Kerala PG Nursing 2019 Question Paper with Answer Key

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PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY

Exam: PGN2019
Date of Test: 01-09-2019

Question1:-Thin superficial compact layer of decidua covering the blastocyst
A:-Decidua basalis
B:-Decidua capsularis
C:-Decidua parietalis
D:-Decidua vera
Question2:-Brownish black pigmented area in the midline of the abdomen of a pregnant women extending from xiphisternum to symphysis pubis
A:-Striae gravidarum
B:-Chloasma gravidarum
C:-Linea alba
D:-Linea nigra
Question3:-The part of fetus which occupies the lower pole of the uterus
A:-Lie
B:-Presentation
C:-Denominator
D:-Position
Question4:-Low levels of maternal serum alpha fetoprotein levels are found in
A:-Open neural tube defect
B:-Down syndrome
C:-Multiple pregnancy
D:-Rh-isoimmunisation
Question5:-Passive movement of the head due to untwisting of the neck sustained during internal rotation is
A:-Flexion
B:-Extension
C:-Restitution
D:-Descent
Question6:-For active management of third stage of labour the nurse should administer
A:-Oxytocin 10 units within 1 minute
B:-Oxytocin 10 units within 5 minutes
C:-Oxytocin 5 units within 1 minute
D:-Oxytocin 5 units within 5 minutes
Question7:-As a nurse what will be your first action if a mother complaints of increased body temperature for her new born baby of 2 days old. Body temperature by axilla
is 100.6°F
A:-Assess the feeding pattern
B:-Do tepid sponging
C:-Administer paracetamol drops
D:-Inform the doctor
Question8:-Which among the following is NOT a sign of impending eclampsia
A:-Persistent frontal head ache
B:-Diminished urine output
C:-Raised body temperature
D:-Epigastric pain
Question9:-Most common cause of post partum haemorrhage
A:-Bleeding disorders
B:-Abruptio placenta
C:-Placenta previa
D:-Atonic uterus
Question10:-The type of abnormality where umbilical cord is attached to membranes
A:-Battledore placenta
B:-Velamentous placenta
C:-Circumvallate placenta
D:-Placenta marginata
Question11:-Nurse interpret the contraction stress test reading of ‘persistent late deceleration of fetal heart rate with uterine contraction’ as
A:-Positive
B:-Negative
C:-Suspicious
D:-Unsatisfactory
Question12:-The purpose of partograph include all the following EXCEPT
A:-To monitor the progress of labour
B:-To assess the fetal well being
C:-To predict post partum haemorrhage
D:-To identify the stages of labour
Question13:-Radiological procedure to assess the anatomical patency and functional integrity of the fallopian tubes by injecting dye
A:-Tubal inflation test
B:-Hysterosalpingography
C:-Hysteroscopy
D:-Sonohysterosalpingography
Question14:-The term used to indicate irregular uterine bleeding between menstrual cycles

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A:-Metrorrhagia
B:-Polymenorrhoea
C:-Menorrhagia
D:-Menometrorrhagia
Question15:-International Nurses day theme for the year 2019 is
A:-Nurses : a voice to lead - health is a human right
B:-Nurses : a voice to lead – health for all
C:-Nurses : a voice to lead – achieving the sustainable development goal
D:-Nurses : a force for change improving health system resilience
Question16:-The ideal roller bandage application for body parts where the thickness varies, such as over the forearm
A:-Simple spiral
B:-Figure of eight
C:-Reverse spiral
D:-Divergent spica
Question17:-As per newer guidelines the compression ventilation ratio with two rescuer adult resuscitation is
A:-3:1
B:-5:1
C:-15:1
D:-30:2
Question18:-Foot drop means
A:-Dorsi flexion of foot
B:-Plantar flexion of foot
C:-Inversion of foot
D:-Eversion of foot
Question19:-The external rotation of hip in supine position, is prevented by using a
A:-Bed cradle
B:-Bed board
C:-Trochanter roll
D:-Knee rest
Question20:-In postural drainage ‘supine in Trendelenburg’s position’ is given to drain secretions from
A:-Anterior segment of both lower lobes of lungs
B:-Posterior segment of both lower lobes of lungs
C:-Lateral segment of left lower lobe
D:-Lateral segment of right lower lobe
Question21:-A simple and cost effective method for reducing the risk of hypostatic pneumonia in a bed ridden patient is
A:-Antibiotics
B:-Nebulisation
C:-Frequent change of positions
D:-Humidified oxygen
Question22:-When transporting a patient with inter costal drainage (ICD) tubes the nurse
A:-Clamp the chest tube and keep the drainage system below the chest
B:-Clamp the chest tube and keep the drainage system on the trolley
C:-Do not clamp the chest tube and keep the drainage system below the chest
D:-Do not clamp the chest tube and keep the drainage system on the trolley
Question23:-Which among the following is an example of isotonic intravenous solution
A:-Dextrose normal saline
B:-10% Dextrose
C:-0.45% NaCl
D:-Ringer’s Lactate
Question24:-Calculate the drop per minute if a nurse wants to administer intra venous fluid at a rate of 60ml/hour using a micro drip set
A:-15 drops/mt
B:-20 drops/mt
C:-30 drops/mt
D:-60 drops/mt
Question25:-‘Z track’ technique is used in
A:-Intravenous injection
B:-Intra muscular injection
C:-Intrathecal injection
D:-Subcutaneous injection
Question26:-Medication dissolved in clear fluid containing water and/or alcohol and is often sweetened
A:-Extract
B:-Elixir
C:-Syrup
D:-Tincture
Question27:-One ounce is equivalent to
A:-Two tablespoons
B:-Two teaspoons
C:-One pint
D:-One quart
Question28:-The form of preparation where medication is encased in a gelatin shell
A:-Capsule
B:-Pill

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C:-Tablet
D:-Enteric coated tablet
Question29:-What advice will you give to a patient receiving budesonide inhalation using metered dose inhaler
A:-Do not take food or fluids immediately after inhalation
B:-Drink plenty of water
C:-Rinse the mouth after inhalation
D:-Stay in bed for few minutes after inhalation
Question30:-If a patients receiving IV fluid develops tenderness, warmth and erythema at the site of IV cannula , nurse should suspect
A:-Thrombosis
B:-Sepsis
C:-Infiltration
D:-Phlebitis
Question31:-While performing wound dressing nurse should clean the wound from
A:-Center to periphery
B:-Periphery to center
C:-Clean area to infected area
D:-Infected area to clean area
Question32:-According to National Pressure Ulcer Advisory Panel a wound with exposed subcutaneous tissue belongs to
A:-Stage I
B:-Stage II
C:-Stage III
D:-Stage IV
Question33:-Frequency of removing and assessing the site of restraints in routine practice is
A:-Every hour
B:-Every 2 hour
C:-Every 3 hour
D:-Every 4hour
Question34:-Determinants of blood pressure are all of the following except
A:-Pumping action of heart
B:-Peripheral vascular resistance
C:-Intra vascular fluid volume
D:-Intra cellular fluid volume
Question35:-When a nurse select too wide bladder cuff for checking blood pressure, the reading
A:-Will not be affected
B:-Will be low
C:-Will be high
D:-Will be inconsistent
Question36:-Duration hand scrub during the procedure of medical hand washing as per CDC guidelines
A:-10 Sec
B:-20 Sec
C:-30 Sec
D:-40 Sec
Question37:-Which among the following is NOT considered as a principle of surgical asepsis
A:-Only sterile object is placed on a sterile field
B:-Sterile object out of range of vision is considered as contaminated
C:-Only the dry surface is considered as sterile
D:-The edges of a sterile field is considered as sterile
Question38:-The point of maximum impulse of cardiac apex is best located at
A:-Fifth inter costal space just medial to the left midclavicular line
B:-Sixth inter costal space just medial to the left midclavicular line
C:-Fifth inter costal space just lateral to the left midclavicular line
D:-Sixth inter costal space just lateral to the left midclavicular line
Question39:-If the patient can take breath only in sitting or upright position is termed as
A:-Eupnoea
B:-Dyspnoea
C:-Orthopnoea
D:-Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea
Question40:-On palpation of abdomen nurse finds ‘tenderness of right iliac fossa’, it is an example of
A:-Subjective data
B:-Historical data
C:-Objective data
D:-Palpation data
Question41:-The technique of communication restating another person’s message more briefly using one’s own word is
A:-Clarifying
B:-Paraphrasing
C:-Summarising
D:-Focusing
Question42:-While placing bed pan the nurse should do the following EXCEPT
A:-Keep the head of the bed flat
B:-Keep the head of the bed 30° elevated
C:-Place a small pillow under the lumbar curvature
D:-Ask patient to bend the knees

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Question43:-Oliguria means urine output
A:-< 0.5ml/kg/hour
B:-< 0.7ml/kg/hour
C:-< 0.8ml/kg/hour
D:-< 1.0ml/kg/hour
Question44:-Nurse should maintain the head of bed elevated to 30° during and 2 hour after feeding to prevent
A:-Gastric emptying
B:-Tube displacement
C:-Tube occlusion
D:-Pulmonary aspiration
Question45:-The nursing theory focuses on self care needs of patient is put forth by
A:-Dorothea Orem
B:-Sister Calista Roy
C:-Martha Rogers
D:-Virginia Henderson
Question46:-The word ‘ineffective’ in the nursing diagnosis of ‘ineffective breathing pattern’ is an example of
A:-Descriptor
B:-Risk factor
C:-Related factor
D:-Nursing diagnosis
Question47:-Most abundant type of connective tissue fiber is
A:-Fibroblast
B:-Collagen fiber
C:-Reticular fiber
D:-Elastic fiber
Question48:-Which among the following is an example of lymphoid tissue
A:-Thyroid gland
B:-Pancreas
C:-Spleen
D:-Adrenal gland
Question49:-An imaginary plane passing longitudinally through the body and dividing it into right and left halves
A:-Median plane
B:-Sagittal plane
C:-Coronal plane
D:-Transverse plane
Question50:-Large band of projection fibers situated in the inferomedial part of each cerebral hemisphere which connect cerebral cortex to lower parts of brain and spinal
cord
A:-Corona radiata
B:-Internal capsule
C:-Corpus callosum
D:-Superior longitudinal fasciculus
Question51:-Largest and strongest bone of the face
A:-Frontal bone
B:-Zygomatic bone
C:-Maxilla
D:-Mandible
Question52:-‘Organ of Corti’ is located in the
A:-Spiral lamina
B:-Vestibular membrane
C:-Stria vascularis
D:-Basilar membrane
Question53:-Most important function of HCl in the stomach is
A:-To convert trypsinogen to trypsin
B:-To help in the digestion of fat
C:-To convert pepsinogen to pepsin
D:-To help in the digestion of starch
Question54:-Pneumotaxic center of respiration is located in
A:-Midbrain
B:-Pons
C:-Medulla
D:-Hypothalamus
Question55:-The hormone ADH is responsible for water reabsorption, mainly from
A:-Distal convoluted tubule
B:-Proximal convoluted tubule
C:-Ascending loop of Henle
D:-Descending loop of Henle
Question56:-The main manifestation of hypoparathyroidism is
A:-Goiter
B:-Tetany
C:-Conn’s syndrome
D:-Addison’s disease

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Question57:-The property of cardiac muscle present in the conduction system of heart, to generate impulse spontaneously is
A:-Excitability
B:-Automaticity
C:-Rhythmicity
D:-Conductivity
Question58:-Dermatomal rule of pain is associated with
A:-Sharp pricking pain
B:-Dull aching pain
C:-Visceral pain
D:-Referred pain
Question59:-Hypercalcemia as a paraneoplastic syndrome is observed in the following tumors except
A:-Squamous cell carcinoma lung
B:-Small cell carcinoma lung
C:-Renal cell carcinoma
D:-Malignant melanoma
Question60:-A peripheral blood film report of microcytosis and hypochromia is primarily seen in
A:-Iron deficiency anemia
B:-Haemolytic anemia
C:-Megaloblastic anemia
D:-Aplastic anemia
Question61:-The major hepatotoxic effect of ethanol is exerted by
A:-Direct hepatotoxicity of ethanol
B:-Free radical injury
C:-Hepatotoxicity of acetaldehyde
D:-Immunologic mechanism
Question62:-The serum marker specific to myocardial damage is
A:-CK
B:-CK-MM
C:-CK-BB
D:-CK-MB
Question63:-Bacilli with drumstick appearance is the characteristic feature of
A:-Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B:-Mycobacterium leprae
C:-Corynebacterium diphtheria
D:-Clostridium tetani
Question64:-Who is considered as the father of chemotherapy
A:-Louis Pasteur
B:-Joseph Lister
C:-Paul Ehrlich
D:-Ignaz Semmelweis
Question65:-In which staining method bacteria appear red (colour of carbol fuchsin) in blue (colour of methelene blue) background
A:-Acid fast stain
B:-Albert’s stain
C:-Gram stain
D:-Negative stain
Question66:-Immunoglobulin responsible for anaphylactic type of reaction
A:-IgG
B:-IgA
C:-IgM
D:-IgE
Question67:-Viruses that infect and parasitise bacteria are called
A:-Virions
B:-Bacteriophages
C:-Macrophages
D:-Bacteriocides
Question68:-The most useful specimen for isolation of salmonella typhi in first week of enteric fever is
A:-Blood
B:-Faeces
C:-Urine
D:-Sputum
Question69:-Which among the following is the richest source of vitamin A
A:-Butter
B:-Liver
C:-Egg yolk
D:-Milk cream
Question70:-Recommended calorie allowance for Indian man weighing 55 kg doing sedentary work is
A:-2000 Kcal
B:-2200 Kcal
C:-2400 Kcal
D:-2600 Kcal
Question71:-The therapeutic life style changes (TLC) diet recommends that calories from saturated fat should be
A:-<7% of total intake

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B:-<10% of total intake
C:-<12% of total intake
D:-<20% of total intake
Question72:-The vitamin responsible for the formation and maintenance of teeth and bones
A:-Vitamin A
B:-Vitamin D
C:-Vitamin E
D:-Vitamin K
Question73:-Pyruvate is converted to acetyle CoA by
A:-Pyruvate dehydrogenase
B:-Pyruvate carboxylase
C:-Pyruvate kinase
D:-Lactate dehydrogenase
Question74:-Ketone bodies in the urine are identified by
A:-Heat and acetic acid test
B:-Benzidine test
C:-Benedict’s test
D:-Rothera’s test
Question75:-All the following are transamination reaction EXCEPT
A:-Pyruvic acid to alanine
B:-Oxalo acetic acid to aspartic acid
C:-Hydroxyl pyruvic acid to serine
D:-Glutamic acid to glutamine
Question76:-Normal blood urea level is
A:-10-20mg/dl
B:-10-20g/dl
C:-20-40mg/dl
D:-20-40g/dl
Question77:-Percentage of active drug substances absorbed and available to reach the target tissues is termed as
A:-Therapeutic value
B:-Bioavailability
C:-Biologic half life
D:-Plasma level profile
Question78:-The most important roles of a nurse while administering calcium gluconate injection are the following EXCEPT
A:-Administer the drug as slow IV injection
B:-Monitor apical heart rate
C:-Ensure the patency of IV line
D:-Take measures to prevent falls
Question79:-β- adrenoceptor agonist has slow onset of action and NOT indicated in the treatment of acute asthma symptom is
A:-Salmeterol
B:-Albuterol
C:-Epinephrine
D:-Terbutaline
Question80:-The mechanism of action of captopril is
A:-Calcium channel blocker
B:-ACE inhibitor
C:-Angiotensin receptor antagonist
D:-Aldosterone receptor antagonist
Question81:-Which among the following is an example of macrolide antibiotic
A:-Amikacin
B:-Ampicillin
C:-Piperacillin
D:-Azithromycin
Question82:-Drug of choice for anaphylactic reaction
A:-Terbutaline
B:-Aminophylline
C:-Adrenaline
D:-Atropine
Question83:-Nursing interventions for a patient receiving loop diuretic such as furosamide are the following EXCEPT
A:-Monitor weight & I/O chart
B:-Monitor for hypokalemia
C:-Monitor for hyperkalemia
D:-Monitor for hypocalcemia
Question84:-Randomization, control and manipulation are the characteristics of
A:-True experimental designs
B:-Quasi experimental designs
C:-Pre experimental designs
D:-Non experimental designs
Question85:-The statement of relationship between two or more variable is
A:-Objective
B:-Operational definition
C:-Research design

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D:-hypothesis
Question86:-The pneumonic ‘SMART’ is applicable to
A:-Research question
B:-Research objective
C:-Research design
D:-Research approach
Question87:-Which among the following is a measure of central tendency
A:-Standard deviation
B:-Quartile deviation
C:-Range
D:-Median
Question88:-Which among the following is an example of probability sampling
A:-Cluster sampling
B:-Quota sampling
C:-Snow ball sampling
D:-Purposive sampling
Question89:-Body weight in kilograms is an example of
A:-Discrete variable
B:-Continuous variable
C:-Qualitative variable
D:-Dichotomous variable
Question90:-The panchayati Raj agency at the block level is
A:-Grama Panchayat
B:-Nyaya Panchayat
C:-Panchayat Samiti
D:-Zilla Parishad
Question91:-Cost, related to treatment such as cost of medical treatment and nursing service is termed as
A:-Direct cost
B:-Indirect cost
C:-Intangible cost
D:-Fixed cost
Question92:-“The attainment by all peoples of the highest level of health” is the objective of
A:-WHO
B:-UNICEF
C:-UNESCO
D:-USAID
Question93:-As per the new recommendation of ‘2016 daily dose regimen’ the duration of intensive phase treatment for drug sensitive new tuberculosis cases is
A:-4 weeks
B:-6 weeks
C:-8 weeks
D:-12 weeks
Question94:-The leprosy screening programme of Government of Kerala is
A:-Aardram
B:-Aswamedham
C:-Arogyakeralam
D:-Mission Indradanush
Question95:-The route of administration of fractional dose of inactivated polio virus (IPV) vaccine
A:-Oral
B:-Subcutaneous
C:-Intramuscular
D:-Intradermal
Question96:-The most heat sensitive vaccine
A:-OPV
B:-BCG
C:-Pentavalent
D:-Measles
Question97:-Phase of disaster management designed to prevent hazards from causing emergency or to lessen the effect of emergencies is
A:-Response
B:-Rehabilitation
C:-Reconstruction
D:-Mitigation
Question98:-As a community health nurse the advise that you will give to a man who had undergone vasectomy include all the following EXCEPT
A:-No need to use contraceptives after the operation
B:-Wear ‘T’ bandages for 15 days
C:-Avoid bath atleast 24 hours
D:-Avoid cycling or lifting heavy weight for 15 days
Question99:-The help line number to report in case of child abuse
A:-1070
B:-1098
C:-1090
D:-1091

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Question100:-The criteria for sanitary well include all the following EXCEPT
A:-Should be located 6m away from the source of contamination
B:-Should have a lining built of brick or stones to a depth of at least 6m
C:-Should have a cement concrete platform of 1m
D:-Should be equipped with a hand pump
Question101:-The measure of estimating the burden of a particular disease in the community
A:-Crude death rate
B:-Disease specific mortality rate
C:-Proportional mortality rate
D:-Case fatality rate
Question102:-Immunization is an example of
A:-Primary prevention
B:-Secondary prevention
C:-Tertiary prevention
D:-It is not a preventive strategy
Question103:-Number of new cases occurring in a population during a specified period of time is
A:-Relative risk
B:-Point prevalence
C:-Period prevalence
D:-Incidence
Question104:-Which among the following is NOT a zoonotic disease
A:-Yellow fever
B:-Leptospirosis
C:-Nipah
D:-Dengu fever
Question105:-Quarantine advised for a particular infectious disease is equal to the
A:-Minimum incubation period
B:-Median incubation period
C:-Maximum incubation period
D:-Period of communicability
Question106:-The most common cancer of women in India
A:-Cancer cervix
B:-Cancer breast
C:-Ovarian cancer
D:-Oral cancer
Question107:-The confirmatory test for HIV infection
A:-ELISA
B:-Western Blot
C:-CD4 Count
D:-HIV viral load
Question108:-‘Beefy red tongue’ is seen in the deficiency of
A:-Vitamin K
B:-vitamin B1
C:-Vitamin B12
D:-Vitamin A
Question109:-As per recent WHO guidelines the number of contact between pregnant women and health care provider is
A:-4
B:-6
C:-8
D:-10
Question110:-There should be clear line of authority from top to bottom linking all managers at all level. This principle of management is
A:-Unity of command
B:-Unity of direction
C:-Centralisation
D:-Scalar chain of command
Question111:-The famous three leadership styles –autocratic style, democratic style, Laissez-faire style- are based on
A:-Great man & trait theory
B:-Expectancy theory
C:-Lewin, Lippitt & White theory
D:-Three needs theory
Question112:-TQM means
A:-Technique of quality management
B:-Total quality management
C:-Total quality maintenance
D:-Total quality measurement
Question113:-Planning the events and responsibilities for 6 months to 1 year to achieve the organizational objectives is
A:-Operational planning
B:-Strategic Planning
C:-Business Planning
D:-Programme planning
Question114:-The method of patient assignment where the nurse take the responsibility of one or more patient to give total care during the duty hours is
A:-Case method

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B:-Functional method
C:-Team method
D:-Primary nursing
Question115:-Which among the following is an internal sources of recruitment
A:-Promotion
B:-Deputation
C:-Advertisement
D:-Campus recruitment
Question116:-Minimum bed strength of parent hospital required to start a GNM programme for an annual intake of 40-60 students
A:-50
B:-100
C:-125
D:-150
Question117:-SNA was established in the year
A:-1924
B:-1929
C:-1932
D:-1934
Question118:-The oldest educational philosophy is
A:-Naturalism
B:- Idealism
C:-Pragmatism
D:-Realism
Question119:-The highest level of affective domain of educational objective
A:-Responding
B:-Valuing
C:-Receiving
D:-Characterisation
Question120:-Curriculum that exists only in the hearts and minds of educators, but not in reality
A:-Hidden curriculum
B:-Illegitimate curriculum
C:-Null curriculum
D:-Legitimate curriculum
Question121:-The highest level of learning
A:-Rule learning
B:-Concept learning
C:-Chaining
D:-Problem solving
Question122:-The teaching technique that provide learners with small instruction followed by immediate reinforcement
A:-Workshop
B:-Programmed instruction
C:-Seminar
D:-symposium
Question123:-The concept of “cone of experiences” for organising learning experiences is put forth by
A:-Ralph Taylor
B:-Friedrich Herbart
C:-Edgar Dale
D:-William James
Question124:-Performance based testing measure to evaluate the clinical competence of students
A:-Rating scale
B:-Checklist
C:-Questionnaire
D:-Objective structured clinical examination
Question125:-Type of evaluation done at the end of a course
A:-Formative evaluation
B:-Informal evaluation
C:-Summative evaluation
D:-Formal evaluation
Question126:-Characteristics of an in-group is
A:-Conflict in interests
B:-Small size
C:-Discrimination
D:-Hostile feelings
Question127:-The advantage of exogamy is
A:-It checks the transmission of biological defects
B:-Protection of property and occupational secrets
C:-Purity of blood
D:-make adjustments easier
Question128:-Social expectations according to which society expects every individual to behave
A:-Role
B:-Norms
C:-Ethics

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D:-Culture
Question129:-Lack of appropriate cultural resources like language and knowledge is known as
A:-Cultural materialism
B:-Cultural deprivation
C:-Cultural trait
D:-Cultural pluralism
Question130:-Family counseling centers are NOT aimed to
A:-Provide psychiatric help
B:-Provide free legal aid
C:-Provide long term stay facilities
D:-Provide policy assistance
Question131:-Social change refers to change in
A:-Dressing pattern
B:-Value system
C:-Food habits
D:-Habitation pattern
Question132:-‘A child learns to stand before he walks’. This clearly states that
A:-Growth and development is an orderly process
B:-The child develops as a unified whole
C:-Individual difference exist in growth and development
D:-The development is a continuous process
Question133:-Safe selection of toys include all the following EXCEPT
A:-Select toys without small parts
B:-Select toys with strings or cords less than 7 inches
C:-Select toys with smooth rounded edge
D:-Select toys that make loud noise
Question134:-Calculate the dose of injection in millilitre (ml), if the nurse wants to administer 800 mg of ceftriaxone. One gram of medication is diluted in 5 ml of sterile
water
A:-3 ml
B:-3.5 ml
C:-4 ml
D:-5 ml
Question135:-Calculate the expected weight for a child of age 6 years by applying Weech’s formula
A:-15 Kg
B:-18 Kg
C:-20 Kg
D:-22 Kg
Question136:-Major developmental task attained by 18-24 months of age is
A:-Feeding themselves
B:-Toilet training
C:-Imitating parents
D:-Beginning awareness of ownership
Question137:-Signs of good latch during breast feeding include all the following EXCEPT
A:-Baby's chin firmly touches the breast
B:-Baby's mouth widely open
C:-Baby's lips are curled out
D:-Baby's lips are curled in
Question138:-Pediatric nurse should suspect severe hyperbilirubinemia when
A:-Onset of jaundice after 24 hours
B:-Hourly rise in total serum bilirubin more than 0.2mg/dl
C:-Jaundice persists up to 14 days in a term baby
D:-Jaundice extends up to abdomen on 3rd postnatal day
Question139:-Anticonvulsant of choice for a newborn with seizures
A:-Phenobarbitone
B:-Fosphenytoin
C:-Levetiracetam
D:-Lorazepam
Question140:-Danger sign in newborn are the following except
A:-Lethargy & poor feeding
B:-Peripheral cyanosis
C:-Bilious vomiting
D:-respiratory rate >60 breaths per minute
Question141:-While assessing a child with diarrhea the nurse found that the baby is not able to drink and skin pinch goes back very slowly. As per IMNCI the child has
A:-No dehydration
B:-Some dehydration
C:-Moderate dehydration
D:-Severe dehydration
Question142:-Cyanotic spell is a characteristic feature of
A:-Endocardial Cushion defect
B:-Ventricular Septal Defect
C:-Tetralogy of Fallot
D:-Coarctation of aorta

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Question143:-If the mother is a carrier of hemophilia and father is unaffected the chance getting hemophilia for their son is
A:-25%
B:-50%
C:-75%
D:-100%
Question144:-Turbid cerebrospinal fluid with elevated total cell count is a characteristic feature of
A:-Tubercular meningitis
B:-Viral meningitis
C:-Bacterial meningitis
D:-Viral encephalitis
Question145:-Most common type of leukemia in children
A:-Acute lymphocytic leukemia
B:-Acute myelogenous leukemia
C:-Juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia
D:-Chronic myelogenous leukemia
Question146:-The congenital surgical condition due to the arrest of migration of neural crest into the large intestine is
A:-Cloacal anomaly
B:-Anorectal malformations
C:-Hirsprung’s disease
D:-Intussusception
Question147:-Three C’s in trachea- eosophageal fistula are the following EXCEPT
A:-Coughing
B:-Crying
C:-Cyanosis
D:-Choking
Question148:-Which among the following is NOT a consequence of portal hyper tension
A:-Oesophageal varices
B:-Pulmonary edema
C:-Ascites
D:-Haemorrhoids
Question149:-Major cation of extra cellular fluid
A:-Potassium
B:-Sodium

C:-Calcium
D:-Magnesium
Question150:-Which of the following finding can be observed in patients with psoriasis
A:-Intense pain
B:-Erythematous skin lesions
C:-Abdominal tenderness
D:-Pink nails
Question151:-A client with duodenal ulcer is most likely to complain of pain
A:-During meal
B:-15 minutes after eating
C:-2-3 hours after meal
D:-about 30mts after eating
Question152:-The most common portal of entry for micro organisms associated with sepsis
A:-Respiratory tract
B:-Gastro Intestinal Tract
C:-Skin
D:-Urinary tract
Question153:-The drug of choice for warfarin over dose
A:-Protamine sulfate
B:-Vitamin K
C:-Iron dextran
D:-Heparin
Question154:-Which among the following is NOT an auto immune disorder
A:-Rheumatoid arthritis
B:-Myasthenia gravis
C:-Pernicious anemia
D:-Osteoarthritis
Question155:-Which among the following is NOT an oncologic emergency
A:-Hypercalcemia
B:-Superior vena cava syndrome
C:-Septic shock
D:-Neutropenia
Question156:-The primary cause of diabetic keto acidosis is
A:-GI disturbance
B:-Insulin over dosage
C:-Omitted meals
D:-Not taking insulin regularly

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Question157:-The ECG changes due to hypokalemia is
A:-Tall peaked T wave
B:-Prominent U wave
C:-ST segment elevation
D:-Widened QRS complex
Question158:-A 15 years old boy is brought to casuality with major chest injury with severe dyspnoea. The life threatening chest injury in this case would be
A:-Diaphragmatic rupture
B:-Tension pneumothorax
C:-Tracheo bronchial rupture
D:-Haemothorax
Question159:-The pre operative assessment warrants immediate notification to the surgeon is
A:-Temperature 101.5° F
B:-Serum sodium 135 meq/L
C:-Broncho vesicular breath sounds
D:-B P 135/80 mmHg
Question160:-Which of the following observation suggest a perforated bowel
A:-Nausea, vomiting and abdominal distention
B:-Jaundice and clay coloured stool
C:-Rigid, tender abdomen and absence of bowel sounds
D:-Dyspnea and chest pain
Question161:-The refractive error of the eye in which the light rays from the object are focused in front of the retina
A:-Presbyopia
B:-Hyper metropia
C:-Myopia
D:-Emmetropia
Question162:-A patient with rheumatoid arthritis has been taking steroid medication for one year. The nurse should assess for
A:-Decreased WBCs
B:-Increased C-reactive protein
C:-Increased ESR
D:-Decreased serum glucose level

Question163:-Which of the following is NOT involved in Whipples resection

A:-Resection of proximal pancreas and adjoining duodenum
B:-Resection of Distal segment of common bile duct
C:-Resection of Gall bladder
D:-Resection of Distal portion of stomach
Question164:-The position in which a patient is placed while inserting a central venous catheter
A:-Supine
B:-Tredelenburg
C:-Reverse tredelenburg
D:-High fowler
Question165:-The complication expected by the nurse for a patient, who had undergone total hip replacement 24 hours back
A:-Urinary retension
B:-Fat embolism syndrome
C:-Hypovolemic shock
D:-Pulmonary edema
Question166:-While assessing the characteristics of the dialysate outflow for a patient with peritoneal dialysis, the nurse notify cloudy appearance of the outflow .What
does it indicate
A:-Normal appearance
B:-Ascites
C:-Bowel perforation
D:-Peritonitis
Question167:-Dumping syndrome after Billroth II surgery may be prevented by
A:-Lying down after meals
B:-Drinking water after meals
C:-Stay in upright position after meals
D:-Bend over after meals
Question168:-The dietary advice for a patient with ileostomy would include
A:-Avoid high fibre diet
B:-Restrict the amount of fluid intake
C:-Limit the calorie intake
D:-Encourage the patient to increase the consumption of milk
Question169:-Left sided congestive heart failure is most often associated with
A:-Dyspnoea
B:-Distended neck veins
C:-Hepato megaly
D:-Pedal oedema
Question170:-Which of the following is an early sign and symptom for carcinoma larynx
A:-Crepitations
B:-Hoarseness of voice
C:-Frothy sputum
D:-Drooling of saliva

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Question171:-Tissue plasminogen activator is administered in myocardial infarction (MI) to
A:-Control chest pain
B:-Reduce coronary artery vasospasm
C:-Control dysrhythmias associated with MI
D:-Revascularise the blocked coronary artery
Question172:-For a patient diagnosed with ARDS, a nurse should expect an order to prepare the patient for
A:-Tracheostomy
B:-Mechanical ventilation
C:-Noninvasive ventilation
D:- Insertion of chest tube
Question173:-Which of the following is NOT an indication for digoxin administration
A:-Congestive heart failure
B:-Atrial fibrillation
C:-Atrial flutter
D:-Angina pectoris without heart failure
Question174:-Which is the most common type of thyroid cancer
A:-Anaplastic
B:-Papillary
C:-Follicular
D:-Medullary
Question175:-A person with head injury is not able to understand or comprehend the language, but verbal response is fluent. The condition is termed as
A:-Wernicke’s aphasia
B:-Broca’s aphasia
C:-Conduction aphasia
D:-Global aphasia
Question176:-Which of the following drug retard the progress of Alzheimer’s disease
A:-L-dopa
B:-Donepezil
C:-Prednisone
D:-Vitamin B12
Question177:-Which of the following modes of ventilation ‘lock out’ the patient’s effort to breathe
A:-Controlled Mandatory Ventilation (CMV)
B:-SIMV
C:-Assist Control Mode
D:-Pressure control mode
Question178:-Sudden loss of an area of vision as if a curtain is being drawn, is a principal symptom of
A:-Retinal detachment
B:-Glaucoma
C:-Cataract
D:-Keratitis
Question179:-Menier’s disease is manifested by all of the following EXCEPT
A:-Tinnitus
B:-Otorrhoea
C:-Vertigo
D:-Deafness
Question180:-Drug used to reduce secretions during Electroconvulsive therapy
A:-Thiopental sodium
B:-Succinyl Choline
C:-Carbamazepine
D:-Atropine
Question181:-Who is referred to as the Mother of Psychiatric Nursing
A:-Linda Richards
B:-Virginia Henderson
C:-Hildegard Peplau
D:-Callista Roy
Question182:-A perceptual abnormality where stimulation in one sensory modality produces sensation in another modality is called
A:-Functional hallucination
B:-Scenic hallucination
C:-Pseudo hallucination
D:-Synesthesia
Question183:-The neurotransmitter responsible for the negative symptoms of schizophrenia
A:-Dopamine
B:-Serotonin
C:-GABA
D:-Glutamate
Question184:-Which among the following is a non therapeutic communication technique
A:-Silence
B:-Advising
C:-Suggestion
D:-Reflecting
Question185:-Rare but serious extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotics

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A:-Akathisia
B:-Dystonia
C:-Tardive dyskinesia
D:-Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
Question186:-The Schizophrenia with worst prognosis
A:-Catatonic schizophrenia
B:-Paranoid schizophrenia
C:-Hebephrenic schizophrenia
D:-Simple schizophrenia
Question187:-Disorder characterized by short periods of mild depressive episodes alternating with hypomanic episodes
A:-Dysthymia
B:-Cyclothymia
C:-Euthymia
D:-Parathymia
Question188:-State of apprehension or uneasiness arising out of anticipation of danger
A:-Phobia
B:-Fear
C:-Anxiety
D:-Stress
Question189:-The drug used as a deterrent agent for alcoholism
A:-Chlordiazepoxide
B:-Haloperidol
C:-Disulfiram
D:-Acamprosate
Question190:-Which among the following psychoactive substance is called ‘peace pill’
A:-LSD (lysergic acid diethylamide)
B:-Cannabis
C:-Cocaine
D:-PCP (Phencyclidine)
Question191:-The ego defense mechanism where, a person unconsciously transfers pent up emotions to less dangerous object
A:-Repression
B:-Displacement
C:-Regression
D:-Reaction formation
Question192:-The acute phase of organic amnestic disorder is called
A:-Wernicke’s encephalopathy
B:-Korsakoffs psychosis
C:-Delirium
D:-Dementia
Question193:-Branch of psychology deals with mental process such as thoughts and memory
A:-School psychology
B:-Evolutionary psychology
C:-Experimental psychology
D:-Cognitive psychology
Question194:-Lobe of the brain concerned with sound and speech processing
A:-Occipital lobe
B:-Temporal lobe
C:-Frontal lobe
D:-Parietal lobe
Question195:-The Trial and error theory of learning was proposed by
A:-E.L Thorndike
B:-Ivan Pavlov
C:-B.F Skinner
D:-Wolfgang Kohler
Question196:-High order thinking process involving the use of cognitive skills like conceptualisation, interpretation, analysis and evaluation
A:-Concrete thinking
B:-Conceptual thinking
C:-Creative thinking
D:-Critical thinking
Question197:-An example of secondary motive is
A:-Affiliation motive
B:-Hunger motive
C:-Thirst motive
D:-Sex motive
Question198:-What is the intelligence quotient(IQ) of a 10 year old child whose mental age is 8
A:-130
B:-120
C:-80
D:-50
Question199:-Which among the following is characterised by persistent complaints of fatigue after physical or mental effort
A:-Somatization disorder
B:-Neurasthenia

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C:-Ganser’s syndrome
D:-Hypochondriasis
Question200:-The factor responsible for prolonging already existing disease is
A:-Predisposing factor
B:-Perpetuating factor
C:-Precipitating factor
D:-Psychological factor

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