Kerala PG Nursing 2026 Answer Key (Final)

FOR KERALA PG NURSING EXAM PREPARATION

Kerala PG Nursing 2026
Answer Key (Final)
EXAM YEAR TYPE

Kerala PG Nursing 2026 Answer Key (Final)

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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as FINAL ANSWER KEY ag
Question Paper Code: 20/2026/OL
Exam:MSc Nursing 2026
Date of Test: 26-07-2026

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A patient is admitted with a fracture of the humeral shaft. Which nerve is most at risk of

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1.

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injury?

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A) Median nerve
B) Ulnar nerve
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C)

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Radial nerve
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D)
Axillary ag
nerve

Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for the motor innervation of the muscles
2. of mastication?
A) Trigeminal nerve

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B) Facial nerve

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C) Glossopharyngeal nerve

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Vagus nerve
a
D)

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a
3. The primary visual cortex is located in which lobe of the cerebrum?
A) Frontal
B) Occipital
C) Parietal
D) Temporal
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c. Which em

4.m anatomical structure prevents food from entering the tracheasduring deglutition?
s eA ) Epiglottis g l a
gla B ) Larynx a
a C) Pharynx
D) Uvula

5. What is the longest bone in the human body?

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c. o m
A) Tibia

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B) Fibula
C) Humerus
D) Femur

Which unique anatomical structure contains the vital cardiorespiratory centers regulating
6. heart rate and respiration?
A) Cerebellum
B) Thalamus
C) Pons Medulla oblongata
D) Medulla oblongata

7. Which of the following hormones is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland?
A) Oxytocin
B) Growth hormone
C) Prolactin
D) Adrenocorticotropic hormone

8. What is the primary physiological pacemaker of the human heart?
A) Atrioventricular node
B) Bundle of His Purkinje fibers
C) Purkinje fibers
D) Sinoatrial node

Which cell type in the gastric mucosa is responsible for the secretion of intrinsic factor and
9. hydrochloric acid?
A) Chief cells
B) G-cells
C) Mucus neck cells
D) Parietal cells

Which neurotransmitter is exclusively released at the neuromuscular junction to initiate
10. skeletal muscle contraction?
A) Dopamine
B) Norepinephrine

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as C) Acetylcholine
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D) Serotonin

Which physiological mechanism is primarily responsible for the rapid depolarization phase of
11. an action potential in myocardial contractile cells?

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Influx of Calcium ions

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A)

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B) Efflux of Chloride ions

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C) Efflux of Potassium ions

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Influx of Sodium ions
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D)

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l : Option D a
a
Correct Answer

Which organelle is known as the powerhouse of the cell due to its role in ATP generation via
12. oxidative phosphorylation?
A) Golgi apparatus
B) Endoplasmic reticulum
C) Mitochondrion

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D) Lysosome

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em

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13.
A) a g
What is the end product of anaerobic glycolysis in human skeletal muscle?
Pyruvate
B) Acetyl-CoA
C) Lactate
D) Oxaloacetate

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Which metabolic pathway represents the final common pathway for the oxidation of

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14.
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carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins?

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A) Glycolysis pathway

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Urea cycle
ag
ag D)
Citric Acid Cycle
Pentose phosphate pathway

Deficiency of which vitamin leads to a prolonged prothrombin time and bleeding tendencies
15. due to defective gamma-carboxylation of clotting factors?
Vitamin A
c
A)

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B) Vitamin C

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C) Vitamin E
D) Vitamin K

Which plasma lipid component is inversely correlated with the risk of developing coronary
16. artery disease?
A) Chylomicrons
B) Very Low-Density Lipoprotein
C) Low-Density Lipoprotein
D) High-Density Lipoprotein

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by IgE antibodies and involves
17. immediate mast cell degranulation?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV

What is the fundamental structural component that distinguishes Gram-positive bacterial cell
18. walls from Gram-negative bacterial cell walls?
A) A thick peptidoglycan layer
B) An outer lipopolysaccharide membrane
C) The presence of plasmids
D) Chitin microfibrils

19. Which structure helps protect bacteria from phagocytosis by host immune cells?
A) Flagella
B) Pili
C) Capsule
D) Plasma membrane

20. What is the primary mode of transmission for Hepatitis A virus?
A) Parenteral transmission
B) Sexual contact
C) Faecal-oral route

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as D) Vector-borne
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Hospital-acquired infections that develop at least 48 hours after admission are professionally
21. termed as…………….infections:
A) Idiopathic

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Iatrogenic

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B)

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C) Nosocomial

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s
D) Opportunistic

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Which sterilization method is most appropriate for surgical instruments made of stainless
22. steel?
A) Autoclaving
B) Hot air oven
C) Pasteurization
D) Ultraviolet radiation

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c. o

A patient has a body mass index (BMI) of e m kg/m². How should the nurse classify this
23. nutritional status?
l a s 22.5

A) Normal weight ag
B) Overweight
C) Obese Class I
D) Underweight

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24. Which of the following is a classic clinical manifestation of Scurvy?
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Night blindness
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A)

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B) Osteomalacia
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Bleeding gums and petechiae
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ag Peripheral neuropathy

To promote optimal calcium absorption from the intestinal lumen into the bloodstream,
25. which active nutrient derivative must be present?
A) Calcitriol
Iron ions
c
B)

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C) Vitamin E matrix complexes

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D) Iron ionsVitamin C

To promote optimal iron absorption, a nurse should advise a patient to consume oral iron
26. supplements alongside which of the following?
A) Milk
B) Antacids
C) Orange juice
D) Hot tea

According to Abraham Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs, which level must be satisfied
27. immediately after physiological needs are met?
A) Love and belongingness
B) Self-actualization
C) Safety and security

D)
Self-esteem

Which psychological defence mechanism involves unconsciously shifting unacceptable
28. feelings or impulses from their original target to a less threatening substitute target?
A) Sublimation
B) Projection
C) Displacement
D) Rationalization

According to Erik Erikson's stages of psychosocial development, what is the primary
29. developmental task during adolescence?
A) Trust vs. Mistrust
B) Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
C) Industry vs. Inferiority
D) Identity vs. Role Confusion

What term defines a false sensory perception experienced in the absence of any real
30. external stimulus?
A) Illusion
B) Delusion

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as C) Hallucination
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D) Obsession

In classical conditioning paradigms, if a subject stops demonstrating a conditioned response
31. after the conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus,

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this process is known as:

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A) Extinction
Generalization
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B)

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Spontaneous recovery
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C)
D)
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Discrimination tracking
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a : Option A
Correct Answer

A sudden, unexpected, and overwhelming wave of fear and anxiety that peaks within
32. minutes in the absence of apparent danger is classified as:
A) Generalized anxiety
B) Obsessive-compulsive ritual

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C) Phobia

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D) Panic attack

s em
a

l
ag by which individuals learn and internalize the values,
Which concept describes the process
33. beliefs, and norms of a given society?
A) Stratification
B) Assimilation
C) Socialization
D) Acculturation

o m
c

o m type of family structure consists of a married couple and their biological
m . or adopted
c
34. . children living together without other relatives?
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What

s eA ) Nuclear family g l a
gla B ) Extended family a
a C) Joint family
D) Patriarchal family

The unequal distribution of wealth, power, and prestige among different social classes in a
35.
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society is known as:
A) Social mobility
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B) Social control
C) Social stratification
D) Social cohesion

When a nurse experiences conflicting professional expectations from hospital administration
36. and personal expectations from their family, this is termed as:
A) Role conflict
B) Role strain
C) Status inconsistency
D) Anomie

What type of social group is characterized by intimate, face-to-face, long-term relationships,
37. such as a family or a close group of friends?
A) Primary group
B) Secondary group
C) In-group
D) Out-group

Rapid cultural transformation where material culture advances faster than non-material
38. culture are termed:
A) Cultural shock
B) Cultural assimilation
C) Cultural diffusion
D) Cultural lag

Which technique is used to open the airway of an unconscious trauma patient with a
39. suspected cervical spine injury?
A) Head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver
B) Jaw-thrust maneuver
C) Hyperextension of the neck
D) Prone rotation maneuver

What term describes a high-pitched, continuous crowing sound heard over the larynx or
40. trachea during inspiration, indicating an upper airway obstruction?
A) Wheeze

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as B) Rhonchi
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C) Stridor
D) Crackles

41. What is the primary purpose of the 'Nursing Process' in clinical practice?

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A) To establish legal documentation for health care institutions

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B) To evaluate the cost-effectiveness of nursing interventions

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a
C) To standardize medical treatments across different departments

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a
To provide a systematic, client-centered method for structuring nursing care
a
D)

g l : Option D
a
Correct Answer

While administering an intramuscular injection using the Z-track technique, what is the
42. primary rationale for pulling the skin laterally before insertion?
A) To decrease the pain experienced by the patient
B) To avoid hitting deep blood vessels and nerves
C) To ensure the needle reaches the deep muscle layer

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D) To prevent leakage of the medication into subcutaneous tissues

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g l a
a
What is the correct sequence of steps when performing a physical assessment of the
43. respiratory system?
A) Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
B) Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
C) Auscultation, Inspection, Palpation, Percussion
D) Inspection, Percussion, Palpation, Auscultation

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m performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an adult patient, co
. what is the
. o
44. crecommended
While
e m
m
eA ) 15:2
compression-to-ventilation ratio for a single rescuer?
l a s
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la B ) 30:1 a g
ag C) 5:1
D) 30:2

Which transmission-based precaution is strictly required when caring for a patient diagnosed
45. with active Pulmonary Tuberculosis?

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c. o m
A) Contact precautions

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B) Droplet precautions
C) Airborne precautions
D) Standard precautions only

What is the standard position for a patient undergoing a sigmoidoscopy or lumbar puncture
46. assessment setup helper?
A) Prone position
B) Trendelenburg position
C) Lateral recumbent position
D) Lithotomy position

Which type of primary wound healing occurs when a surgical incision is cleanly sutured or
47. stapled with minimal tissue loss?
A) Primary intention
B) Secondary intention
C) Tertiary intention
D) Granular intention

What is the first clinical action a nurse should take immediately following a medication
48. administration error?
A) Complete an incident report form
B) Notify the physician immediately
C) Inform the nursing supervisor
D) Assess the patient's condition and vital signs

The legal term that defines a nurse’s failure to perform professional duties according to
49. accepted standards of care, resulting in injury to a patient, is:
A) Negligence
B) Defamation
C) Battery
D) Assault

When checking an adult patient's tympanic membrane temperature, how should the nurse
50. manipulate the pinna?
A) Pull the pinna down and back

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as B) Pull the pinna straight back
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C) Pull the pinna up and back
D) Pull the pinna down and forward

51. What is the primary clinical indicator that a patient has developed a Stage 1 pressure injury?

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A) Partial-thickness skin loss involving epidermis

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B) Exposed bone, tendon, or muscle tissue

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a
C) Full-thickness skin loss with visible subcutaneous fat

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a
Non-blanchable erythema of intact skin
a
D)

g l : Option D
a
Correct Answer

Which of the following defines an objective finding observed or measured directly by the
52. healthcare provider during an examination?
A) Sign
B) Symptom
C) Syndrome

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D) History

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What is the minimum recommended duration for performing a standard, friction-based
53. hygienic handwash in a clinical setting?
A) 20 seconds
B) 40 seconds
C) 60 seconds
D) 5 minutes

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m checking a patient’s peripheral pulses, the nurse notes a bounding co
.pulse that is
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54. cextremely
While
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strong. How should this be documented on a standard
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0
a s
to 4+ scale?

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la B ) 2+ a g
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D) 4+

Which moral principle in nursing ethics obligates the professional to act in the best interest
55. of the patient and actively promote good?

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c. o m
A) Autonomy

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B) Non-maleficence
C) Beneficence
D) Justice

56. What is the most reliable clinical site for evaluating central cyanosis in a critically ill patient?
A) Nailbeds of fingers and toes
B) Earlobes
C) Tongue and oral mucous membranes
D) Sclera

What is the primary purpose of performing passive range-of-motion exercises for an
57. immobilized patient?
A) To increase muscle strength and mass
B) To maintain joint flexibility and prevent contractures
C) To accelerate fat metabolism
D) To elevate baseline cardiac output

While changing a surgical wound dressing, the nurse notes thick, yellow-green drainage with
58. a foul odor. How should this exudate be precisely documented?
A) Serous exudate
B) Sanguineous exudate
C) Serosanguineous exudate
D) Purulent exudates

When verifying a patient’s identity prior to administering a blood product, which two
59. indicators are universally considered valid?
A) Room number and primary diagnosis
B) Full name and medical record number
C) Bed label and attending physician's name
D) Chief complaint and age

The nurse calculates a patient's total fluid intake and output (I&O). Oliguria in an adult is
60. clinically defined as a urine output of less than………. In 24 hours:
A) 100 mL

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as B) 400 mL
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C) 1000 mL
D) 1500 mL

While performing a wound dressing change, the nurse drops a sterile gauze pad onto the
61.
m
clean bedside table. Which action should the nurse take next?
A)

om
Pick it up with sterile forceps and use it
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s
B) Spray the pad with antiseptic solution

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Rinse the pad with normal saline before application
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C)
D)

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Discard the pad and open a new sterile package
a
a : Option D
Correct Answer

What is the recommended size of the needle gauge and angle of insertion for administering
62. an intradermal injection, such as a Mantoux test?
A) 18 gauge at a 30 - 45-degree angle
B) 22 gauge at a 90-degree angle

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C) 26 to 27 gauge at a 5 to 15-degree angle
D) 25 gauge at a 30-degree angle
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s em
l a

a g
Which phase of the therapeutic nurse-patient relationship involves establishing parameters,
63. building trust, and identifying goals?
A) Orientation phase
B) Pre-interaction phase
C) Working phase

D)
Termination phase
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c. Which m

m narrow small airways? s e
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ag
breath sound is characterized by high-pitched, musical whistling sounds caused by
a
64.
gl
a A)
B)
Crackles
Stridor
C) Pleural friction rub
D) Wheeze

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c. o
What is the name of the legal document that allows a patient to state their specific choices

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65.
e
for medical treatment before a life-threatening illness occurs?

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A) Informed Consent document
B) Incident Report
C) Advance Directive
D) Power of Attorney registry

While evaluating an intravenous (IV) site, the nurse notes that the skin is cool to the touch,
66. pale, swollen, and the fluid flow has slowed down. What complication does this indicate?
A) Phlebitis
B) Infiltration
C) Thrombophlebitis
D) Local infection

Which of the following dimensions represents the standard depth of a chest compression for
67. an adult during high-quality CPR?
A) 1 to 1.5 inches
B) 2 to 2.5 inches
C) 3 to 3.5 inches
D) 4 inches completely

A patient is prescribed oxygen therapy at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. What estimated fraction
68. of inspired oxygen (FiO2) is delivered at this rate?
A) 21%
B) 24%
C) 28%
D) 36%

Which laboratory value is most critical for a nurse to monitor closely in a patient receiving
69. therapeutic doses of Heparin infusion?
A) Prothrombin Time (PT)
B) International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C) Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
D) Platelet count only

70. What is considered the antidote for an acute overdose of Acetaminophen (Paracetamol)?

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as A) Protamine sulfate
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B) Naloxone
C) N-acetylcysteine
D) Flumazenil

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A patient is prescribed Digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following parameters must be
71.
om .
assessed immediately prior to administration?

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A) Apical pulse for 1 full minute Blood pressure

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Blood pressure
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B)

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C) Respiratory rate for 1 full minute
D) Axillary temperature

72. What is the mechanism of action of loop diuretics like Furosemide?
A) Inhibits Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle
B) Blocks sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule

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C) Antagonizes aldosterone receptors in the thick descending limb of the loop of Henle

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D) Inhibits carbonic anhydrase in the proximal tubule

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g

a
Which of the following is a potential major adverse effect associated with the administration
73. of Aminoglycoside antibiotics?
A) Hepatotoxicity
B) Haemolytic anaemia
C) Aplastic anaemia
D) Ototoxicity

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o m
c. o
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em patient to expect which common side effect? l a s
When administering Nitroglycerin sublingually for angina, the nurse should
s
74.
la A ) Bradycardia a g
ag B) Blurred vision
C) Hypertension
D) Headache

c
75.
m .
Which of the following medications is a selective beta-1 adrenergic antagonist?

c. o e m
A) Propranolol

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B) Labetalol
C) Carvedilol
D) Atenolol

76. What is the primary therapeutic indication for the use of Naloxone?
A) Benzodiazepine toxicity
B) Barbiturate overdose
C) Opioid-induced respiratory depression
D) Tricyclic antidepressant poisoning

An insulin infusion is started for a patient with Diabetic Ketoacidosis. Which type of insulin is
77. the only one formulated for intravenous route safety?
A) Regular Insulin
B) NPH Insulin
C) Insulin Glargine
D) Insulin Lispro

Which antihypertensive class is strictly contraindicated during pregnancy due to high risks of
78. fetal renal failure and malformations?
A) Calcium Channel Blockers
B) Beta Blockers
C) Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitors
D) Alpha-2 agonists

Which of the following cellular adaptations refers to an increase in the size of individual cells,
79. leading to an increase in the size of the organ?
A) Atrophy
B) Hypertrophy
C) Hyperplasia
D) Metaplasia

What type of necrosis is most characteristic of ischemic injury and infarction in solid organs
80. like the kidney, heart, and adrenal glands?
A) Coagulative necrosis

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as B) Liquefactive necrosis
ag
C) Caseous necrosis
D) Fat necrosis

What is the primary histological feature that distinguishes a malignant tumor from a benign
81.
m
tumor?
A)

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Cellular differentiation
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s
B) Presence of an intact capsule
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Infiltration and invasion of surrounding tissues
g
C)
D)

g l a
Slow growth rate
a
a : Option C
Correct Answer

Which type of shock is primarily caused by a massive systemic release of histamine and
82. other inflammatory mediators, leading to widespread vasodilation?
A) Hypovolemic shock
B) Cardiogenic shock

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C) Anaphylactic shock
D) Neurogenic shock
. co
s em
l a

a g
The pathognomonic "Aschoff nodules" found within myocardial tissue are highly diagnostic
83. of which disease process?
A) Rheumatic Heart Disease
B) Infective endocarditis
C) Myocardial infarction
D) Dilated cardiomyopathy

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m c. o

o is the hallmark pathophysiological finding in the lungs of a patient
84. .cWhat emwith Emphysema?
eAm
l a s
l as B ) Chronic inflammation of the bronchioles with excessive mucusagproduction
) Acute exudative consolidation of lung fields

ag C ) Fibrotic scarring of lung parenchyma
D) Permanent, abnormal destruction of alveolar walls

Which hereditary disorder is characterized by a deficiency of Factor VIII, leading to severe
85. coagulation defects and joint hemorrhages?

m . c
c. o m
A) Hemophilia A

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B) Hemophilia B
C) Von Willebrand disease

D)
Thalassemia major

Reed-Sternberg cells observed on a lymph node biopsy specimen are a diagnostic
86. prerequisite for which malignancy?
A) Hodgkin Lymphoma
B) Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma
C) Multiple Myeloma
D) Acute Myeloid Leukemia

A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of Acute Infective Endocarditis. Which clinical
87. manifestation is a classic immunologically-mediated microvascular finding seen on the pads
of the fingers or toes?
A) Janeway lesions
B) Roth spots
C) Splinter hemorrhages
D) Osler's nodes

While caring for a patient with advanced Multiple Sclerosis, the nurse notes the development
88. of scanning speech, intention tremors, and nystagmus. These findings collectively represent
pathological damage to which region of the central nervous system?
A) Cerebellum
B) Cortical ganglia
C) Frontal motor cortex
D) Occipital cortex

A patient presents with acute epigastric pain radiating to the back, accompanied by nausea
89. and vomiting. Laboratory tests reveal markedly elevated serum amylase and lipase levels.
What condition do these findings support?
A) Acute appendicitis
B) Acute cholecystitis
C) Acute pancreatitis
D) Peptic ulcer perforation

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as Correct Answer : Option C
ag
While monitoring a patient on the first postoperative day following an abdominal surgery, the
90. nurse notes a sudden evisceration of the surgical wound. What should be the immediate
nursing action?
A) Carefully push the protruding organs back into the abdominal cavity

m
B) Cover the protruding organs with sterile dressings moistened with sterile normal saline

om . co
C) Apply a tight abdominal binder over the incision site

.c
Place the patient in a high Fowler's position immediately
e m
s
D)

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e l a
l a s
a g
a g
During the immediate postoperative recovery phase following a total thyroidectomy, the
91. nurse notes that the patient develops muscle twitching, positive Chvostek's sign, and
laryngeal stridor. Which electrolyte imbalance is responsible?
A) Hypovolemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hyponatremia
Hypocalcemia
m
D)

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g
What is the primary purpose of executing deep breathing and coughing exercises every 2

a
92. hours for a postoperative patient who underwent general anesthesia?
A) To decrease the incidence of deep vein thrombosis
B) To prevent atelectasis and hypostatic pneumonia
C) To reduce the demand for postoperative narcotic analgesics
D) To stimulate early return of gastrointestinal peristalsis

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m c. o
c. o
A patient returns from surgery with a chest tube connected to a three-chamber water-seal
93. drainage system. The nurse notes continuous, vigorous bubbling in the water-seal chamber.
e m
eAm)
How should this observation be interpreted?
la s
s
la B )
There is an active air leak somewhere
ag
ag C)
This is a normal finding indicating lung re-expansion
The suction pressure settings are dangerously high
D) The drainage tube is completely occluded by a clot

Which type of intestinal obstruction occurs when a segment of the bowel telescopes into an
94.
c
adjacent segment?
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c. o m
Intussusception
e
A)

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B) Volvulus
C) Herniation
D) Paralytic ileus

A patient is scheduled for an emergency appendectomy. Which pre-operative nursing
95. intervention is strictly contraindicated for this patient?
A) Maintaining NPO status
B) Administering prescribed pre-operative antibiotics
C) Securing intravenous access for fluid resuscitation
D) Applying a warm heating pad to the right lower quadrant to relieve pain

While evaluating a patient who is in the post-anesthesia care unit following general
96. anesthesia, which clinical sign indicates a rare, life-threatening crisis known as malignant
hyperthermia?
A) Sudden drop in core body temperature and bradycardia
B) Sudden onset of an widespread maculopapular rash
C) Profound respiratory depression and generalized flaccidity
D) Rapid rise in end-tidal carbon dioxide levels, and hyperpyrexia

A patient is diagnosed with acute cholecystitis and is scheduled for a cholecystectomy.
97. Which clinical sign is elicited by assessing sharp pain during deep inspiration while
palapating the right subcostal area?
A) McBurney's sign
B) Murphy's sign
C) Cullen's sign

D)
Turner's sign

What is the standard positioning strategy for a patient during the first 24 hours following a
98. right-sided pneumonectomy?
A) Positioned on the right side or back
B) Turned onto the left side exclusively
C) Trendelenburg position to improve cerebral perfusion
D) Flat supine with no head elevation

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co m .
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as 99. ag
A patient is undergoing pre-operative preparation for a colon resection. What is the primary
purpose of administering oral neomycin or erythromycin to this patient prior to surgery?
A) To treat an active systemic bloodstream infection
B) To minimizing the risk of postoperative peritonitis
C) To accelerate gastric emptying time
D) To prevent the development of deep vein thrombosis

o m
m
o following an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of a m . c
100. fractured femur, the.cnurse notes severe pain unalleviated by opioids, pain with passive se
While assessing a patient

s em g l a
la syndrome a
stretching, pulselessness, and pallor. What surgical emergency is developing?
A)
B) ag
Compartment
Osteomyelitis
C) Fat embolism syndrome
D) Deep vein thrombosis

m
A patient with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease is prescribed low-flow oxygen

co
101. therapy. What is the physiological rationale for avoiding high concentrations of oxygen in this
.
em
patient?

a s
A) High oxygen levels suppress the hypoxic drive to breathe
High oxygen levels can cause alveolar collapse
g l
a
B)
C) Oxygen toxicity damages the mucosal lining of the trachea
D) It increases the risk of metabolic acidosis

A patient is diagnosed with Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA). Which breathing pattern is typically
102. observed as a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis?

m
c. o
A) Apneustic breathing

o m Cheyne-Stokes respirations
m
c
B)

Dm
. C) Biot's respirations
s e
s e la
ag
Kussmaul respirations

la Correct Answer : Option D
)

ag
Which type of myocardial infarction is characteristically identified by a new, pathological Q
103. wave on a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG)?
A) Transmural (STEMI) myocardial infarction
B) Non-ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI)
C) Subendocardial ischemia

m . c
c. o
D) Transient coronary artery vasospasm

e m
m a s
se
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A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) presents with a serum potassium level of 6.8
104. mEq/L. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering first to protect the
myocardium from dangerous arrhythmias?
A) Sodium polystyrene sulfonate
B) Furosemide
C) Regular insulin with 50% dextrose
D) Calcium gluconate

While monitoring a patient who has liver cirrhosis and advanced portal hypertension, which
105. assessment finding requires the most immediate emergency intervention?
A) Prominent abdominal veins
B) Coffee-ground emesis
C) Bilateral pitting lower extremity edema
D) Asterixis

A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of acute Guillain-Barré Syndrome. Which clinical
106. assessment parameter is most critical for the nurse to monitor closely?
A) Vital capacity and respiratory rate
B) Deep tendon reflexes in the lower extremities
C) Cranial nerve VII function
D) Serum sodium levels

What is the classic clinical triad of symptoms indicative of a patient suffering from advanced
107. Parkinson's disease?
A) Tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia
B) Ataxia, nystagmus, and intentional tremors
C) Spasticity, hemiparesis, and aphasia
D) Headache, vomiting, and papilledema

A patient is diagnosed with Addisons disease. Which electrolyte profile is most characteristic
108. of an Addisonian crisis?
A) Hypernatremia and hypokalemia
B) Hypokalemia and hypocalcemia
C) Hypercalcemia and hypernatremia

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co m .
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as D) Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia
ag

Which type of primary generalized seizure is characterized by a sudden, brief cessation of
109. motor activity and ablank stare, most commonly observed in children?
A) Tonic-clonic seizure

m
Myoclonic seizure

co
B)

om .
C) Petit mal seizure

.c e m
s
D) Atonic seizure

em l a
l a s
a g
g
a with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) suddenly develops sharp chest pain,
A patient
110. tachycardia, and severe dyspnea. What complication should the nurse immediately
suspect?
A) Acute pulmonary embolism
B) Myocardial infarction
C) Spontaneous pneumothorax

m
D) Pleural effusion

. co
em

l a s
g
What is the drug of choice for treating a patient with diabetes insipidus who presents with
a
111. severe polyuria and polydipsia?
A) Desmopressin
B) Furosemide
C) Regular insulin
D) Spironolactone

m
m c. o
c. o
A patient is recovering from a lumbar laminectomy. When turning this patient in bed, which
m
112. method must the nurse use to protect the spinal alignment?
s e
s em Logrolling the patient as a single unit using a turn sheet
la
ag
A)

gla
B) Turning the upper body first, then the lower body

a C)
D)
Assisting the patient to a sitting position before turning
Having the patient pull themselves over using the side rails

113. Who is considered the ultimate unit of service in Community Health Nursing?
A) The individual

m . c
c. o
The village council
m
B)

m s e
se
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C) The community groups
D) The family

The constant, habitual presence of a specific disease or infectious agent within a defined
114. geographic area or population group is termed as:
A) Endemic
B) Epidemic
C) Pandemic
D) Sporadic

What is the primary target population for services provided at a Sub-Center under rural
115. health schemes in India?
A) 1,000 population
B) 3,000 to 5,000 population
C) 20,000 to 30,000 population
D) 100,000 population

What is the standard storage temperature range required for maintaining vaccines under the
116. cold chain system?
A) -20°C to -40°C
B) -8°C to 0°C
C) +2°C to +8°C
D) +15°C to +25°C

The number of new cases of a specific disease developing in a defined population during a
117. specific period is known as the:
A) Incidence rate
B) Prevalence rate
C) Mortality rate
D) Attack rate

118. Which vector is primarily responsible for transmitting Dengue fever to humans?
A) Anopheles mosquito
B) Culex mosquito

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co m .
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as C) Aedes aegypti mosquito
ag
D) Mansonia mosquito

Oral Rehydration Salts (ORS) formula recommended by WHO contains which of the
119. following combinations?

m
Sodium chloride, Glucose, Potassium chloride, Trisodium citrate

co
A)

om .
B) Calcium chloride, Sucrose, Sodium bicarbonate, Magnesium sulfate

.c e m
s
C) Sodium chloride, Fructose, Calcium carbonate, Zinc sulfate

em l a
s
Potassium chloride, Lactose, Sodium citrate, Iron sulphate
g
D)

g a
l : Option A a
a
Correct Answer

Which historical occupational lung disease is caused by the chronic inhalation of fine
120. crystalline silica dust, commonly affecting workers in stone crushing, mining, and
sandblasting industries?
A) Asbestosis
B) Bagassosis

m
C) Byssinosis

. co
D) Silicosis

s em
a

l
ag reaction?
Which contraceptive method acts primarily
121. mucus through a localized foreign-body
by preventing implantation and altering cervical

A) Oral contraceptive pills
B) Tubectomy
C) Condoms
D) Intrauterine Device

o m
c

o m indicator is widely accepted as the most sensitive index for evaluating
m . a community's
c
122.. overall health status and socioeconomic development?
s e
m
What

s eA ) Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) g l a
gla B ) Cause-specific death rate (CSDR) a
a C) Crude Birth Rate (CBR)
D) Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)

Under the National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme (NVBDCP), what is the

m
123. definitive drug of choice used for radical treatment of Vivax malaria to prevent clinical
. c
c. o e m
relapses?

m a s
se
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A) Primaquine
B) Chloroquine only
C) Artesunate
D) Quinine sulphate

What type of immunity is acquired by an individual following a natural infection from a
124. disease-causing pathogen?
A) Active artificial immunity
B) Passive natural immunity
C) Active natural immunity
D) Passive artificial immunity

Which of the following is the primary chemical agent used for the disinfection of drinking
125. water pools or large public wells?
A) Potassium permanganate
B) Bleaching powder
C) Formalin Solution
D) Copper sulphate

126. The structural triad of epidemiology includes which three interactive components?
A) Doctor, Nurse, Patient
B) Input, Process, Output
C) Agent, Host, Environment
D) Diagnosis, Treatment, Prognosis

Who is the frontline community health worker under the National Health Mission scheme
127. acting as a bridge between the community and public health systems?
A) Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA)
B) Anganwadi Worker (AWW)
C) Auxiliary Nurse Midwife (ANM)

D)
Lady Health Visitor (LHV)

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co m .
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as ag
What is the standard incubation period of the rabies virus following a typical animal bite
128. wound?
A) 1 to 2 days
B) 1 to 3 months
C) exactly 24 hours
D) 5 to 10 years

o m
m
o is recommended . c
129. community outreach.chealth e m
s
Which screening method for the early detection of cervical cancer at the

em l a
camp level?
A) Mammography s
la scans a g
B)
C) Complete
g
a blood counts and urine analysis
Pelvic ultrasound

D) Visual Inspection with Acetic Acid

130. What is the fundamental goal of tertiary prevention within a community setting?

m
co
A) Eradicating a disease source before it impacts hosts
B) Minimizing residual disabilities
.
C) Routine screening of asymptomatic populations
s em
D) Implementing environmental legislation
g l a
Correct Answer : Option B a
The presence of 'Koplik's spots' on the buccal mucosa is a pathognomonic diagnostic sign
131. for which communicable viral disease?
A) Varicella
B) Rubella

m
C) Rubeola

m c. o
c. o m
D)

e
Variola

emCorrect Answer : Option C l a s
las a g
g
a 132. municipal drinking water supply?
Which biological index is used to measure the level of fecal contamination in a community's

A) Coliform count
B) Total dissolved solids (TDS) count
C) Dissolved oxygen levels

D)
Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) index

m . c
c. o s e m
m a
se
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What is the drug of choice for preventing and managing seizures in a patient diagnosed with
133. severe eclampsia?
A) Diazepam
B) Phenytoin
C) Magnesium sulfate
D) Labetalol

While monitoring a fetal heart rate tracing, the nurse notes early decelerations. How should
134. the nurse interpret this finding?
A) Uteroplacental insufficiency requiring emergency oxygen delivery
B) Umbilical cord compression requiring position changes
C) Head compression during contractions requiring no action
D) Maternal hypotension following epidural placement

A multigravida patient at 38 weeks of gestation is diagnosed with a complete abruptio
135. placentae. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse anticipate?
A) Painless, soft, non-tender uterus
B) Subnormal body temperature
C) Increased fetal movement
D) Severe abdominal pain accompanied by a rigid, board-like uterus

What is the specific clinical rationale for administering Rho(D) immune globulin to an Rh-
136. negative mother within 72 hours of delivering an Rh-positive infant?
A) To prevent active antibody production in the mother protecting future pregnancies
B) To treat existing hemolytic disease in the newborn infant
C) To stimulate early uterine involution and minimize postpartum hemorrhage
D) To boost the neonatal passive immunity barrier

When evaluating a postpartum patient 4 hours after a normal vaginal delivery, the nurse
137. notes that the fundus is boggy and displaced to the right side of the umbilicus. What is the
initial nursing action?
A) Assist the patient to empty her bladder, then re-evaluate the fundus
B) Administer an immediate dose of oxytocin, then re-evaluate the fundus
C) Perform vigorous fundal massage for 30 minutes continuous

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co m .
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as D) Place the patient in a prone position, then re-evaluate the fundus
ag

A patient is diagnosed with an unruptured ectopic pregnancy in the fallopian tube. Which
138. systemic medication should the nurse anticipate administering to terminate the pregnancy
conservatively?

m
A) Mifepristone

om . co
B) Methotrexate
Oxytocin
.c e m
s
C)
Misoprostol
em l a
s
D)

a
l : Option B a g
ag
Correct Answer

Which of the following parameters constitutes a positive, definitive diagnostic sign of
139. pregnancy rather than a presumptive or probable sign?
A) Positive serum hCG pregnancy test
B) Amenorrhea and morning sickness
C) Auscultation of fetal heart tones

m
D) Hegar's sign and Chadwick's sign changes

. co
em

140. standard 28-day cycle, on which daygdoes
s
la ovulation usually take place?
A woman tracking her menstrual cycle wants to know when ovulation typically occurs. In a

A) Day 7
a
B) Day 10
C) Day 14
D) Day 21

m
m c. o
c. o
What is the primary clinical definition of Primary Postpartum Hemorrhage (PPH) following a
m
141. vaginal delivery?
s e
s em Estimated blood loss of more than 200 mL within the first 24 hours of delivery
la
ag
A)

gla
B) Blood loss exceeding 500 mL within the first 24 hours of delivery

a C)
D)
Blood loss exceeding 1000 mL occurring 48 hours postpartum
Persistent trickling of lochia rubra for 6 consecutive days

What is the clinical name for the structural sign elicited when a healthcare provider
142. visualizes a softening of the lower uterine segment during an early pelvic examination

m . c
around 6–8 weeks of gestation?

c. o e m
A) Goodell's sign

m a s
se
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B) Ladin's sign
C) Chadwick's sign
D) Hegar's sign

Which medication is strictly contraindicated for a patient with postpartum hemorrhage who
143. has a history of severe gestational hypertension?
A) Oxytocin
B) Misoprostol
C) Carboprost tromethamine
D) Methylergonovine

A nurse instructions a prenatal group about the physiological changes of pregnancy. What
144. causes the characteristic purplish-blue discoloration of the cervix and vaginal mucosa?
A) Localized bacterial infection of the transformation zone
B) Ischemic atrophy of the lower uterine segment
C) Hypertrophy of the cervical mucus glands
D) Hyperemia induced by estrogen

A pregnant woman at 34 weeks of gestation presents to the triage unit with painless, bright
145. red vaginal bleeding. Which condition should the nurse suspect first?
A) Abruptio placentae
B) Placenta previa
C) Ectopic pregnancy
D) Molar pregnancy

What is considered the definitive clinical sign marking the onset of the second stage of
146. labour?
A) Complete cervical effacement
B) Full dilation of the cervix to 10 cm
C) Rupture of the amniotic membranes
D) Appearance of the fetal head at the introitus

Which congenital gastrointestinal defect is characterized by a structural malformation where
147. the abdominal contents herniate through the umbilical ring, covered safely by a peritoneal
sac?

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co m .
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as A) Gastroschisis
ag
B) Diaphragmatic hernia
C) Umbilical hernia
D) Omphalocele

m
co
A 2-year-old child is admitted with a diagnosis of acute Laryngotracheobronchitis. Which
148. clinical manifestation is characteristic of this condition?
o mwheeze m .
A)
c
. episodes
High-pitched expiratory
s e
m
e with thick purulent sputum l a
s
Intermittent silent apneic
g
B)
C)
Barking, g
a
l cough and inspiratory stridor
Productive cough
a
D)
a brassy

What is the primary clinical feature of a child suffering from Kwashiorkor that distinguishes it
149. from Marasmus?
A) Severe muscle wasting

m
B) Prominent ribs and alert appearance
C) Absence of subcutaneous fat
. co
em
Generalized edema
s
D)

g l a
a

A child with Hirschsprung's disease is being prepared for surgery. Which type of stool
150. pattern is classically reported by parents during the history assessment?
A) Fatty, foul-smelling stools
B) Ribbon-like, foul-smelling stools
C) Stools containing bright red blood and mucus

m
D) Frequent watery liquid green, foul-smelling stools

m c. o
c. o e m

em What l a s
s
la A ) Indomethacin ag
is the drug of choice for closing a hemodynamically significant Patent Ductus
151.
g
Arteriosus in a premature infant without surgical intervention?
a B) Alprostadil
C) Digoxin
D) Furosemide

m . c
c. o
152. At what age does a normally developing child typically double their baseline birth weight?
e m
m a s
se
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A) 2 to 3 months
B) 5 to 6 months
C) 10 to 12 months
D) 1.5 - 2 years

While performing a developmental screen on an 18-month-old toddler, which behaviour
153. indicates a normal milestone achievement?
A) Speaks in complete 5-word sentences
B) Walks independently
C) Ties shoelaces independently
D) Builds a tower of 10 blocks without dropping

According to psychosocial development theories outlined by Jean Piaget, which stage of
154. cognitive development matches a child between the ages of 2 and 7 years old?
A) Sensorimotor stage
B) Preoperational stage
C) Concrete operational stage
D) Formal operational stage

What is the correct clinical technique used to evaluate a young child for the presence of
155. Kernig's sign, indicating meningeal irritation?
A) Flexing the child's neck forward, observing for involuntary flexion of the hips and knees
B) Flexing the hip and knee to 90 degrees, then attempting to extend the knee
C) Tapping the facial nerve anterior to the ear, observing for muscle twitching

D)
Compressing the calf muscle, noting sharp localized plantar flexion pain

To prevent the development of physiological neural adaptations associated with ophthalmia
156. neonatorum, which ophthalmic ointment is universally administered to newborns
immediately after birth?
A) Hydrocortisone 1% ophthalmic ointment
B) Erythromycin 0.5% ophthalmic ointment
C) Nystatin drops
D) Atropine solution

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as ag
A 6-week-old male infant is brought to the clinic due to a history of forceful, non-bilious
projectile vomiting immediately following each feeding. On examination, the infant is hungry,
157. dehydrated, and an olive-shaped mass is palpable in the epigastrium. What condition is
present?
A) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
B) Intussusception
C) Hirschsprung's disease

m
Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis
o
D)

Correct Answer : Option D m . c
.co s e m
e mthe anterior fontanelle of a normally developing infant typically closela
158. completely?a
l s
At what age does
a g
A) ag
2 to 3 months
B) 6 to 8 months
C) 12 to 18 months
D) 24 to 30 months

m
co
A child has a primary diagnosis of Celiac Disease. Which food item must be strictly
.
159. eliminated from this child's daily menu layout?

s em
a
A) Boiled rice corn products
Gluten products
g l
a
B)
C) Pasteurized milk shakes
D) Fresh citrus fruit juices

According to the current Immunization Schedule in India, at what age should the first dose of
160. Measles-Rubella (MR) vaccine be administered?

m
c. o
A) At birth

o m 6 weeks of age
m
c
B)

Dm
. C) 9 to 12 months of age
s e
s e la
ag
15 to 18 months of age

la Correct Answer : Option C
)

ag
Which developmental milestone is typically achieved by a normally developing 8-month-old
161. infant?
A) Walking without support
B) Sitting steadily without support
C) Saying 3-4 meaningful words

m . c
c. o
D) Building a tower of three blocks

e m
m a s
se
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A child is diagnosed with Tetralogy of Fallot. Which four congenital heart defects
162. characterize this condition?
A) ASD, VSD, Pulmonary stenosis, Left ventricular hypertrophy
B) VSD, Overriding aorta, Pulmonary stenosis, Right ventricular hypertrophy
C) PDA, Coarctation of aorta, VSD, Mitral stenosis
D) ASD, Transposition of great vessels, VSD, Right ventricular hypertrophy

A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia believes that the news anchor on television is
163. broadcasting secret personal messages directed specifically at them. What type of delusion
is this?
A) Delusion of grandeur
B) Delusion of persecution
C) Delusion of reference
D) Somatic delusion

A patient is brought to the emergency department with suspected Heroin Overdose. Which
164. clinical triad of symptoms should the nurse anticipate finding?
A) Mydriasis, tachycardia, and hypertension
B) Respiratory depression, miosis, and coma
C) Hyperreflexia, hyperpyrexia, and generalized seizures
D) Agitation, visual hallucinations, and tremors

Which of the following conditions is a life-threatening, idiopathic adverse reaction to
165. antipsychotic medications characterized by hyperpyrexia, severe muscle rigidity, autonomic
instability, and altered consciousness?
A) Akathisia
B) Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
C) Tardive Dyskinesia
D) Acute dystonic reaction

A patient is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder.
166. What is the priority nursing intervention during the initial 48 hours of admission?
A) Encouraging group therapy attendance
B) Assessing for suicidal ideation and implementing appropriate safety precautions

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as C) Teaching effective coping strategies for depressive states
ag
D) Organizing a structured daily activity schedule and monitoring

A patient with an alcohol use disorder is admitted to the medical ward. The nurse should
167. monitor the patient for alcohol withdrawal delirium (delirium tremens). Within what timeframe

m
after the last drink do these severe symptoms typically manifest?

om . co
A) 4 to 6 hours
12 to 24 hours
.c e m
s
B)
48 to 72 hours
m
e l a
s
C)
D) 1 week later
l a a g
g
a : Option C
Correct Answer

Which psychiatric condition is characterized by the intentional production of physical or
168. psychological symptoms solely to assume the 'sick role', without any obvious external
incentives or secondary gains (such as financial reward)?
A) Malingering
Factitious Disorder
m
B)

co
Illness Anxiety Disorder
.
C)

em
D) Conversion Disorder

l a s
g

a
A female patient who was recently assaulted is completely unable to recall any details
169. surrounding the event, although her memory for other personal details remains intact. Which
defense mechanism is operating?
A) Denial
B) Repression
C) Regression

m
c. o
D) Regression

m
c. o Correct Answer : Option B
s e m
m An adolescent patient is diagnosed with Anorexia Nervosa. Whichlaclinical finding is
e170.
las considered a hallmark criteria indicating severe physiological a
g
ag A) Hyperactive bowel sounds
compromise?

B) Amenorrhea and bradycardia
C) Elevated blood pressure readings
D) Hyperkalemia and metabolic alkalosis

m . c
c. o s e m
m a
se
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What is the clinical drug of choice used to establish aversive conditioning in a patient
171. motivated to maintain sobriety from chronic alcoholism?
A) Lorazepam
B) Disulfiram
C) Methadone
D) Naltrexone

A patient presents with a persistent, unrealistic fear of being in open public spaces or
172. situations where escape might be difficult or help unavailable. This is termed:
A) Social phobia
B) Agoraphobia
C) Acrophobia
D) Claustrophobia

Which extrapyramidal side effect is characterized by a subjective feeling of inner
173. restlessness and acompelling need to remain in constant motion?
A) Akathisia
B) Pseudoparkinsonism
C) Tardive dyskinesia
D) Dystonia

A patient on an inpatient psychiatric unit wash their hands 30 to 40 times a day, causing skin
174. breakdown. What is the most appropriate initial nursing action?
A) Prevent the patient from using the sink to break the ritual
B) Gradually structuring alternative coping strategies to minimize anxiety
C) Administer an immediate dose of an antipsychotic medication
D) Explain to the patient that their behaviour is illogical and harmful

A patient is prescribed Tranylcypromine, a Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor (MAOI), for
175. treatment-resistant depression. Which dietary restriction must the nurse explicitly teach the
patient to avoid a hypertensive crisis?
A) Avoiding foods high in gluten
B) Avoiding foods high in tyramine
C) Limiting total fluid intake to 1 litre per day
D) Restricting intake of green leafy vegetables high in Vitamin K

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as Correct Answer : Option B
ag
What is the classic term used to describe a chronic memory disorder caused by a severe
176. deficiency of thiamine?
A) Alzheimer's disease dementia
B) Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome

m
Huntington's disease chorea

co
C)

om .
D) Vascular neurocognitive decline

.c e m
e m l a s
s

a
What type of assessment is executed at the very beginning of a course to evaluateathe
g
177. entry-levelglknowledge, skills, and prerequisite behaviours of learners?
a
A) Summative evaluation
B) Formative evaluation
C) Diagnostic evaluation

D)
Objective aptitude tracking

m
c. o

e m
a s is too complex or unavailable?
Which audio-visual aid is classified as a three-dimensional, scalable representation of a real

l
178. object used when the actual clinical object
A)
a
Overhead transparent slide projectiong
B) Flashcard sequence panel
C) Chalkboard graphic diagram
D) Model simulation aid

m
c. o
Which teaching strategy involves an intensive, detailed analysis of a real-world clinical

m
179. scenario or a specific patient case history to develop critical thinking and problem-solving
c. o skills?
s e m
em la
Direct lecture instruction method
s
A)

la ag
B) Case Study

ag C)
D)
Programmed instruction workbook
Rote memorization drilling

180. What does the 'Validity' of an educational examination tool measure?
A) The consistency and stability with which the test measures content over multiple iterations

m . c
c. o
B) The degree to which the examination tool actually measures what it is intended to measure

e m
s
C) The ease with which the exam can be scored by different independent examiners
m a
se
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D) The total number of items included in the test framework

Which domains of educational objectives, according to Bloom's Taxonomy, primarily deals
181. with attitudes, values, and emotional developments?
A) Cognitive domain
B) Psychomotor domain
C) Affective domain
D) Behavioural domain

What type of evaluation focuses on determining the final effectiveness of an entire
182. educational course or curriculum program?
A) Continuous ongoing placement tracking
B) Diagnostic screening evaluation
C) Formative evaluation
D) Summative evaluation

What tracks the capability of a test question to effectively differentiate between students who
183. performed well on the overall examination and those who performed poorly?
A) Item Discrimination Index
B) Reliability index coefficient
C) Validity verification index
D) Central distribution mean variance

184. In curriculum development, what does the term 'Horizontal Organization' refer to?
A) Grouping content logically from basic to advance across successive years of a program
B) Integrating and linking learning experiences within the same year of study
C) Eliminating low-performing instructional tracks
D) Aligning educational goals with national licensing boards exclusively

185. What is the primary characteristic of a 'Criterion-Referenced Assessment' tool?
A) It compares a student's performance score against the performance of their peer cohort
B) It focuses exclusively on qualitative portfolio reviews
C) It grades students along a standard bell-shaped curve distribution matrix
D) It measures a student's performance against a pre-determined fixed standard

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co m .
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em las

as Correct Answer : Option D
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Which system serves as the apex national statutory body regulating the uniform standards
186. of nursing education and professional registration training across India?
A) State Nursing Councils (SNC)
B) Indian Nursing Council (INC)

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National Medical Council (NMC)

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C)

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D) University Grants Commission (UGC)

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s

a a
l style is characterized by a leader who involves staff in decision-making g
ag
Which leadership
187. processes, values team input, and delegates authority while retaining final responsibility?
A) Autocratic
B) Bureaucratic
C) Democratic
D) Laissez-faire

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In material management and inventory control within a hospital, what does the 'VED'
188. analysis stand for?

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Valuable, Essential, Despicable
a
A)
B) Volume, Economic, Demand
C) Verified, Evaluated, Distributed
D) Vital, Essential, Desirable

Which classic management function involves matching institutional human resources to

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189. specific workloads, recruiting qualified staff, and planning professional training activities?

o m Controlling
c. o
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A)

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.B) Directing
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Organizing

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)

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Staffing
a Correct Answer : Option D

What organizational chart structure establishes a clear, uninterrupted line of authority
190. extending from the highest administrative executive down to the lowest rank operational
staff?
A) Matrix management pattern

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B) Functional committee array
C) Flat decentralized pattern
c. o s e m
m a
se
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g l
Page 39 of 42

D)
Scalar chain structure

In performance appraisal systems, what error is committed when an administrative
supervisor allows a single positive trait or recent outstanding achievement of an employee to
191. color and overly elevate their entire evaluation rating across all unrelated performance
areas?
A) Central Tendency error
B) Halo Effect error
C) Leniency error
D) Horns Effect error

192. What is the primary purpose of executing a 'Nursing Audit' in a hospital setting?
A) To prepare financial balance sheets for insurance audits
B) To cut departmental operational budgets to optimal level
C) To track the shift attendance metrics of staff nurses
D) To systematically review and evaluate the quality of clinical nursing

Which administrative principle states that an employee should receive orders from and be
193. accountable to only one direct supervisor?
A) Division of labour
B) Span of control
C) Centralization matrix
D) Unity of command

What management concept describes the maximum number of subordinates that a single
194. nursing supervisor can effectively manage, direct, and monitor?
A) Chain of command
B) Span of control
C) Scalar distribution path

D)
Unity of direction indicator

What type of error is committed in a research study when the investigator rejects a true null
195. hypothesis?

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co m .
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as A) Type I error
ag
B) Type II error
C) Sampling error
D) Berkinsonian error

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Which qualitative research approach is specifically designed to study, document, and

om .
196. analyse the shared cultural patterns, beliefs, and behaviours of a specific group of people
.c
through prolonged participant observation?
e m
Ethnography
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s
A)
B)
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Grounded Theory
a a g
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C) Phenomenology
D) Historical analysis design

What is the term used to describe the consistency, stability, and repeatability of a research
197. instrument or data collection tool over time?

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A) Validity

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B) Reliability

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C) Objectivity
D) Sensitivity
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Correct Answer : Option B a g
If a researcher selects a sample by picking every 10th individual from a complete sequential
198. list of the target population after a random starting point, what type of sampling design is
being used?
A) Stratified random sampling
B) Cluster sampling

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c. o
C) Systematic random sampling

o m m
c
D) Quota sampling
. s e
s emCorrect Answer : Option C
g l a
gla a midpoint of a
a 199. distribution?
Which measure of central tendency represents the exact statistical

A) Mean
B) Median
C) Mode
D) Range

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c. o

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A researcher wants to determine if there is a statistically significant association between
200. smoking status [yes/no] and lung cancer status [yes/no]. Which statistical test is most
appropriate?
A) Paired t-test
B) Pearson's r correlation
C) Chi-square test(χ²)
D) One-way ANOVA (F)

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