Kerala PG Nursing 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key

PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY
Question Paper Code: 22/2025/OL
Exam:PG NURSING 2025
Date of Test: 17-08-2025

1. Celiac plexus supplies the
A) Heart
B) Lungs
C) Stomach
D) Eye

2. Which is the most posterior cerebral cortex?
A) Frontal
B) Occipital
C) Temporal
D) Parietal

3. How many sacral roots are there?
A) One
B) Five
C) Eight
D) Twelve

4. What lies between the loop of Henle and collecting duct?
A) Efferent arteriole
B) Afferent arteriole
C) Proximal convoluted tubule
D) Distal convoluted tubule

5. The following lie posterior to the liver except
A) Esophagus
B) Gall bladder
C) Stomach
D) Aorta

6. Liver biopsy is done through _____ intercostal space in full ________
A) Right eighth, inspiration

B) Right sixth, inspiration
C) Right sixth, expiration
D) Right eighth, expiration

7. Addison’s disease is
A) Hyposecretion of glucocorticoids
B) Hypersecretion of glucocorticoids
C) Hyposecretion of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids
D) Hypersecretion of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids

8. Growth hormone insensitivity syndrome is called as
A) Gigantism
B) African pigmies
C) Mecasermin
D) Laron dwarfism

9. Normal inspiratory capacity is
A) 500-700ml
B) 3000ml
C) 3500ml
D) 5900ml

10. Which is the plateau phase in ventricular action potential?
A) Phase 0
B) Phase 1
C) Phase 2
D) Phase 3

11. Elevated level of bile salts
A) Inhibit SA node firing
B) Stimulate SA node firing
C) Causes tachycardia
D) Causes Atrial fibrillation

12. Which of the following does not alter cardiac output?
A) Standing up

B) Eating
C) Exercising
D) Sleeping

13. What is the biological action of endothelin?
A) Dilates vascular smooth muscle
B) Produces bronchodilation
C) Has positive ionotropic effect on myocardium
D) Increases GFR and renal blood flow

14. Which of the following is true regarding nitrous oxide synthetase (NOS)?
A) NOS 1 is activated by cytokines
B) NOS 2 is present in endothelial cells
C) It is inactivated by hemoglobin
D) It synthesizes nitrous oxide from arginine

15. Which of the following is abundantly found in collagen?
A) Alanine
B) Tryptophan
C) Serine
D) Glycine

16. Which of the following has the lowest level of chromosome organisation?
A) DNA
B) RNA
C) Nucleosome
D) mRNA

17. A tuft of flagella at one pole is called as ______
A) Monotrichous
B) Lophotrichous
C) Amphitrichous
D) Peritrichous

18. The cell membrane of Fungi contains
A) Ergosterol

B) Progesterone
C) Cholesterol
D) Norprogesterone

19. Which of the immunoglobulins mediate Type I Hypersensitivity?
A) Ig G
B) Ig A
C) Ig M
D) Ig E

20. In zone phenomenon, the ascending part contains
A) Antibody excess
B) Antigen excess
C) Antigen and antibody excess
D) Equivalence

21. Babes-Ernst bodies are a feature of
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D) Escherichia coli

22. Which of the following is not a Sporozoa?
A) Plasmodium falciparum
B) Trichomonas vaginalis
C) Cryptosporidium parvum
D) Isospora belli

23. Drumstick appearance is found in
A) Clostridium tetani
B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C) Mycobacterium leprae
D) Spirochetes

24. Vitamin M is
A) Biotin

B) Pantothenic acid
C) Folic acid
D) Pyridoxine

25. Which of the following is NOT a moist heat method of cooking?
A) Broiling
B) Steaming
C) Poaching
D) Stewing

26. Which of the following is a low glycemic index food?
A) Jasmine rice
B) Beans
C) Brown rice
D) Basmati rice

27. Renal failure causes
A) Hypocalcemia
B) Hypophosphataemia
C) Hypomagnesemia
D) Hypochloraemia

28. Folic acid requirement of pregnant women is
A) 100 micrograms
B) 200 milligrams
C) 300 milligrams
D) 500 micrograms

29. The branch of psychoanalysis is known as
A) Developmental psychology
B) Applied psychology
C) Dynamic psychology
D) Experimental psychology

30. Theory X and Theory Y was proposed by
A) Saul Gellerman

B) Douglas McGregor
C) Sigmund Freud
D) Carl Gustav

Arrange the following in the correct order
(i) Performance
31. (ii) Effort
(iii) Reward
(iv) Expectancy
A) iv, ii, i, iii
B) iv, i, ii, iii
C) ii, i, iv, iii
D) ii, i, iii, iv

32. Turmeric powder is commonly adulterated with
A) Copper
B) Lead chromate
C) Chalk powder
D) Papaya seed

33. Which of the following conflict was the view of Karl Marx?
A) Personal
B) Racial
C) Class
D) Political

34. Who said “Man is a social animal.”?
A) Aristotle
B) Cristo
C) Spencer
D) Plato

35. Culture is
A) Fashion
B) Civilization
C) Progress
D) Learnt behaviour

36. Theory related to social change is
A) Cyclical theory
B) Labelling theory
C) Concentric zone theory
D) Theory of race

37. Employment of women has brought about
A) Social stratification
B) Social organization
C) Social change
D) Social problem

38. Inequality begins at the level of
A) Family
B) Religion
C) Marriage
D) Kinship

39. Who is considered the founder of modern nursing?
A) Mary Eliza
B) Florence Nightingale
C) Clara Barton
D) Margaret Sanger

40. What is the correct angle for intramuscular injection?
A) 45 degrees
B) 60 degrees
C) 75 degrees
D) 90 degrees

41. Recommended depth of adult chest compressions during CPR is
A) 1 - 1.5 inches
B) 1.5 - 2 inches
C) 2 - 2.5 inches
D) More than three inches

Correct Answer : Option C

42. Abbreviation of PR in medication administration is
A) Per oral
B) Per Radial
C) Per Respiratory
D) Per Rectum

43. Hospital announces Code Red when there is
A) Medical emergency
B) Fire
C) Missing patient
D) Missing child

44. What is “Halitosis” commonly known as?
A) Bad breath
B) Blood pressure
C) Headache
D) Flu

45. Electrocardiogram is used to measure
A) Blood count
B) Brain activity
C) Heart beat
D) Temperature

46. How many moments of hand hygiene have been laid down by WHO?
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8

47. Suitable position for rectal examination is
A) Dorsal recumbent
B) Sims position
C) Lithotomy position
D) Prone position

Correct Answer : Option B

48. Disease with an unknown cause is called as
A) Index disease
B) Primary disease
C) Iatrogenic
D) Idiopathic

49. Which of the following is not a vital sign?
A) Temperature
B) Pulse
C) Blood pressure
D) BMI

50. Which of the following people have the largest percentage of water in their bodies?
A) Lean men
B) Fat men
C) Lean women
D) Fat women

51. Which of the following persons have a better pain tolerance?
A) Person with migraine headache
B) Person with rheumatoid arthritis
C) Person with terminal cancer
D) Athlete post ligament tear surgery

A patient is currently drinking hot coffee. How long will you wait to measure oral
52. temperature?
A) 5 minutes
B) 10 minutes
C) 15 minutes
D) 30 minutes

53. The abdominal girth in an ascitic patient should be measured at?
A) Xiphisternum
B) Umbilicus
C) Hip circumference
D) Most distended level

54. Which is the biggest organ of the body?
A) Skin
B) Heart
C) Liver
D) Large intestine

55. _________ divides the thoracic and abdominal cavities
A) Stomach
B) Diaphragm
C) Rib cage
D) Sternum

56. The dressing for leg ulcer has become wet. What is to be done?
A) Reinforce with dry dressing
B) Remove and apply new dressing
C) Let it dry in room air
D) Use a hair dryer

57. The aim of giving bed bath is
A) Prevents bed sores
B) Gives a sense of well being
C) Both of the above
D) None of the above

58. Sprain means
A) Over stretching of ligaments
B) Swelling
C) Bruising
D) Pain

59. Anorexia means
A) Difficulty in swallowing
B) Decreased urine output
C) Loss of smell
D) Loss of appetite

60. Glascow coma scale has a minimum score of
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3

61. Device which measures blood pressure is
A) Thermometer
B) Spirometer
C) Stethoscope
D) Sphygmomanometer

62. Exchange of gases takes place in
A) Lungs
B) Kidney
C) Liver
D) Heart

63. What is Gavage?
A) Visual examination of the stomach
B) Irrigation of the stomach
C) Liquid feeding through stomach
D) Surgical opening to reach stomach

64. Foley’s catheter operates by the principle of
A) Suction
B) Osmosis
C) Diffusion
D) Gravity

65. Which among is the best method to prevent spread of infection in hospital is
A) Masks
B) Hand hygiene
C) Gloves
D) Gowns

66. The primary goal of the preoperative assessment is to
A) Diagnose new diseases
B) Schedule surgery
C) Identify possible risks
D) Convert patient to anesthesia

67. Which is the most common infection acquired in hospitals?
A) Urinary tract infection
B) Sepsis
C) Pneumonia
D) Meningitis

68. Surgical asepsis means
A) Careless technique
B) Clean technique
C) Dirty technique
D) Sterile technique

69. Which electrolyte imbalance causes tetany?
A) Hypocalcemia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hypomagnesemia
D) Hypernatremia

70. Which is a bronchodilator?
A) Tetracycline
B) Paracetamol
C) Terbutaline
D) Ibuprofen

71. Which is/are a cardinal sign/(s) of inflammation?
A) Cyanosis
B) Redness
C) Pallor
D) All of the above

72. The most common cell seen in acute inflammation is
A) Basophil
B) Eosinophil
C) Lymphocyte
D) Neutrophil

73. Which body system does hypertension primarily affect?
A) Cardiovascular
B) Digestive
C) Musculoskeletal
D) Respiratory

74. Hemostasis refers to
A) Tissue approximation
B) Infection prevention
C) Stoppage of bleeding
D) Pain relief

75. Which hormone regulates sodium and potassium balance?
A) Aldosterone
B) Cortisol
C) Epinephrine
D) Insulin

76. Edema refers to
A) Accumulation of fat
B) Blood loss
C) Fluid accumulation
D) Protein deposition

77. Arterial thrombi usually originate in
A) Arteries
B) Capillaries
C) Heart
D) Veins

78. A patient with dyspnea and frothy sputum likely has
A) Bronchial asthma
B) Pleural effusion
C) Pneumonia
D) Pulmonary edema

79. Best indicator of renal function is
A) Serum creatinine
B) SGOT
C) SGPT
D) Serum bilirubin

80. COPD includes chronic bronchitis and
A) Bronchiectasis
B) Emphysema
C) Asthma
D) Tuberculosis

81. Hyperthyroidism is characterized by
A) Cold intolerance
B) Fatigue
C) Weight Loss
D) Constipation

82. The final stage of wound healing is
A) Proliferation
B) Inflammation
C) Infection
D) Maturation

83. Which is not a microvascular complication of diabetes mellitus?
A) Retinopathy
B) Nephropathy
C) Neuropathy
D) Myopathy

84. Which is not a clinical feature of tuberculosis?
A) Night sweats
B) Weight gain
C) Hemoptysis
D) Chronic cough

85. In adult non pregnant women, anemia is diagnosed when hemoglobin is below
A) 10g/dL
B) 11g/dL
C) 12g/dL
D) 13g/dL

86. Which hepatitis virus is transmitted by the fecal-oral route?
A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis C
D) Hepatitis D

87. The antidote for paracetamol poisoning is
A) Atropine
B) Flumazenil
C) Naloxone
D) N-acetylcysteine

88. Side effect of morphine is
A) Constipation
B) Diarrhea
C) Hypertension
D) Insomnia

89. Scrub-up time for surgical personnel is at least…… minute/(s)
A) 1
B) 2
C) 5
D) 10

Which cancer most commonly leads to Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone
90. Secretion (SIADH)?
A) Breast cancer
B) Leukemia
C) Gastric cancer
D) Lung cancer

91. Which drug is used to counteract the effects of poison?
A) Antitussives
B) Analgesics
C) Antiemetics
D) Antidotes

92. Which disease is associated with decreased albumin and generalized edema?
A) Nephrosis
B) Nephritis
C) Pneumonia
D) Pyelonephritis

93. Ceftriaxone belongs to
A) Tetracyclines
B) Macrolides
C) Cephalosporins
D) Aminoglycosides

94. In appendicitis, McBurney's point is located in
A) Left lower abdomen
B) Right upper abdomen
C) Left upper abdomen
D) Right lower abdomen

95. Tracheostomy is indicated in
A) Severe asthma
B) Upper airway obstruction
C) Epistaxis

D) Sinus infection

96. Deep vein thrombosis is prevented in post-operative period by
A) Early ambulation
B) Immobility
C) Medications only
D) Sedation

97. Which drugs are used to treat intestinal worms?
A) Antibiotics
B) Antipyretics
C) Antihelminthics
D) Anaesthetics

98. Primary intention healing is
A) Healing by suture
B) Delayed healing
C) Sepsis involved
D) Graft healing

99. Retention suture is used in
A) Small wounds
B) Large wounds
C) Facial cuts
D) Burn wounds

100. A drain is placed in a surgical wound to
A) Allow air
B) Remove pus
C) Prevent infection
D) Remove fluid and promote healing

101. Sign of left ventricular failure is
A) Ascites
B) Hypotension
C) Pedal edema

D) Pulmonary edema

102. Mastectomy is surgery of
A) Breast
B) Kidney
C) Lung
D) Stomach

103. Gallstones are removed in
A) Appendectomy
B) Cholecystectomy
C) Herniorrhaphy
D) Laparotomy

104. Which of the following is a sign of internal bleeding in the post-operative period?
A) Low blood pressure
B) Dry mouth
C) High temperature
D) Diarrhea

105. First step in wound management is
A) Debridement
B) Cleaning
C) Dressing
D) Suture

Informed consent is required for
106. i) Blood transfusion ii) Any surgical procedure iii) Medication administration
A) i and ii only
B) i and iii only
C) ii and iii only
D) i, ii and iii

107. Insulin is mainly used to treat
A) Arrhythmia
B) Bronchial Asthma

C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Hypertension

108. First aid for burns includes
A) Hot compress
B) Butter application
C) Bandaging tightly
D) Running cold water

109. Postoperative pneumonia is prevented by
A) Deep breathing exercises
B) Bed rest
C) Nil per oral
D) Oxygen avoidance

110. Drug used in acute asthma attack is
A) Furosemide
B) Metformin
C) Salbutamol
D) Warfarin

111. Iron supplements are best absorbed with
A) Orange juice
B) Milk
C) Rice water
D) Tea

112. Warfarin action is monitored by
A) Platelet count
B) Prothrombin time
C) Bleeding time
D) Clotting time

113. Prophylactic dose of Vitamin A for a nine-month-old child is
A) 25,000 IU
B) 50,000 IU

C) 1,00,000 IU
D) 2,00,000 IU

114. Chlorine which gets consumed in the oxidation of impurities before disinfection is
A) Chlorine demand
B) Free chlorine
C) Residual chlorine
D) Residual demand

115. Globe thermometer measures
A) Air temperature
B) Air velocity
C) Air radiation
D) All of the above

116. Rate of air change recommended for living room is
A) Once per hour
B) 2-3 times per hour
C) 4-6 times per hour
D) More than 6 times per hour

117. RCA latrine stands for
A) Rural cum agricultural
B) Research cum action
C) Rural cum action
D) Research cum agriculture

118. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Rapid Sand Filter?
A) No coagulant is required
B) Depreciation is high
C) Suitable for turbid waters
D) Working process is mainly mechanical

119. Which organism is used as an indicator of faecal pollution of water?
A) Clostridium tetani
B) Bacillus subtilis

C) Escherichia coli
D) Salmonella typhi

120. Best indicator of air pollution is
A) Carbon Monoxide
B) Carbon Dioxide
C) Nitrogen Dioxide
D) Sulphur Dioxide

121. “Cooling Power” of air is measured by
A) Dial Thermometer
B) Sling’s Psychrometer
C) Globe Thermometer
D) Kata Thermometer

122. Number of air changes in one hour in a work room should be at least
A) 2-3
B) 3-4
C) 4-6
D) 5-7

123. Temperature in an Ice Lined Refrigeratoris recorded using
A) Dial Thermometer
B) Sling’s Psychrometer
C) Globe Thermometer
D) Kata Thermometer

124. Changes in occurrence of a disease over long periods of time are known as
A) Epidemics
B) Seasonal trends
C) Cyclical trends
D) Secular trends

125. Rapid rise and fall in epidemic curve without any secondary waves are seen in
A) Propagated epidemi
B) Point source epidemic, single exposure

C) Point source multiple exposure epidemic
D) Seasonal trend

Statement: Secondary prevention is an imperfect tool in control of transmission of disease.
126. Reason: It is more expensive than primary prevention
A) Statement is false but Reason is true
B) Both Statement and Reason are true
C) Statement is true but Reason is false
D) Both Statement and Reason are false

127. Vaccine Vial Monitor with the inner square lighter than outer circle
A) can be used
B) can be used but need to check for expiry
C) cannot to be used
D) cannot to be used if there are no sediments

128. Which of the following is a subcutaneous vaccine?
A) Measles
B) Tetanus toxoid
C) Pentavalent
D) Rotasil

129. The carrier state were shedding of organism occurs even after recovery from disease is
A) Incubatory
B) Healthy
C) Temporary
D) Convalescent

International Statistical Classification of Disease and Related Health Problems released in
130. 1993 was
A) 1st
B) 6th
C) 10th
D) 11th

131. Any restriction or inability to perform an activity is called as
A) Disease

B) Disability
C) Impairment
D) Handicap

132. How many diseases are covered by the National Vector Borne Disease Control Program?
A) 3
B) 5
C) 6
D) 9

133. The infection of vulval hair follicles is called as
A) Furunculosis
B) Intertrigo
C) Vulval cellulitis
D) Moniliasis

134. Subtotal Hysterectomy is removal of
A) part of uterus
B) uterus only
C) uterus and cervix
D) cervix only

135. Postmastectomy arm exercises include all of the following except
A) Pulley motion
B) Crossed arm
C) Weight lifting
D) Elbow rotation

136. Condylomata is caused by
A) Herpes simplex virus
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C) Human papilloma virus
D) Streptococcus ferus

137. VIA stands for
A) Vaginal inspection with acetic acid

B) Visual inspection with acetic acid
C) Vaginal injection with acetic acid
D) Visual injection with acetic acid

138. Differential diagnosis of Pelvic inflammatory disease include all of the following except
A) Generalized peritonitis
B) Appendicitis
C) Ovarian torsion
D) Rupture of ovarian cyst

139. High dose rate brachytherapy is
A) started at completion of teletherapy
B) done as inpatient procedure
C) done under mild sedation
D) given once only

140. The period following child birth is called as
A) Involution
B) Puerperium
C) Convolution
D) Antenatal

141. Successful outcome of trial labour depends on
A) Formation of caput
B) Posterior parietal presentation
C) Cervix becoming thick and edematous
D) Intact membrane till full dilation of cervix

142. Ala of both sides are absent in
A) Naegele’s pelvis
B) Robert’s pelvis
C) Both of the above
D) None of the above

143. All of the following are used to treat postpartum haemorrhage except
A) Oxytocin

B) Blood transfusion
C) Analgesics
D) Anti shock garment

144. Treatment for vaginal trichomoniasis is
A) Oral contraceptives
B) Cefixime
C) Gentamycin
D) Metronidazole

145. Normal position of uterus in pelvic cavity is
A) anteverted and anteflexed
B) anteverted and retroflexed
C) retroverted and anteflexed
D) retroverted and retroflexed

146. Irregular acyclic uterine bleeding is called as
A) Hypermenorrhoea
B) Hypomenorrhoea
C) Metrorrhagia
D) Polymenorrhoea

147. Curved legs, deformed pelvis, and pigeon chest in a child are seen in
A) Rickets
B) Osteomalacia
C) Keratomalacia
D) Beri-beri

148. Deficiency of thiamine during infancy may cause infantile…….
A) Scurvy
B) Rickets
C) Pellagra
D) Beri-Beri

149. Major risk factor for sudden infant death syndrome is
A) Breastfeeding

B) Sleeping on the stomach
C) Sleeping on the side
D) Sleeping on the back

150. Normal birth weight of a full-term baby is
A) 1-2 Kg
B) 1.5-2.5 Kg
C) 2.5-4 Kg
D) 3-5 Kg

151. Common sign of measles in children is
A) Convulsions
B) Cough
C) Jaundice
D) Rash

152. Best treatment for dehydration in children with diarrhoea is
A) Oral rehydration solution
B) Intravenous fluids
C) Nil per oral
D) Only water

153. First dose of Measles Rubella vaccine should be given at
A) At birth
B) 6-14 weeks
C) 9-10 months
D) 1.5 years

154. Reflex present at birth but disappears by 4–6 months is
A) Babinski reflex
B) Rooting reflex
C) Grasp reflex
D) Moro reflex

155. Best indicator of hydration status in infants is
A) Thirst

B) Number of wet diapers
C) Urine colour
D) Crying

156. Common genetic disorder with extra chromosome 21 is
A) Down syndrome
B) Edward syndrome
C) Patau syndrome
D) Turnersyndrome

157. Which food should be avoided in infants under one year of age due to risk of botulism?
A) Cow’s milk
B) Eggs
C) Honey
D) Rice

158. Most common paediatric cancer is
A) Brain tumour
B) Leukemia
C) Lymphoma
D) Neuroblastoma

159. At 4 years, legs comprise about …………… of body length
A) 33%
B) 44%
C) 55%
D) 67%

160. In Wilson-Mikity syndrome, the following are true except
A) Closely related to Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia
B) Significant prior mechanical ventilation
C) Related to abnormal ventilation-perfusion relationships
D) Coarse infiltrates alternating with cystic changes

161. Vital sign of Patent ductus is
A) Bradycardia

B) Bradypnea
C) Increased systolic Blood pressure
D) Increased Diastolic Blood pressure

162. Which of the following is not a sign of extra cardiac emboli?
A) Roth spots
B) White lines
C) Janeway lesions
D) Osler Nodes

163. All of the following are thioxanthene antipsychotics except
A) Thioridazine
B) Thiothixene
C) Flupenthixol
D) Zuclopenthixol

164. Symptoms of Rett syndrome that are also present in cerebral palsy are all except
A) Hypotonia
B) Ataxia
C) Dystonia
D) loss of speech

165. Spending consistent time with a depressed patient communicates
A) Obedience
B) Value and worth of the client
C) Routine
D) Monitoring for medication side effects

166. The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act was enacted in which year?
A) 1982
B) 1985
C) 1992
D) 1995

167. The priority nursing intervention for a severely depressed client is
A) Encourage group therapy participation

B) Monitor nutritional intake
C) Promote daily exercise
D) Assess for suicide ideation

168. Obsessive-compulsive disorder is classified as
A) Anxiety disorder
B) Mood disorder
C) Personality disorder
D) Schizophrenia

169. Major psychosis includes
A) Cyclothymia
B) Dysthymia
C) Neurosis
D) Schizophrenia

170. Hallucinations are disorders of
A) Insight
B) Mood
C) Perception
D) Thought

171. The hallmark symptom of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is
A) Hallucination
B) Flashbacks
C) Mania
D) Compulsions

172. Delusion of negation is also known as
A) Delusion of persecution
B) Delusion of grandeur
C) Nihilistic delusion
D) Delusion of guilt

173. The most common side effect of antipsychotic medications is
A) Alopecia

B) Diarrhoea
C) Rash
D) Weight gain

174. Regarding obsessive-compulsive personality disorder, the true statement is
A) Persons are ego dystonic
B) Persons are not aware of the condition
C) Persons are irrational
D) Persons are anxious

175. Which defence mechanism involves attributing one's unacceptable thoughts to another?
A) Projection
B) Sublimation
C) Regression
D) Denial

176. Fear of open spaces or crowds
A) Algophobia
B) Aerophobia
C) Agoraphobia
D) Anthropophobia

Which domain in Bloom’s Taxonomy includes knowledge, comprehension, applicationand
177. analysis?
A) Affective
B) Psychomotor
C) Cognitive
D) Social

178. The primary objective of curriculum development in nursing is to
A) Prepare textbooks
B) Achieve predetermined educational goals
C) Reduce course content
D) Encourage student attendance

179. The act of translating ideas into a coded message in communication is known as

A) Encoding
B) Decoding
C) Feedback
D) Channelling

180. An example of nonverbal communication in the classroom is
A) Writing
B) Speaking
C) Smile
D) Listening

The type of assessment generally carried out throughout a course and provides continuous
181. feedback is
A) Summative
B) Formative
C) Diagnostic
D) Comprehensive

182. Which of the following is not part of the psychomotor domain?
A) Organization
B) Imitation
C) Manipulation
D) Articulation

Formulation of philosophy and objectives occurs during which step of curriculum
183. development?
A) Implementation
B) Selection
C) Planning
D) Evaluation

184. Continuous education in nursing is essential for
A) Attendance
B) Regulatory compliance
C) Syllabus completion
D) Professional development

185. Who among the following is a proponent of pragmatism in education?
A) Plato
B) John Dewey
C) Immanuel Kant
D) Jean Piaget

186. “Nursing Rounds” is a form of
A) Lecture
B) Flipped Classroom
C) Seminar
D) Bedside clinic

187. The authority that flows from top to bottom in an organization is referred to as
A) Lateral organization
B) Line organization
C) Scalar chain
D) Span of control

188. The process to decide whether the functioning of an organization is good or bad is known as
A) Quality assurance
B) Inventory
C) Inspection
D) Supervision

189. The basic purpose of supervision in nursing is
A) To punish staff
B) To find fault
C) For paper work
D) To ensure standards and improve care

190. The style of leadership that dominates and commands the group is
A) Autocratic
B) Democratic
C) Laissez-faire
D) Situational

Time lapse between placement of order and delivery of material in material management is
191. called
A) Execution time
B) Lead time
C) Reorder time
D) Waiting time

192. In which year was International Council of Nurses (ICN) established?
A) 1869
B) 1899
C) 1929
D) 1969

193. In administration, the term 'delegation' refers to
A) Giving orders to others
B) Authority over others
C) Assigning tasks with responsibility to others
D) Taking orders from others

194. For effective administration, the best kind of organization is
A) Fully centralized
B) Compromise between centralization and decentralization
C) Fully decentralized
D) None of above

195. Which study design has a higher rank of evidence?
A) Cohort Study
B) Case-Control Study
C) Case Reports
D) Case Series

196. Which of the following is a probability sampling technique?
A) Convenience
B) Consecutive
C) Quota
D) Sequential

197. Which of the following is not a measure of accuracy?
A) Mean chart
B) Range chart
C) Levy Jennings (LJ) chart
D) Shewhart control chart

198. MeSH stands for
A) Medical Subject Headings
B) Medical Search Headings
C) Medicine Subject Headings
D) Medicine Search Headings

199. The lowest level of measurement of data is
A) Rating Level
B) Ordinal Level
C) Nominal Level
D) Ratio Level

200. Coefficient of correlation between two variables is 1.5. This indicates there is a
A) Positive correlation
B) Negative correlation
C) No correlation
D) Calculation error