KMAT Kerala 2026 Question Paper with Answers

FINAL ANSWER KEY
Question Paper Code: 2/2026/OL
Exam:KMAT 2026 SESSION 1
Date of Test: 22-02-2026

1. The word “Obfuscate” means
A) To clarify something
B) To deliberately make something unclear
C) To exaggerate facts
D) To summarize briefly

2. The word “Pernicious” means
A) Harmless but noticeable
B) Gradually harmful or destructive
C) Openly aggressive
D) Extremely confusing

3. The word “Recalcitrant” means
A) Easily persuaded
B) Unwilling to obey authority
C) Extremely intelligent
D) Careless and forgetful

4. The word “Equivocal” means
A) Clearly expressed
B) Emotionally intense
C) Open to more than one interpretation
D) Completely false

5. The word “ treacherous ” means
A) loyal
B) responsible
C) unreliable

D) true

6. Which one of the following is a correctly spelled word?
A) consanguineous
B) consenguineous
C) consanguinous
D) consanguneous

7. Which one of the following is a correctly spelled word?
A) garulous
B) garruloes
C) garrulues
D) garrulous

8. Which one of the following is a correctly spelled word?
A) polyphiloprogenitive
B) polyphilopregenitive
C) polyphilopragenitive
D) polyphiloprogeunitive

9. Which one of the following is a correctly spelled word?
A) surreptiotious
B) sureptitious
C) surreptious
D) surreptitious

10. Which one of the following is a correctly spelled word?
A) viscissitude
B) vicsissitude
C) vicisitude
D) vicissitude

11. Which one of the following is an antonym to the word timid?
A) afraid
B) fearless
C) mousy
D) skittish

12. Which one of the following is an antonym to the word wane ?
A) remit
B) vanish
C) grow
D) shrink

13. Which one of the following is an antonym to the word reverence ?
A) praise
B) respect
C) dignify
D) ridicule

14. Which one of the following is an antonym to the word daunt ?
A) bother
B) scare
C) encourage
D) frighten

15. Which one of the following is an antonym to the word ferocious ?
A) dreadful
B) soft
C) fierce
D) violent

16. Change the present simple sentence “ She boils water for tea ” into past simple sentence.
A) She boil water for tea
B) She is boiling water for tea
C) She has boiled water for tea
D) She boiled water for tea

Change the present simple sentence : “The students enter the hall without making noise ”
17. into past simple sentence.
A) The students enters the hall without making noise
B) The students have entered the hall without making noise
C) The students entered the hall without making noise
D) The students have entered the hall without made noise

18. Which one of the following sentences is correct?
A) She ate her lunch, take a walk and went back to work
B) She ate her lunch, took a walk and go back to work
C) She ate her lunch, takes a walk and went back to work
D) She ate her lunch, took a walk and went back to work

19. Which one of the following sentences is correct?
If he got the job, he would have to travel 25 km to work, so he decides the job was not
A)
worth it
If he get the job, he would have to travel 25 km to work, so he decided the job was not
B)
worth it
C) If he got the job, he would have to travel 25 km to work, so he decided the job is not worth it
If he got the job, he would have to travel 25 km to work, so he decided the job was not
D)
worth it

20. Which one of the following sentences is correct?
A) He went to movie even though he was sick
B) He go to movie even though he was sick
C) He went to movie even though he has sick
D) He goes to movie even though he had sick.

Find out the correct preposition
21. He was looking -------- all the different possibilities.
A) with
B) of
C) in
D) for

Find out the correct preposition.
22. He arrived early, so he had to wait _____ his friend.
A) of
B) for
C) with
D) to

Find out the correct preposition
23. She has been working on it ------ last week
A) since
B) on
C) for
D) from

Find out the correct preposition
24. He will qualify -------- a year of entering the campus
A) from
B) since
C) with
D) within

Find out the correct preposition
25. I will complete all my assignments -------- Saturday.
A) in
B) from
C) on
D) during

26. Change the sentence “He enjoys reading historical novels ” into an interrogative sentence
A) Is he enjoy reading historical novels?
B) Do he enjoy reading historical novels?
C) Does he enjoys reading historical novels?
D) Does he enjoy reading historical novels?

27. Change the sentence “They have completed the work ” into an interrogative sentence
A) Do they completed the work?
B) Have they completed the work?
C) Did they completes the work?
D) Did they completed the work?

Convert the sentence into DIRECT SPEECH:
28. He said that he would meet me in the library.
A) He said, “ He will meet you in the library ”
B) He said, “ He will meet me in the library ”
C) He said, “ I will meet you in the library ”
D) He said, “ I will meet him in the library ”

Convert the sentence into DIRECT SPEECH :
29. They told us they were going to the theatre
A) They said, “ we are going to the theatre”
B) They said, “ they are going to the theatre”
C) They said, “ we went to the theatre”
D) They said, “ we were going to the theatre”

Convert the sentence into DIRECT SPEECH :
30. He said he had been working
A) He said “ I have been working ”
B) He said “ he has been working ”
C) He said “ He had been working ”
D) He said “ I have worked”

31. Convert the sentence into Passive Voice : She lights the lamp.

A) The lamp was lighted by her
B) The lamp is lighted by her
C) The lamp has lighted by her
D) The lamp is lighted by him

32. Convert the sentence into Passive Voice :He is not driving a car
A) A car is not being driven by him
B) A car is not driven by him
C) A car was not being driven by him
D) A car was not been driven by him

33. Convert the sentence into Active Voice :The assignment had been completed by her
A) She had been completed the assignment
B) She had been completing the assignment
C) She completed the assignment
D) She had completed the assignment

Convert the sentence into Active Voice :
34. Our home-work shall have been completed by us
A) We shall have been completed our home-work
B) We shall have completed their home-work
C) We shall have completed our home-work
D) They shall have completed our home-work

Choose the words for each blank that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole:
35. Seventy two year old man ------- half his time in India and the ----- in the US
A) spend, rests
B) spends, rest
C) reside, live
D) live, remaining

Choose the words for each blank that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole:
36. The new programme would enhance the ------- of the professionals and deepen the ------ of
safety protocols

A) income, issue
B) spread , darkness
C) expenditure, problems
D) skill, understanding

Choose the word for the blank that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole:
37. The 160-metre long skywalk will ----- public to move safely between bus stand and railway
station.
A) give
B) enable
C) sanction
D) improve

Choose the word for the blank that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole:
38. The armed forces used air defence mechanisms to ------ armed drone and missile attacks
from another country
A) discourage
B) foster
C) avoid
D) thwart

Choose the word for the blank that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole:
39. Security measures have been intensified at the airport ------- an order from the Bureau of
Civil Aviation Security
A) following
B) preceding
C) earlier
D) before

40. Choose the meaning of the idiom : a blessing in disguise
A) a bad thing that seemed good at first
B) a good thing that seemed bad at first
C) to ignore bad thing
D) to welcome a good move

41. Choose the meaning of the idiom : call it a day
A) stop working on something
B) start working on something
C) take rest on the day
D) go out on the day

42. Choose the meaning of the idiom : give someone the cold shoulder
A) arrest someone
B) beat someone
C) ignore someone
D) respect someone

Rearrange the parts to form a meaningful and coherent sentence:
P: inducted into the
43. Q: 300 Home Guards were
R: police force on Friday
S: a total of
A) QRPS
B) SQPR
C) RPQS
D) QPRS

Rearrange the parts to form a meaningful and coherent sentence:
P: consultations with all
44. Q: stakeholders on the terms of reference
R: there should be wider
S: and other issues
A) RPQS
B) QSRP
C) PQRS
D) RPSQ

Rearrange the parts to form a meaningful and coherent sentence:
P: is the bedrock of a
45. Q: equitable society
R: a nourished population
S: resilient and

A) QSPR
B) QPSR
C) RPQS
D) RPSQ

Choose the correct word from the options which is similar to the word given in capitals in the
46. sentence:
The officer was known for his INCORRUPTIBLE character.
A) Venal
B) Upright
C) Dubious
D) Expedient

Choose the correct word from the options which is similar to the word given in capitals in the
47. sentence:
The committee rejected the proposal as UNTENABLE after careful scrutiny.
A) Defensible
B) Plausible
C) Indefensible
D) Ambiguous

He is one of those scholars whom the committee has always looked __ as a potential
48. successor to the chair.
A) up to
B) forward to
C) into
D) onto

49. Which one of the following is a correctly spelled word?
A) connoissuer
B) connoisseur
C) connoiseur
D) connoissieur

Identify the linking verb in the sentence:
50. Though he appeared confident during the interview, he remained uncertain about the final
outcome.
A) appeared
B) remained
C) uncertain
D) interview

A wall of 60 m long can be built by 36 men in 21 days. Number of men required to build the
51. same wall in 14 days, is
A) 50
B) 52
C) 54
D) 56

A typing work is done by two persons A and B. A and B together can type a booklet in 4
52. hours, but A alone takes 12 hours to type the booklet. How many hours required for B to
type the booklet?
A) 3 hours
B) 4 hours
C) 5 hours
D) 6 hours

A pipe fills a tank in 4 hours; another empties it in 8 hours. If both are opened, how long will
53. it take to fill the tank?
A) 4 hours
B) 6 hours
C) 8 hours
D) 10 hours

A is twice as efficient as B. If A and B together finish a job in 12 days, then number of days
54. required for B to finish the job, is
A) 18 days
B) 24 days
C) 30 days
D) 36 days

Two men A and B complete a task in 8 days and earn Rs.8000. If A does 60% of the work,
55. then A gets
A) Rs.4800
B) Rs.6000
C) Rs.4200
D) Rs.4000

An amount invested at 12% simple interest amounts to Rs. 6200 in 2 years. The principal
56. amount is
A) Rs. 5000
B) Rs. 5200
C) Rs. 5400
D) Rs. 5600

57. Let x and y be positive integers such that x2 + y2 + xy = 61. If x = 4, then the value of y is
A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7

A sum of money invested at compound interest amounts to Rs.15,000 in one year and
58. Rs.16,500 in two years. Then the rate of interest is
A) 8%
B) 10%
C) 12%
D) 15%

59. In how many years will Rs.15,000 become Rs.19,500 at 5% simple interest per annum?
A) 4 years
B) 8 years
C) 5 years
D) 6 years

If the compound interest for 2 years at 10% per annum is Rs.1050, then the principal
60. amount is
A) Rs.5000
B) Rs.5500
C) Rs.6000
D) Rs.6500

The ratio of boys to girls in a school is 3:5. If there are 240 girls, then number of boys in the
61. school is
A) 120
B) 132
C) 148
D) 144

62. If 5 : x = 60 : 48, then x is equal to
A) 2
B) 3
C) 5
D) 4

A sweet item contains sugar and flour in the ratio 3 : 4. If 400g of flour is used in the sweet
63. item, then the quantity of sugar used in the sweet item is
A) 300g
B) 350g
C) 400g
D) 450g

The monthly salaries of three employees A, B and C are in the ratio 3:4:5. If the total
64. monthly salary of the three employees is Rs.7200, then the salaries of A, B and C are
respectively
A) Rs.2400, Rs.2800 and Rs.3200
B) Rs.1800, Rs.2400 and Rs.3000
C) Rs.1600, Rs.2400 and Rs.3200

D) Rs.1800, Rs.2200 and Rs.3000

65. A runner can complete a 750 m race in two and a half minutes. The speed of the runner is
A) 18 km/hr
B) 16 km/hr
C) 20 km/hr
D) 22 km/hr

66. The 20th term of the sequence 1, 4, 7, 10, ... is equal to
A) 56
B) 66
C) 68
D) 58

A bacterium doubles every hour. There are 5 bacteria initially. How many will there be after
67. 6 hours?
A) 160 bacteria
B) 320 bacteria
C) 640 bacteria
D) 460 bacteria

A ball bounces back to half of its previous height each time. If it is dropped from 256 meters,
68. what is the height after the 6th bounce?
A) 16 m
B) 8m
C) 4m
D) 2m

69. The 20th term in the triangular numbers 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, 21, . . . is
A) 190
B) 195
C) 200
D) 210

70. How many numbers between 1 and 200 are divisible by 13?
A) 13
B) 15
C) 17
D) 19

The arithmetic mean of 20 numbers is 16. If each number is multiplied by 3, then the new
71. mean is
A) 60
B) 48
C) 23
D) 19

The mean of four numbers is 300. If the mean of two of the four numbers is 310, then the
72. mean of the other two numbers is
A) 290
B) 295
C) 300
D) 305

73. If one-fourth of a number exceeds 20% of the number by 10, then the number is
A) 150
B) 180
C) 200
D) 250

74. The arithmetic mean of the numbers 7, 14, 21, . . . , 63 is
A) 38
B) 37
C) 36
D) 35

The mean of 9 numbers is 50. One of the numbers is wrongly recorded as 63 instead of 36.
75. What is the correct mean?
A) 47
B) 48
C) 49
D) 50

76. A television is sold for Rs.44,000 at a profit of 10%. What is the cost price?
A) Rs. 42,000
B) Rs. 40,000
C) Rs. 41,000
D) Rs. 41,500

A shopkeeper buys an item for Rs. 2800 and sells it at a 15% profit. What is the selling
77. price?
A) Rs. 3120
B) Rs. 3140
C) Rs. 3220
D) Rs. 3240

A man buys 100 apples for Rs. 3000 and sells 80 apples for Rs. 3000. What is the
78. percentage of profit?
A) 20%
B) 22%
C) 24%
D) 25%

A trader offers a discount of 20% on a product but still makes a profit of 10%. What is the
79. marked price of the product if the cost price is Rs.8000?
A) Rs.11000
B) Rs.10000
C) Rs.10500
D) Rs.9000

The length and breadth of a rectangular field are 165m and 120m. If the field is to paved
80. with identical square tiles of maximum size, then the length of the side of the tiles is
A) 10m
B) 11m
C) 16m
D) 15m

The sum of two numbers is 6000. On dividing the larger number by the smaller, we get 2 as
81. quotient and 600 as remainder. What is the larger number?
A) 4000
B) 4100
C) 4200
D) 4300

82. Which one of the following numbers is divisible by 3?
A) 4678
B) 5687
C) 6988
D) 6987

In a class there are 30 girls and 20 boys and their average height is 160 cm. If the average
83. height of girls is 150 cm, then the average height of boys is
A) 175cm
B) 172cm
C) 170cm
D) 165cm

In a survey of 80 people, 35 like tea, 40 like coffee and 15 like both. The number of people
84. who like tea only, is
A) 20
B) 25
C) 15
D) 10

85. Sum of two numbers is 20 and their product is 75. Then sum of their squares is
A) 225
B) 240
C) 250
D) 260

The LCM of two numbers is 1360 and their HCF is 20. If one of the numbers is 80, then the
86. other number is
A) 380
B) 360
C) 320
D) 340

87. The value of the sum 8+16+24+32+ . . . +80 is
A) 420
B) 440
C) 400
D) 450

88. The difference of two numbers is 780 and their sum is 1120. Then the larger number is
A) 880
B) 900
C) 950
D) 975

A positive integer m is increased by 20% and the resulting number is 1080. Then the integer
89. m is
A) 900
B) 880
C) 920
D) 890

The digits of the number 235 are permutated to form 6 numbers (including 235). What is the
90. sum of the resulting 6 numbers?
A) 2320
B) 2120
C) 2220
D) 2310

91. What is the missing digit in the number 432_687 if the number is divisible 9?
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8

On dividing a number by 35, we get 29 as remainder. If the same number is divided by 7,
92. then the remainder is
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

93. The number of integers between 25 and 125, which are divisible by 6, is
A) 15
B) 14
C) 16
D) 18

94. If 9859 – 7924 = 8765 – x, then the value of x is
A) 6820
B) 6832
C) 6823
D) 6830

95. The smallest number x such that 4456 + x is divisible by 7 is
A) 3
B) 4
C) 2
D) 5

If we have the same remainder(non-zero) when dividing the numbers 863 and 814 by a
96. number x, then the value of x is
A) 3
B) 5
C) 7
D) 9

A letter is chosen at random from the word "PROBABILITY". What is the probability that the
97. letter is a consonant?
A) 4/11
B) 5/11
C) 7/10
D) 7/11

A bag contains 4 yellow marbles and 6 red marbles. What is the probability of drawing a red
98. marble at random?
A) 0.4
B) 0.6
C) 0.3
D) 0.5

99. The probability of drawing a face card (Jack, Queen, King) from a standard deck of cards is
A) 1/13
B) 3/13
C) 1/26
D) 3/52

An integer is chosen at random from 1 to 20. What is the probability that it is a prime
100. number?
A) 0.4
B) 0.5
C) 0.2
D) 0.3

Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one of the
101. following does not belong to that group?
A) Adjective
B) Verb
C) Semicolon
D) Noun

What is the sum of the heights of three brothers A, B, and C?
Statement I: B is the tallest and his height is 163 cm.
102. Statement II: A is the shortest and his height is 154 cm.
To answer the question
A) Statement I alone is sufficient
B) Statement II alone is sufficient
C) Both statement I and statement II together are sufficient
D) Both statement I and statement II even together are not sufficient

The Tennis players participating in a tournament are ranked according to their previous
103. record. A player ranks 46th from the top and 58th from the bottom. How many Tennis
Players are participating in the tournament?
A) 102
B) 103
C) 104
D) 105

104. B is brother of S; S is sister of F and D is daughter of F. How is D related to B?
A) Daughter
B) Sister

C) Niece
D) Daughter-in-law

105. The next number in the sequence of numbers 5, 8, 6, 9, 7, 10, 8, __ is
A) 9
B) 10
C) 11
D) 12

106. Lizard : Reptile :: Frog : ?
A) Fish
B) Mammal
C) Amphibian
D) Invertebrate

The average height of 70 students in a class is 166 cm. There are 4 students in the class
whose height is equal to the average height of 166 cm. If the height of 32 students is
107. greater than 166 cm, then the number of students in the class whose height is less than 166
cm is
A) 33
B) 32
C) 35
D) 34

In the following pairs of words, identify the pair of words that has same or similar
108. relationship as
Teacher : School
A) Doctor : Hospital
B) Chef : Food
C) Driver :Car
D) Researcher : Journal

A software company lays off 40% of its employees. Among the lay-off employees 20% are
109. developers. The percentage of lay-off developers from the total employees of the company
is

A) 5%
B) 8%
C) 10%
D) 4%

Everyone with good reading habit visits Book Exhibition and every book buyer has a good
110. reading habit. Can we infer that all who visit Book Exhibition are book buyers?
A) Yes
B) No
C) May be
D) Insufficient information

111. Hardworking : Determined :: Happy : ?
A) Beautiful
B) Lovely
C) Upbeat
D) Sad

112. ‘A is the only son of B’ and ‘C is grand daughter of B’. How C is related to A?
A) Daughter
B) Sister
C) Niece
D) Daughter-in-law

If in a certain language, ARGENTINA is coded as CTIGPVKPC, how is GERMANY coded in
113. that language?
A) IGTOCPA
B) IHTOCPA
C) IGTNCPA
D) IGTOBPA

Arrange the following words in a meaningful sequence.
114. 1. Admission 2. Application 3. Entrance Exam 4. Advertisement
A) 4, 2, 1, 3

B) 2, 3, 1, 4
C) 4, 2, 3, 1
D) 2, 1, 3, 4

Twenty girls are sitting in a row. A girl is shifted by four places towards the left, then she
115. became 8thfrom the left end. The earlier position of that girl from the right end of the row is
A) 9th
B) 10th
C) 11th
D) 12th

116. The next number in the sequence of numbers 3, 6, 11, 18, 27, __ is
A) 32
B) 36
C) 38
D) 40

117. If today is Sunday, then the day which is three days before the day after tomorrow is
A) Sunday
B) Saturday
C) Monday
D) Friday

Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one of the
118. following does not belong to that group?
A) Daisy
B) Iris
C) Hibiscus
D) Petals

Question: What is the total mark in the examination?
119. Statements: I. A student secures 36% but fails by 6 marks.
II. The pass mark is 60.
A) Statement I alone is sufficient to determine the answer

B) Statement II alone is sufficient, but statement I alone is not sufficient
C) Both the statements I and II are needed
D) Data in both the statements together are not sufficient

A box contains 16 red, 12 white and 15 yellow identical marbles. A man picks one marble at
120. a time not looking at the marbles and without replacement. How many times he has to pick a
marble to make 100% certain that he picked out at least 3 white marbles?
A) 33
B) 34
C) 31
D) 32

A man walks 4 km West and turns right to walk 3 km. Where is he now from the starting
121. point?
A) 4 km North
B) 5 km North-West
C) 5 km North-East
D) 3 km East

122. Horse : Foal :: Kangaroo :
A) Fawn
B) Joey
C) Cub
D) Lamb

Statements:
123. I. Mohan did not water his plants.
II. Mohan’s plants were withered
A) Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B) Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C) Both the statements are effects of independent causes
D) Both the statements are independent causes

Statement :
The average age of girls in a class is 17 and the average age of boys in that glass is 18.
124. Conclusions :
I. Every girl is younger to all the boys in the class.
II. Every boy is elder to all the girls in the class.
A) Only conclusion I follows
B) Only conclusion II follows
C) Both conclusions I and II follow
D) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

Statement:
All eligible unemployed youths above 18 years of age will be given unemployment
allowance. – An announcement from the government.
125. Assumptions:
I. All unemployed youths above 18 years of age are in need of financial support.
II. There are some unemployed youths above 18 years of age who need financial support.
A) Only assumption I is implicit
B) Only assumption II is implicit
C) Both assumptions I and II are implicit
D) Neither assumption I nor II is implicit

Statement:
In a village there are 1200 voters. The number of female voters is more than 50%.
126. Conclusions:
I. The village has 600 female voters.
II. Female voters are the majority in the village.
A) Only conclusion I follows
B) Only conclusion II follows
C) Both conclusions I and II follows
D) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

Statements:
127. I. The quantum of edible oil imported this year is increased by the government.
II. The production of oil seeds has declined sharply this year.
A) Both statements are effects of some common cause
B) Statement II is the cause, and statement I is its effect
C) Statement I is the cause, and statement II is its effect
D) Both statements are effects of independent cause

Statement:
The Indian Railways has decided to appoint four thousand additional station masters.
Assumptions:
128. I. In Indian Railways there is enough railway stations to accommodate four thousand
additional station masters.
II. Indian railways has sufficient number of station masters.
A) Only assumption I is implicit
B) Only assumption II is implicit
C) Both assumptions I and II are implicit
D) Neither assumption I nor II is implicit

129. Paw : Cat :: Hoof
A) Tiger
B) Horse
C) Bear
D) Eagle

130. What is the essential part of (that is strongly connected to) ‘ Knowledge ’?
A) Library
B) School
C) Teacher
D) Learning

131. From the following four words choose the word which is different from other three words.
A) Cap
B) Hat
C) Veil
D) Helmet

132. M S Dhoni : Cricket :: Cristiano Ronaldo : ?
A) Tennis
B) Basket Ball
C) Athlete

D) Football

Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one of the
133. following does not belong to that group?
A) Trivial
B) Unimportant
C) Important
D) Insignificant

Given the sequence of numbers 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23,…. What are the next two
134. numbers?
A) 29, 31
B) 27, 31
C) 29, 33
D) 27, 33

Statements:
135. I. The private school student’s performance is excellent in the final exam of class 10.
II. Many teachers left private schools and joined in the government schools.
A) Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B) Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C) Both the statements are effects of independent causes
D) Both the statements are independent causes

A man walks 2 km in East from his house and then he turns to his left and walks 3 km.
136. Further he turns to his left and walks 2 km. Now, how far is he from his house?
A) 2 km
B) 3 km
C) 4 km
D) 5 km

137. A and B are sisters. If S is son of A and M is the mother of B, then how is S related to M?
A) Son
B) Grand son

C) Nephew
D) Maternal uncle

Question : What is the total weight of 12 metal discs having equal weight?
Statements:
138. I . Half of the weight of a metal disc is 8 kg.
II. The total weight of 4 discs is 32 kg more than the total weight of two discs.
A) Statement I is sufficient but statement II is not sufficient
B) Statement II is sufficient but statement I is not sufficient
C) Either statements I or II is sufficient
D) Both the statements together are not sufficient

139. Pick the odd one out from the given pair of words.
A) Author : Book
B) Teacher : School
C) Chef : Restaurant
D) Nurse : Hospital

The digits of the number 2365643879 are arranged in ascending order from left to
140. right.What is the difference between the two digits where the one digit is 3rd from the right
and the other digit is 4th from the left?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

141. The Chief of the Defence Staff is
A) Admiral Dinesh K.Tripathy
B) General Upendra Dwivedi
C) Lieutenant General N.S. Raja Subramani
D) General Anil Chauhan

142. The present Indian Union Minister of Defence is
A) Rajnath Singh

B) Sanjay Seth
C) Nitin Jairam Gadkari
D) Shivraj Singh Chouhan

The DDR&D deals with research and development of defence technologies, systems and
143. equipments. DDR&D stands for
A) Department of Defence Research and Development
B) Department of Defence Regional Development
C) Department of Defence Research and Regional Development
D) Development of Defence Research and Department

Pakistani drones and missiles have been intercepted and destroyed by India’s defence
144. Systems successfully. Drone is an aircraft or small
A) flying device that has only two pilots
B) helicopter that does not have a pilot
C) flying device that does not have a pilot
D) flying device that has only one pilot.

The Indian Armed Forces launched ‘ OPERATION SINDOOR’ hitting terrorist infrastructure
145. in Pakistan and Pakistan occupied Jammu and Kashmir on
A) 09 May, 2025
B) 07 May, 2025
C) 10 May, 2025
D) 11 May, 2025

146. The National Song Vande Mataram was composed in Sanskrit by
A) Rabindranath Tagore
B) Bankimchandra Chatterji
C) Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay
D) Raja ram Mohan Roy

The Indian Institute of Foreign Trade was established in 1963 as an autonomous body under
147. the Ministry of
A) External Affairs

B) Home Affairs
C) Commerce and Industry
D) Corporate Affairs

National Stock Exchange was the first exchange in India to implement electronic or screen
148. based trading which began its operations in the year
A) 1998
B) 2012
C) 2000
D) 1994

149. The Chairman of Securities and Exchange Board of India is
A) Amarjeet Singh
B) Ananth Narayan
C) Ashwani Bhatia
D) Tuhin Kanta Pandey

The 193 Member States of the United Nations officially adopted a new sustainable
150. development agenda entitled ‘ Transforming Our World. The 2030 Agenda for
Sustainable Development ’ in
A) New York in September 2015
B) London in September 2015
C) Paris in September 2015
D) New Delhi in September 2015

151. The International Monetary Fund was established in the year
A) 1954 in the aftermath of the Great Depression of the 1940s.
B) 1944 in the aftermath of the Great Depression of the 1930s.
C) 1964 in the aftermath of the Great Depression of the 1950s.
D) 1984 in the aftermath of the Great Depression of the 1970s.

152. Which one of the following is true in respect of United Nations?
A) Financial aid is available to individuals through the UN
B) UN offers financial, logistical or legal assistance for projects to the students

C) UN does not consider proposals from individuals from the Member countries
D) There is no way for NGOs to collaborate with the UN on its activities.

153. The Nobel Peace Prize 2020 was awarded to
A) the United Nations and its Secretary General
B) the United Nations Peacekeeping Force
C) the United Nations World Food Programme
D) the Office of the UNs High Commissioner for Refugees

154. In GST, only value addition will be taxed and burden of tax is to be borne by the
A) producer of the goods
B) final consumer
C) trader of the goods
D) dealer

155. Which one of the following is not true in respect of Goods and Services Tax (GST)?
A) The transaction in securities shall not be liable to GST
B) The purchase of edible oils is liable to GST
C) The purchase of vehicles is liable to GST
D) The purchase of gift items from a shop is liable to GST

The study of how genes and traits of human are passed from one generation to the next is
156. known as
A) Anthropology
B) Ethnology
C) Organology
D) Genetics

The Victoria Memorial, a brain child of Lord Curzon, was inaugurated by the Prince of Wales
157. in the year 1921. The Victoria Memorial is located in
A) Kolkata
B) Lucknow
C) Hyderabad
D) Chennai

Kabaddi is basically a combative sport, with -------- players on each side, played for a period
158. of 40 minutes with a 5 minutes break
A) seven
B) six
C) eight
D) five

159. In human, the deficiency of vitamin E causes
A) rickets
B) muscles weakness, nerve damage and a weakened immune system
C) osteoporosis
D) night blindness

160. Who nominates the Members of Rajya Sabha?
A) Vice President of India
B) Prime Minister of India
C) President of India
D) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India

161. The Bihu dance is an indigenous folk dance from the Indian State of
A) Meghalaya
B) Manipur
C) Bihar
D) Assam

162. The Bhabha Atomic Research Centre is located in
A) Pune, Maharashtra
B) Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu
C) Bengaluru, Karnataka
D) Trombay, Maharashtra

163. The author of the Book ‘ Broken Wings ’ is
A) S. Radhakrishnan
B) Sarojini Naidu
C) Mulk Raj Anand
D) Kuldip Nayyar

164. ASEAN was established in1967 in Bangkok. ASEAN stands for
A) Association of Southeast African Nations
B) Association of Southern Asian Nations
C) Association of Southeast Asian Nations
D) Association of Southwest Asian Nations

165. The India Brand Equity Foundation is a trust established by the
A) Ministry of Finance
B) Ministry of Railways
C) Department of Commerce, Ministry of Commerce and Industry
D) Ministry of Mines

166. The campuses of Tata Institute of Social Sciences are located in
A) Mumbai, Tuljapur, Hyderabad and Guwahati
B) New Delhi and Kolkata
C) Bengaluru and Chennai
D) Jaipur and Bhopal

167. In finance and accounting, par value means
A) sale value of a financial instrument
B) stated value or face value of a financial instrument
C) purchase value of a financial instrument
D) Profit value of a financial instrument

In the Financial Year 2026-27, the maximum total income for which tax liability for individual
168. tax payers is NIL is
A) Rs. 10 Lakhs

B) Rs. 15 Lakhs
C) Rs. 14 Lakhs
D) Rs. 12 Lakhs

169. NITI Aayog was established in which year?
A) 2012
B) 2014
C) 2015
D) 2016

170. In Kerala, KeSCPCR is responsible for protecting the rights of
A) all senior citizen who reside in the districts of Kerala
B) all women who reside in the districts of Kerala
C) all children who reside in the districts of Kerala
D) all disabled persons who reside in the districts of Kerala

171. Information Kerala Mission is an autonomous institution under the
A) Finance Department, Government of Kerala
B) Law Department, Government of Kerala
C) Education Department, Government of Kerala
D) Local self Government Department, Government of Kerala.

The Institute of Management in Kerala is one of the teaching and research departments of
172. the
A) University of Kerala
B) University of Calicut
C) Central University of Kerala
D) Kannur University

173. Kumarrakom bird sanctuary in Kerala is located on the banks of
A) Vembanad Lake
B) Ashtamudi Lake
C) Vellayani Lake

D) Sasthamcotta Lake

Livelihood Inclusion Financial Empowerment (LIFE) scheme is the Kerala Government’S
174. mission to
A) give free power supply to all houses in villages in Kerala
B) provide drinking water supply connections to all houses in villages in Kerala
C) build free houses for all homeless people in the State.
D) provide financial assistance to all unemployed women in Kerala

The Operation Black Thunder was conducted by the National Security Guard in April 1986 to
175. flush out extremists in
A) Ludhiana, Punjab
B) Amritsar, Punjab
C) Patiala, Punjab
D) Jalandhar, Punjab

Pokhran II (Operation Shakthi) was a series of five nuclear weapon tests conducted by India
176. in the year
A) 1988
B) 1990
C) 1998
D) 2000

177. The author of the Book, India 2020: A Vision for the New Millennium is
A) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
B) Amitav Ghosh
C) Jhumpa Lahiri
D) Shashi Tharoor

178. The Ajanta Caves, the Buddhist cave monuments, are located in the
A) Karnataka State
B) Gujarat State
C) Odisha State
D) Maharashtra State

179. The Jag Mandir Island palace built in the Lake Pichola is located in
A) Chandigarh, Haryana
B) Udaipur, Rajasthan
C) Bihar, Patna
D) Bhuvaneshwar, Odisha

180. The second longest urban beach in the world, Marina Beach is located in
A) Howrah
B) Mumbai
C) Chennai
D) Kanyakumari