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MAHA SET 2018 Question Paper 3 Environmental Science

Download MAHA SET 2018 Question Paper 3 Environmental Science PDF. MAHA SET is conducted by Savitribai Phule Pune University. You can get all Maharashtra State Eligibility Test previous year question papers at aglasem.com for free. MAHA SET past year papers will help you prepare for upcoming examination. Solving Pune University MAHA SET Question Papers will help you understand the exam pattern, level of questions and most important topics. MAHA SET 2018 Question Paper 3 Environmental Science is given below. More Detail
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Page 1

Test Booklet Code & Serial No.
A
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator Seat No.
1. (Signature) ......................................... (In figures as in Admit Card)
(Name) ................................................ Seat No. ..............................................................
2. (Signature) ......................................... (In words)

(Name) ................................................ OMR Sheet No.
JAN - 31318 (To be filled by the Candidate)
Time Allowed : 2½ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 150
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 20 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided 1.
on the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of 75 objective type questions. Each question
will carry two marks. All questions of Paper-III will be compulsory, 2.
covering entire syllabus (including all electives, without options).
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are
requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as 3.
follows :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
(i)
a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions
in the booklet with the information printed on the (ii)
cover page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/
questions or questions repeated or not in serial
o rder or any other discre pancy should not be
accepted and correct booklet should be obtained
from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes.
Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be
replaced nor any extra time will be given. The same
may please be noted.
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
should be entered on this Test Booklet. (iii)
4. Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item. 4. (A), (B), (C) (D)
Example : where (C) is the correct response.

A B D
(C)
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place A B D
other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
5.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put 6.
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space 7.
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your 8.
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the
end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with 9.
you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed
to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 10.
11. Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited. 11.
12. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers. 12.

Page 2

2

Page 3

Environmental Science
Paper III
Time Allowed : 2½ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 150
Note : This paper contains Seventy Five (75) multiple choice questions. Each
question carries Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

1. Under the Biological Diversity Act, 3. The process used in domestic water

2002 one of the mandate is to have softening, where sodium ion form a

People’s Biodiversity Registered and cationic exchange resin replace the

is to be documented by : calcium & magnesium ion reducing

the hardness of water is done by :
(A) Local communities/people
(A) ion-exchange
(B) Scientist
(B) sand filtration
(C) Dept. of Environment
(C) sedimentation
(D) Forest Dept.
(D) chlorination
2. In wastewater treatment...................
4. COD test in a measure of the oxygen
is the odor formation and causes
equivalent of organic matter in
impact on treatment process.
wastewater that can be oxidized by :

(A) Sulfate
(A) Dichromate in an acid solution

(B) Chlorine (B) 3 days incubation

(C) Akalinity (C) 5 days incubation

(D) Nitrate (D) Incubation with microbes seed

3 [P.T.O.

Page 4

5. In a pre-treatment for sewage 8. The list of species may become

treatment plants following are threatened if trade is not strictly

removed : regulated. For such species requires

(A) Large suspended material export permit are included in the

category under CITES :
(B) Grit & large suspended material
(A) Appendix II
(C) Settlable material
(B) Appendix I
(D) Oily and fatty substances
(C) Appendix III
6. In economics resonance use is a

linear, then in ecology it will be : (D) Appendix B

(A) Circular 9. Life zone system used for classifying

vegetation formation, based on a
(B) Carrying capacity
gradient of mean annual bio-
(C) Capital
temperature with latitude and
(D) Expansion altitutde, percentage precipitation

7. ..................is used to study genetic and evapotranspiration was

diversity amongst the species. proposed by :

(A) PCR (A) Holdridge

(B) RNA (B) Wittakar

(C) mRNA (C) Clements

(D) tRNA (D) Odum

4

Page 5

10. Community, which becomes stable 12. A study to reconstruct past

and in equilibrium with the climate ecosystem and in particular to see

how ecosystems and communities
is known as :

function before human become a
(A) Climax community
major influence :

(B) Serol community
(A) Evolutionary ecology

(C) Mixed community
(B) Historical ecology

(D) Pioneer community
(C) Palaeoecology

11. Illegal trade of endangered species
(D) Habitat ecology

of plant and animal is most
13. Precipitation value of biodiversity

prevalent in :
is :

(A) Developed countries
(A) Consumption use value

(B) Tropical countries
(B) Production use value

(C) Temperate countries (C) Ecosystem service value

(D) Industrialized countries (D) Essential value

5 [P.T.O.

Page 6

14. Phyto-sociological studies the size of 16. Methane campaign of India was lead

by :
area selected is based on :
(A) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan

(A) Random size (B) Dr. A.P. Mitra

(C) Dr. B.P. Pal
(B) Species-area curve
(D) Dr. S.K. Sinha

(C) Population of species 17. Depletion of ozone of stratospheric
zone cause :
(D) Quadrate
(A) CO2 increase

15. Some plants may inhibit the growth (B) Skin cancer

(C) Cholera
of other species by the chemical
(D) Dengue
nature of the litter or by special
18. Indian standard method of
secretion is known as : measurement of Nitrogen dioxide (in

microgram/Cu meter) g/m 3 , in
(A) Allopatric
ambient air is :

(A) Improved West & Gaeke
(B) Allelopathy
(B) Ultraviolet fluorescence
(C) Apomict
(C) Modified Jacob & Hochheiser

(D) Admixture (D) Spectrophotometry

6

Page 7

19. Discharge limit of BOD (in mg/lit) 21. Motor vehicle emission consists of :

(A) BOD
in the surface water stream is :

(B) Carbon monoxide
(A) 500
(C) Fluoride-HF
(B) 100
(D) Calcium

(C) 50 22. Wet scrubber is used to treat

pollution of :
(D) 30
(A) Water
20. Laboratory, Testing of Biological
(B) Air
Oxygen Demand (BOD) is done by
(C) Soil

using :
(D) Noise

(A) Atomic Absorption Spectro- 23. The stationary phase in reverse

phase chromatography is :
photometer

(A) Polar
(B) Incubator
(B) Non-polar

(C) Gas chromatograph
(C) Both of these

(D) Mass spectrometer (D) None of these

7 [P.T.O.

Page 8

24. Law stating that the gas dissolved 26. Bleaching powder used in water

in a liquid is proportional to its purification has the chemical

partial pressure is called as : formula as :

(A) Rutherford’s law (A) NH4OH

(B) Lambert’s law (B) CaCl 2

(C) Henry’s law (C) CaOCl2

(D) Beer’s law (D) NH4Cl

25. The correct order of solubility in 27. Completely ionize acids in water

water is : are :

(A) CaF2 > Ca(OH)2 > LiF > NaCl (A) HCl and HNO3

(B) NaCl > Ca(OH)2 > LiF > CaF2 (B) HCl and H2CO3

(C) CaF2 > LiF > Ca(OH)2 > NaCl (C) HNO3 and CH3COOH

(D) NaCl > LiF > Ca(OH)2 > CaF2 (D) H2CO3 and CH3COOH

8

Page 9

28. Which one of the following has the
31. Which one of the following
highest melting point ?
combinations of metals has
(A) o-bromophenol
completely filled ‘d’ orbital ?
(B) p-chlorophenol

(C) m-bromophenol (A) Ti, Fe, Ni

(D) m-chlorophenol
(B) Sc, V, Fe

29. Element present in dolomite but
(C) Zn, Ca, Hg
absent in limestone :

(A) C (D) Zn, Co, Cu

(B) Ca
32. Chlorosis of plants occurs due the
(C) Mg
deficiency of :
(D) O

30. Hardest form of carbon is : (A) Ca

(A) Charcol
(B) Cl

(B) Diamond
(C) N
(C) Coke

(D) S
(D) Graphite

9 [P.T.O.

Page 10

33. Paris Climate Treaty has been
35. Entropy is given by :

signed by :
(A) dp/T
(A) 191 countries

(B) dH/T
(B) 101 countries

(C) 151 countries (C) dH/p

(D) 77 countries
(D) dp/dH

34. When energy is converted from one
36. Give in the correct order of increasing
form to another, the useful output

diameter the following precipitate
is never as much as the input. The

ratio of the useful output to the drops (Drizzle, shower & rain) :

required input is called the :
(A) Drizzle, rain shower

(A) Efficiency
(B) Rain drizzle shower
(B) Consistency

(C) Shower rain drizzle
(C) Constancy

(D) Defficiency (D) Rain drizzle shower

10

Page 11

37. The emission from use of fossil fuel 39. The most prominent feature of the

can be reduced by various options, food resource base of post Pleistocene
which of the following is not an Europe :
mitigation option ?
(A) A dependence on mega fauna
(A) Use of wind energy
(B) Diversity
(B) Increased capacity of traditional

power plants (C) Dependence on fur-bearing

animals
(C) Afforestation

(D) Use of PV cells for domestic (D) New agriculture methods

power 40. When effect did ‘Cold snap’ have on

38. Energy produced from use of fossil fuel human populations ?
globally is quite large which needs to
(A) It tested the ability of human
be reduced to cut down emission of
beings to adapt
CO2. The energy produced from these

sources is nearly..............of the total (B) It had no effect at all

energy generated :
(C) It forced all humans to wear

(A) 80% clothing

(B) 60%
(D) It created an environment that
(C) 90% required all populations to

(D) 50% move to the equator

11 [P.T.O.

Page 12

41. The lake forest Archaic tradition 43. How long ago did human groups

begin actively controlling their food
relied on...............resources : the

sources by artificially producing
Maritime Archaic hunted................
conditions under which these
creatures.
sources would grow ?

(A) Pelagic : midden
(A) Within the past 8,000 years

(B) Lacustrine : pelagic
(B) Within the past 12,000 years

(C) Midden : littoral (C) Within the past 15,000 years

(D) Littoral : Lacustrine (D) Within the past 20,000 years

44. Evidence of wild grain harvesting
42. The directed breeding of plants and
and consumption in Israel dates to
animals is called :
as early as :

(A) Foraging
(A) 20,000 BP

(B) Natural selection
(B) 12,000 BP

(C) Artificial selection (C) 10,000 BP

(D) Herding (D) 8,000 BP

12

Page 13

45. The difference between simple 47. In a 50 ppm Zn standard, an analyst

foragers and complex foragers : determined 54 ppm Zn. The

(A) Complex foragers focus on a few calculated error is :

highly productive resources (A) 0·8%

(B) Complex foragers rely on many (B) 0·4%

different food sources
(C) 1·6%

(C) Complex foragers are highly
(D) 8·0%
mobile
48. Which anaerobic digestion process
(D) Complex foragers employ
convert soluble low molecular
irrigation technology
components of fatty acids, amino

46. The development of the first satellite acids and monosaccharides to low

was a leap forward to satellite molecular volatile acids, alcohol,

technology in India : ammonia, H2 and CO2 ?

(A) Aryabhatta (A) Methanogenesis process

(B) Bhaskara (B) Acidogenesis process

(C) IRS-IA (C) Hydrogenesis process

(D) CARTOSAT-2 (D) Hydrolysis process

13 [P.T.O.

Page 14

49. Which methanogen does not utilize 51. Cumulative conversion of arginine

hydrogen to reduce the organic
to putrescine by streptococcus spp.
compound or CO2 to methane during
and E. coli signifies the following
anaerobic digestion process ?

microbial interaction :
(A) Methylotrophic methanogens

(B) Methanotrophic methanogens (A) Commensalism

(C) Acetotrophic methanogens
(B) Synergism

(D) Hydrogenotrophic methanogens
(C) Amensalism
50. Why microbial conversion of

lignocellulosic straw feedstock to (D) Competition

bioethanol is difficult ?
52. What provision a typical bioreactor

(A) Presence of more insoluble
possess to overcome the vortex
amorphous cellulose
formation during fermentation ?
(B) Absence of insoluble branched

lignin fraction (A) Baffles on the side walls

(C) Presence of more insoluble (B) Stuffing boxes
branched hemicellulose
(C) Sparger
(D) Presence of microcrystalline

cellulose and lignin (D) Oxygen probe

14

Page 15

53. What is correct in case C : N ratio 55. Which indicator bacteria indicates

during composting is narrow then recent fecal contamination of water
optimal level of 30 – 35 ?
and detected in glucose azide
(A) Nitrogen in compost lost as
broth ?
ammonia
(A) Escherichia coli
(B) Protract the compost

(B) Streptococcus faecalis
(C) Enhance decomplexation of

ions (C) Clostridium perfringens

(D) Agglomerate the compost
(D) Listeria monocytogens
material
56. How bioavailability of recalcitrant
54. Which process incorporate essential
hydrocarbons is increased through
nutrients (viz. N, P) and electron

acceptor to contaminated area in microbial interaction with smaller

order to promote the activity of solubilized/pseudosolubilized hydro-
native microbes for degradation of
carbon droplets ?
pollutants ?
(A) Secretion of biosurfactants
(A) Biosparging

(B) Chemotaxis
(B) Bioaugmentation

(C) Biostimulation (C) Efflux pumps

(D) Bioventing (D) Altered cell surface property

15 [P.T.O.

Page 16

57. Which biological wastewater 59. Which bacteria form symbiosis with

treatment system consists of large
some non-leguminous flowering
diameter corrugated plastic media
plants (viz. Alnus, Casurina) for
centered on a horizontal shaft and
nitrogen fixation in soils ?
submerged 40% in wastewater ?

(A) Bradyrhizobium spp.
(A) Trickling filter system

(B) Frankia spp.
(B) Activated sequencing batch

reactor (C) Azotobacter vinelandii

(C) Rotating biological contractors
(D) Klebsiella spp.

(D) In-vessel submerged system
60. Which aerobic photosynthetic

58. Which lithotrophic bacteria grow
prokaryote has heterocysts to fix
aerobically with CO as a sole source
nitrogen in acquatic system ?
of carbon and energy ?
(A) Cynobacteria
(A) Alkaligenes eutrophas

(B) Green sulphur bacteria
(B) Pseudomonas carboxydovorans

(C) Thiobacillus thiooxidans (C) Frankia

(D) Nitrobacter winogradskyii (D) Algae

16

Page 17

61. Which bacteria produces a variety 63. With the spread of warmer climate

due to global warming there will
of Nod factors and nodulate a large
be :
variety of legumes as well as non-
(A) Increased mortality due to heat
legume Parasponia andersonii ?
waves
(A) Sinorhizobium meliloti
(B) Increased mortality due to cold

(B) Bradyrhizobium japonicum waves

(C) Decrease in number of deaths
(C) Rhizobium NGR234
from floods and draughts
(D) Rhizobium leguminosarum
(D) Decrease in risk of flooding in
62. Which mycorrhizae penetrate the coastal areas

cell wall of plant root and form 64. Which foods are included in the trial

arbuscules for carbon/nutrient of plants that provided the

subsidence base for indigenous New
exchange ?
World Civilizations ?
(A) Ericoid mycorrhizae
(A) Rice, beans and squash
(B) Arbutoid mycorrhizae
(B) Barley, lentils and wheat

(C) Orchid mycorrhizae (C) Maize, beans and squash

(D) VAM (D) Yarns barley and millet

17 [P.T.O.

Page 18

65. What is the resultant noise if 8 68. How many envioronmental
sound levels of 50 dB(A) each mixed
attributes were used to display the
together ?

(A) 56 dB(A) relationships in a cross-impact

(B) 53 dB(A) matrix developed by Johnson and

(C) 59 dB(A) Bell ?
(D) 60 dB(A)
(A) 90
66. The project characteristics and the
baseline information is brought (B) 100
together by................of impacts.
(C) 92
(A) Prediction

(B) Evaluation (D) 80

(C) Assessment
69. Which of the following matrix is
(D) Identification
useful as a gross screening tool for
67. Which of the following models is
frequently used to analyze the air impact identification ?
quality impacts of single, elevated
point source ? (A) Gross-impact Matrix

(A) Box Model (B) Interaction Matrix
(B) Mass Balance Model
(C) Magnitude Matrix
(C) Gaussian Model

(D) Pasquill Model (D) Leopold Matrix

18

Page 19

70. Which of the following methods 73. When water is pumped from wells
involves an explict and predefined
in some coastal areas, a problem
relationship such as mathematical
model for social impact prediction ? arises known as :

(A) Qualitative Description
(A) Saltwater incursion
(B) Quantitative Description
(B) Sand deposition
(C) Application Specific Predictive
Technique (C) Permeability decrease
(D) Relative comparisons of the
(D) Artesian recharge
effects of alternatives

71. Since 1950-51 under land utilisation 74. Asphyxiants are chemicals that
in India, area under one of the
exclude :
following land-use category is
decreased : (A) Oxygen
(A) Area under forest
(B) Nitrogen
(B) Fallow land
(C) Carbon dioxide
(C) Area under non-agricultural
uses (D) Methane
(D) Net sown area
75. Ozone in air is :
72. No. of significant figures in 0·1040
is : (A) Primary air pollutant

(A) Three
(B) Secondary air pollutant
(B) Four
(C) Tertiary air pollutant
(C) Five

(D) Six (D) Fundamental air pollutant

19 [P.T.O.

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ROUGH WORK

20

Document Details

Board / OrgMaharashtra Exams
ExamMAHA SET
TypeQuestion Paper
Pages20
Updated30 Apr 2026