than phenols because
a) Alcohols are stronger acids than carboxylic acids
b) The phenoxide anion is more resonance stabilized than the carboxylate anion
c) Phenols cannot form hydrogen bonds
d) The carboxylate anion is more resonance stabilized than the phenoxide anion [D]
98. The Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky (HVZ) reaction involves the halogenation of carboxylic acids (having an
alpha-hydrogen) at the
a) Gamma-position b) Alpha-position
c) Beta-position d) Carbonyl carbon [E]
99. Which among the following does not undergo HVZ reaction?
a) HCOOH b) CCl3COOH
c) C6H5COOH d) All [E]
100. Which among the following undergo HVZ reaction?
a) HCOOH b) CCl3COOH
c) C6H5COOH d) CH3COOH [E]
101. The HVZ reaction is used in the synthesis of
a) ketones b) aldehydes
c) acid halides d) α-halocarboxylic acids [E]
102. Benzoic acid reacts with ______ to give ammonium benzoate salt, which on further dehydration gives
benzamide.
a) N2 b) NH3
c) NH4OH d) HNO3 [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 163

Page 168

103. The acidity of carboxylic acid is due to:
a) >C=O group b) –OH group
c) Presence of alkyl group d) Resonance stabilization of carboxylate ion [A]
104. Esterification of carboxylic acid is carried out in the presence of:
a) KOH b) H2SO4
c) NaOH d) NaCl [E]
105. Carboxylic acids undergo decarboxylation (lose CO₂) when their sodium salts are heated with
a) LiAlH₄ b) Red phosphorus and HI
c) Sodalime (NaOH + CaO) d) Concentrated H₂SO₄ [A]
106. Strongest acid is
a) Formic acid b) Acetic acid
c) Benzoic acid d) Propanoic acid [E]
107. Which of the following statement is not true about the acidic nature of carboxylic acids?
a) Smaller the pKa value, stronger is the acid
b) The presence of electron donating group on the phenyl of aromatic carboxylic acid increases their
acidity
c) The presence of electron withdrawing group on the phenyl ring of aromatic carboxylic acid
increases their acidity.
d) Carboxylic acids are weaker than mineral acids [D]
108. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Benzoic acid does not undergo Friedel Craft reaction.
Statement II: Carboxylic carbon is less electrophilic than carbonyl carbon.
choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(d) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. [D]
109. Weakest acid is

[A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 164

Page 169

8.10 Uses of Carboxylic Acids:
110. Carboxylic acid is used in the manufacturing of nylon-6,6 is
a) Propanedioic acid b) Butanedioic acid
c) Pentanedioic acid d) Hexanedioic acid [E]
111. _______ is used as vinegar in food industry.
a) Formic acid b) Acetic acid
c) Benzoic acid d) Propanoic acid [A]
112. Higher fatty acids are used for the manufacture of
a) rubber b) bakelite
c) soaps and detergents d) plastic [E]

FILL IN THE BLANKS BY CHOOSING THE APPROPRIATE WORD FROM
THOSE GIVEN IN THE BRACKETS: (ONE MARK)
Set - 1
(sp2, sp3, polarised, fragrance, electrophilic, carbonyl group)
1. The organic compounds containing carbon-oxygen double bond (>C=O) called ________. [E]
2. Aldehydes, ketones add _________ and flavour to nature. [E]
3. The carbonyl carbon atom is _________ hybridised. [A]
4. The carbon-oxygen double bond is _______ due to higher electronegativity of oxygen relative to
carbon. [E]
5. In a carbonyl group the carbonyl carbon is an ___________ in nature. [E]

Set - 2
(oxidation, reduction, Lewis base, acetaldehyde, ozonolysis, volatile)
1. In a carbonyl group the carbonyl oxygen acts as _________. [A]
2. Aldehydes and ketones are generally prepared by _____ of primary and secondary alcohols,
respectively. [E]
3. In the preparation of Aldehydes and Ketones by oxidation of alcohols method is suitable for ____
alcohols. [E]
4. By _______ of alkenes followed by reaction with zinc dust and water gives aldehydes, ketones or a
mixture of both depending on the substitution pattern of the alkene. [E]
5. Addition of water to ethyne in the presence of H2SO4 and HgSO4 gives _________. [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 165

Page 170

Set - 3
(benzaldehyde, methyl group, imine, alcohol, ketone, anhydrous aluminium chloride)
1. Nitriles are reduced to corresponding ______ with stannous chloride in the presence of hydrochloric
acid. [E]
2. Chromyl chloride oxidises _______of toluene to a chromium complex, which on hydrolysis gives
corresponding benzaldehyde. [E]
3. Side chain chlorination of toluene gives benzal chloride, which on hydrolysis gives _____. [A]
4. Treating a nitrile with Grignard reagent followed by hydrolysis yields a _________. [E]
5. ___________ is the catalyst used in Friedel-Crafts acylation reaction. [E]
Set - 4
(higher, propiophenone, gas, increases, decreases, miscible)
1. When benzene is treated with propanoyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3 and CS2 gives
______. [E]
2. Methanal is a _______ at room temperature. [E]
3. The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are ______ than hydrocarbons and ethers of comparable
molecular masses. [E]
4. The lower members of aldehydes and ketones such as methanal, ethanal and propanone are ______
with water in all proportions. [E]
5. The solubility of aldehydes and ketones ________ rapidly on increasing the length of alkyl chain. [E]
Set - 5
(planar, electronic, nucleophilic, electrophilic, addition, cyanohydrins)
1. The aldehydes and ketones undergo ________ addition reactions. [E]
2. The structure of carbonyl group is ________. [E]
3. Aldehydes are generally more reactive than ketones in nucleophilic addition reactions due to steric and
_______ reasons. [E]
4. Aldehydes and ketones react with hydrogen cyanide (HCN) to yield ________. [E]
5. Sodium hydrogensulphite adds to aldehydes and ketones to form the _______ products. [A]
Set - 6
(Ketones, Aldehydes, copper sulphate, bright silver mirror, hemiacetals, dimer)
1. Aldehydes react with one equivalent of monohydric alcohol in the presence of dry hydrogen chloride
to yield alkoxyalcohol intermediate, known as ________. [E]
2. ______ react with ethylene glycol under similar conditions to form cyclic products known as ethylene
glycol ketals. [A]
3. On warming an aldehyde with freshly prepared ammoniacal silver nitrate solution, a ______ is
produced. [E]
4. Fehling solution A is aqueous ________. [E]
5. In fact, most carboxylic acids exist as ______ in the vapour phase or in the aprotic solvents. [E]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 166

Page 171

8.1 Nomenclature:
TWO-MARK QUESTIONS
1. Write the structures of the following compounds.
(i) − Methoxypropionaldehyde (ii) 3-Hydroxybutanal [D]
2. Draw the structures of the following:
(i) p-Methylbenzaldehyde (ii) 4-Methylpent-3-en-2-one [D]
3. Name the following compounds according to IUPAC system of nomenclature:

(i) CH3CH ( CH3 ) CH2CH2CHO (ii) CH3COCH 2COCH3 [D]

4. Draw the structures of the following compounds. [D]
(i) 4-Chloropentan-2-one (ii) 4-Methylpent-3-en-2-one
5. Write the structure and IUPAC name of salicylic acid. [D]
8.1.2 Structure of the Carbonyl Group:
TWO-MARK QUESTIONS
6. Mention the geometry of carbonyl group and write the hybridization of carbonyl carbon. [E]
THREE-MARK QUESTIONS
7. Explain the structure of carbonyl Group. [A]
8.2.1 Preparation of Aldehydes and Ketones:
TWO-MARK QUESTIONS
8. Explain Rosenmund reduction with an equation. [E] (Mar-2018)
9. Explain Rosenmund’s reduction of benzoyl chloride. [E] (Mar-2014)
10. How would you prepare acetaldehyde from acetyl chloride? Name the reaction.
[D] (Mar-2015/May-2015)
11. Explain Stephen reaction with suitable example. [E]
12. Write the general reaction of conversion of alkyl nitrile to aldehyde by using DIBAL-H and expand
DIBAL-H. [D]
13. How benzene is converted into benzaldehyde by Gatterman-Koch reaction? Write equation.
[D] (Mar-2017)
14. Write the IUPAC name and structure of the product obtained when benzene reacts with acetyl chloride
in presence of anhyd. AlCl3. [D]
15. How does benzene react with acetyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3? Give equation.
[D] (Mar-2019)
16. Explain Gatterman–Koch reaction with an example. [E]
17. Does aldehyde have a higher or lower boiling point than alcohols of comparable molecular masses?
Justify your answer. [D]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 167

Page 172

18. Mention the name of the following reactions.

THREE-MARK QUESTIONS
19. Illustrate Etard reaction with equation. [E]
20. How do you convert toluene to benzaldehyde by using chromic oxide? Write chemical equation. [D]
21. How do you prepare benzaldehyde by side chain chlorination of toluene? Write chemical equation.
[D]
22. Explain the conversion of ethyl cyanide to propiophenone with equation. [A]
23. Give names of the reagents to bring about the following transformations:
(i) Hexan-1-ol to hexanal.
(ii) Cyclohexanol to cyclohexanone.
(iii) Allyl alcohol to propenal [D]
24. How is benzoyl chloride converted into benzaldehyde? Write the equation and name the reaction. [D]
(Mar-2020)
25. Write the reaction for the conversion of toluene to benzaldehyde using chromyl chloride. Name the
reaction. [A]
26. Write structures of compounds A, B and C in the following reactions:

[D]
8.4 Chemical reactions of aldehydes and ketones:
TWO-MARK QUESTIONS
27. Write the composition Fehling reagent. [E]
28. Aldehydes are more reactive than ketones in nucleophilic addition reactions. Give two reasons. [D]
(May-2016)
29. What is Tollens’ reagent? Write one usefulness of this reagent. [A]
30. Write the general equation involved in addition of ammonia and its derivatives to carbonyl group. [A]
31. How does propanone reacts with hydrazine? Give equation. [A]
32. Illustrate Clemmensen reduction with suitable reaction. [E] (Mar-2016/May-2024)
33. Explain haloform reaction with general equation. [E] (Mar-2024)

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 168

Page 173

34. Among butan-2-one and Pentan-3-one which compound is oxidised by sodium hypohalite? Write its
chemical equation. [D] (May-2024)
35. What is aldol condensation reaction? Give the IUPAC name of the aldol condensation product obtained
when propanone undergoes aldol condensation reaction. [D]
36. What is crossed aldol condensation reaction? Give an example. [E] (Mar-2016)
37. Identify A and B in the following reaction. 2𝐶6𝐻5𝐶𝐻𝑂 + 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑐.𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 → 𝑨 + B. [A] (Mar-2015)
38. Write the chemical equation for the reaction, when benzaldehyde is heated with concentrated alkali.
Name the reaction. [D] (May-2024)
39. How does benzaldehyde reacts with acetophenone in presence of a dilute alkali? Give equation. [D]
40. Explain Cannizzaro’s reaction with an example. [E] (May-2018/ May-2017)
41. Explain Cannizzaro’s reaction taking benzaldehyde as an example. [D] (Mar-2020)
42. Among methanal and ethanal, which one undergoes Cannizaro reaction? Give reason. [A]
43. Acetaldehyde does not undergo Cannizzaro’s reaction. Why? [D] (May-2016)
44. Explain the nitration of benzaldehyde with chemical equation. [A]
45. What is Tollens’ reagent? Write one usefulness of this reagent. [A]
46. Write Wolff-Kishner’s reduction for the conversion of carbonyl group into –CH2– group. [A] (May-
2020)
47. Identify A and B in the following reaction.

[D] (Mar-2024)
48. Explain aldol condensation reaction for acetaldehyde. Write equation. [D] (May-2019)
49. Write the equation for the reaction between benzaldehyde and concentrated 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 solution. Name the
reaction. [D] (Mar-2019)
50. How does benzaldehyde react with acetophenone in presence of a dilute alkali? [D] (May-2016)
51. What is the action of dil. NaOH on ethanol (acetaldehyde)? Name the reaction. [D] (Mar-2016)
52. How does propanone (𝐶𝐻3𝐶𝑂𝐶𝐻3) react with hydrazine? Give equation. [D] (Mar-2018)
53. In a given chemical reaction, write the structure and name of compound ‘Z’. [D]

54. What happens when carbonyl compounds are treated with hydrazine? Write the reaction.
[D] (Mar-2014)

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 169

Page 174

55. How does methanal react with hydroxylamine? Explain with equation. [D] (Mar-2024)
56. Draw the structure of the following derivatives:
(i) Cyanohydrin of propanone.
(ii) Hemiacetal of ethanal. [D]
THREE-MARK QUESTIONS
57. Write the mechanism of addition of HCN to carbonyl group in presence of a base. [E] (Mar-2016)
58. Explain preparation of propane by Wolff-Kishner reduction. Write chemical equation. [E]
59. Explain the following conversion with equation: Ethanol to but-2-enal. [A]
60. What happens when propanone is treated with methyl magnesium iodide and then hydrolyzed? Write
chemical equation. [D]
61. Provide the general reaction to prepare Haloform from methyl ketones. Name a reagent which is used
to detect the presence of α – methyl group in a carbonyl compound. [D]
62. Write main product formed when propanal reacts with the following reagents:
(i) Hydrogen cyanide in presence of base.
(ii) Dilute NaOH.
(iii) H2N-NH2 followed by heating with KOH in ethylene glycol. [D]
8.7 Methods of preparation of Carboxylic acids:
TWO-MARK QUESTIONS
63. Write the chemical equation for the conversion of toluene to benzoic acid. [D]
64. Explain the oxidation of primary alcohol to carboxylic acid with chemical equation. [A]
65. What is the final organic product obtained on hydrolysis of benzamide? Write the chemical equation.
[D]
66. What is the final organic product obtained on hydrolysis of ethanamide? Write the chemical equation.
[D]
67. What happens when benzoic anhydride treated with water? Write chemical equation. [D]
68. Write the general equation for the formation of carboxylic acid from Grignard reagent.
[D] (Mar-2020/Mar-2018/May-2015/Mar-2024)
69. How are carboxylic acids prepared from nitriles? [A] (May-2015)
70. Name the two products formed when benzoic ethanoic anhydride undergoes hydrolysis. [A]
THREE-MARK QUESTIONS
71. Explain the preparation of carboxylic acids from Grignard reagent. Give equation. [E]
72. What is Jones reagent? How do you convert 1-decanol to decanoic acid by using it? Write chemical
equation. [A]
73. Explain the conversion of toluene to benzoic acid with chemical equation. [A]

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 170

Page 175

74. What is the final organic and inorganic product obtained on hydrolysis of benzamide? Write the
chemical equation. [D]
75. What is the final organic and inorganic product obtained on hydrolysis of ethanamide? Write the
chemical equation. [D]

8.9 Chemical Reactions of Carboxylic acids:
TWO-MARK QUESTIONS
76. Among methanoic acid and ethanoic acid, which is more acidic and why? [D]
77. Explain esterification reaction with an example. [E] (May-2018)
78. What is the action of ammonia (𝑁𝐻3) on benzoic acid? Write equation. [A] (May-2018)
79. How is benzamide obtained from benzoic acid? [A] (Mar-2016/Mar-2014)
80. Explain HVZ (Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky) reaction with equation. [E] (Mar-2015/May-2024)
81. Explain the nitration of benzoic acid with chemical equation. [A]
82. Carboxylic acids do not give characteristic reactions of carbonyl group. Why? [D]
83. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their property as indicated:
(i) CH3COCH3, C6H5COCH3, CH3CHO (reactivity towards nucleophilic addition reaction)
(ii) Cl—CH2—COOH, F—CH2—COOH, CH3—COOH (acidic character) [D]
84. Give reasons:
(i) Benzoic acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid.
(ii) Methanal is more reactive towards nucleophilic addition reaction than ethanal. [D]
85. Between acetic acid and monochloroacetic acid, which is more acidic? Give reason. [A] (Mar-2024)
86. Account for the following:
(i) Aromatic carboxylic acids do not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction.
(ii) pKa value of 4-nitrobenzoic acid is lower than that of benzoic acid. [D]
87. Place the following in decreasing order or sequence of their acidic power. Also, explain the reason
behind your answer.
CH3CH2OH, CH3COOH, CICH2COOH, FCH2COOH, C6H5CH2COOH [D]
88. Among 4-nitro benzoic acid and 4-methoxy benzoic acid, which is more acidic? Give one reason.
[D] (Feb-2020)
89. The pKa values of 4-methoxybenzoic acid, benzoic acid and 4-nitrobenzoic acid are 4.46, 4.19 and 3.41
respectively. Arrange them in the increasing order of their acid strength. Justify the arrangement. [D]
90. Among methanoic acid and ethanoic acid, which is more acidic and why?
[D] (May-2017/May-2016)
91. Explain decarboxylation reaction with an example. [E] (Mar-2019/Mar-2016)

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 171

Page 176

THREE-MARK QUESTIONS
92. Write the final organic products in the following:

[D]
93. Write the reactions involved in the conversion of benzene-1,2-dicarboxyllic acid to phthalimide. [A]
94. Write the chemical equations for the following reactions:
(i) Ethanamide undergoes hydrolysis.
(ii) Methyl magnesium bromide is treated with carbon dioxide in dry ether followed by hydrolysis.
(iii) Acetic acid treated with sodium hydrogen carbonate. [D]

CASE STUDY TYPE QUESTIONS (ONE MARK)
95. An organic compound (A) (molecular formula, C8H16O2) was hydrolysed with dilute sulphuric acid to
give a carboxylic acid (B) and an alcohol (C). Oxidation of (C) with chromic acid produced (B). (C)
on dehydration gives but-1-ene. Write equations for the reactions involved. [D]
96. An organic compound (A) molecular formula C4H8O2 was hydrolysed with dil. sulphuric acid to give
a carboxylic acid (B) and an alcohol (C). Oxidation of (C) with Jones reagent produces (B). (C) On
dehydration with conc. H2SO4 at 443 K gives ethene. Write equations for the reactions involved in this.
[D]
97. An organic compound 'A' (molecular formula C7 H8) is heated with acidic KMnO4 gives compound 'B'
(molecular formula C7H6O2). Compound 'B' on reaction with NaOH gives compound 'C'. When
compound 'C' is heated with mixture of NaOH and CaO, it gives compound 'D'.
Write the chemical reactions with names of A, B, C and D. [D] (May-2024)
98. Write structures of compounds A, B and C in each of the following reactions. Write the names of the
reactions involved in first two steps.

CH3CN ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
(i)SnCl2 /HCl
(ii)H O+
→ A ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Dil.NaOH
→ B ⎯⎯ →C [D]
3

99. CH3MgBr + A ⎯⎯⎯⎯
(i)Dryether
(ii)H O+
→ B ⎯⎯⎯⎯ ⎯
(i)Cl2 /Red P
(ii)H2O
→C
3

(a) Identify the compound A, B and C in the above reaction.
(b) Name the reaction for the conversion of compound B to C.

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 172

Page 177

(c) Compound ‘C’ is more acidic than ‘B’. Give reason [D]
100. The compound “A” has molecular formula C7H8 is heated with alkaline KMnO4 followed by
acidification gives compound “B” of the molecular formula C7H6O2. This compound “B” turns blue
litmus to red. The sodium salt of compound “B” is heated with reagent “X” gives hydrocarbon “C” of
molecular mass 78 g mol-1.
(a) Write the structure of compounds “A”, “B” and “C”.
(b) Identify “X” and mention its role in the reaction. [D]
101. (a) Identify the compounds ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ in the following reaction.

(b) An organic compound ‘P’ (C7H6O2) reacts with thionyl chloride gives product ‘Q’. ‘Q’ on the further
undergoes hydrogenation in the presence of Pd-BaSO4 forms compound ‘R’. Write the equations
involved in the chemical reactions. [D]
102. An Organic compound with molecular formula C9H10O forms 2,4-DNP derivative, reduces Tollens
reagent and undergoes Cannizaro reaction. On vigorous oxidation, it gives benzene-1,2-dicarboxylic
acid. Identify the compound. Write all the reactions involved. [D]
103. Compound “A” undergoes Rosenmund reduction to give compound “B’ with molecular formula
C7H6O. compound “B” does not answer Fehling’s test. But reacts with conc. NaOH to give compounds
“C” and “D”. Write two equations involved in this. [D]
104. An organic compound ‘A' on treatment with ethanoic acid in the presence of hydrochloric acid gas as
a catalyst produces an ester ‘B’. ‘A’ on oxidation with CrO3 in an anhydrous medium gives ‘C’. ‘C’ is
heated with concentrated KOH followed by acidification with dilute HCl generates ‘A’ and ‘D’. Three
moles of ‘D’ reacts with PCl3 gives three moles of compound with molecular formula HCOCl and ‘E’.
‘D’ is reduced to ‘A’ by lithium aluminium hydride followed by hydrolysis. Write the molecular
formulas of the compound ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’, ‘D’ and ‘E’. [D] (Mar-2025)



II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 173

Page 178

Unit 9
Amines

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQS) (ONE MARK)
Introduction:
1. Amines are considered to be organic derivatives of (E)
a) hydrazine b) ammonia
c) amides d) all the above.
2. Biologically active compounds containing secondary amino group that are used to increase blood
pressure are (E)
a) adrenaline and ephedrine b) novacain and ephedrine
c) benadryl and novacain d) adrenaline and benadryl
3. A synthetic amino compound used as an anaesthetic in dentistry is (E)
a) novacain b) adrenaline
c) benadryl d) ephedrine
4. Which of the following biomolecules do not contain amino group in them? (A)
a) proteins b) vitamins
d) alkaloids d) carbohydrates.
5. Quaternary ammonium salts are used as (E)
a) surfactants b) pain killer
c) anaesthesia d) antihistaminic
6. Identify the amino compounds not correctly matched with respect to the use given with them. (A)
a) Adrenaline and ephedrine: increase blood pressure
b) Novacain: anaesthetic in dentistry
c) Benadryl: antihistaminic drug
d) Halothane: iodine containing hormone.
9.1 Structure of amines:
7. Which of the following is true about amines? (E)
a) orbitals of nitrogen are sp3 hybridised
b) geometry of amines is pyramidal
c) carbon –nitrogen-carbon or carbon-nitrogen-hydrogen bond in amines is less than normal
tetrahedral angle.
d) all the above.
8. The hybridisation of ‘N’ atom in trimethyl amine is, (E)
a) sp3 b) sp2 c) sp d) dsp2

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 174

Page 179

9. The fourth sp3 hybridised orbital of nitrogen in all amines contains (E)
a) bonded electrons b) unpaired electrons
c) unshared pair of electrons d) both bond pair and unshared pair of electrons
10. Carbon-nitrogen-carbon bond angle in trimethylamine and carbon-nitrogen-hydrogen bond angle in
methanamine respectively are (A)
a) 1080 and less than 109.50 b) 1070and less than 109.50
c) 109.50 and less than 110.50 d) 1050 and less than 1200
11. The C–N–E bond angle in amines, (where E is C or H) is less than 109.5°. It is due to (A)
a) presence of only bonded pair of electrons. b) presence of empty orbitals
c) presence of unshared pair of electrons d) presence of filled orbitals.
9.2 Classification:
12. Which one of the following is a correct match with respect to the type of amine mentioned with it? (A)
a) simple amine: N-Methylmethanamine b) Mixed amine: N-Methylmethanamine
c) Primary amine: N-Methylmethanamine d) Aryl amine: Methanamine.
13. N,N-Diethylbutan-1-amine is a (E)
a) primary amine b) secondary amine
c) tertiary amine d) quaternary ammonium salt
14. Diethylamine and Isopropylmethyl amine show, (A)
a) chain isomerism b) metamerism
c) position isomerism d) functional isomerism.
15. Statement I: Amines are said to be ‘simple’ when all the alkyl or aryl groups are the same, and
‘mixed’ when they are different.
Statement II: In secondary amines, the second alkyl/aryl group must be same. (A)
In the light of the above statements, choose the appropriate answer from the options given below:
a) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
b) Both statement I and statement II are correct
c) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
d) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
16. A secondary amine is
a) compound with an –NH2 group on the carbon atom in number-2 position.
b) a compound in which 2 of the hydrogen of NH3 have been replaced by organic groups
c) an organic compound with two carbon atoms and an –NH2 group.
d) a compound with two carbon atoms and an NH2 group. A (KCET 2022)

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 175

Page 180

9.3 Nomenclature:
17. In IUPAC system, primary aliphatic amines are named as (A)
a) alkanamines b) alkenamines
b) aminoalkanes d) diamines.

18. IUPAC name of the compound is (E)
a) Prop-1-en-1-amine b) Prop-2-en-1-amine
c) But-1-en-1-amine d) But-2-en-1-amine.
19. IUPAC name of p-Bromoaniline is (E)
a) 4-Bromobenzenamine b) 2-Aminotoluene
c) N,N-Dimethylbenzenamine d) Ethanamine
20. The IUPAC name of allylamine is (E)
a) N-Methylethanamine b) Prop-2-en-1-amine
c) Propan-2-amine d) Benzenamine
9.4 Preparation of amines:
21. Reduction of nitrobenzene using iron and hydrochloric acid gives, (E)
a) aniline b) hexanamine
c) azo benzene d) amide.
22. The reagent which is more preferred choice for reducing nitrobenzene to aniline (A)
a) H2 / Pd, ethanol b) Fe and HCl
c) Sn and HCl d) LiAlH4
23. Statement I: Ammonolysis of alkyl halides has the disadvantage of yielding a mixture of primary,
secondary and tertiary amines and also a quaternary ammonium salt. (A)
Statement II: Tertiary amine is obtained as a major product by taking large excess of ammonia in
ammonolysis of alkyl halides.
In the light of the above statements, choose the appropriate answer from the options given below:
a) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
b) Both Statement I and statement II are correct
c) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
d) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
24. The final product obtained in ammonolysis of excess of alkyl halides is (A)
a) quaternary ammonium salt b) primary amine
c) secondary amine d) tertiary amine.
25. The major product obtained in ammonolysis of excess of ammonia is (A)
a) quaternary ammonium salt b) primary amine
c) secondary amine d) tertiary amine

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 176

Page 181

26. Among CH3F, CH3Cl, CH3Br, CH3I , the haloalkane cleaved easily by the nucleophile ammonia is
a) CH3Cl b) CH3I
c) CH3Br d) CH3F (A)
27. The method that is having disadvantage in the preparation of primary amines is (A)
a) Reduction of nitro compounds b) Reduction of nitriles.
c) Ammonolysis of alkyl halides d) Reduction of amides.
28. Statement I: In ammonolysis, the primary amine obtained behaves as a nucleophile and can further
react with alkyl halide to form secondary and tertiary amines, and finally quaternary ammonium salt.
Statement II: The free amine can be obtained from the ammonium salt by treatment with a strong
base: (A)
In the light of the above statements, choose the appropriate answer from the options given below:
a) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
b) Both statement I and statement II are correct
c) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
d) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
29. In the reaction, (A)
CH3 − X ⎯⎯
X
→ CH3 − CN ⎯⎯⎯
LiAlH 4
→Y

X and Y respectively are
a) alcoholic silver cyanide and ethanamine b) alcoholic potassium cyanide and ethanamine
c) aqueous potassium cyanide and ethanamine d) aqueous potassium cyanide and bezenamine
30. Compounds which are used for ascent of amine series. (A)
a) Nitro alkanes b) Nitriles
c) Amides d) Esters
31. Which one of the following amine cannot be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis? (E)
a) CH3NH2 b) C6H5NH2
c) C2H5NH2 d) CH3 CH2NH2
32. Gabriel phthalimide synthesis method can be used to prepare (E)
a) priamry aliphatic amines only b) primary Aromatic amines only
c) mixture of both primary and secondary amines. d) quaternary ammonium salts only
33. Acid amide on heating with potassium hypobromite (bromine in an aqueous or alcoholic sodium
hydroxide) gives (A)
a) a secondary amine
b) a primary amine with one carbon lesser than the original amide.
c) a primary amine with one carbon higher than the original amide.
d) none of these.

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 177

Page 182

34. The method of reaction that involves migration of aryl/alkyl group from carbonyl carbon of the amide
to the nitrogen atom is (A)
a) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis b) Hoffmann bromamide reaction.
d) Sandmeyer reaction d) carbylamine reaction.
35. The halide that does not undergo nucleophilic substitution with the anion formed by phthalimide is (A)
a) C6H5Cl b) CH3Cl
c) C6H5 CH2Cl d) CH3CH2CH2Cl
36. Hoffmann bromamide reaction can be used to prepare (E)
a) primary aliphatic amines only b) primary aromatic amines only
c) both aliphatic and aromatic primary amines. d) only quaternary ammonium salts.
37. Consider the given reaction: RCONH 2 + Br2 + 4 NaOH ⎯⎯
→ RNH 2 + Na 2CO3 + 2 NaBr + 2 H 2O ;

If the molecular formula of an amine is CH5N, then the molecular formula of amide will be (D)
a) C2H6NO b) C2H5NO
c) CH5NO d) C2H4NO
38. The most preferred method for the conversion of benzene to aniline is (A)
a) halogenation of benzene followed by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
b) nitration of benzene followed by reduction using Sn and hydrochloric acid.
c) chlorination of benzene followed by ammonolysis.
d) nitration of benzene followed by alkali hydrolysis
39. Which one of the following gives amines on heating with amide? (A)
a) Br2 in aqueous KOH b) Br2 in KNO3
c) Cl2 in sodium d) sodium in ether
40. The source of nitrogen in Gabriel phpthalimide synthesis of amines is (A)
a) sodium amide, NaNH2 b) sodium azide, NaN3
c) potassium cyanide, KCN d) potassium phthalimide, C6H4(CO)2N-K+
(NCERT EXEMPLAR PROBLEMS)
9.5 Physical properties:
41. Study the graph showing the melting points of amines and identify the compounds: (A)

a) 1 = Methanamine, 2 = Ethanamine, 3 = Propanamine, 4 = Butanamine
b) 1 = Ethanamine, 2 = Propanamine, 3 = Butanamine, 4 = Methanamine

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 178

Page 183

c) 1 = Butanamine, 2 = Methanamine, 3 = Propanamine, 4 = Ethanamine
d) 1 = Propanamine, 2 = Butanamine, 3 = Methanamine, 4 = Ethanamine
42. Among isomeric amines, (E)
a) primary amines have the least boiling points
b) secondary amines have the least boiling points
c) tertiary amines have the least boiling points
d) none of these.
43. Which of the following amine is expected to be a gas at room temperature? (E)
a) Methanamine b) Benzenamine
c) Butanamine d) Pentanamine.
44. The correct order of solubility of amines is (A)
a) Methanamine < Aniline b) Butanamine < Ethanamine
c) Methanamine > Aniline d) Pentanamine > Methanamine
45. Statement I: Butan-1-ol is more soluble in water than butan-1-amine (D)
Statement II: Electronegativity of oxygen is more than that of nitrogen.
Identify the correct statement:
a) Both the statements I and II are incorrect
b) Statement II is the correct explanation of statement I
c) Statement I is correct, but the statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect, but the statement II is correct
46. Identify the INCORRECT information for the compounds given and the property mentioned with it. (D)
a) Intermolecular hydrogen bond: CH3NH2 < CH3OH
b) Boiling point: n-C4H9 NH2 > (C2H5)2 NH.
c) pKb value: aniline < methanamine
d) Stability: Alkyldiazonium salts < Aryldiazonium salts
47. Which of the following is least soluble in water at 298K?
a) CH3NH2 b) (CH3)3N
c) (CH3)2NH d) C6H5NH2 (KCET 2019)
48. Which of the following methods of preparation of amines will not give the same number of carbon
atoms in the chain of amines as in the reactant?
a) Reaction of alkyl nitrile with LiAlH4
b) Reaction of amide with LiAlH4 followed by treatment with water
c) Heating of alkyl halide with potassium salt of phthalimide followed by hydrolysis
d) Treatment of amide with bromine in aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide.
(NCERT EXEMPLAR PROBLEMS)

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 179

Page 184

49. Which of the following should be most volatile?
a) CH3 CH2 CH2NH2 b) (CH3) 3N
c) CH3 CH2-NH- CH3 d) CH3 CH2CH3 (NCERT EXEMPLAR PROBLEMS)
50. Benzylamine may be alkylated as shown in the following equation:
C6H5CH2NH2 + R-X → C6H5CH2NHR + HX
Which of the following alkyl halides is best suited for this reaction through SN1 mechanism?
a) CH3Br b) C2H5Br
c) C6H5CH2Br d) C2H5Br (NCERT EXEMPLAR PROBLEMS)
9.6 Chemical reactions:
51. Amines are (E)
a) Bronsted acids b) Bronsted bases
c) Both a and b d) none of these.
52. Which of the following has the highest pKb value in pure form? (A)
a) Methyl amine b) ammonia
c) Dimethyl amine d) Trimethyl amine.
53. The correct order of basic strength in case of ethyl substituted amines in aqueous solution is (A)
a) (C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N > C2H5NH2> NH3
b) (C2H5)3N > (C2H5)2NH > C2H5NH2> NH3
c) (C2H5)3N> C2H5NH2> (C2H5)2NH > NH3
d) NH3> (C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N > C2H5NH2
54. The most basic amine in aqueous solution is (A)
a) methyl amine b) dimethylamine
c) trimethylamine d) tetramethylammonium ion
55. Which one of the following groups when present at para position increases the basic strength of
aniline? (A)
a) –NO2 b) –Br
c) –NH2 d) –COOH
56. Among the following, the most basic compound in aqueous medium is (A)
a) ( C2H5 )2 NH b) (C2H5 )3 N
c) C2 H5 NH 2 d) NH3
57. Which of the following is a false statement? (D)
a) anilinium ion is not stabilized by resonance
b) cation CH3N+H3 is stabler than ammonium ion
c) cation CH3N+H3 is stabilized by +I effect of methyl group.
d) cation CH3N+H3 is conjugate base of methyl amine.

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 180

Page 185

58. Methyl amine reacts with nitrous acid to form, (A)
a) methane b) nitromethane
c) diazonium salt d) methanol
59. The amine which can form isocyanide with chloroform and alcoholic potassium hydroxide is (A)
a) N-Methylmethanmine b) N,N-Dimethylmethanamine
c) N-Ethylethanamine d) Benzenamine.
60. The product formed from the following reaction sequence is (D)

61. An amine with the molecular formula C4H11N reacts with Hinsberg’s reagent to form a product which
is insoluble in sodium hydroxide. This product shows metamerism with, (D)
a) CH3- CH2- CH2- CH2-NH2 b) CH3NH- C3H7
c) both a and b d) none of these.
62. N-Ethylbenzenesulphonamide is soluble in alkali because (A)
a) It does not contain any hydrogen atom attached to nitrogen atom and is not acidic.
b) It contains hydrogen atom attached to nitrogen atom and is strongly acidic.
c) It contains hydrogen atom attached to nitrogen atom but is not acidic.
d) It does not contain any hydrogen atom attached to nitrogen atom but is acidic.
63. The general test for primary amines is (E)
a) sodium bicarbonate test b) esterification test
c) carbylamine test d) neutral ferric chloride test.
64. The chemical formula of Hinsberg’s reagent is (E)
a) C6 H 6SOCl b) C6 H5SOCl2
c) C6 H5SO2Cl d) C6 H5SO3H
65. Acylation of N-ethylethanamine is carried out in the presence of a base stronger than the amine (like
pyridine) because it removes (D)
a) HCl and shifts the equilibrium to the left.
b) NaOH and shifts the equilibrium to the right.
c) NaOH and shifts the equilibrium to the left.
d) HCl and shifts the equilibrium to the right.

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 181

Page 186

66. Halogenation of amines with excess of bromine water gives 2,4,6-tribromoaniline. In this
bromination, monohalogenated derivative is got by (A)
a) bromination followed by acetylating amino group.
b) acetylating the amino group followed by bromination and hydrolysis
c) hydrolysis, bromination and acetylation
d) bromination, acetylation and hydrolysis.
67. The compound that cannot exist as zwitter ion in aqueous solution is (A)
a) sulphanilic acid b) glycine
c) phenol d) alanine
68. The compound that does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction is (E)
a) benzene b) anisole
c) aniline d) chlorobenzene
69. The purpose of acylating aniline before electrophilic substitution reaction is (A)
a) to activate NH2 group of aniline b) to decrease activity effect of -NH2 group
c) to get only meta substitution d) to get only ortho substitution.
70. During nitration, along with ortho and para substituted nitro derivatives, meta nitro derivative is also
obtained in large quantity (47%) because (D)
a) in acidic medium anilinium formed is meta directing.
b) electrophile -NO2+ always adds to meta position
c) –NH2 group is predominantly meta directing
d) –NH2 group always direct electrophile towards ortho, meta, para directing.
71. Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction. (A)
a) due to salt formation with aluminium chloride.
b) –NH2 is a strong deactivating group
c) aniline gives mixture of ortho, para and meta products
d) both (a) and (b)
72. An aromatic compound A (C7H9N) on reacting with NaNO2 / HCl at 0 0C forms benzyl alcohol and
nitrogen gas. The number of isomers possible for the compound A is
a) 5 b) 7 c) 3 d) 6 (KCET 2014)
73. The correct sequence of reactions to be performed to convert benzene into m-bromoaniline is
a) nitration, reduction, bromination b) bromination, nitration, reduction
c) nitration, bromination, reduction d) reduction, nitration, bromination. (KCET 2014)
74. One of the following amides will not undergo Hoffmann bromamide reaction.
a) CH3CONHCH3 b) CH3 CH2CONH2
C) CH3CO NH2 d) C6H5CONH2 (KCET 2015)

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 182

Page 187

75. In the given set of reactions:
𝑎𝑙𝑐.𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑁 𝑎𝑛𝑑 ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑡 𝐿𝑖𝐴𝑙𝐻4
2-Bromopropane → X→ Y.
The IUPAC name of the product Y is
a) N-isopropylmethanamine b) N-methylpropan-2-amine
c) N-methylpropanamine d) butan-2-amine (KCET 2015)
76. In the following sequence of reactions;
𝑅𝑒𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝐻𝑁𝑂2
A→ B→ CH3CH2OH
The compound A is
a) propane nitrile b) ethane nitrile
c) nitromethane d) methyl isocyanate (KCET 2016)
77. An organic compound A on reduction gives compound B, which on reaction with trichloromethnae and
caustic potash forms C. The compound C on catalytic reduction gives N-methylbenzenamine, the
compound A is
a) nitrobenzene b) nitromethane
c) methanamine d) benzenamine (KCET 2016)
78. Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is used in the preparation of primary amines from phthalimide. Which of
the following is not used during the process?
a) NaOH b) HCl c) KOH d) Alkyl halides (KCET 2017)
79. Which of the following is more basic than aniline?
a) Diphenylamine b) Triphenylamine
c) p-Nitroaniline d) Benzylamine (KCET 2018)
80. In carbylamines test for primary amines the resulting foul smelling product is
a) CH3NC b) CO Cl2
c) CH3NCl2 d) CH3CN (KCET 2022)
81. If aniline is treated with 1:1 mixture of con.HNO3 and con. H2SO4 , p-nitroaniline and m-nitroaniline
are formed nearly in equal amounts. This is due to
a) m-directing property of NH2 group
b) protonation of –NH2 group which causes deactivation of benzene ring.
c) m and p directing nature of –NH2 group
d) isomerisation of some p-nitroaniline into m-nitroaniline. (KCET 2019)
𝑁𝐻3 2𝐶𝐻3𝐶𝑙
82. C6H5CH2Cl → A → 𝐵. The product B is
a) N, N-dimethylphenylmethanamine b) N,N-dimethylbenzenamine
c) N-benzyl-N-methylmethanamine d) phenyl-N,N-dimethylmethanamine (KCET 2021)

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 183

Page 188

83. Which of the following reagents are suitable to differentiate between Aniline and N-methylaniline
chemically?
a) Bromine water
b) con. Hydrochloric acid and anhydrous zinc chloride
c) chloroform and alcoholic potassium hydroxide
d) acetic anhydride. (KCET 2025)
84. Match the compounds given in List-I with the items given in List –II

List-I List-II
i) Benzenesulphonyl chloride A) zwitter ion
ii) sulphanilic acid B) Hinsberg reagent
iii) alkyl diazonium salts C) dyes
iv) aryl diazonium salts D) conversion to alcohols

a) i-A, ii-C, iii-B, iv-D b) i-C, ii-A, iii-D, iv-B
c) i-B, ii-A, iii-D, iv-C d) i-C, ii-B, iii-A, iv-D (KCET 2025)
85. Aniline does not undergo
a) nitration b) sulphonation
c) Friedel-Crafts reaction d) bromination. (KCET 2023)
86. Which of the following is the weakest Bronsted base?
NH2
N H
a) b)
NH2

c) d) CH3NH2.
(NCERT EXEMPLAR PROBLEMS)
87. In the nitration of benzene using a mixture of con.H2SO4 and con. HNO3 , the species which initiates
the reaction is
a) NO2 b) NO+
c) NO2+ d) NO2- (NCERT EXEMPLAR PROBLEMS)
88. Acid anhydrides on reaction with primary amines give
a) amide b) imide
c) secondary amine d) imine. (NCERT EXEMPLAR PROBLEMS)

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 184

Page 189

II Diazonium salts:
89. The general formula of diazonium salts is (E)
a) RMgX b) R𝑁2+ 𝑋 −
c) R-X d) LiAlH4
90. p-Aminoazobenzene is prepared from benzenediazonium chloride and aniline in (E)
a) acidic medium b) basic medium
c) neutral medium d) both acidic and basic medium.
91. The reagent that can be used to convert benzene diazonium chloride to benzene is (A)
a) H3PO2 + H2O b) SnCl2/HCl
c) LiAlH4 d) H3PO4
92. The reagent that can be used to convert benzenediazonium chloride to nitobenzene is (A)
a) HBF4 and NaNO2 b) HNO3 and HCl
c) HNO3 and H2SO4 d) NaNO2 and HNO3
93. The reagent that can be used to convert benzenediazonium chloride to fluorobenzene is (E)
a) HBF4 b) HF
c) AgF d) aqueous KF
94. Chlorine or bromine can also be introduced in the benzene ring by treating the diazonium salt
solution with corresponding halogen acid in the presence of copper powder. This is referred as (E)
a) Gatterman reaction. b) Sandmeyer reaction
c) Gatterman -Koch reaction d) diazotisation reaction.
95. The process of conversion of a primary aromatic amine into its diazonium salt is called (E)
a) acetylation b) coupling
c) diazotization d) deamination.
96. The water insoluble diazonium salt is (E)
a) Benzene diazonium chloride b) Benzenediazonium fluoroborate
c) Benzene diazonium hydrogen sulphate d) none of these.
97. p-Hydroxyazobenzene is formed by the reaction of benzene diazonium chloride with phenol. It is (A)
a) an electrophilic substitution reaction b) a nucleophilic substitution reaction
c) a hydrogenation reaction d) a halogenation reaction.
98. Which of the haloarene cannot be prepared by direct halogenation? (E)
a) Chloro benzene b) Iodobenzene
c) Bromo toluene d) Chloro Toulene
99. Statement I: Chlorobenzene cannot be converted to cyanobenzene by nucleophilic substitution
reaction.
Statement II: Diazonium salts are good intermediates for the introduction of –F, -OH into aromatic ring.
Identify the correct statement. (A)

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 185

Page 190

a) Both statements I and II are correct
b) Both statements I and II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.
100. Which of the following will be the most stable diazonium salt (R𝑁2+ 𝑋 − )?
a) CH3𝑁2+ 𝑋 − b) C6H5𝑁2+ 𝑋 −
c) CH3CH2𝑁2+ 𝑋 − d) CH3CH2𝑁2+ 𝑋 − (KCET 2018)
101. The reaction of benzenediazonium chloride with aniline yields yellow dye. The name of the yellow
dye is
a) p-hydroxyazobenzene b) p-aminoazobenzene
c) p-nitroazobenzene d) o-nitroazobenzene. (KCET 2018)
𝑁𝑎𝑁𝑂2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑑𝑖𝑙.𝐻𝐶𝑙 𝑃ℎ𝑒𝑛𝑜𝑙, 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻
102. In the reaction , Aniline → P→ Q. The compound Q is
a) C6H5N2Cl b) ortho-hydroxyazobenzene
c) para-hydroxyazobenzene d) meta-hydroxyazobenzene (KCET 2024)

Fill In the Blanks by Choosing the Appropriate Word from Those Given in the
Brackets: (ONE MARK)
Set-01
(Hinsberg’s reagent, ammonia, Ethanamine, adrenaline, methyl group, ethyl group )
1. The secondary amino group is present in _________ (E)
2. The amines are the derivatives of _______ (E)
3. Ethylamine has the IUPAC name ________ (E)
4. Migration of ____ takes place from carbonyl carbon of the ethanamide to the nitrogen atom in
Hoffmann bromamide degradation reaction. (E)
5. Benzenesulphonyl chloride is called ________ (E)

Set-02
(pyramidal, surfactants, tertiary amines, primary aliphatic, gases, octahedral)
1. The lower aliphatic amines are _____ with fishy odour. (E)
2. Intermolecular hydrogen bond is not seen in ________ (E)
3. Gabriel phthalimide synthesis can be used to prepare_________amines. (E)
4. The geometry of amines is ______ (E)
5. Quaternary ammonium salts are used as _________

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 186

Page 191

Set-03
(sulphanilic acid, 2-Aminotoluene, tertiary amine, primary amine, N-methyl benzamide, Friedel-
Crafts)
1. The IUPAC name of o-Toluidine is ______ (E)
2. Nitriles on reduction with lithium aluminium hydride produce_______ (E)
3. Benzoylation of methanamine gives _________ (E)
4. p-aminobenzene sulphonic acid is called ______ (E)
5. Aniline does not undergo________reaction. (E)
Set-04
(simple amine, Lewis bases, an yellow dye, N-Methylbenzamide, potassium iodide, copper(I) ion)
1. Amines are ______ (E)
2. The reagent used to convert benzenediazonium chloride to iodobenzene is ________ (E)
3. In Sandmeyer reaction, Cl- is introduced in the benzene ring in the presence of ______ (E)
4. p-Aminoazobenzene is ________ (E)
5. N- Methylmethanamine is a _______ (E)
Set-05
(primary aliphatic amines, Tollen’s reagent test, ammonia, isocyanide test, acetanilide, nitrogen)
1. Aniline reacts with ethanoic anhydride to form_______ (E)
2. _________________is a test for primary amines. (E)
3. Aniline is a weaker base than ______- (E)
4. Orbitals of ____ in amines are sp3 hybridised. (E)
5. The type of amines which cannot form the stable alkyldiazonium salts is _______ (E)
Set-06
(Ammonolysis, novocain, 2,4,6-tribromoaniline, deammination, aniline, methanamine)
1. A synthetic amino compound used as anaesthetic in dentistry is _________ (E)
2. _________________involves the cleavage of C-X bond by ammonia molecule. (E)
3. The product formed when CH3NH3+X - .is treated with a strong base like NaOH is ______ (E)
4. The organic product formed when aniline reacts with bromine water at room temperature is ____ (E)
5. The simplest aromatic primary amine is _____ (E)
TWO MARK QUESTIONS:
9.1 Structure of Amines;
1. Discuss about the bond angle and hybrid orbitals of nitrogen in amines. (A)
2. Name any one biologically active amino compound used in the following: (E)
(i) to increase blood pressure (containing secondary amino group)
(ii) as an anaesthetic in dentistry (a synthetic amino compound)

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 187

Page 192

9.2 Classification;
3. What is a simple amine? Write one example. (E)
4. Write the structures of all isomeric amines having the formula C4H11N. (D)
5. Classify these into primary and secondary amines: Aniline and diethylamine (E)
9.3 Nomenclature:
6. Write the IUPAC name of
i) (CH3)2CHNH2. ii) (CH3)2N-CH2- CH2-NH2 (E)
7. Write IUPAC names of the following compounds
i) m–BrC6H4NH2 ii) C6H5NHCH3 (E)
8. Write the IUPAC name of simplest arylamine. What is its formula? (E)
9.4 Preparation of Amines;
9. Write the chemical equation for
a) the reaction between ethanenitrile and sodium amalgam in ethanol. (A)
b) reduction of amides using lithium aluminium hydride to produce amines. (A)
10. How is aniline obtained from nitrobenzene? Write the chemical equation. (A)
11. Give reason: Reduction of nitrobenzene with iron scrap and hydrochloric acid is preferred. Name the
organic compound which is formed as product formed in this reaction. (D)
12. Write the chemical equations for the reaction of chloroethane with ethanolic ammonia. (A)
13. Write the chemical reaction for the ammonolysis of 2 moles of benzyl chloride. (A)
14. How does 1 mole of benzylamine react with 2 moles of chloromethane? Write the equations. (D)
15. How is benzamide converted into aniline? Write the chemical equation. (A)
16. Explain Hoffmann bromamide degradation reaction by taking butanamide as an example. (A)
17. How is methanamine prepared by Hoffmann bromamide degradation? Write the equation. (A)
18. Write the equation for the reaction of amide with bromine in ethanolic solution of sodium hydroxide
that gives a primary amine. Name this reaction. (D)
19. Explain carbylamine reaction with an example. (E)
20. a) Aromatic primary amines cannot be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis. Why?
b) Write the equation for obtaining methanamine from CH3𝑁𝐻3+ X- and NaOH. (D)
21. A simple amine ‘X’ with the formula C4H11N consumes two moles of chloromethane per mole of
amine to form quaternary ammonium salt. Write the structure and IUPAC name of this isomeric
amine ‘X’. (D)
22. Write the chemical equation involved in preparation of aniline from benzene. (D)
9.5 Physical Properties;
23. Ethylamine is soluble in water whereas aniline is not. Justify the statement. (A)
24. Arrange the following: (A)
a) in the increasing order of boiling point: C2H5OH, (CH3)2NH, C2H5NH2
b) in the increasing order of solubility in water: C6H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH, C2H5NH2

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 188

Page 193

9.6 Chemical Reactions;
25. Between aryl amines and ammonia which one is more basic and why? (A)
26. pKb of aniline is more than that of methanamine. Give reasons (A)
27. Arrange the following: (A)
(i) in the decreasing order of the pKb values: C2H5NH2, C6H5NHCH3, (C2H5)2NH and C6H5NH2
(ii) in the increasing order of basic strength: C6H5NH2, C6H5N(CH3)2, (C2H5)2NH and CH3NH2
28. How do primary aliphatic amines react with nitrous acid? Write the chemical equation. (A)
29. Write the chemical equation for the reaction between ethanamine and benzenesulphonyl chloride. (A)
30. Write the equations for the conversion of aniline into 4-Bromoaniline. (A)
31. Between of ethanamine and trimethyl amine, which one does not react with Hinsberg’s reagent? Give
reason. (A)
32. N, N-diethnamine answers Hinsberg’s reagent but is insoluble in alkali. Why? (D)
33. How is aniline converted into sulphanilic acid? Write the chemical equation. (A)
34. Identify the compounds “X” and “Y” in the following conversion. (A)
NaNO2 + 2HCl
C6H5− NH2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
273−278K
→ "X" ⎯⎯→
"Y"
C6H5−I + KCl + N2

35. How do you distinguish primary amine, secondary amine and tertiary amine using Hinsberg's
reagent? (A)
36. Explain Hoffmann bromamide degradation of benzamide. (A)
37. Which of the following amine react with p-toluenesulphonyl chloride to produce a sulphonyl amide
which is soluble in alkali? Trimethylamine, dimethylamine, ethanamine. (A)
9.7 Method of Preparation of Diazonium Salts;
38. Write the equation for the reaction of the following with nitrous acid:
i) aromatic primary amines and
ii) aliphatic primary amines. (A)
9.9 Chemical Reactions;
39. Write the equation for the preparation of p-hydroxyazobenzene. (A)
40. Discuss the coupling reaction of benzenediazonium chloride with aniline. Give the equation. (A)
41. How do you convert benzene diazonium chloride into p-aminoazobenzene? Give the equation. (A)
42. Write the chemical equation for the preparation of p-hydroxyazobenzene from diazonium salt. What
is the colour of the dye formed? (A)
43. Explain Gatterman reaction for the preparation of bromobenzene. (E)
44. How does benzenediazonium chloride react with ethanol? Write the equation. (A)
45. Write the equation for the conversion of benzenediazonium chloride into benzene. (A)
46. Identify the compounds “X” and “Y” in the following conversion. (A)

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 189

Page 194

NaNO2 + 2HCl
C6H5− NH2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
273−278K
→ "X" ⎯⎯→
"Y"
C6H5−I + KCl + N2

47. Complete the following reaction:

THREE MARK QUESTIONS:
9.4 Preparation of Amines;
1. Write the chemical equations involved in the preparation of an aliphatic primary amine in Gabriel
phthalimide synthesis. (E)
2. Write the chemical equations involved in Gabriel pthalimide synthesis for the preparation of
methylamine. (A)
3. Explain Hoffmann broamamide degradation reaction by taking propanamide as an example. Give the
IUPAC name of the organic compound formed as product. (A)
9.6 Chemical Reactions;
4. Mention any three factors which decide the basic strength of alkyl amines in aqueous solution. (E)
5. What is Hinsberg’s reagent? How do you distinguish between primary amine and secondary amine
using Hinsberg's reagent? (A)
6. Aniline on acetylation, followed by nitration and hydrolysis gives p-nitroaniline as the major product.
Write the chemical equations involved.
7. Identify the products A, B and C in the following. (A)

8. Write the chemical equation for: (A)
a) preparation of cyanobenzene from benzenediazonium chloride.
b) reduction of benzenediazonium chloride to benzene.
c) conversion of benzenediazonium chloride to phenol.
9. Which type of amines answer for carbylamine reaction (isocyanide test)? Describe carbylamine
reaction with a suitable example. (A)
10. Identify the product A, B and C. (A)

OH–/partial hydrolysis NaOH + Br2 NaNO2
CN A B C
H2O

11. An aromatic compound ‘A’ on treatment with aqueous ammonia followed by heating forms
compound ‘B’ . The compound ‘B’ on heating with Br2 and KOH forms the compound ‘C’ with the
molecular formula C6H7N. Write the IUPAC name of A, B and C. (D)

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 190

Page 195

12. An amine ‘A’ can be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis. The compound ‘A’ reacts with nitrous
acid to give the organic compound ‘B’. The functional isomer of ‘B’ is CH3-O- CH3. The compound
‘A’ can be prepared by the reduction of amide ‘C’. Identify the compounds A, B and C. (D)
13. An amine ‘X’ with the molecular formula C3H9N does not react with Hinsberg’s reagent. X is more
basic than its isomer ‘Y’ in their pure form. The compound Y reacts with Hinsberg’s reagent to form
a product that contains no acidic hydrogen. The compound Y reacts with Z to form N,N-
Dimethylmethanamide. Identify X, Y and Z. (D)
14. A hydrocarbon A with the molecular formula C4H8 on treatment with hydrochloric acid gives a
compound B with the formula C4H9Cl. This compound B on reaction with 1 mole of ammonia gives
the compound C. The compound C reacts with nitrous acid followed by reaction with water gives an
optically active alcohol D. Ozonalysis of A gives 2 molecules of acetaldehyde. Identify the
compounds A, B and D. (D)



II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 191

Page 196

Department of School Education (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination and Assessment BoardBiomolecules

Unit 10
Biomolecules
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQS) (ONE MARK)
10. INTRODUCTION:
1. The living systems are made up of various complex biomolecules. Which of the following is not a
biomolecule?
a) Carbohydrate b) lipids
c) proteins d) ethanol (E)
2. Life is due to the coordination of various chemical reactions in living organisms. Which of the
following is not a biochemical reaction?
a) Synthesis of insulin in the human body
b) Digestion of food
c) Flow of water from root to leaf in the plants.
d) Photosynthesis (E)
10.1 CARBOHYDRATES
1. Which of the following chemical compounds do not belong to the vast group of carbohydrates?
a) Polyhydroxy ketones b) Polyhalo aldehydes
c) Polyamino aldehydes d) Polyhydroxy carboxylic acids (E)
2. Which of the following carbohydrates do not satisfy the formula Cx(H2O)y?
a) Fructose b) Deoxyribose
c) Glucose d) Lactose (E)
3. Which of the following carbohydrates do not have the formula C12H22O11?
a) Galactose b) Sucrose
c) Allolactose d) Maltose (E)
4. Sugars are
a) Soluble in water but have no taste b) soluble in water but have sweet taste
c) Insoluble in water but has no taste d) insoluble in water but have sweet taste (E)
5. The monosaccharide containing four carbon atom and aldehyde group are called as
a) aldotetrose b) tetroaldose
c) aldohexose d) ketotetrose (E)
6. Among the following, carbohydrate is
a) Thiamine b) Lactose
c) Glycerol d) Insulin (E)
7. A pyranose form is a

II PUC – 35 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 192

Page 197

a) 5 -membered ring b) 6 -membered ring

c) 4-membered ring d) 6 -membered straight chain (A)
8. An aldohexose or ketohexose is represented by
a) C12 H22O11 b) ( C 6 H 5 O )n
c) C6 H12O6 d) (CHO)n (E)

9. Disaccharides have the molecular formula
a) C6 H12O6 b) C12 H22O11

c) ( C 6 H 5 O )n d) C18 H32O18 (E)

10. Among the following, the carbohydrate which cannot be hydrolysed to further simple carbohydrate
is;
a) Sucrose b) Maltose
c) Glucose d) Starch (E)
11. Which among the following is the simplest sugar?
a) Glucose b) Starch
c) Cellulose d) lactose (E)
12. Which of the following monosaccharide is pentose?
a) Glucose b) Fructose
c) ribose d) Galactose (A)
13. Which of the following carbohydrates is not a sugar?
a) Glucose b) Fructose
c) Lactose d) Cellulose (E)
14. Which of the following is not a polysaccharide?
a) Cellulose b) Sucrose
c) Starch d) Glycogen (E)
15. Identify the monosaccharide from the following.
a) Deoxyribose b) Sucrose
c) Maltose d) Fructose (E)
16. When converting a disaccharide to monosaccharides, which bond is hydrolyzed?
a) Disulfide bond b) Glycosidic bond
c) Phosphodiester bond d) Hydrogen bond (E)
17. Which of the following disaccharides gives two same monosaccharide units on hydrolysis?
a) Maltose b) Sucrose
c) Lactose d) Lactulose (A)

II PUC – 35 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 193

Page 198

Department of School Education (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination and Assessment BoardBiomolecules

18. The monosaccharide units present in sucrose are
a) Fructose, galactose b) Fructose, glucose
c) Galactose, glucose d) Glucose, glucose (E)
19. Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar?
a) Galactose b) Glucose
c) Fructose d) Sucrose (E)
20. Which of the following monosaccharides is a ketohexse?
a) Glucose b) Galactose
c) Fructose d) Mannose (E)
21. When glucose reacts with bromine water, the main product obtained is
a) Gluconic acid b) Glyceraldehyde
c) Saccharic acid d) Acetic acid (A)
22. Glucose gives silver mirror test with Tollen’s reagent. It shows the presence of
a) acidic group b) alcoholic group
c) ketonic group d) aldehyde group (E)
23. The reaction of glucose with which of the following proves the presence of an aldehydic group?
a) Potassium iodide b) Hydroxylamine
c) Bromine water d) Acetic anhydride (E)
24. Which of the following reaction of glucose can be explained only by its cyclic structure?
a) Glucose forms pentaacetate
b) Glucose reacts with hydroxylamine to form an oxime.
c) Pentaacetate of glucose does not react with hydroxylamine
d) Glucose is oxidized by Nitric acid to gluconic acid (A)
25. Number of hydroxy groups in glucose confirmed by reaction of glucose with acetic anhydride are
a) 3 b) 4
c) 5 d) 6 (E)
26. Optical rotations of some compounds, along with their structures, are given below. Which of them
have a D configuration?

a) I, II, III b) II, III
c) I, II d) III (A)

II PUC – 35 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 194

Page 199

27. Identify the compound from the Haworth projection shown below

a) α-D-(+)-glucopyranose b) β-D - (+)-glucopyranose
c) α-D-(+)-glucofuranose d) β-D - (+)-glucofuranose (A)
28. The α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose isomers of glucose are known as _______
a) Enantiomers b) stereoisomers
c) anomers (d) glycomers (E)
29. Three cyclic structures of monosaccharides are given below, which of these are anomers.

a) I and II b) II and III
c) I and III d) III is anomers of I and II (D)
30. The process of conversion of disaccharides into two same or different monosaccharides by treatment
with dilute HCl is
a) hydration b) hydrolysis
c) oxidation d) carbonation (A)
31. Structure of a disaccharide formed by glucose and fructose is given below. Identify anomeric carbon
atoms in monosaccharide units.

a) ‘a’ carbon of glucose and ‘a’ carbon of fructose.
b) ‘a’ carbon of glucose and ‘e’ carbon of fructose.
c) ‘a’ carbon of glucose and ‘b’ carbon of fructose.
d) ‘f’ carbon of glucose and ‘f ’ carbon of fructose. (D)

II PUC – 35 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 195

Page 200

Department of School Education (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination and Assessment BoardBiomolecules

32. Which glycosidic linkage is present in maltose?
a) α–D – (+)–Glucose(C1) – O –(C2) – β–D – (–) – glucose
b) β–D – (+)–Glucose (C1) – O – (C4) –β–D – (+) – glucose
c) α–D – (+)–Glucose (C1) – O – (C4) –α–D – (+) – glucose
d) β–D – (+)–Glucose (C1) – O – (C4) –α–D – (–) – glucose (D)
33. The union of 2 or more monosaccharide units is an example of
a) Condensation reaction b) addition reaction
c) Substitution reaction d) displacement reaction (E)
34. Two monosaccharides are joined through a ______ bond to form a disaccharide.
a) ionic b) peptide
c) glycosidic d) phosphodiester (E)
35. The linkage that binds two monosaccharides present in disaccharides is
a) ionic b) peptide
c) glycosidic d) phosphodiester (E)
36. The change in optical rotation (with time) of freshly prepared solutions of sugar is known as:
a) Specific rotation b) Inversion
c) Rotatory motion d) Mutarotation (D)
37. Sucrose is made of which of the following monosaccharides?
a) α-D-glucose, α-D-fructose b) α-D-glucose, β-D-fructose
c) β-D-glucose, α-D-fructose d) β-D-glucose, β-D-fructose (E)
38. Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to starch?
a) It is a reducing carbohydrate b) It is a polymer of α-D-glucose
c) It gives blue colour with iodine d) It consists of branched chains (A)
39. The sugar that is characteristic of milk is
a) maltose b) ribose
c) lactose d) galactose (E)
40. On hydrolysis of starch, we finally get
a) Glucose b) Fructose
c) Both (a) and (b) d) Sucrose (E)
41. The cell membranes are mainly composed of
a) Fats b) Proteins
c) Phospholipids d) Carbohydrates (E)
42. Cellulose is a _______ saccharide.
a) reducing b) branched chain
c) oligo d) β-glucose straight chain (A)

II PUC – 35 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 196

Page 201

43. Which of the following is laevorotatory in nature?
a) sucrose b) alpha D – glucose
c) beta-D- fructose d) beta -D- glucose (E)
44. Which examples of carbohydrates exhibit α-link, (α-glycosidic link) in their structure?
a) Maltose and Lactose
b) Amylose and Amylopectin
c) Cellulose and Glycogen
d) Glucose and Fructose (A)(KCET-2025)
45. α–D – (+)–Glucose and β–D – (+)– glucose are
a) enantiomers b) conformers
c) epimers d) anomers (E)(KCET-2024)
46. Sucrose is dextrorotatory but after hydrolysis the mixture show laevorotation, this is because of
a) laevorotation of glucose is more than dextrorotation of fructose.
b) sucrose is non-reducing agent.
c) racemic mixture is formed.
d) laevorotation of fructose is more than dextrorotation of glucose. (A)(KCET-2023)
47. C1-C4 glycosidic bond is not found in
a) maltose b) sucrose
c) lactose d) starch (A)(KCET-2020)
48. The glycosidic linkage involved in linking the glucose units in amylase part of starch is
a) C1-C4 β-linkage b) C1-C6 α- linkage
c) C1-C6 β- linkage d) C1-C4 α- linkage (E)(KCET-2018)
49. Which of the following gives positive Fehling’s solution test?
a) Sucrose b) Glucose
c) Fats d) Protein (E)(KCET-2016)
10.2 proteins
1. Proteins are polymers of
a) α-amino acids b) β-amino acids
c) γ-amino acids d) δ-amino acids (E)
2. Which of the following amino acids is optically inactive?
a) Glycine b) Alanine
c) Lysine d) Valine (E)
3. Sulphur containing amino acid is;
a) cysteine b) tyrosine
c) histidine d) proline (A)

II PUC – 35 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 197

Page 202

Department of School Education (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination and Assessment BoardBiomolecules

4. α - Amino acids are the building blocks of
a) fats b) proteins
c) vitamins d) carbohydrates (E)
5. Which of the following is able to form Zwitterion?
a) Glucose b) Lactose
c) Alanine d) sucrose (A)
6. Glycine is an optically inactive α-amino acid due to
a) Presence of asymmetric carbon atom b) absence of asymmetric carbon atom
c) α-carbon attached to 4 different groups d) its acidic nature. (E)
7. Which of the following amino acids are aromatic in nature?
a) Methionine b) Isoleucine
c) Proline d) Histidine (A)
8. Which of the following is a non-essential amino acid?
a) Threonine b) Glutamine
c) Phenylalanine d) Valine (A)
9. Which of the following is a neutral amino acid?
a) Glycine b) Lysine
c) Arginine d) Histidine (E)
10. The type of amino acid to which Cysteine belongs is
a) sulphur containing b) essential
c) aromatic d) acidic (A)
11. The number of peptide bonds present in a tetrapeptide is;
a) One b) Two
c) Three d) Four (E)
12. Molecular mass of three amino acids glycine (Gly), Alanine (Ala) and Valine (Val) are 63, 77 and 102
respectively. Molecular mass of tripeptide “Gly-Ala-Val” is (molar mass of water = 18 gmol-1).
a) 206 b) 242
c) 260 d) 188 (D)
13. Which of the following protein destroy the antigen when it enters in to body cell?
a) Antibodies b) Phosphoprotein
c) Chromoprotein d) Insulin (A)
14. Identify the correct statement.
a) Peptide bond is formed by the loss of water molecule
b) A protein is made of only one type of amino acid
c) Dipeptides consists of different amino acids
d) Glycylalanine is a tripeptide (A)

II PUC – 35 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 198

Page 203

15. Among the following which is not a fibrous protein?
a) Keratin b) Myosin
c) Collagen d) Albumin (E)
16. Which one of the following structures represents the peptide chain?

(A)
17. The fibrous protein is
a) Insulin b) Myoglobin
c) Collagen d) Haemoglobin (E)
18. The specific sequence in which amino acids are arranged in a protein is called its
a) Primary structure b) Secondary structure
c) Tertiary structure d) Quaternary structure (E)
19. An alpha helix and a beta sheet are examples of
a) Primary structure b) Secondary structure
c) Tertiary structure d) Quaternary structure (E)

10.3 enzymes
1. Enzymes are regarded as
a) biocatalysts b) messengers
c) inhibitors d) antibodies (E)
2. Enzymes are made up of
a) edible proteins b) proteins with specific structure
c) nitrogen containing carbohydrates d) carbohydrates (E)
3. Enzymes are chemically
a) nucleic acids b) carbohydrates
c) proteins d) fats (E)
4. The function of enzymes in the living system is to
a) catalyse biochemical reactions b) provide energy
c) provide immunity d) Transport oxygen (E)

II PUC – 35 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 199

Page 204

Department of School Education (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination and Assessment BoardBiomolecules

5. The enzyme which catalyse the oxidation of one substrate with simultaneous reduction of another
substrate is
a) Oxidoreductase b) reductooxidase
c) maltase d) ribase (E)
6. Receptors are proteins and crucial to body communication process. These receptors are embedded in
a) cell membrane b) protein
c) endocrine gland d) chromosomes (E)(KCET-2023)
10.4 Vitamins
1. The following compounds are usually not produced by the human body.
a) Hormones b) Nucleic acids
c) Vitamins d) Enzymes (E)
2. The water soluble vitamins is
a) A b) C
c) D d) B12 (E)
3. The ‘B’ group vitamins which can be stored in our body is
a) Vitamin B1 b) Vitamin B2
c) Vitamin B6 d) Vitamin B12 (E)
4. The vitamins stored in liver and adipose tissues is
a) B12 b) C
c) B2 d) B1 (A)
5. Incorrect statement regarding vitamins is
a) Excess vitamin intake is harmful b) Most of the vitamins contain amino groups
c) Vitamins can be produced by plants d) Vitamin deficiency causes diseases (A)
6. Ascorbic acid is a chemical name of
a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin K (E)
7. In the following acids, vitamin is
a) ascorbic acid b) adipic acid
c) aspartic acid d) saccharic acid (E)
8. Doctor advised a 50-year-old woman enough exposure to sunlight and addition of fish and egg
yolk to her diet. Name the vitamin deficiency for the possible disease diagnosed by the doctor.
a) Vitamin D b) Vitamin A
c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin B12 (A)
9. The fat-soluble vitamin is
a) Thiamine b) Pyridoxine
c) Riboflavin d) Vitamin E (E)

II PUC – 35 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 200

Page 205

10. A major vitamin present in the fish liver oil is
a) Vitamin D b) Vitamin A
c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin B12 (E)
11. The vitamin deficiency which causes increased blood clotting time is
a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin K (E)(KCET-2019)
12. Match the following given in column I with column II and choose the correct option.

Column II
Column I
(i) Vitamin A (A) Rickets
(ii) Vitamin D (B) Pernicious Anemia
(iii) Vitamin B12 (C) Increased blood clotting time
(iv) Vitamin K (D) Xeropthalmia
a) i-B, ii-D, iii-A, iv-C b) i-D, ii-A, iii-B, iv-C
c) i-D, ii-A, iii-C, iv-B d) i-A, ii-D, iii-B, iv-C (D)
13. Which one of the following vitamins is not stored in adipose tissue?
a) A b) B6
c) D d) E (A)(KCET-2020)
14. Hypothyroidism is caused by the deficiency of
a) vitamin B-12 b) adrenalin
c) thyroxine d) glucocorticoid (A)(KCET-2020)
15. Pick the wrong statement from the following
a) Sources of Vitamin B1 are yeast, milk, green vegetables and cereals
b) Deficiency of Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) results in convulsions
c) Consumption of citrus fruits and green leafy vegetables in food prevents scurvy
d) Deficiency of vitamin D causes xerophthalmia (E)(KCET-2027)
10.5 Nucleic acids
1. Nucleic acids are
a) Polymers of nucleotides
b) Polymers of nucleosides
c) Polymers of purine bases through phosphate ester bonds
d) Phosphate ester bonds (E)
2. The base which is not present in DNA is
a) Adenine b) Guanine
c) Thymine d) Uracil (E)(KCET-2018)

II PUC – 35 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 201

Page 206

Department of School Education (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination and Assessment BoardBiomolecules

3. In DNA, the linkage between different nitrogenous bases is
a) phosphate linkage b) glycosidic linkage
c) peptide linkage d) hydrogen bonding (E)
4. In DNA, thymine is held by two hydrogen bonds with the base
a) Adenine b) Cytosine
c) Thymine d) Guanine (E)
5. Adenosine is an example of
a) Nucleotide b) Pyrimidine base
c) Nucleoside d) Purine base (E)
6. Among the following, which is not a pyrimidine base?
a) Uracil b) Cytosine
c) Thymine d) Guanine (E)
7. Dinucleotide is obtained by joining two nucleotides together by phosphodiester linkage. Between
which carbon atoms of pentose sugars of nucleotides are these linkages present?
a) 5′ and 3′ b) 1′ and 5′
c) 5′ and 5′ d) 3′ and 3′ (A)
8. RNA contains
a) Ribose sugar and thymine b) Ribose sugar and uracil
c) Deoxyribose sugar and uracil d) Deoxyribose sugar and thymine (E)
9. In DNA, the complementary bases are
a) Adenine and thymine; guanine and cytosine
b) Uracil and adenine; cytosine and guanine
c) Adenine and guanine; thymine and cytosine
d) Adenine and thymine; guanine and uracil (E)
10. The reason for double helical structure of DNA is operation of
a) dipole-dipole interaction b) hydrogen bonding
c) Electrostatic attractions d) van der Waals’ forces (A)
11. The segment of DNA which acts as the instrumental manual for the synthesis of the protein is
a) ribose b) gene
c) nucleoside d) nucleotide (E)
12. RNA molecule is of three types, which of the following is not a type of RNA molecules?
a) m-RNA b) n-RNA
c) t-RNA d) r-RNA (E)
13. The message for the synthesis of particular protein is present in
a) m-RNA b) DNA
c) carbohydrates d) r-RNA (E)

II PUC – 35 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 202

Page 207

14. The type of linkage present between nucleotides is
a) phosphoester linkage b) phosphodiester linkage
c) amide linkage d) glycosidic linkage (E)(KCET-2024)
15. A nucleic acid, whether DNA or RNA gives on complete hydrolysis, two purine bases, two
pyrimidine bases, a pentose sugar and phosphoric acid. Nucleotides which are intermediate products
in the hydrolysis contain
a) a purine base, pentose sugar and ortho-phosphoric acid
b) purine or pyrimidine base and ortho-phosphoric acid
c) purine or pyrimidine base, a pentose sugar and ortho-phosphoric acid
d) purine or pyrimidine base and pentose sugar (D)(KCET-2022)
16. RNA and DNA are chiral molecules; their chirality is due to the presence of
a) D-sugar component b) L-sugar component
c) chiral base d) chiral phosphate ester unit (A)(KCET-2021)
17. Primary structure in a nucleic acid contains 3 bases as GATGC ... The chain which is complementary
to this chain is
a) GGTGA… b) TGAAG…
c) CTACG… d) TTTAG… (A)(KCET-2021)
10.6 Hormones
1. Glucocorticoids are
a) steroid hormones b) polypeptide hormones
c) amino acid derivatives d) vitamins (E)
2. The molecules that are produced by endocrine glands & act as intercellular messengers are;
a) Vitamins b) Nucleic acids
c) Hormones d) Proteins (E)
3. Insulin production and its action in human body are responsible for the level of diabetes. This
compound belongs to which of the following categories?
a) An enzyme b) A hormone
c) A co-enzyme d) An antibiotic (E)
4. The steroid hormone is
a) Cholesterol b) Adrenaline
c) Thyroxine d) Progesterone (E)
5. In the following hormones, the one which is not a sex hormone is
a) Testosterone b) Progesterone
c) Thyroxine d) Estradiol (E)
6. The hormones which regulate blood sugar level in body are
a) Insulin and thyroxin b) Insulin and glucagon
c) Glucagon and thyroxin d) Insulin and endorphins (E)

II PUC – 35 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 203

Page 208

Department of School Education (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination and Assessment BoardBiomolecules

7. The steroid hormone is
a) Cholesterol b) Adrenaline
c) Progesterone d) Thyroxine (E)
8. Which one of the following is a peptide hormone?
a) Testosterone b) Thyroxin
c) Adrenaline d) Glucagon (E)
9. Match the following
List-I List-II
A) Glucocorticoids i) Responsible for development of secondary female characteristics.
B) Mineralocorticoids ii) Responsible for preparing the uterus for implantation of fertilised egg
C) Testosterone iii) Control carbohydrates metabolism
D) Estradiol iv) Responsible for development of secondary male characteristics.
v) Control level of excretion of water and salt by kidney.
a) A-(iv), B- (v), C-(ii), D-(i) b) A-(iii), B-(v), C-(iv), D-(i)
c) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(v), D-(iv) d) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i) (A)
10. Match the following
LIST-I LIST-II
(i) Phosphodiester Linkage (A) Amino Acids
(ii) Glycosidic Linkage (B) Nucleotides
(iii) Peptide Linkage (C) Monosaccharides
----- (D) Phenols
a) i – C, ii – D, iii – B b) i – C, ii – A, iii – B
c) i – B, ii – C, iii – D d) i – B, ii – C, iii – A (A)
11. The correct sequence of α-amino acids, hormone, vitamin, carbohydrates respectively is
a) Thiamine, Thyroxine, Vitamin A, Glucose
b) Glutamine, Insulin, Aspartic acid, Fructose
c) Arginine, Testosterone, Glutamic acid, Fructose
d) Aspartic acid, Insulin, Glutamic acid, rhamnose (E)(KCET-2025)
12. Thyroxine produced in the thyroid gland is an iodinated derivative of
a) threonine b) lysine
c) tyrosine d) tryptophan (E)(KCET-2023)
13. Hormones are secreted by ductless glands of human body. Iodine containing hormone is
a) Adrenoline b) Thyroxine
c) Testosterone d) Insulin (E)(KCET-2027)

II PUC – 35 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 204

Page 209

Each question contains STATEMENT – 1 and STATEMENT – 2. Each question has four choices: a),
b), c) and d). Out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Select the correct option from the given choices.
(ONE MARK)
a) Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
b) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
c) Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct
10.1 Carbohydrates
1. Statement-I: The pursuit of knowledge of what goes on chemically within a living system falls in the
domain of biochemistry.
Statement-II: Proteins and carbohydrates are essential constituents of our food. (E)
2. Statement-I: Sucrose and Fructose cannot give positive Tollen's test
Statement-II: Sucrose and Fructose do not contain an aldehyde group. (E)
3. Statement-I: In sucrose, the aldehydic group of glucose and ketonic group of fructose are not free.
Statement-II: Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar. (E)
4. Statement-I: Hydrolysis of sucrose is known as inversion of cane sugar.
Statement-II: Sucrose is a disaccharide. (E)
5. Statement-I: Maltose is a reducing sugar which gives two moles of D-glucose on hydrolysis.
Statement-II: Maltose has β (1-4)-glycosidic linkage (E)
10.2 Proteins
1. Statement-I: Proteins on hydrolysis produce amino acids.
Statement- II: Amino acids contain-NH2 and –COOH group. (E)
2. Statement-I: Alpha (a)- amino acids exist as internal salt in solution as they have amino and
carboxylic acid groups in near vicinity.
Statement-II: H+ ion given by carboxylic group (-COOH) is captured by amino group (-NH2) having
lone pair of electrons. (E)
3. Statement-I: All naturally occurring α-amino acids except glycine are optically active.
Statement-II: Most naturally occurring amino acids have 'D' configuration. (E)
4. Statement-I: All amino acids are solid at 20°C.
Statement-II: Amino acids can form zwitter ions. The ionic nature of the zwitter ions gives amino
acids relatively strong intermolecular forces of attraction. (E)
5. Statement-I: During denaturation, secondary and tertiary structures of proteins are destroyed.
Statement-II: Proteins are made up of α–amino acids. (E)
6. Statement-I: The change in colour and appearance of egg during cooking is due to denaturation.
Statement-II: Disruption of the natural structure of a protein is called denaturation. (E)

II PUC – 35 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 205

Page 210

Department of School Education (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination and Assessment BoardBiomolecules

10.3 Enzymes
1. Statement-I: Enzymes are needed only in small quantities for the progress of a reaction.
Statement-II: enzymes are reducing the magnitude of activation energy. (E)
10.4 Vitamins
1. Statement-I: Vitamins A and K reduce excess body fat in humans.
Statement-II: Vitamins A and K are fat soluble. (E)
2. Statement-I: Vitamin D cannot be stored in our body
Statement-II: Vitamin D is fat soluble vitamin and is excreted from the body in urine. (E)
10.5 Nucleic Acids
1. Statement-I: Nucleus of a living cell is responsible for this transmission of inherent characters called
heredity.
Statement-II: The particles in nucleus of the cell, responsible for heredity are called chromosomes.
which are made up of amino acids. (A)
2. Statement-I: DNA is more stable than RNA.
Statement-II: DNA contains deoxyribose sugar, whereas RNA contains ribose sugar. (E)
3. Statement-I: DNA has double strand helix structure.
Statement-II: In secondary structure of RNA single stranded helics is present which sometimes folds
front on itself. (E)
4. Statement-I: The message for the synthesis of a particular protein is present in RNA.
Statement-II: A DNA molecule is capable of self-duplication during cell division and identical DNA
strands are transferred to daughter cells. (E)
10.6 Hormones
1. Statement-I: Hormones help to maintain the balance of biological activities in the body
Statement-II: Thyroxine produced in the thyroid gland is an iodinated derivative of amino acid
tyrosine. (E)
2. Statement-I: Glucocorticoids control the carbohydrate metabolism,
Statement-II: Estradiol is the main female sex hormone and responsible for preparing the uterus for
implantation of fertilised egg. (E)

II PUC – 35 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 206

Page 211

Fill in the Blanks by Choosing the Appropriate word from those given in the Brackets:
(ONE MARK)
Set-1
(lactose, oligosaccharides, monosaccharide, polysaccharides, sugars, glucose)
1. Carbohydrates, which are sweet in taste, are also called _______. (E)
2. The sugar present in milk is known as _______. (E)
3. A carbohydrate that cannot be hydrolysed further to give simpler unit of polyhydroxy aldehyde or
ketone is called a _______. (E)
4. On hydrolysis of carbohydrates which yield two to ten monosaccharide units are called _______. (E)
5. The example for monosaccharide is ______. (E)
Set-2
(insoluble, soluble, zwitter ion, non-essential, α-amino acids, carbohydrates)
1. Amylopectin is ________ in water. (E)
2. The essential components for life in both plants and animals are _________. (E)
3. All proteins are polymers of ________. (E)
4. The amino acids, which can be synthesised in the body, are known as _______ amino acids. (E)
5. _________ is neutral but contains both positive and negative charges. (E)
Set-3
(saccharic acid, acetylation, ketohexose, aldohexose, bromine water, dextrorotatory)
1. Glucose gets oxidised to gluconic acid on reaction with a mild oxidising agent like _______. (E)
2. Glucose reacts with acetic anhydride gives glucose penta acetate. The process is called _______. (E)
3. On oxidation with nitric acid, glucose yield _______. (E)
4. Fructose is an important ______. (E)
5. Sucrose is ________. (E)
Set-4
(monosaccharide, insoluble, milk sugar, plants, α-glucose, soluble)
1. Lactose is more commonly known as ______. (E)
2. Polysaccharides contain a large number of ________ units. (E)
3. Starch is the main storage polysaccharide of _________. (E)
4. Starch is a polymer of _______. (E)
5. Amylose is water _______. (E)
Set-5
(reducing, phosphodiester, carbohydrate, oxime, glycogen, starch)
1. The hormone glucorticoids control the __________ metabolism. (E)
2. The carbohydrates which reduce Fehling’s solution and Tollen’s reagent are called as _____ sugars. (E)
3. Storage polysaccharide present in animals is _____________ (E)
4. Nucleotides are joined together by ______ linkage between 5 and 3 carbon atoms of pentose sugar. (E)
5. Glucose reacts with hydroxylamine to form __________. (E)

II PUC – 35 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 207

Page 212

Department of School Education (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination and Assessment BoardBiomolecules

Set-6
(cellulose, nucleotides, glucagon, insulin, thymine, amylose)
1. Water soluble component of starch is __________. (E)
2. The most abundant organic substance in plant kingdom is ___________. (E)
3. In double helical structure of DNA, the base complementary to adenine is _________. (E)
4. Nucleic acids are the long chain polymers of ________. (E)
5. The hormone which increases sugar level in blood is ________. (E)
Set-7
(hydrolysis, ketone, aldehyde, oxime, glucose, dextrose)
1. If a monosaccharide contains a ______ group, it is known as a ketose. (E)
2. Commercially glucose is obtained by boiling of starch with dilute H2SO4 at 393 K under pressure.
The process is _______. (E)
3. Glucose is an aldohexose and is also known as ______. (E)
4. On prolonged heating with HI, ______ forms n-hexane. (E)
5. Glucose reacts with hydroxylamine to form a ______. (E)
Set-8
(reducing sugars, polysaccharides, Sucrose, glucose, ketose, aldose)
1. Carbohydrates which yield a large number of monosaccharide units on hydrolysis are called ___. (E)
2. All monosaccharides whether aldose or ketose are __________. (E)
3. If a monosaccharide contains an aldehyde group, it is known as an _______. (E)
4. Equal amount of Glucose and fructose are obtained by boiling ______ with dilute HCl or H2SO4 in
alcoholic solution. (E)
5. Ripe grapes contain large amount of ______, (E)
IV. Two mark questions:
10.1 Carbohydrates
1. What are carbohydrates? Name the compound that does not fit into the formula Cx(H2O)y, but is a
carbohydrate. (A)
2. What are monosaccharides? Give an example. (E)
3. What are oligosaccharides? Give an example. (E)
4. What are polysaccharides? Give an example. (E)
5. What are reducing sugars? Give an example. (E)
6. What are non-reducing sugars? Give an example. (E)
7. Explain the preparation of glucose from sucrose with equation. (E)
8. Explain the preparation of glucose from starch with equation. (E)
9. Give an example for aldohexose and ketohexose. (E)
10. How many moles of acetic anhydride are needed for acetylation of glucose? What does it confirm? (A)

II PUC – 35 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 208

Page 213

11. How do you show that glucose contains a linear chain of six carbon atoms? Write equation for it.
(A) (Mar-2016)
12. How do you show that glucose contains five hydroxyl groups? Write equation for it. (A)
13. How do you show that glucose contains aldehyde group? Write equation for it. (A)
14. How do your account for the absence of free aldehyde group in the pentaacetate of D-glucose? (A)
15. Glucose is a monosaccharide and an aldohexose. Which oxidising agent should be used to bring about
oxidation of only the aldehydic group present in glucose? Write the chemical equation. (A)
16. Propose a scheme for the conversion of open chain structure of glucose into cyclic hemiacetal
structure. (A)
17. Draw the six membered pyranose structures of α -D-glucose and β-D-glucose. (A)
18. How do the two cyclic hemiacetal forms of glucose differ? What are these two forms called? (A)
19. Write the structures showing conversion from Fischer projection formula to Haworth projection
formula for glucose. (A)
20. Write the meaning of D and L-notation. (E)
21. What is meant by pyranose structure of glucose? (E)
22. What is an anomeric carbon? Find anomeric carbon in given structure. (A)

23. Write the Haworth's structure for α -D (+) fructofuranose. (A)
24. What are disaccharides? Give an example. (E)
25. What do you mean by glycosidic linkage? Name any one compound containing this linkage. (E)
26. What is the main source of sucrose? Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar. Give reason. (A)
27. Write the Haworth structure of α – D – (+)- Glucopyranose. (A) (May-2014)
28. Write the Haworth structure of maltose. Maltose shows reducing property. Give reason. (A) (Mar-
2014/Mar-2015/May-2015/Mar-2016/Mar-2017/Mar-2019/May-2020/May-2024/June-2025)
29. Write the Haworth structure of lactose. Name the linkage present between monosaccharides in it. (A)
(Mar-2016/May-2017/Mar-2018/May-2025)
30. What are the hydrolytic products of maltose? Why is it a reducing sugar? (A)
31. Which sugar is called invert sugar? Why is it called so? (E)
32. What is the composition of invert sugar? How is it obtained? (A)
33. What are the expected products of hydrolysis of lactose? (E)
34. Identify the carbohydrates and give any one difference between these carbohydrates present in cane
sugar and carbohydrate present in milk. (A)

II PUC – 35 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 209

Page 214

Department of School Education (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination and Assessment BoardBiomolecules

35. What are polysaccharides? Identify the monomer for the polysaccharide: (A)

36. Give two differences between amylose and amylopectin units of starch. (A)
37. What is the basic structural difference between starch and cellulose? (A)
38. What is glycogen? How is it different from starch? (A)
39. Write two main functions of carbohydrates in plants. (E)
40. Which polymer is important to plant cells? Give reason for this importance. (A)
41. Name the polysaccharide which is the main constituent of cell wall in plants. What are the expected
products of hydrolysis of this polysaccharide? (E)
42. Glycogen is a kind of polysaccharide and is the storage form of monosaccharide “X” present in
humans and other vertebrates. It is the animal equivalent of starch.
(i) What is “X”?
(ii) Where in the body can Glycogen stored in animals? (D)
43. What are fibrous proteins? Give an example. (E) (May-2016)
44. Write the Haworth structure of sucrose. (E) (Mar-2024)
45. Amylose and Amylopectin are two components starch. Write any two differences between them.
(D) (Mar-2025)
10.2 Proteins
1. Name the functional groups present in amino acids and write the general structure of  − amino acid.
(Give the general representation for α – L - amino acid). (E)
2. What is zwitter ion? Write the structure. (E)
3. Explain the amphoteric behaviour of amino acids. (E)
4. Give the name, three letter symbol and o n e letter code of α- amino acid which is
(i) optically inactive.
(ii) First obtained from cheese. (E)
5. What are essential amino acids? Give an example. (E) (Mar-2016/Mar2017/Mar-2024)
6. What are non-essential amino acids? Give an example. (E) (Mar-2018)
7. What is the difference between acidic amino acid and basic amino acid? (A)
8. What is peptide bond or peptide linkage? Give an example for dipeptide. (E) (Mar-2019/May-2025)
9. How many peptide bonds are present in a pentapeptide? (E)

II PUC – 35 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 210

Page 215

10. Name the compounds which are biopolymers of α - amino acids. What type of linkage is responsible
for the formation this biopolymer? (A)
11. Explain the preparation Glycylalanine with equation. (A)
12. Draw the structure of Glycylalanine. Mark the peptide linkage in it. (A)
13. Identify the proteins and give any one difference between these proteins, the protein present in the
hair and the protein present in egg albumin. (D)
14. Differentiate between globular and fibrous proteins with one example for each. (A)
15. Classify the following as globular or fibrous proteins. (E)
(i) Keratin (ii) Myosin
(iii) Insulin (iv) Myoglobin
(v) Collagen (vi) Haemoglobin
16. Explain the terms primary and secondary structure of proteins. (A)
17. What are the common types of secondary structures of proteins? (E)
18. What type of bonding helps in stabilising α - helix structure of proteins? (E)
19. What is the difference between α - helix and β - pleated sheet structure of proteins? (A)
20. What are the forces that stabilises the 2° and 3° structures of proteins? (E)
21. What does tertiary structure of proteins represent? Give its two major molecular shapes. (E)
22. What is a native protein? Explain how it gets denatured? (A)
23. During curdling of milk, what happens to sugar present in it? (E)
24. Give reason: (E)
(i) The solubilityof amino acids in water is generally higher than that of the corresponding
halo acids.
(ii) In zwitter ion form amino acids are amphoteric.
(iii) Amino acids are usually colourless, crystalline solids. They behave like salts rather than simple
amines or carboxylic acids. Give reason for this behavior.
(iv) One of the essential amino acid is lysine. Lysine is considered an essential amino acid.
25. What are globular proteins? Give one example for it. (A) (June-2025)
10.3 Enzymes
1. What are enzymes? Name the enzyme which responsible for conversion of maltose to glucose. (E)
2. What are oxidoreductase enzymes? Give an example. (E)
10.4 Vitamins
1. What are vitamins? How are vitamins classified? (E)
2. Write names of vitamins present in the following sources: (A)
a) Rice b) Egg yolk
c) Sweet potato d) Orange

II PUC – 35 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 211

Page 216

Department of School Education (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination and Assessment BoardBiomolecules

3. Name the vitamin deficiency of which leads to convulsions. Name any one source which will
provide this vitamin. (E)
4. Name the vitamin whose deficiency in our body results in impaired clotting of blood. Name any
one source which will provide this vitamin. (E)
5. Vitamins are classified into two groups depending upon their solubility in water or fat. In which
class will you place vitamin D? (E)
6. Name the vitamin whose deficiency caused pernicious anaemia. Name any one source which will
provide this vitamin. (E)
7. What are fat soluble vitamins? Give an example. (E)
8. What are water soluble vitamins? Name a water-soluble vitamin which is a powerful antioxidant. (E)
9. Name two fat storing tissues found in human body that stores fat soluble vitamins. (E)
10. A person “A” suffering from gums bleeds frequently. The doctor’s prescription mentioned that person
“A” is suffering from scurvy. Mention any one food source to help person “A” recover faster. (A)
10.5 Nucleic Acids
1. What are nucleic acids? What is the difference between a nucleoside and a nucleotide? (A)
2. Mention their two important functions. (E)
3. Name the sugar moiety and the purines present in DNA molecule. (E)
4. What is the information is given by primary structure of DNA? (E)
5. The two strands in DNA are not identical but are complementary to each other. Give reason. (E)
6. Complete hydrolysis of DNA (or RNA) yields a pentose sugar, phosphoric acid and nitrogen
containing heterocyclic compounds called bases. Name the bases found only in
(i) RNA (ii) DNA. (E)
7. Write the name and structure of pentose sugar found in DNA molecule. (A)
8. Write the name and structure of pentose sugar found in RNA molecule. (A)
9. In DNA, between which carbon atoms of deoxyribose sugars of nucleotide are phosphodiester
linkages present? (E)
10. Name the type linkage present in Dinucleotide obtained by joining two nucleotides. Write the
simplified version of nucleic acid chain. (E)
11. List the any two nitrogenous bases commonly found in both RNA and DNA. (D) (Mar-2025)
10.6 Hormones
1. What are hormones? Name a hormone that mediates responses to external stimuli. (E) (May-2015)
2. Hormones have several functions in the body. They help to maintain the balance of biological
activities in the body. Where are they produced in the body? How they transport them to the site of
action? (E)
3. Name the disease caused due to deficiency of iodine in our body? How it is characterised? (A)

II PUC – 35 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 212

Page 217

4. Name the hormone which is an iodinated derivative of amino acid Tyrosine (contains iodine). What is
the function of this hormone? (E)
5. What are the symptoms of hypothyroidism? How hypothyroidism is controlled? (E)
6. Name the hormone which
(i) Controls the level of excretion of water and salt from kidneys.
(ii) Response to the rapid rise in blood glucose level.
(iii) Responsible for development of secondary female characteristics and participates in the control
of menstrual cycle
(iv) Responsible for development of secondary male characteristics
(v) For preparing the uterus for implantation of fertilised egg. (E)
7. If the adrenal cortex does not function properly then name the disease caused due to this. How it is
characterised? (E)
8. Give an example for female sex hormone and write its function. (E)
9. Name the hormone released rapidly due to rise in blood glucose level to keep the blood glucose level
within the narrow limit. Mention the number of amino acids present in this hormone. (E)
10. Give reason: Hormones are needed in adequate quantities in our body. (A)
V. Three marks questions:
10. Introduction:
1. Define Biomolecules. Name two most essential biomolecule constituents of our food. (E)
10.1 Carbohydrates
1. Give the classification of carbohydrates on the basis of their behavior on hydrolysis. Mention their
names. (E)
2. Give the classification of monosaccharides on the basis of the presence of functional group. Mention
their names. (E)
3. What are aldose and ketose? Name the functional group common to both glucose and fructose. (E)
4. Name the functional groups in the glucose and fructose. Mention the disaccharide containing these
two carbohydrates. (E)
5. Write the equations, when D-glucose is treated with the following reagents.
(i) HI (ii) NH2OH
(iii) HCN (iv) bromine water
(v) Acetic anhydride (vi) HNO3 (A)
6. Write the products of oxidation of glucose with:
(a) Bromine water, (b) Nitric acid, (c) Acetic anhydride (A)
7. Mention two reactions and facts that cannot be explained by the open chain structure of glucose.
(A)

II PUC – 35 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 213

Page 218

Department of School Education (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination and Assessment BoardBiomolecules

8. What does α, D, (+) in the name α D (+) glucose signifies? (A)
9. What are anomers? Give the structures of two anomers of glucose. (E)
10. Write three the test to indicate the absence of free aldehyde group in the pentaacetate of glucose. OR
Enumerate the reactions of D-glucose which cannot be explained by its open chain structure. (A)
11. Mention the two components present in starch. Name the water-soluble component of starch. (E)
12. From the following polysaccharides: glycogen, cellulose, amylose, answer the followings:
a) Which one is a linear polymer of α- glucose?
b) Which one is a polymer of α – glucose?
c) Which one is a polymer present in liver and muscle? (D)
13. Whenever glucose levels drop in our body, a bipolymer breaks down to release glucose.
a) Name this bipolymer
b) Where in the body, it can store in animals?
c) It is structurally similar to which polymer? (D)
14. Write any three importance’s of carbohydrates.
15. Classify the following sugars into monosaccharides, polysaccharide and disaccharides:
Fructose, Glucose, Maltose, Starch, Ribose, 2-deoxyribose, Maltose, Galactose, and Lactose (A)
16. Name the sugar present in milk. How many monosaccharide units are present in it? What are such
oligosaccharides called? (A)
17. Name the two components of starch. Which of the two components of starch is water soluble? Which
component of starch is a branched polymer of α -glucose and insoluble in water? (E)
18. Shown structure is the sugar in milk:

i) Name the sugar.
ii) Name the hydrolytic products of the sugar.
iii) Which carbon atoms are involved in the formation of glycoside bond in it? (D)

19. Shown structure is a reducing sugar:

i) Name the sugar. ii) Name the hydrolytic products of the sugar.
iii) What are such oligosaccharides called? iv) Why it shows reducing properties? (D)

II PUC – 35 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 214

Page 219

10.2 Proteins
1. What are α - amino acids? Give any two examples of α - amino acids. (E)
2. What are the types of amino acids classified on the basis of relative number of amino and carboxyl
groups in their molecule? Give an example for each. (E)
3. Shown structure is biomolecule:

i) Name the biomolecules.
ii) Identify the R group in alanine.
iii) Mention the physical state and colour of this compound.
iv) Write the zwitter ionic form, (D)
4. Draw structures of glycine and alanine. Show the peptide linkage in glycylalanine. (A)
5. Match the items in A, B and C correctly (A)
A B C
Valine Non-essential amino acid Basic amino acid
Aspartic acid Essential amino acid Neutral amino acid
Lysine Essential amino acid Acidic amino acid

6. Classify the following as globular or fibrous proteins.
(i) Keratin (ii) Myosin (iii) Insulin
(iv) Myoglobin (v) Collagen (vi) Haemoglobin (E)
7. What type of linkages is responsible for the formation of
(a) Primary structure of proteins
(b) Cross linking of polypeptide chains
(c) α - helix formation (A)
8. Name four types of intermolecular forces which stabilize structure of proteins. (E)
9. Write a short note for the following;
(a) Primary structure of proteins
(b) Secondary structure of proteins
(c) Tertiary structure of proteins (D)
10. What is denaturation of proteins? What is the effect of denaturation on the structure of proteins?
Mention the structure of protein remains intact during this process. (A) (Mar-2015/Mar-2020/May-
2020/May-2024)

II PUC – 35 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 215

Page 220

Department of School Education (Pre University) and Karnataka School Examination and Assessment BoardBiomolecules

11. Shown below is the tripeptide formed by three amino acids A, B, C. Write the structure of the original
amino acids A, B and C from this structure. How many water molecules would be required to
hydrolyse this peptide to amino acid molecules? (D)

10.4 Vitamins
1. Name the:
(a) water soluble vitamin.
(b) A fat soluble vitamin.
(c) The disease caused by deficiency of vitamin D. (E)
2. Name the vitamin deficiency of which causes:
(a) Xerophthalmia (hardening of cornea of eye)
(b) Beri beri (loss of appetite, retarded growth)
(c) Cheilosis (fissuring at corners of mouth and lips) or digestive disorders and burning sensation of
the skin.
(d) Convulsions
(e) Pernicious anaemia (RBC deficient in haemoglobin)
(f) Scurvy (bleeding gums)
(g) Rickets (bone deformities in children) and osteomalacia (soft bones and joint pain in adults)
(h) Increased fragility of RBCs and muscular weakness
(i) Increased blood clotting time (E)
3. Mention one source for the following vitamins.
a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin B1 c) Vitamin B2
d) Vitamin B6 e) Vitamin B12 f) Vitamin C
g) Vitamin D h) Vitamin E i) Vitamin K (E)
6. Give the list of some important vitamins, their sources and their deficiency diseases. (A)
7. Match the items in A, B and C correctly: (A)
A B C
Vitamin A Green vegetables Scurvy
Vitamin C Carrot Beri beri
Vitamin B1 Citrus fruit Night blindness

II PUC – 35 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 216

Page 221

8. Give reason: (E)
(a) Vitamin C cannot be stored in our body.
(b) water- soluble vitamins are supplied regularly in the diet.
(c) Vitamin A deficiency affects vision and overall immune function.
(d) Deficiency in vitamin K impact blood clotting mechanisms in the body.
(e) Lack of vitamin C in the diet impact overall health.
10.5 Nucleic Acids
1. Write the chemical compositions of DNA and RNA. (E)
2. Name the products that would be formed when a nucleotide is completely hydrolysed? (E)
3. With respect to DNA; answer the following questions
(a) What is backbone?
(b) Name of the linkage between nucleotides?
(c) Which component makes chiral? (A)
4. Explain primary and secondary structure of DNA. How is the 2° structure of DNA stabilised? (A)
5. List the three nitrogenous bases commonly found in both RNA and DNA. (E)
6. Mention the three types of RNA. (E)
7. Give differences between RNA and DNA with respect to: (D)
(a) Sugar moiety (b) N-base
(c) structure (d) biological function
10.6 Hormones
1. Write the function of each of the following: a) thyroxine b) insulin. Name the endocrine glands which
secrete these hormones. (E)
2. Match the items in A, B and C correctly:
A B C
Glucagon pancreas Decreases blood glucose
Thyroxin Pancreas Increases blood glucose
Insulin Thyroid Stimulates metabolism

3. Name the linkage that joins:
(a) Two monosaccharides
(b) two α-amino acids
( c) two nucleotides (E)



II PUC – 35 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 217

Page 222

LINK FOR MODEL QUESTION PAPERS, BOARD EXAM QUESTION
PAPERS, MODEL ANSWERS AND CENTUM PAPERS

1. 2024 - 25 MODEL QUESTION PAPER:
https://dpue-exam.karnataka.gov.in/kseabdpueqpue/Modelquetionpaper2026

2. 2025 - 26 MODEL QUESTION PAPER:
https://dpue-exam.karnataka.gov.in/kseabdpueqpue/StudentCorner2026#

3. 2025 BOARD EXAM QUESTION PAPERS AND MODEL ANSWER:
https://dpue-exam.karnataka.gov.in/kseabdpueqpue/QueBnkStdCorner

4. CENTUM ANSWER PAPERS:

https://dpue-exam.karnataka.gov.in/kseabdpueqpue/StudentCorner2026#

5. II PUC OTHER SUBJECTS QUESTION BANK:
https://dpue-exam.karnataka.gov.in/kseabdpueqpue/QuestionBankPage

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 218

Page 223

Unit 1 - SOLUTIONS:
KEY ANSWERS FOR MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
1 c 11 b 21 c 31 b 41 c 51 d 61 b 71 a

2 d 12 c 22 d 32 d 42 c 52 d 62 c 72 d

3 b 13 a 23 c 33 b 43 a 53 a 63 a 73 c

4 b 14 a 24 a 34 a 44 d 54 c 64 a 74 a

5 d 15 a 25 b 35 c 45 b 55 b 65 a 75 a

6 a 16 d 26 a 36 c 46 c 56 d 66 a

7 b 17 a 27 c 37 a 47 a 57 a 67 a

8 c 18 b 28 d 38 b 48 a 58 a 68 a

9 c 19 d 29 c 39 a 49 b 59 c 69 c

10 b 20 a 30 c 40 a 50 d 60 b 70 c

KEY ANSWERS FOR FILL IN THE BLANKS QUESTIONS
SET–1 SET–2 SET–3 SET–4

1. Reverse osmosis 1. 0.9 % 1. N2 1. solution
2. Plasmolysis 2. 1 2. O2 2. solvent
3. liquid 3. lower 3. isotonic 3. association
4. Solid 4. higher 4. hypotonic 4. dissociation
5. mole fraction 5. saturated 5. cellulose acetate 5. azeotrope
solution

SET–5 SET–6 SET–7
1. solvent 1. Edema 1. CCl2F2
2. solute 2. less 2. increases
3. increase 3. Osmotic 3. decreases
4. decrease pressure 4. concentration
5. Helium 4. non-ideal 5. one
5. more

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 219

Page 224

Unit 2 -ELECTROCHEMISTRY:
KEY ANSWERS FOR MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
1 c 11 d 21 c 31 c 41 b 51 a 61 d 71 c 81 a 91 b 101 c 111 a

2 c 12 c 22 b 32 a 42 b 52 b 62 b 72 a 82 b 92 c 102 c 112 c

3 b 13 a 23 c 33 b 43 d 53 d 63 b 73 b 83 c 93 b 103 b 113 b

4 D 14 d 24 a 34 c 44 a 54 a 64 c 74 b 84 d 94 a 104 d

5 c 15 a 25 c 35 d 45 d 55 b 65 a 75 d 85 c 95 b 105 c

6 a 16 a 26 c 36 b 46 c 56 c 66 a 76 c 86 d 96 b 106 c

7 a 17 a 27 c 37 c 47 b 57 c 67 b 77 d 87 c 97 d 107 b

8 c 18 b 28 a 38 d 48 d 58 d 68 c 78 d 88 b 98 b 108 c

9 c 19 a 29 c 39 b 49 b 59 a 69 a 79 b 89 d 99 b 109 b

10 d 20 a 30 d 40 b 50 b 60 c 70 a 80 c 90 a 100 b 110 d

KEY ANSWERS FOR FILL IN THE BLANKS QUESTIONS
SET-1 SET-2 SET-3
1. Negative 1.Less 1. Non-electrolyte,
2.PbO2 2.Positive 2.cm–1
3.Depolarizer 3.Equal 3.Weak electrolyte
4.Galvanisation 4.Hydrogen 4.Electrochemical
5.Electrolytic cell 5.Sodium 5.automobiles

SET-4 SET-5 SET-6
1.cathode 1.spontaneous 1.Decreases
2.Anode 2.nonspontaneous 2.Increases
3.Hg-button cell 3.Zero 3.Siemen
4.Electrochemical equivalent 4.oxygen 4.Siemen/metre
5.Zinc 5.three 5.Platinum

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 220

Page 225

Unit 3 - CHEMICAL KINETICS:
KEY ANSWERS FOR MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
1 a 11 c 21 c 31 c 41 d 51 c 61 d 71 b 81 b 91 a 101 b
2 a 12 d 22 c 32 c 42 b 52 a 62 c 72 b 82 a 92 b 102 c
3 a 13 b 23 a 33 b 43 b 53 d 63 a 73 c 83 d 93 d 103 b
4 b 14 a 24 b 34 a 44 a 54 c 64 c 74 a 84 c 94 b 104 a
5 a 15 a 25 c 35 c 45 c 55 a 65 c 75 c 85 c 95 b
6 b 16 b 26 c 36 c 46 a 56 b 66 b 76 c 86 a 96 d
7 b 17 b 27 b 37 b 47 b 57 a 67 a 77 a 87 b 97 a
8 b 18 c 28 d 38 c 48 b 58 b 68 d 78 b 88 b 98 c
9 b 19 a 29 a 39 c 49 a 59 a 69 a 79 a 89 a 99 d
10 a 20 d 30 a 40 b 50 a 60 b 70 a 80 d 90 b 100 c

KEY ANSWERS FOR FILL IN THE BLANKS QUESTIONS
Set-1 Set-2 Set-3
1. mol L–1 1. order 1. molecularity
2. instantaneous 2. zero 2. three
3. decreases 3. elementary 3. slowest step
4. rate expression 4. complex 4. order
5. balanced equation 5. rate constant 5. zero order

Set-4 Set-5 Set-6
1. first 1. Pre-exponential factor 1. kinetic gas
2. half-life period 2. increases 2. equilibrium constant
3. pseudo first 3. decreases 3. collision frequency
4. sec–1 4. Gibbs energy 4. effective collision
5. Joules mol–1 5. activation energy 5. steric

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 221

Page 226

Unit 4 - d AND f BLOCK ELEMENTS:
KEY ANSWERS FOR MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
1 a 11 d 21 d 31 d 41 a 51 b 61 c 71 c
2 d 12 c 22 b 32 b 42 d 52 b 62 c
3 c 13 d 23 d 33 b 43 c 53 b 63 b
4 c 14 a 24 b 34 b 44 b 54 d 64 a
5 c 15 a 25 c 35 c 45 d 55 b 65 a
6 c 16 c 26 c 36 a 46 b 56 d 66 b
7 b 17 b 27 c 37 d 47 a 57 d 67 b
8 a 18 c 28 d 38 a 48 b 58 a 68 a
9 c 19 b 29 c 39 c 49 c 59 d 69 c
10 a 20 b 30 d 40 b 50 b 60 a 70 b

KEY ANSWERS FOR FILL IN THE BLANKS QUESTIONS
Set-1 Set-2 Set-3 Set-4
1. increases 1. melting point 1.Ln 1. Mn+2
2. exchange energy 2. chromate 2. +3 2. Cu
3. scandium 3. K2Cr2O7 3. Carbon dioxide 3. Zero
4. oxidation number 4. KClO4 4. sodiumdichromite 4. Cr2+
5. chromium 5. Zr 5. zinc 5. Interstitial

Set-5 Set-6 Set-7
1. decrease
1. Hf 1. unpaired
2. zinc sulphate
2. Ag 2. Cu
3. Interstitial
3. high 3. Ce
4. increases
4. Ti 4. Hydrogen
5. Zn2+
5. +3 5. +3

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 222

Page 227

Unit 5 - COORDINATION COMPOUNDS:
KEY ANSWERS FOR MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
1 d 11 a 21 b 31 c 41 c 51 d 61 b 71 d 81 a 91 a 101 a
2 b 12 c 22 b 32 c 42 a 52 b 62 a 72 c 82 a 92 d 102 a
3 a 13 d 23 d 33 a 43 d 53 d 63 d 73 a 83 b 93 c 103 c
4 b 14 c 24 d 34 d 44 d 54 b 64 a 74 c 84 a 94 c 104 c
5 d 15 b 25 a 35 c 45 d 55 a 65 c 75 a 85 b 95 d 105 a
6 d 16 b 26 a 36 a 46 b 56 a 66 c 76 c 86 a 96 d 106 b
7 b 17 a 27 b 37 d 47 a 57 d 67 a 77 a 87 a 97 a 107 c
8 c 18 c 28 c 38 a 48 b 58 a 68 a 78 b 88 b 98 b
9 d 19 d 29 c 39 c 49 a 59 d 69 c 79 a 89 a 99 c
10 b 20 b 30 d 40 b 50 b 60 a 70 b 80 a 90 c 100 a

KEY ANSWERS FOR FILL IN THE BLANKS QUESTIONS
Set-1 Set-2 Set-3 Set-4
1. secondary 1. chelate 1.EDTA 1. diamagnetic
2. Primary 2.ambidentate 2. cis 2. high spin
3. polyhedra 3.sigma bonds 3. ambidentate 3. [Co(CN)6]3–
4. potash alum 4. Homoleptic 4. Werner 4. Zero,
5. Lewis acids 5. Octahedral 5.trigonal bipyramidal 5.dsp2

Set-5 Set-6 Set-7
1. Ethylenediaminetetra
1.t32g e1g 1. NO2-
acetate
2. tetrahedral 2. Cobalt
2. tetrahedral
3. violet 3. zero
3. five
4. crystal field 4.magnesium
4. paramagnetic
5. colourless
5. Weak

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 223

Page 228

Unit 6 - Haloalkanes and Haloarenes
KEY ANSWERS FOR MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
1 a 11 B 21 b 31 b 41 c 51 a 61 D 71 c
2 d 12 D 22 c 32 c 42 c 52 c 62 C 72 d
3 a 13 C 23 a 33 c 43 c 53 a 63 C 73 d
4 a 14 C 24 d 34 b 44 b 54 b 64 B 74 b
5 c 15 A 25 b 35 c 45 b 55 c 65 D 75 a
6 b 16 C 26 d 36 b 46 c 56 c 66 B 76 b
7 a 17 D 27 c 37 a 47 b 57 d 67 B 77 b
8 d 18 C 28 c 38 c 48 a 58 b 68 B 78 d
9 c 19 A 29 d 39 a 49 c 59 b 69 A 79 a
10 a 20 C 30 a 40 a 50 c 60 d 70 A 80 a

KEY ANSWERS FOR FILL IN THE BLANKS QUESTIONS
SET-1 SET-2 SET-3
1. Grignard reagent 1. alkyl isocyanides 1. Wurtz
2. hydrocarbon 2. Increases 2. Swartz.
3. Carbocation 3. density 3. Sandmeyer’s
4. Covalent 4. Cu2Cl2 4. Dehydrohalogenation.
5. alkyl cyanides 5. SN1 5. Finkelstein

SET-4 SET-5 SET -6
1. SN1 1. biphenyl 1. Phosgene
2. SN2 2. toluene 2. Methylene chloride
3. Inversion 3. less 3. Tetrachloromethane
4. achiral 4. Grignard reagent. 4. freons
5. Zaitse 5. electron withdrawing. 5. iodoform
SET-7 SET-8 SET-9
1. isopropyl 1. Polar 1. Chloroform
chloride 2. Electron withdrawing 2. Phosgene
2. geminal dihalide 3. Racemisation 3. Carbonyl chloride
3. alcohols 4. (+)-octan-2-ol 4. Tetrachloromethane
4. vicinal dihalides 5. alkanes 5. freon
5. alkenes

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 224

Page 229

Unit 7- Alcohols, Phenols and Ether:
KEY ANSWERS FOR MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
1 b 11 c 21 d 31 c 41 b 51 b 61 c 71 a 81 a 91 b 101 a 111 c 121 a

2 d 12 b 22 a 32 d 42 a 52 a 62 b 72 a 82 d 92 b 102 a 112 a 122 d

3 d 13 d 23 c 33 b 43 a 53 c 63 d 73 a 83 a 93 d 103 c 113 c 123 a

4 b 14 d 24 b 34 c 44 b 54 b 64 b 74 a 84 a 94 c 104 b 114 b

5 a 15 c 25 b 35 a 45 d 55 d 65 b 75 d 85 c 95 b 105 b 115 c

6 b 16 a 26 c 36 a 46 a 56 d 66 c 76 b 86 c 96 d 106 d 116 a

7 a 17 a 27 a 37 d 47 a 57 a 67 a 77 d 87 b 97 b 107 d 117 b

8 d 18 c 28 c 38 b 48 d 58 b 68 c 78 b 88 d 98 a 108 d 118 c

9 a 19 c 29 d 39 a 49 a 59 c 69 d 79 a 89 a 99 d 109 b 119 b

10 a 20 d 30 a 40 d 50 c 60 c 70 b 80 c 90 c 100 c 110 a 120 a

Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets:

SET-1 SET-2 SET-3 SET-4
1. alcohols 1. carbolicacid 1. sigma 1. secondary
2. sp3 2. ol 2. greater 2. formaldehyde
3. phenol 3. cyclo 3. anti- 3. oleum
4. dihydric 4. two morkovnikov’s 4. nitrous acid
5. three 5. tert- 4. morkovnikov’s 5. acetone
butylalcohol 5. primary

SET-5 SET-6 SET-7 SET-8
1.benzenediazoniumchloride 1. phenol 1. stronger 1. mixed
2. acetone 2. increases 2. aster 2. greater
3. weaker 3. decreases 3. picreic 3. CS2
4. bronsted bases 4. cumene 4. FeBr3
5. phenol 4. intermolecular 5. ethoxybenzene 5. picric acid
5. alkoxide

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 225

Page 230

Unit 8 - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic acids:
KEY ANSWERS FOR MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1 a 11 a 21 c 31 c 41 c 51 d 61 d 71 c 81 b 91 a 101 d 111 b
2 b 12 c 22 d 32 a 42 d 52 b 62 d 72 a 82 b 92 a 102 b 112 c
3 b 13 b 23 d 33 b 43 a 53 a 63 c 73 a 83 a 93 a 103 d
4 c 14 c 24 b 34 b 44 c 54 d 64 a 74 a 84 d 94 b 104 b
5 c 15 d 25 a 35 c 45 c 55 b 65 d 75 c 85 d 95 d 105 c
6 c 16 c 26 b 36 a 46 a 56 a 66 b 76 c 86 c 96 b 106 a
7 d 17 a 27 b 37 d 47 a 57 b 67 d 77 a 87 b 97 d 107 b
8 d 18 b 28 b 38 a 48 d 58 c 68 a 78 b 88 d 98 b 108 b
9 c 19 d 29 c 39 d 49 d 59 d 69 d 79 b 89 b 99 d 109 d
10 c 20 d 30 b 40 b 50 b 60 b 70 a 80 a 90 c 100 d 110 d

KEY ANSWERS FOR FILL IN THE BLANKS QUESTIONS

SET-1 SET-2 Set-3
1. carbonyl group. 1. Lewis base 1. imine
2. fragrance. 2. Oxidation 2. methyl group
3. sp2 3. Volatile 3. benzaldehyde
4. polarised 4. Ozonolysis 4. ketone
5. electrophilic 5. acetaldehyde 5. anhydrous aluminium
chloride
Set-4 Set-5 Set-6
1. propiophenone 1. nucleophilic 1. Hemiacetals
2. gas 2. Planar 2. Ketones
3. higher 3. Electronic 3. bright silver mirror
4. miscible 4. Cyanohydrins 4. copper sulphate
5. decreases 5. Addition 5. dimer

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 226

Page 231

Unit 9 – Amines:
KEY ANSWERS FOR MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
1 b 11 c 21 a 31 b 41 a 51 b 61 b 71 a 81 b 91 a 101 b
2 a 12 a 22 b 32 a 42 c 52 b 62 b 72 a 82 a 92 a 102 c
3 a 13 c 23 b 33 b 43 a 53 a 63 c 73 c 83 c 93 a
4 d 14 b 24 a 34 b 44 c 54 b 64 c 74 a 84 c 94 a
5 a 15 d 25 d 35 a 45 b 55 c 65 d 75 b 85 c 95 c
6 d 16 b 26 b 36 a 46 c 56 a 66 b 76 b 86 a 96 b
7 d 17 a 27 c 37 b 47 d 57 d 67 c 77 a 87 c 97 a
8 a 18 b 28 b 38 b 48 d 58 d 68 c 78 b 88 a 98 b
9 c 19 a 29 b 39 a 49 b 59 d 69 b 79 d 89 b 99 a
10 a 20 b 30 b 40 d 50 c 60 c 70 a 80 a 90 a 100 b

KEY ANSWERS FOR FILL IN THE BLANKS QUESTIONS
SET-1 SET-2 SET-3
1. adrenaline 1. gases 1. 2-Aminotoluene
2. ammonia 2. tertiary amines 2. primary amine
3. Ethanamine 3. primary aliphatic amines 3. N-methyl benzamide
4. methyl group 4. pyramidal 4. sulphanilic acid
5. Hinsberg reagent 5. surfactants 5. Friedel-Crafts

SET-4 SET-5 SET -6
1. Lewis bases 1. acetanilide 1. novocain
2. potassium iodide 2. isocyanide test 2. Ammonolysis
3. copper(I) ions 3. ammonia 3. methanamine
4. an yellow dye 4. nitrogen 4. 2,4,6-tribromoaniline
5. simple amine 5. primary aliphatic amines 5. aniline

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 227

Page 232

Unit 10 - Biomolecules:
KEY ANSWERS FOR MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:

Introduction
1 2
d c
10.1 CARBOHYDRATES
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
b b a b a b b c b c
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
a c d b d b a b d c
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
a d c c c a a c a b
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
c c a c c d b a c a
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49
c d c b d d b d b
10.2 proteins
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
a a a b c b d b a a
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19
b a a d a c b a b
10.3 enzymes
1 2 3 4 5 6
a b c a a a
10.4 Vitamins
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
c b d a b c a a d b
11 12 13 14 15
d b b c d
10.5 Nucleic acids
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
b d d a a d a b a b
11 12 13 14 15 16 17
b b b b c a c

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 228

Page 233

10.6 Hormones
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
a c b d c b c d b d
11 12 13
d c c
10.1 Carbohydrates
1 2 3 4 5
a c a a b
10.2 Proteins
1 2 3 4 5 6
a a b a a a
10.3 Enzymes
1
a
10.4 Vitamins
1 2
a c
10.5 Nucleic Acids
1 2 3 4
b a a a
10.6 Hormones
1 2
a a
KEY ANSWERS FOR FILL IN THE BLANKS QUESTIONS
Set-1 Set-2
1 sugars 1 Insoluble
2 lactose 2 Carbohydrates
3 monosaccharide 3 α-amino acids
4 oligosaccharides 4 non-essential
5 glucose 5 zwitter ion

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 229

Page 234

Set-3 Set-4
1 bromine water 1 milk sugar
2 acetylation 2 Monosaccharide
3 saccharic acid 3 Plants
4 ketohexose 4 α-glucose
5 dextrorotatory 5 Soluble
Set-5 Set-6
1 carbohydrate 1 Amylose
2 Reducing 2 Cellulose
3 Glycogen 3 Thymine
4 phosphodiester 4 Nucleotides
5 Oxime 5 Glucagon
Set-7 Set-8
1 Ketone 1 polysaccharides
2 Hydrolysis 2 reducing sugars
3 Dextrose 3 aldose
4 Glucose 4 Sucrose
5 Oxime 5 glucose

II PUC – 34 CHEMISTRY 2025-26 230

Page 235

GOVERNEMENT OF KARNATAKA
KARNATAKA SCHOOL EXAMINATION AND ASSEMENT BOARD
6th CROSS, MALLESHWARAM, BENGALURU-560003
2025-26 II PUC PRACTICE QUESTION PAPER - 1
Subject: 34 - Chemistry Maximum Marks: 70
Time: 3.00 Hours No. of Questions: 46
Instructions
1. Question paper has FIVE parts. All parts are compulsory.
2. a. Part-A carries 20 marks. Each question carries 1 mark.
b. Part-B carries 06 marks. Each question carries 2 marks.
c. Part-C carries 15 marks. Each question carries 3 marks.
d. Part-D carries 20marks. Each question carries 5 marks.
e. Part-E carries 09 marks. Each question carries 3 marks.
3. In Part-A questions, first attempted answer will be considered for awarding marks.
4. Write balanced chemical equations and draw neat labeled diagrams and graphs wherever necessary.
5. Direct answers to the numerical problems without detailed steps and specific unit for final answer
will not carry any marks.
6. Use log tables and simple calculator if necessary (use of scientific calculator is not allowed).
7. For a question having circuit diagram/figure/ graph/ diagram, alternate questions are given at the end of
question paper in a separate section for visually challenged students.
PART-A
I. Select the correct option from the given choices. 15 ×1 = 15
1. The concentration of fluoride ions to be present in water to prevent tooth decay is
(a) 1 ppm (b) 1.5 ppm (c) 2 ppm (d) 2.5 ppm
2. In aqueous solution, Electronic configuration of Cu(II) ion is 3d9 but electronic configuration of Cu(I)
ion is 3d10, which of the following is correct?
(a) Cu(II) ion is less stable (b) Cu(II) ion is more stable
(c) Cu(I) and Cu(II) ions are equally stable (d) Cu(I) ion is more stable
3. Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their density

(a) I < III < IV < II (b) IV < III < II < I
(c) I < II < III < IV (d) II < IV < III < I
4. Molecular mass of three amino acids glycine (Gly), Alanine (Ala) and Valine (Val) are 63, 77 and 102
respectively. Molecular mass of tripeptide “Gly-Ala-Val” is (molar mass of water = 18 gmol-1).
(a) 206 (b) 242 (c) 260 (d) 188

2025-26 34 CHEMISTRY PQP - 1 Page 1 of 6

Page 236

5. Statement I: Conductivity of all electrolytes decreases on dilution.
Statement II: On dilution, number of ions per unit volume decreases.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(b) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(d) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
6. The plot of concentration of the reactant vs. time for a reaction is a straight line with a negative slope.
The reaction follows a
(a) zero order rate equation (b) first order rate equation
(c) second order rate equation (d) third order rate equation
7. The products formed when phenol is treated with dilute nitric acid at low temperature (298K) is/are
(i) o-nitrophenol (ii) p-nitrophenol (iii) 2,4,6- trinitrophenol
(a) only (ii) (b) only (iii)
(c) all (ii) and (iii) (d) both (i) and (ii)
8. Which of the following condition does make the propan-2-ol to undergo dehydration?
(a) Conc. H2SO4 at 443 K (b) 85% H3PO4 at 440 K
(c) 20% H3PO4 at 358 K (d) dil. H2SO4 at 400 K
9. The stabilisation of coordination compounds due to chelation is called the chelate effect. Which of the
following is the most stable complex species?

(a) Fe ( CO )5 
3− 3− 3+
(b)  Fe ( CN )6  (c)  Fe ( C2 O 4 )3  (d)  Fe ( H 2 O )6 

10. The counter ion in the coordination compound [Co(NH3)5(NO2)] Cl2 is
(a) Ammine (b) Cobalt (c) Chloride (d) Nitro
11. Match the following given in list-I with List-II.

LIST-I LIST-II

(A) Aldol Condensation (i) Con NaOH

(B) Cannizaro reaction (ii) H2/ Pd-BaSO4

(C) Haloform reaction (iii) Dilute NaOH

(D) Rosenmund reduction (iv) NaOI

(a) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
(b) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
(c) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii) , D-(iv)
(d) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)

2025-26 34 CHEMISTRY PQP - 1 Page 2 of 6

Page 237

12. An organic compound with molecular formula C9H10O2 gives directly carboxylic acid on hydrolysis and
a salt of carboxylic acid on base hydrolysis. The organic compound is
(a) 2-ethylbenzoic acid (b) 2-methyl methyl benzoate
(c) 2-ethylbenzaldehyde (d) ethyl benzoate
13. Colligative properties depend on ______
(a) the nature of the solute particles dissolved in solution
(b) the number of solute particles in solution
(c) the physical properties of the solute particles dissolved in solution
(d) the nature of solvent particles
14. An acylation of N-ethylethanamine is carried out in the presence of a base stronger than the amine (like
pyridine) because it removes
(a) HCl and shifts the equilibrium to the left.
(b) NaOH and shifts the equilibrium to the right.
(c) NaOH and shifts the equilibrium to the left.
(d) HCl and shifts the equilibrium to the right.
15. Study the graph showing the melting points of amines and identify the compounds:

(a) 1 = Methanamine, 2 = Ethanamine, 3 = Propanamine, 4 = Butanamine
(b) 1 = Ethanamine, 2 = Propanamine, 3 = Butanamine, 4 = Methanamine
(c) 1 = Butanamine, 2 = Methanamine, 3 = Propanamine, 4 = Ethanamine
(d) 1 = Propanamine, 2 = Butanamine, 3 = Methanamine, 4 = Ethanamine
II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets:
(Thymine, freezing point, CH2Cl2, grain, wood, polythene) 5 ×1 = 5
16. The chemical used to remove paint is ______________.
17. The lowering of vapour pressure of a solution causes a lowering of the _______ compared to that of the
pure solvent.
18. Ziegler catalyst is used in manufacture of _______.
19. CH3OH is called as a ________ alcohol.
20. In double helical structure of DNA, the base complementary to adenine is _________.

2025-26 34 CHEMISTRY PQP - 1 Page 3 of 6

Page 238

PART – B
III. Answer any three of the following. Each question carries 2 marks. 3×2=6
21. Which organic compounds conversion is involved in Wacker Process? Write the formula of catalyst.
22. Explain Swarts reaction with an example.
23. What are effective collisions? Mention one drawback of collision theory.
24. Name the hormone which is an iodinated derivative of amino acid Tyrosine. How hypothyroidism is
controlled?
25. Name the following reaction and identify product ‘A’.

PART – C
IV. Answer any three of the following. Each question carries 3 marks. 3×3=9
26. Mention the co-ordination number and co-ordination polyhedral of the following complex ions.

(i)  PtCl4  (ii) Co(NH3 )4 Cl2  (iii) Co(en)3 
2− + 3+

27. A blackish brown coloured solid 'A' when fused with alkali metal hydroxides in presence of air produces
a dark green coloured compound 'B' which an electrolytic oxidation in alkaline medium gives a dark
purple coloured compound 'C'. Identify A, B and C and write the reactions involved.
28. What is the denticity of the ligand in the Fe(III) EDTA complex. Name the atom/atoms of ligand through
which it can bind to the central metal ion.
29. What are metal carbonyls? How the M-C σ and M-C π bonds are formed in them?
30. In general, transition metal ions of same charge in a given series show progressive decrease in atomic
and ionic radius with increase in their atomic number. Give two reasons this change in radius. Name the
phenomenon associated with this decrease.
V. Answer any two of the following. Each question carries 3 marks. 2×3=6
31. State rate law? Write the rate expression and differential rate equation for general reaction.

aA + bB ⎯⎯
→ cC + dD.

32. For the standard hydrogen electrode (SHE):
(i) Write the electrode representation.
(ii) What is the concentration of hydrogen ion?
(iii) Name the metal used in electrode. (1+1+1)

2025-26 34 CHEMISTRY PQP - 1 Page 4 of 6

Page 239

33. What is semi permeable membrane? Give an example each for natural and synthetic semipermeable
membrane.
34. Mention any three factors affecting electrolytic conductance.
PART – D
VI. Answer any four of the following. Each question carries 5 marks. 4 × 5 = 20
35. (a) Write the reactions involved in the conversion of benzene-1,2-dicarboxyllic acid to phthalimide.
(b) The pKa values of 4-methoxybenzoic acid, benzoic acid and 4-nitrobenzoic acid are 4.46, 4.19 and
3.41 respectively. Arrange them in the increasing order of their acid strength. Justify the
arrangement. (3+2)
36. (a) Write the equations for the two steps involved in the mechanism for the conversion of 2-bromo-2-
methylpropane to 2-methyl-propan-2-ol. Mention the rate determining step. (3+2)
(b) How the plane polarized light is produced? Name the instrument used to measure optical rotation.
37. (a) Write the three equations involved in the mechanism of acid catalyzed hydration of C2H4 to C2H5OH.
(b) Explain Kolbeʼs reaction with general equation. (3+2)
38. (a) Name the two major molecular shapes formed due to the folding of secondary structure of proteins.
(b) What are the anomers? Find anomeric carbon in given structure.

(c) A person “A” suffering from gums bleeds frequently. The doctor’s prescription mentioned that
person “A” is suffering from scurvy. Mention any one food source to help person “A” recover faster.
(2+2+1)
39. (a) Identify the products A, B and C in the following.

(b) Mention the IUPAC name of simplest arylamine and write its formula. (3+2)
40. An Organic compound with molecular formula C9H10O forms 2,4-DNP derivative, reduces Tollens
reagent and undergoes Cannizaro reaction. On vigorous oxidation, it gives benzene-1,2-dicarboxylic
acid. Identify the compound. Write all the reactions involved.

2025-26 34 CHEMISTRY PQP - 1 Page 5 of 6

Page 240

PART – E (PROBLEMS)
VII. Answer any three of the following. Each question carries 3 marks. 3×3=9
41. Calculate the molality of 2.5g of ethanoic acid (CH3COOH) in 75g of benzene.
42. The first order rate constant for the decomposition of ethyl iodide by the reaction
→ C 2 H 4 (g) + HI(g) at 600 K is 1.60 10−5 s−1 . Its energy of activation is 209 kJmol−1 .
C2 H 5 I(g) ⎯⎯

Calculate the rate constant of the reaction at 700 K.
43. The conductivity of 0.00241 M acetic acid is 7.896×10-5 Scm-1. Calculate its molar conductivity and if
 om for acetic acid is 390.5 Scm 2 mol−1 , what is its dissociation constant?

44. The vapour pressure of water is 12.3 k Pa at 300K, Calculate the vapour pressure of 1 molal solution of
a non-volatile solute in it.

45. Calculate the emf of the following cell at 298 K Sn(s) |Sn 2+(0.050M) ||H+ (0.020M) |H2 (g)(1bar) | Pt(s) ;

Given: E oSn 2+ = − 0.14 V.
Sn

46. At 318 K, Nitrogen pentoxide decomposes according to the equation; 2N2O5 → 4NO2 + O2 in gas
phase. The plot of log [N2O5] v/s time ‘t’ shows a straight line with negative slope as shown in figure.
Calculate the rate constant.

PART - F
(For visually challenged students only)
15. The amine having highest melting point is
(a) Methanamine (b)Ethanamine (c) Propanamine (d) Butanamine
38. (b) Name two monosaccharides present in sucrose.
46. The rate of a reaction triples when the temperature changes from 298 K to 318 K. Calculate the energy

of activation of the reaction assuming that it does not change with temperature. (Given R = 8.314 JK-
1mol-1, log 3 = 0.4771)

*********

2025-26 34 CHEMISTRY PQP - 1 Page 6 of 6

Page 241

GOVERNEMENT OF KARNATAKA
KARNATAKA SCHOOL EXAMINATION AND ASSEMENT BOARD
6th CROSS, MALLESHWARAM, BENGALURU-560003
2025-26 II PUC PRACTICAL QUESTION PAPER- 2
Subject: 34 - Chemistry Maximum Marks: 70
Time: 3.00 Hours No. of Questions: 46
Instructions
1. Question paper has FIVE parts. All parts are compulsory.
2. a. Part-A carries 20 marks. Each question carries 1 mark.
b. Part-B carries 06 marks. Each question carries 2 marks.
c. Part-C carries 15 marks. Each question carries 3 marks.
d. Part-D carries 20marks. Each question carries 5 marks.
e. Part-E carries 09 marks. Each question carries 3 marks.
3. In Part-A questions, first attempted answer will be considered for awarding marks.
4. Write balanced chemical equations and draw neat labeled diagrams and graphs wherever necessary.
5. Direct answers to the numerical problems without detailed steps and specific unit for final answer
will not carry any marks.
6. Use log tables and simple calculator if necessary (use of scientific calculator is not allowed).
7. For a question having circuit diagram/figure/ graph/ diagram, alternate questions are given at the end of
question paper in a separate section for visually challenged students.
PART-A
I. Select the correct option from the given choices. 15 ×1 = 15
1. When mercuric iodide is added to the aqueous solutions of potassium iodide then:
(a) freezing point is raised. (b) freezing point is lowered.
(c) freezing point does not change. (d) boiling point does not change.
2. The concentration of pollutants in water or atmosphere is expressed in terms of
(a) µgmL-1 (b) molarity (c) molality (d) volume percentage (v/v)
3. The lowest standard reduction potential of lithium electrode for the reduction reaction Li + + e− ⎯⎯
→ Li,
indicates that
(a) Lithium is the most powerful oxidising agent
(b) Lithium is the most powerful reducing agent
(c) Lithium ion is the strongest oxidising agent
(d) Lithium is the weakest reducing agent
4. The rate law for the reaction: A + B → P is Rate = k[A][B]. if ‘B’ is taken large excess, then the order of
reaction is
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 0 (d) ½
5. Lanthanoids react with water to form
(a) Ln ( OH )2 (b) LnOH (c) Ln 2O3 (d) Ln ( OH )3
6. The arrangement of ligands in the increasing order of ligand field strength based on spectrochemical series
is
(a) I−  Cl−  OH −  H 2O  CO (b) CO  H 2 O  OH −  Cl−  I −
(c) I −  Cl−  H 2 O  OH −  CO (d) H 2 O  CO  I −  Cl−  OH −

2025-26 CHEMISTRY PQP - 2 Page 1 of 5

Page 242

7. If ethane-1,2-diamine is progressively added to green coloured [Ni(H2O)6]2+ in the molar ratios en:Ni, 1:1,
2:1, 3:1, then the correct order of colour changes of complexes would be
(a) green, pale blue, blue, colourless (b) green, pale blue, blue, violet
(c) green, violet, blue, pale blue (d) green, violet, pale blue, blue
8. The reagent that does not respond both to acetone and benzaldehyde is,
(a) sodium hydrogen sulphite (b) phenyl hydrazine
(c) Fehling’s reagent (d) Grignard reagent
9. Phenol is less acidic than
(a) ethanol (b) o-nitrophenol (c) o-cresol (d) water
10.

11.

(a) Swarts reaction (b) Wurtz reaction (c) Sandmeyer reaction (d) Fittig reaction
12. The compound that can undergo Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction in the following is
(a) CH3COCH3 (b) CH3CHO (c) (CH3)2CHCOOH (d) C6H5COOH
13. The reagent which is more preferred choice for reducing nitrobenzene to aniline
(a) H2 / Pd, ethanol (b) Fe and HCl (c) Sn and HCl (d) LiAlH4
14. The halide that does not undergo nucleophilic substitution with the anion formed by phthalimide is
(a) C6H5Cl (b) CH3Cl (c) C6H5 CH2Cl (d) CH3CH2CH2Cl
15. Glucocorticoids are
(a) vitamins (b) polypeptide hormones
(c) amino acid derivatives (d) steroid hormones
II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets:
(oxime, toluene, vinylic, 2.84BM, composition, tetrachloromethane) 5×1=5
16. The utility or importance of solutions in life depends on their ________.
17. Spin only magnetic moment of Ti2+ is ________.
18. Freon-12 is manufactured from ________ by Swarts reaction.
19. CH2 = CH-OH is a ________ alcohol.
20. Glucose reacts with hydroxylamine to form __________.

2025-26 CHEMISTRY PQP - 2 Page 2 of 5

Page 243

PART – B
III. Answer any three of the following. Each question carries 2 marks. 3×2=6
21. Define rate of a chemical reaction. How does decrease in concentration of the reactants on the passage of
time impact the rate at a given temperature?
22. Transition metals and their compounds are known for their catalytic activity. Give any two reasons.
23. Explain Finkelstein reaction with an example.
24. Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’ in the following reaction.

25. Name the two components of starch.
PART – C
IV. Answer any three of the following. Each question carries 3 marks. 3×3=9
26. Among sulphuric acid and hydrochloric acid, which acid is preferred to be used for permanganate
titrations? Give reason.
27. Give reason for the following.;
(i) Ce(III) is easily oxidised to Ce(IV).
(ii) actinoids show wide range of oxidation states.
(iii) The second and third transition series elements have almost similar atomic radii.
28. Write any three postulates of Werner’s theory of coordination compounds.
29. With respect to coordination compounds; what are
(i) isomers (ii) enantiomers (iii) unidentate ligand.
2+
30. Write the IUPAC name of  PtCl2 ( en )2  ion. Draw the optical isomers of it.

V. Answer any two of the following. Each question carries 3 marks. 2×3=6
31. Write four differences between metallic conductors and electrolytic conductors.
32. State Henry’s law. Write its mathematical form. Mention one of its applications.
33. What are fuel cells? Write the anode and cathode reactions of H 2− O 2 fuel cell.
34. For the following graph, Write the
(i) Order of reaction,
(ii) Its integrated rate equation.
(iii) SI unit of the rate constant.

2025-26 CHEMISTRY PQP - 2 Page 3 of 5

Page 244

PART – D
VI. Answer any four of the following. Each question carries 5 marks. 4 × 5 = 20
35. (a) Give reason for the following:
(i) 2-chloroproapne is an achiral molecule.
(ii) A mixture containing equal proportion of (+)-butan-2-ol and (-)-butan-2-ol shows zero optical rotation.
(iii) 30 alkyl halides undergo SN1 reactions faster than 20 and 10alkyl halides
(b) Write the structure of different dihalogen derivatives of Ethane. (3+2)
36. (a) Write the organic products of the following reactions.
(i) C2 H5OH ⎯⎯⎯
H2SO4
443K
→

(ii) HCHO ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
(i) CH3MgX
(ii) H2O

(iii)CH3CH(OH)CH3 ⎯⎯⎯
Cu
573K
→
(b) Write the chemical equation for acetylation of salicylic acid with acetic anhydride. Name the aromatic
product of this reaction. (3+2)
37. (a) Write the steps involved in the mechanism of nucleophilic addition of HCN with aldehyde/ ketone.
(b) Compound “A” undergoes Rosenmund reduction to give compound “B’ with molecular formula
C7H6O. compound “B” does not answer Fehling’s test. But reacts with conc. NaOH to give compounds
“C” and “D”. Write two equations involved in this. (3+2)
38. (a) Identify ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ in the following reaction.

(b) Name any one simple test to distinguish between
(i) Propanal and Propanone. (ii) Acetophenone and Benzophenone. (3+2)
39. (a) What is Hinsberg’s reagent? Write the equations for the reaction of primary and secondary amines with
Hinsberg’s reagent.
(b) Explain Hoffmann bromamide degradation of benzamide. (3+2)
40. (a) Answer the following
(i) Name the protein present in silk.
(ii) Give an example for an optically inactive alpha amino acid?
(iii) Name the vitamin whose deficiency causes Xerophthalmia.
(b) Write the structural and functional difference between DNA and RNA. (3+2)
PART – E (PROBLEMS)
VII. Answer any three of the following. Each question carries 3 marks. 3×3=9
41. The boiling point of benzene is 353.23 K. When 1.80 g of a non-volatile solute was dissolved in 90 g of
benzene, the boiling point is raised to 354.11 K. Calculate the molar mass of the solute. Kb for the benzene
is 2.53 Kkgmol−1 .
42. The rate constants of reactions at 600 K and 700 K are 1.60 x 10-5 s-1 and 6.40 x 10-3 s-1 respectively.
Calculate the value of Ea.

2025-26 CHEMISTRY PQP - 2 Page 4 of 5

Page 245

43. Calculate the mass of non-volatile solute (molar mass 40 gmol−1 ) which should be dissolved in 114 g
octane to reduce its vapour pressure 80%. (Molar mass of octane = 114 gmol−1 ).
44. A solution of Ni ( NO3 )2 is electrolysed between platinum electrodes using a current of 10 amperes for 30
minutes. What mass of Ni is deposited at cathode? (Atomic mass of Ni = 58.7, 1 F = 96500 C)
45. The following data were obtained the first order thermal decomposition of SO2Cl2 at a constant volume:
Calculate the rate of the reaction.
SO2Cl2 (g) → SO2 (g) + Cl2 (g)
Experiment Time/s-1 Total pressure/atm

1 0 0.5
2 100 0.6

46. For strong electrolyte, molar conductivity increases slowly with dilution and represented by equation:
Λm = Λ0m - A c1/2. The plot of molar conductivity (S cm2 mol-1) of strong electrolyte ‘X’ v/s c1/2 (mol
L-1)1/2 is as shown in the figure. Determine the value of ‘A’ and limiting molar conductivity for solute
‘X’

PART - F
(For visually challenged students only)
34. Define collusion frequency. According to collusion theory, write two factors responsible for effective
collusion.
46. At 298 K calculate the emf of the cell in which following reaction takes place
Ni(s) + 2Ag+(0.002M) ⎯⎯
→ Ni2+ (0.160M) + 2Ag(s); Eocell =1.05V
*********

2025-26 CHEMISTRY PQP - 2 Page 5 of 5

Page 246

GOVERNEMENT OF KARNATAKA
KARNATAKA SCHOOL EXAMINATION AND ASSEMENT BOARD
6th CROSS, MALLESHWARAM, BENGALURU-560003
2025-26 II PUC PRACTICE QUESTION PAPER - 3
Subject: 34 - Chemistry Maximum Marks: 70
Time: 3.00 Hours No. of Questions: 46
Instructions
1. Question paper has FIVE parts. All parts are compulsory.
2. a. Part-A carries 20 marks. Each question carries 1 mark.
b. Part-B carries 06 marks. Each question carries 2 marks.
c. Part-C carries 15 marks. Each question carries 3 marks.
d. Part-D carries 20marks. Each question carries 5 marks.
e. Part-E carries 09 marks. Each question carries 3 marks.
3. In Part-A questions, first attempted answer will be considered for awarding marks.
4. Write balanced chemical equations and draw neat labeled diagrams and graphs wherever necessary.
5. Direct answers to the numerical problems without detailed steps and specific unit for final answer
will not carry any marks.
6. Use log tables and simple calculator if necessary (use of scientific calculator is not allowed).
7. For a question having circuit diagram/figure/ graph/ diagram, alternate questions are given at the end of
question paper in a separate section for visually challenged students.
PART-A
I. Select the correct option from the given choices. 15 ×1 = 15
1. The mixture that forms maximum boiling azeotrope at specific concentration is
(a) heptane + octane (b) water + Nitric acid
(c) ethanol + water (d) acetone + carbon disulphide
2. When the initial concentration of reactant is doubled in a reaction, its half-life period is not affected.
Then the order of the reaction is
(a) First (b) Second (c) More than zero but less than first (d) Zero
3. Statement I: Cu displaces H2 gas from dilute acids.
Statement II: Cu2+ ions get reduced more easily than H+ ions.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(b) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(d) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4. Which of the following is an example for vicinal dihalides?
(a) Dichloromethane (b) Allyl chloride
(c) Ethylidene dichloride (d) 1,2-Dichloroethane
5. The correct IUPAC name of K3 Cr ( C2O4 )3 

(a) Potassiumtrioxalatochromium(III) (b) Potassiumtrioxalatochromate(III)
(c) Potassiumtrioxalatochromate(II) (d) Potassiumoxalatochromate (IV)

2025-26 34 CHEMISTRY PQP - 3 Page 1 of 5

Page 247

6. The element having highest magnetic moment is
(a) Zn (b) Cu (c) Mn (d) Ni
7. The oxidation of alcohol to aldehydes involves the cleavage of the bond/s
(a) O − H (b) C − H (c) O − Hand C − H (d) C − C
8. What will be the change in hybridization of carbon, when a nucleophile attacks the electrophilic center of
the carbonyl group?
(a) sp2 to sp (b) sp3 to sp2 (c) sp2 to sp3 (d) sp to sp2
9. Phenol is less acidic than
(a) Ethanol (b) water (c) o-methyl phenol (d) o-nitrophenol
10. An organic compound ‘X’ on treatment with Pyridinium chlorochromate gives compound ‘Y’. Compound
‘Y’ reacts with I2 and alkali to form triiodomethane, the compound ‘X’ is
(a) CH3COCH3 (b) CH3CHO (c) C2H5OH (d) CH3COOH
− Ea − Ea
11. In Arrhenius equation, k = Ae RT the factor e RT
corresponds to
(a) The fraction of molecules that have kinetic energy greater than energy of Activation.
(b) The fraction of molecules that have kinetic energy less than activation energy.
(c) The fraction of molecules that have kinetic energy greater than threshold energy.
(d) The fraction of molecules that have kinetic energy less than threshold energy.
12. The correct electronic configuration of d4 coordination entities in a weak ligand is
(a) t 32g e1g (b) t 42g eg0 (c) t 22g eg2 (d) e32g t1g

13. The major product formed when 2-bromopentane reacts with alcoholic KOH
(a) pent-1-ene (b) pent-2-ene (c) pent-2-ol (d) pent-1-ol
14. Among the following, the most basic compound in aqueous phase is
(a) ( C2H5 )2 NH (b) ( C2H5 )3 N (c) C2 H5 NH 2 (d) NH3

15. Match the following given in column I with column II and choose the correct option.
Column I Column II
(i) Vitamin A (A) Rickets
(ii) Vitamin D (B) Pernicious Anemia
(iii) Vitamin B12 (C) Increased blood clotting time
(iv) Vitamin K (D) Xeropthalmia

(a) i-B, ii-D, iii-A, iv-C (b) i-D, ii-A, iii-B, iv-C
(c) i-D, ii-A, iii-C, iv-B (d) i-A, ii-D, iii-B, iv-C
II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets:
(magnesium, iron, pseudo first, secondary amine, glucagon, picric acid) 5 ×1 = 5
16. The hormone which increases sugar level in blood ________.
17. Chlorophyll is a coordination compound of metal ________.

2025-26 34 CHEMISTRY PQP - 3 Page 2 of 5

Page 248

18. N-methylmethanamine is an example for _______.
19. 2,4,6-trinitrophenol is commonly known as __________.
20. Inversion of cane sugar is an _______ order.
PART – B
III. Answer any three of the following. Each question carries 2 marks. 3×2=6
21. What is reverse osmosis? Mention one application of it.
22. What is an ambidentate ligand? Name the type of structural isomerism arises when such ligand presents in
the complex.
23. Toluene on treatment with Cl2 in sunlight gives benzyl chloride whereas when treated with Cl2 in dark
gives o-chlorobenzene and p-chlorobenzene. Give reason.
24. Complete the following equation and name the reaction.

25. Write the chemical equation to show that glucose contains,
(a) Five hydroxyl groups. (b) Aldehyde group.
PART – C
IV. Answer any three of the following. Each question carries 3 marks. 3×3=9
26. The enthalpies of atomization are given in table below. Select the correct enthalpies of atomization of
Zinc and Copper correctly. Justify your answer.

Enthalpy of atomisation/ kJmol-1
339
130
27. (a) Which metal in the first series of transition metal exhibits +1 oxidation state most frequently and why?
(b) What are interstitial compounds? (2+1)
28. Write any three uses of lanthanoids and actinoids.
29. Explain the hybridisation, geometry and magnetic property of [NiCl4]2- ion on the basis of Valence Bond
Theory. [Atomic mass of Ni = 28]
30. Draw the energy level diagram for the splitting of d-orbital in tetrahedral crystal field. Give an example
metal complex showing this type of splitting. (2+1)
V. Answer any two of the following. Each question carries 3 marks. 2×3=6
31. Derive an integrated rate equation for the rate constant of a first order reaction.

2025-26 34 CHEMISTRY PQP - 3 Page 3 of 5

Page 249

32. Draw the neat labelled diagram of Standard Hydrogen Electrode. Write its value of electrode potential and
half-cell reaction.
33. State Kohlrausch law. Mention two applications of it.
34. For this graph; answer the following questions
a) What type of non-ideal solution shows such a behavior?
b) Give example for such type of non - ideal solution.
c) What type of azeotrope will the mixture of A and B form?

PART – D
VI. Answer any four of the following. Each question carries 5 marks. 4 × 5 = 20
35. (a) Identify the carbohydrates and give any one difference between these carbohydrates present in cane
sugar and carbohydrate present in milk.
(b) What are essential amino acids? Give an example.
(c) Name the nitrogenous base present in RNA but not in DNA. (2+2+1)
36. (a) How do you convert benzene diazonium chloride to p-aminoazobenzene? Give the equation.
(b) How is methanamine prepared by Hoffmann’s bromamide degradation? Write equation.
(c) Give the IUPAC name of ( CH3 )2 N−C2H5 (2+2+1)

37. (a) How is benzoyl chloride converted to benzaldehyde? Write the chemical equation and name the
reaction.
(b) Explain Aldol condensation reaction with an example. (3+2)
38. (a) The mechanism of formation of alcohols from alkenes is given below. identify the errors in the
mechanism and rewrite the corrected steps.

(b) Write the equations for the reaction of concentrated Hydrogen iodide with
(i) Methoxybenzene (ii) Methoxyethane (3+2)
39. (a) An organic compound (A) molecular formula C4H8O2 was hydrolysed with dil. sulphuric acid to give
a carboxylic acid (B) and an alcohol (C). Oxidation of (C) with Jones reagent produces (B). (C) On
dehydration with conc. H2SO4 at 443 K gives ethene. Write equations for the reactions involved in this.
(b) Explain Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction with an example. (3+2)

2025-26 34 CHEMISTRY PQP - 3 Page 4 of 5

Page 250

40. (a) Write the equations for the steps involved in the mechanism for the conversion of tert-butyl bromide
to tert-butyl alcohol. Among polar protic solvent and non-polar solvent, name the type of solvent generally
used in SN1 reaction.
(b) Explain Friedel-Craft’s alkylation for chlorobenzene. Give equation. (3+2)
PART – E (PROBLEMS)
VII. Answer any three of the following. Each question carries 3 marks. 3×3=9
41. 100 g of liquid ‘A’ (molar mass 140 g mol−1 ) was dissolved in 1000 g of liquid ‘B’ (molar mass 180 g mol−1
). The vapour pressure of pure liquid ‘B’ was found to be 500 torr. Calculate the vapour pressure of liquid
‘A’ and its vapour pressure in the solution if the total vapour pressure of the solution is 475 torr.
42. Calculate the equilibrium constant of the reaction at 298 K. Cu(s) + 2Ag+(aq) ⎯⎯
→Cu 2+(aq) + 2Ag(s) .

Given E o cell = 0.46 V .
−1
43. The molar conductivity of 0.025 molL−1 methanoic acid is 46.1 Scm mol . Calculate its degree of
2

dissociation. Given: (H+ ) = 349.6 Scm2 mol−1 and (HCOO− ) = 54.6 Scm2 mol−1 .

44. The rate of a reaction quadruples when the temperature changes from 293 K to 313. Calculate the energy
of activation of the reaction assuming that it does not change with temperature.
[Given: R=8.314 JK−1mol−1 ]
45. Sucrose decomposes in acidic solution into glucose and fructose according to the first order rate law with
t 1 = 3.00 hrs. What fraction of sample of sucrose remains after 8 hours?
2

46.
The vapour pressure (in Atm) curve for
solution containing non-volatile solid
substance “G’ and pure solvent is
plotted against temperature (in K) is as
shown in figure. Calculate the molality
of the solution. (Kb for water is 0.52 K
Kg mol-1).

PART - E
(For visually challenged students only)
34. Write any three differences between ideal and non-ideal solutions. (3 M)
46. The boiling point of benzene is 353.25 K. When 1.80 g of a non-volatile solute was dissolved in 90 g of
benzene, the boiling point is raised to 354.11 K. Calculate the molar mass of the solute. Kb for benzene is
2.35 K Kg mol−1 . (3 M)
*********

2025-26 34 CHEMISTRY PQP - 3 Page 5 of 5

Page 251

Department of School Education (Pre-University), 18th Cross, Malleshwaram Bengaluru- 560012;
and
Karnataka School Education and Assessment Board, 6th Cross, Malleshwaram Bengaluru- 560003

2025 – 26 II PUC CHEMISTRY QUESTION BANK DEVELOPMENT COMMITTEE
SI. NO. NAME DESIGNATION NAME ADDRESS OF THE COLLEGE
AN1051 - JEEVITH PRE-UNIVERSITY COLLEGE,
1. Dr. EREGOWDA G B PRINCIPAL
YELAHANKA
TT0019 – GOVERNMENT PRE-UNIVERSITY
2. Mr. GIREESHA C LECTURER COLLEGE, SHIRALAKOPPA, SHIKARIPURA
TALUK, SHIVAMOGGA DISTRICT
NN0248 - GOVERNMENT PRE-UNIVERSITY
3. Dr. SHUBHAKARA K LECTURER COLLEGE, RATHNAPURI, HUNASURU TALUK,
MYSURU DISTRICT
BR0015 - GOVERNMENT PRE-UNIVERSITY
4. Dr. SRINIVASA V LECTURER COLLEGE FOR GIRL’S, CHANNAPATANNA
TALUK, RAMANAGARA DISTRICT
GG0020 - GOVERNMENT PRE-UNIVERSITY
5. Mr. THIPPESH R LECTURER COLLEGE, HOSADURGA TALUK,
CHITRADURGA DISTRICT
UU0135 - GOVERNMENT PRE-UNIVERSITY
6. Mr. VISHWANATH B R LECTURER COLLEGE FOR BOYS, TIPTUR TALUK,
TUMAKURU DISTRICT
SS0045 - SRI SUBRAMANYASHWARA P U
7. Mr. JAYAPRAKASH R LECTURER COLLEGE, SUBRAMANYA, KADABA TALUK,
DAKSHINA KANNADA DISTRICT
TT0092 - GOVERNMENT PRE-UNIVERSITY FOR
8. Mr. MADHU M P LECTURER GIRLS, SHIKARIPURA TALUK, SHIVAMOGGA
DISTRICT
UU0038 - GOVERNMENT PRE-UNIVERSITY
COLLEGE, HULIYAR - KENKERE,
9. Mr. KALLESHMURTHY S LECTURER
CHIKKANAYAKANAHALLI TALUK,
TUMAKURU DISTRICT
NN0209 - GOVERNMENT PRE-UNIVERSITY
10. Mr. SUPARSHWA S S LECTURER COLLEGE, HEMMARAGALA NANJANAGUDU
TALUK, MYSURU DISTRICT

Page 252

Study Materials
Notes

Model Papers Class 6 Notes

Sample Papers Class 7 Notes
Half Yearly Sample Papers Class 8 Notes

Class 9 Notes
Important Resources
Class 10 Notes
Periodic Table
Class 11 Notes
Writing Skills / Formats

Maps of India / World Class 12 Notes

Books and Solutions

NCERT Books
NCERT Book Solutions
HC Verma Chapter Wise Solutions
RD Sharma Solutions
CGBSE Solutions

Document Details

Board / Org	Karnataka Board
Exam	Class 12
Type	Question Bank
Pages	252
Updated	15 Jul 2026

More for Karnataka Class 12

✅Answer Key 📄Blue Print 📄Question Bank 📄Question Paper 📝Sample Paper 📘Syllabus 🗓️Time Table

More from Karnataka Board

Class 10 Class 11 Class 12 Class 5 Class 8 Class 9 Karnataka National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship

SELECT YOUR STATE