KMAT Kerala 2023 Question Paper with Answers

FINAL ANSWER KEY

Exam: KMAT-2023 SESSION-1
Date of Test: 19-02-2023

Question1:-Read the following passage and answer the question

Our real problem in India is not political. It is social. This is a condition not only prevailing in India, but among all nations. I do not believe in an exclusive political interest.
Politics in the West have dominated Western ideals, and we in India are trying to imitate you. We have to remember that in Europe, where peoples had their racial unity
from the beginning, and where natural resources were insufficient for the inhabitants, the civilization has naturally taken the character of political and commercial
aggressiveness. For on the one hand they had no internal complications, and on the other they had to deal with neighbours who were strong and rapacious. To have
perfect combination among themselves and a watchful attitude of animosity against others was taken as the solution of their problems. In former days they organized and
plundered, in the present age the same spirit continues—and they organize and exploit the whole world.

Which one of the following statements is true
A:-Political problem is a real problem that exists among all nations
B:-Society takes a character of political and commercial aggressiveness because of social heterogeneity
C:-Author has strong leaning towards socialism
D:-Conflict management is a solution to address the problem of strong and rapacious neighbourhood
Question2:-
Read the following passage and answer the question.

During the evolution of the Nation the moral culture of brotherhood was limited by geographical boundaries, because at that time those boundaries were true. Now they
have become imaginary lines of tradition divested of the qualities of real obstacles. So the time has come when man's moral nature must deal with this great fact with all
seriousness or perish. The first impulse of this change of circumstance has been the churning up of man's baser passions of greed and cruel hatred. If this persists
indefinitely, and armaments go on exaggerating themselves to unimaginable absurdities, and machines and storehouses envelop this fair earth with their dirt and smoke
and ugliness, then it will end in a conflagration of suicide. Therefore man will have to exert all his power of love and clarity of vision to make another great moral
adjustment which will comprehend the whole world of men and not merely the fractional groups of nationality. The call has come to every individual in the present age to
prepare himself and his surroundings for this dawn of a new era, when man shall discover his soul in the spiritual unity of all human beings.

The author advocates for the close idea of……………….
A:-Protectionism
B:-Nationalism
C:-Globalism
D:-Jingoism
Question3:-Read the following passage and answer the question

As soon as the light in the bedroom went out there was a stirring and a fluttering all through the farm buildings. Word had gone round during the day that old Major, the
prize Middle White boar, had had a strange dream on the previous night and wished to communicate it to the other animals. It had been agreed that they should all meet
in the big barn as soon as Mr. Jones was safely out of the way. Old Major (so he was always called, though the name under which he had been exhibited was Willingdon
Beauty) was so highly regarded on the farm that everyone was quite ready to lose an hour's sleep in order to hear what he had to say. At one end of the big barn, on a
sort of raised platform, Major was already ensconced on his bed of straw, under a lantern which hung from a beam. He was twelve years old and had lately grown rather
stout, but he was still a majestic-looking pig, with a wise and benevolent appearance in spite of the fact that his tushes had never been cut. Before long the other animals
began to arrive and make themselves comfortable after their different fashions. First came the three dogs, Bluebell, Jessie, and Pincher, and then the pigs, who settled
down in the straw immediately in front of the platform. The hens perched themselves on the window-sills, the pigeons fluttered up to the rafters, the sheep and cows lay
down behind the pigs and began to chew the cud. The two cart-horses, Boxer and Clover, came in together, walking very slowly and setting down their vast hairy hoofs
with great care lest there should be some small animal concealed in the straw. Clover was a stout motherly mare approaching middle life, who had never quite got her
figure back after her fourth foal. Boxer was an enormous beast, nearly eighteen hands high, and as strong as any two ordinary horses put together. A white stripe down
his nose gave him a somewhat stupid appearance, and in fact he was not of first-rate intelligence, but he was universally respected for his steadiness of character and
tremendous powers of work. After the horses came Muriel, the white goat, and Benjamin, the donkey. Benjamin was the oldest animal on the farm, and the worst
tempered. He seldom talked, and when he did, it was usually to make some cynical remark—for instance, he would say that God had given him a tail to keep the flies off,
but that he would sooner have had no tail and no flies. Alone among the animals on the farm he never laughed. If asked why, he would say that he saw nothing to laugh
at. Nevertheless, without openly admitting it, he was devoted to Boxer; the two of them usually spent their Sundays together in the small paddock beyond the orchard,
grazing side by side and never speaking.

Identify the odd man out.
A:-Benjamin
B:-Bluebell
C:-Jessie
D:-Pincher
Question4:-Read the following passage and answer the question

The struggle between Liberty and Authority is the most conspicuous feature in the portions of history with which we are earliest familiar, particularly in that of Greece,
Rome, and England. But in old times this contest was between subjects, or some classes of subjects, and the government. By liberty, was meant protection against the
tyranny of the political rulers. The rulers were conceived (except in some of the popular governments of Greece) as in a necessarily antagonistic position to the people
whom they ruled. They consisted of a governing One, or a governing tribe or caste, who derived their authority from inheritance or conquest, who, at all events, did not
hold it at the pleasure of the governed, and whose supremacy men did not venture, perhaps did not desire, to contest, whatever precautions might be taken against its
oppressive exercise. Their power was regarded as necessary, but also as highly dangerous; as a weapon which they would attempt to use against their subjects, no less
than against external enemies. To prevent the weaker members of the community from being preyed upon by innumerable vultures, it was needful that there should be
an animal of prey stronger than the rest, commissioned to keep them down. But as the king of the vultures would be no less bent upon preying on the flock than any of
the minor harpies, it was indispensable to be in a perpetual attitude of defence against his beak and claws. The aim, therefore, of patriots, was to set limits to the power
which the ruler should be suffered to exercise over the community; and this limitation was what they meant by liberty. It was attempted in two ways. First, by obtaining a
recognition of certain immunities, called political liberties or rights, which it was to be regarded as a breach of duty in the ruler to infringe, and which if he did infringe,
specific resistance, or general rebellion, was held to be justifiable. A second, and generally a later expedient, was the establishment of constitutional checks; by which the
consent of the community, or of a body of some sort, supposed to represent its interests, was made a necessary condition to some of the more important acts of the
governing power. To the first of these modes of limitation, the ruling power, in most European countries, was compelled, more or less, to submit. It was not so with the
second; and to attain this, or when already in some degree possessed, to attain it more completely, became everywhere the principal object of the lovers of liberty. And
so long as mankind were content to combat one enemy by another, and to be ruled by a master, on condition of being guaranteed more or less efficaciously against his
tyranny, they did not carry their aspirations beyond this point.

Which one of the following statements is FALSE?
A:-All over the world, the rulers are absolutely antagonistic to the ruled all the time.
B:-Liberty was the limitation imposed upon the rulers.
C:-People’s representatives act as a constitutional checks in the governing system.
D:-None of the above

Question5:-Read the following passage and answer the question

That was why I asked you the question, I replied, because I see that you are indifferent about money, which is a characteristic rather of those who have inherited their
fortunes than of those who have acquired them; the makers of fortunes have a second love of money as a creation of their own, resembling the affection of authors for
their own poems, or of parents for their children, besides that natural love of it for the sake of use and profit which is common to them and all men. And hence they are
very bad company, for they can talk about nothing but the praises of wealth. That is true, he said. Yes, that is very true, but may I ask another question?—What do you
consider to be the greatest blessing which you have reaped from your wealth? One, he said, of which I could not expect easily to convince others. For let me tell you,
Socrates, that when a man thinks himself to be near death, fears and cares enter into his mind which he never had before; the tales of a world below and the punishment
which is exacted there of deeds done here were once a laughing matter to him, but now he is tormented with the thought that they may be true: either from the weakness
of age, or because he is now drawing nearer to that other place, he has a clearer view of these things; suspicions and alarms crowd thickly upon him, and he begins to
reflect and consider what wrongs he has done to others. And when he finds that the sum of his transgressions is great he will many a time like a child start up in his sleep
for fear, and he is filled with dark forebodings. But to him who is conscious of no sin, sweet hope, as Pindar charmingly says, is the kind nurse of his age: ‘Hope,’ he says,
‘cherishes the soul of him who lives in justice and holiness, and is the nurse of his age and the companion of his journey;—hope which is mightiest to sway the restless
soul of man.’

Man at his dead bed is………….
A:-Confused
B:-Thoughtful
C:-Remorseful
D:-Frightened
Question6:-Read the following passage and answer the question

All the perceptions of the human mind resolve themselves into two distinct kinds, which I shall call IMPRESSIONS and IDEAS. The difference betwixt these consists in
the degrees of force and liveliness, with which they strike upon the mind, and make their way into our thought or consciousness. Those perceptions, which enter with
most force and violence, we may name impressions: and under this name I comprehend all our sensations, passions and emotions, as they make their first appearance
in the soul. By ideas I mean the faint images of these in thinking and reasoning; such as, for instance, are all the perceptions excited by the present discourse, excepting
only those which arise from the sight and touch, and excepting the immediate pleasure or uneasiness it may occasion. I believe it will not be very necessary to employ
many words in explaining this distinction. Every one of himself will readily perceive the difference betwixt feeling and thinking. The common degrees of these are easily
distinguished; though it is not impossible but in particular instances they may very nearly approach to each other. Thus in sleep, in a fever, in madness, or in any very
violent emotions of soul, our ideas may approach to our impressions. As on the other hand it sometimes happens, that our impressions are so faint and low, that we
cannot distinguish them from our ideas. But notwithstanding this near resemblance in a few instances, they are in general so very different, that no-one can make a
scruple to rank them under distinct heads, and assign to each a peculiar name to mark the difference.

Which one of the following statements is true?
A:-Ideas has more force than impressions.
B:-Impressions are mostly faint
C:-Impressions are more powerful than ideas
D:-None of the above
Question7:-Read the following passage and answer the question

The moral rules which forbid mankind to hurt one another (in which we must never forget to include wrongful interference with each other's freedom) are more vital to
human well-being than any maxims, however important, which only point out the best mode of managing some department of human affairs. They have also the
peculiarity, that they are the main element in determining the whole of the social feelings of mankind. It is their observance which alone preserves peace among human
beings: if obedience to them were not the rule, and disobedience the exception, everyone would see in every one else a probable enemy, against whom he must be
perpetually guarding himself. What is hardly less important, these are the precepts which mankind have the strongest and the most direct inducements for impressing
upon one another. By merely giving to each other prudential instruction or exhortation, they may gain, or think they gain, nothing: in inculcating on each other the duty of
positive beneficence they have an unmistakeable interest, but far less in degree: a person may possibly not need the benefits of others; but he always needs that they
should not do him hurt. Thus the moralities which protect every individual from being harmed by others, either directly or by being hindered in his freedom of pursuing his
own good, are at once those which he himself has most at heart, and those which he has the strongest interest in publishing and enforcing by word and deed. It is by a
person's observance of these, that his fitness to exist as one of the fellowship of human beings, is tested and decided; for on that depends his being a nuisance or not to
those with whom he is in contact. Now it is these moralities primarily, which compose the obligations of justice. The most marked cases of injustice, and those which give
the tone to the feeling of repugnance which characterizes the sentiment, are acts of wrongful aggression, or wrongful exercise of power over some one; the next are
those which consist in wrongfully withholding from him something which is his due; in both cases, inflicting on him a positive hurt, either in the form of direct suffering, or
of the privation of some good which he had reasonable ground, either of a physical or of a social kind, for counting upon.

Moral rules ultimately pave way to………………….
A:-Obedience
B:-Injustice
C:-Justice
D:-None of the above
Question8:-Read the following passage and answer the question

Since the dawn of the Industrial Revolution, there has been rage against the machine. From the first saboteurs in France, who tried to destroy power looms in the 17th
century to the protests against mechanisation by labour unions and more recently, in the 1990s, against computerisation in India’s public sector by the CPM and
Samajwadi Party — tech “disruptions” have led to deep churn in the nature of work. Yet, there is a tendency in the current moment — fed, perhaps, by the narcissistic
hyperbole engendered by social media — to view the impending changes in labour and life by developments in artificial intelligence as especially apocalyptic. Two AI-
powered apps — ChatGPT and, to a lesser extent, Lensa — are the cause of a seeming moral panic around the nature of intellectual and artistic work. Since ChatGPT
— an open-source AI-based text-generating tool — became public in December, everyone from writers, editors, academics to assorted white-collar professionals has
been worried about jobs becoming obsolete and plagiarism becoming rampant. In fact, the bot’s creators, OpenAI, recently announced that they would create a
watermark of sorts to ensure plagiarism can be easily detected. Lensa, on the other hand, creates stunning portraits with a subtlety hitherto thought to be an exclusively
human domain, using AI. The usual defence against the fear that AI will take over tasks that are fundamentally “human” is that no machine will be sophisticated enough
to generate the pathos of a Dostoyevsky or the insight of a brilliant academic. The more important question, perhaps, is why upper-class passions and jobs are seen as
more “fundamental” in the first place. When computers were used to replace accountants, or entire communities of weavers were lost to mass production, the human
condition was not altered. Words and art are arguably no more or less important or human than agriculture and craft. The difference between the powerloom and AI,
perhaps, is the power and self-importance of those the technologies “disrupt”.

What is the main theme of the above passage?
A:-AI’s eventually take over almost all the creative fields
B:-All the creative works will lose value herein
C:-There is no need to worry about AI replacing creative fields as more fundamental aspect of the economy are already mechanized
D:-None of the above
Question9:-Read the following passage and answer the question

The Union Cabinet has cleared a ₹17,490-crore National Green Hydrogen (NGH) mission that aims to facilitate the production of hydrogen from renewable energy.
Hydrogen is an essential industrial fuel that has a range of uses from producing ammonia, making steel and cement, to powering fuel cells that can run buses and cars.
However, the cheapest way to manufacture this is to rely on fossil fuel such as coal and natural gas and this produces carbon emissions. The concerns over global

warming and the gradual but steady embrace of alternative fuels have stoked the world’s interest in producing hydrogen from renewable energy sources such as solar
and wind energy. This, however, is relatively expensive. It costs between $0.9 to $1.5 to produce a kilogramme of hydrogen from coal and anywhere from $3.5 to $5.5
per kg to produce it from renewable energy sources. Just as solar power tariffs in India have now dipped below that of coal power, the government hopes that ‘green
hydrogen’, or that produced entirely from renewable energy, will also cost less than the current price to make hydrogen from fossil fuel sources. The NGH mission aims to
create an enabling environment for the Indian industry to develop the infrastructure to produce and transport green hydrogen from certain nerve centres to production
hubs where they can be used in various industrial applications. The NGH mission has committed to finance — the details are not yet available — the manufacturing of
electrolysers, which use electricity to split water into hydrogen and oxygen. By 2030, the goal is to have at least 5 million metric tonnes of annual green hydrogen
production, electrolyser capacity of 60-100 gigawatt and a 125-gigawatt renewable energy capacity for green hydrogen and its associated transmission network. Green
hydrogen, because of the entailed expenses, currently accounts for less than 1% of global hydrogen production and India’s aim is to become a global, industrial hub and
exporter of such hydrogen. While this is a worthy ambition, India’s track record in becoming a high-technology manufacturing hub raises doubts on whether this is
achievable by 2030. Despite policies, India has not managed to be a net exporter of solar cells, semiconductors or wind power components. This is because India’s
underlying manufacturing base continues to be weak and unable to efficiently absorb and utilise global capital. For India to realise ambitions, it must strengthen its small
manufacturing and allied enterprises infrastructure which, rather than large industries, will be the mainstay of any green economy.

What is the main limiting factor for India to become a manufacturing hub of Green Hydrogen?
A:-Lack of advanced technology
B:-Lack of capital
C:-Weak manufacturing infrastructure
D:-Lack of entrepreneurial activities
Question10:-Read the following passage and answer the question

Recent macro-economic data, including the official Index of Eight Core Industries for November and S&P Global’s survey-based Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI) for
the manufacturing and services sectors for December, offer mixed signals on the underlying momentum in the economy. The government’s provisional data show that
output across the core industries, spanning coal to electricity, grew by an average 5.4% year-on-year in November. Double-digit expansions in cement, coal, electricity
and steel led the index higher. However, on a sequential basis, contractions in six of the eight sectors, including in the heavyweight sectors of electricity and refinery
products, which together represent almost half the index, kept average core output unchanged. While electricity output shrank 2.1% from October, refinery products
contracted by 3.1% sequentially. Only production of coal and cement expanded both year-on-year and month-on-month, signalling that non-power demand for coal and
construction activity may have begun gaining some traction in the third fiscal quarter. The uptrend in cement is heartening as consumption of the key building material
spans the job-intensive housing and infrastructure segments and, if sustained, could help undergird broader economic momentum. The 12.3% year-on-year and 15.1%
sequential expansion in coal output is also a positive augury as it indicates an improvement in availability of the fuel to fire captive power plants and furnaces in the
crucial process and metal-making industries. Separately, the more up-to-date December PMI data show that manufacturing momentum strengthened appreciably as
businesses reported the fastest rise in new orders since February 2021. The private survey of purchasing managers at about 400 manufacturers signalled that average
output growth across these firms hit a 13-month high last month, with the PMI reading of 57.8 pointing to the strongest sectoral expansion since October 2020. Producers
of goods stepped up hiring to help them meet a backlog of orders. And though the increase in jobs was the slowest since September, employment across the sector rose
for a tenth straight month reflecting the heightened optimism among manufacturers. The PMI survey shows that overall output charge inflation across the private sector
has intensified, with manufacturers reporting inflation in selling prices outpacing gains in input costs for the first time in almost two-and-a-half years. Policymakers can ill-
afford to drop their guard on inflation at this stage.

The increasing manufacturing growth might lead to …………………………
A:-Increasing inflation
B:-Decreasing inflation
C:-No effect on inflation
D:-Uncertain effect on inflation
Question11:-Read the following passage and answer the question

The laws governing inheritance are quite unknown; no one can say why the same peculiarity in different individuals of the same species, and in individuals of different
species, is sometimes inherited and sometimes not so; why the child often reverts in certain characters to its grandfather or grandmother or other much more remote
ancestor; why a peculiarity is often transmitted from one sex to both sexes or to one sex alone, more commonly but not exclusively to the like sex. It is a fact of some little
importance to us, that peculiarities appearing in the males of our domestic breeds are often transmitted either exclusively, or in a much greater degree, to males alone. A
much more important rule, which I think may be trusted, is that, at whatever period of life a peculiarity first appears, it tends to appear in the offspring at a corresponding
age, though sometimes earlier. In many cases this could not be otherwise: thus the inherited peculiarities in the horns of cattle could appear only in the offspring when
nearly mature; peculiarities in the silkworm are known to appear at the corresponding caterpillar or cocoon stage. But hereditary diseases and some other facts make me
believe that the rule has a wider extension, and that when there is no apparent reason why a peculiarity should appear at any particular age, yet that it does tend to
appear in the offspring at the same period at which it first appeared in the parent. I believe this rule to be of the highest importance in explaining the laws of embryology.
These remarks are of course confined to the first appearance of the peculiarity, and not to its primary cause, which may have acted on the ovules or male element; in
nearly the same manner as in the crossed offspring from a short-horned cow by a long-horned bull, the greater length of horn, though appearing late in life, is clearly due
to the male element.

The first appearance of the peculiarity occurs owing to………………
A:-Female element
B:-Male element
C:-Both Male and Female elements
D:-None of the above
Question12:-Read the following passage and answer the question

Marriage, with all its ceremonies, its rights, and its duties, fills their imagination from infancy to age; and I do not believe there is a country upon earth in which a larger
portion of the wealth of the community is spent in the ceremonies, or where the rights are better secured, or the duties better enforced, notwithstanding all the
disadvantages of the laws of polygamy. Not one man in ten can afford to maintain more than one wife, and not one in ten of those who can afford it will venture upon 'a
sea of troubles' in taking a second, if he has a child by the first. One of the evils which press most upon Indian society is the necessity which long usage has established
of squandering large sums in marriage ceremonies. Instead of giving what they can to their children to establish them, and enable them to provide for their families and
rise in the world, parents everywhere feel bound to squander all they can borrow in the festivities of their marriage. Men in India could never feel secure of being
permitted freely to enjoy their property under despotic and unsettled governments, the only kind of governments they knew or hoped for; and much of the means that
would otherwise have been laid out in forming substantial works, with a view to a return in income of some sort or another, for the remainder of their own lives and of
those of their children, were expended in tombs, temples, sarāis, tanks, groves, and other works—useful and ornamental, no doubt, but from which neither they nor their
children could ever hope to derive income of any kind. The same feeling of insecurity gave birth, no doubt, to this preposterous usage, which tends so much to keep
down the great mass of the people of India to that grade in which they were born, and in which they have nothing but their manual labour to depend upon for their
subsistence. Every man feels himself bound to waste all his stock and capital, and exhaust all his credit, in feeding idlers during the ceremonies which attend the
marriage of his children, because his ancestors squandered similar sums, and he would sink in the estimation of society if he were to allow his children to be married with
less.

Indian society spends huge money in the marriage on account of……………
A:-Dowry
B:-Extravaganza
C:-Decorations
D:-None of the above
Question13:-Read the following passage and answer the question

The artist is the creator of beautiful things. To reveal art and conceal the artist is art’s aim. The critic is he who can translate into another manner or a new material his
impression of beautiful things. The highest as the lowest form of criticism is a mode of autobiography. Those who find ugly meanings in beautiful things are corrupt

without being charming. This is a fault. Those who find beautiful meanings in beautiful things are the cultivated. For these there is hope. They are the elect to whom
beautiful things mean only beauty. There is no such thing as a moral or an immoral book. Books are well written, or badly written. That is all. The nineteenth century
dislike of realism is the rage of Caliban seeing his own face in a glass. The nineteenth century dislike of romanticism is the rage of Caliban not seeing his own face in a
glass. The moral life of man forms part of the subject-matter of the artist, but the morality of art consists in the perfect use of an imperfect medium. No artist desires to
prove anything. Even things that are true can be proved. No artist has ethical sympathies. An ethical sympathy in an artist is an unpardonable mannerism of style. No
artist is ever morbid. The artist can express everything. Thought and language are to the artist instruments of an art. Vice and virtue are to the artist materials for an art.
From the point of view of form, the type of all the arts is the art of the musician. From the point of view of feeling, the actor’s craft is the type. All art is at once surface and
symbol. Those who go beneath the surface do so at their peril. Those who read the symbol do so at their peril. It is the spectator, and not life, that art really mirrors.
Diversity of opinion about a work of art shows that the work is new, complex, and vital. When critics disagree, the artist is in accord with himself. We can forgive a man for
making a useful thing as long as he does not admire it. The only excuse for making a useless thing is that one admires it intensely. All art is quite useless.

Artists …….
A:-Can’t express everything
B:-Are morbid
C:-Are the Creator of the beautiful things
D:-Are quite useless
Question14:-Read the following passage and answer the question

No one would have believed in the last years of the nineteenth century that this world was being watched keenly and closely by intelligences greater than man’s and yet
as mortal as his own; that as men busied themselves about their various concerns they were scrutinised and studied, perhaps almost as narrowly as a man with a
microscope might scrutinise the transient creatures that swarm and multiply in a drop of water. With infinite complacency men went to and fro over this globe about their
little affairs, serene in their assurance of their empire over matter. It is possible that the infusoria under the microscope do the same. No one gave a thought to the older
worlds of space as sources of human danger, or thought of them only to dismiss the idea of life upon them as impossible or improbable. It is curious to recall some of the
mental habits of those departed days. At most terrestrial men fancied there might be other men upon Mars, perhaps inferior to themselves and ready to welcome a
missionary enterprise. Yet across the gulf of space, minds that are to our minds as ours are to those of the beasts that perish, intellects vast and cool and unsympathetic,
regarded this earth with envious eyes, and slowly and surely drew their plans against us. And early in the twentieth century came the great disillusionment. The planet
Mars, I scarcely need remind the reader, revolves about the sun at a mean distance of 140,000,000 miles, and the light and heat it receives from the sun is barely half of
that received by this world. It must be, if the nebular hypothesis has any truth, older than our world; and long before this earth ceased to be molten, life upon its surface
must have begun its course. The fact that it is scarcely one seventh of the volume of the earth must have accelerated its cooling to the temperature at which life could
begin. It has air and water and all that is necessary for the support of animated existence. Yet so vain is man, and so blinded by his vanity, that no writer, up to the very
end of the nineteenth century, expressed any idea that intelligent life might have developed there far, or indeed at all, beyond its earthly level. Nor was it generally
understood that since Mars is older than our earth, with scarcely a quarter of the superficial area and remoter from the sun, it necessarily follows that it is not only more
distant from time’s beginning but nearer its end.

According to the above passage, the writers up to the end of the nineteenth century………………….the extra-terrestrial intelligence life.
A:-Believed
B:-Ignored
C:-Investigated
D:-None of the above
Question15:-Read the following passage and answer the question

The Supreme Court’s timely intervention has halted the forcible eviction of some 50,000 people from Haldwani in Uttarakhand, where the occupants are accused of
squatting on railway property for decades. The Uttarakhand High Court had taken a tough stand against the residents, and passed a slew of directions that would have
entailed their eviction within a week, backed by force, including the deployment of paramilitary forces. It is significant that the Bench underscored the human angle to the
issue and spoke about the need for rehabilitation before eviction while staying the order. In an earlier round of litigation over the same land, which adjoins the Haldwani
Railway Station, court orders had allowed proceedings against individual occupants under the Public Premises (Eviction of Unauthorised Occupants) Act, 1971, to be
completed. This time, too, it was on a PIL that the High Court had passed its orders. The High Court’s detailed judgment shows that the residents’ claim is traceable to a
1907 Office Memorandum that says the area be managed under rules pertaining to ‘nazul land’. The court has ruled that it was not a government order but only a
communication on how to manage the land, and it does not amount to declaring it as ‘nazul land’, that is, land that has fallen into the hands of the state by escheat. As
one of the nazul rules is that there cannot be sale or lease, the court rejected all claims made by occupants based on purported documents for lease, sale, and, in some
cases, purchase through auction. Conflicts between occupants of public land and the state that wants to reclaim the land are a never-ending saga in the country. A
shortage of housing, as well as inadequate recognition of the right to shelter, means that large masses of people encroach on vacant land, be it on the bed of water
bodies or government property. This often leads to attempts to evict the occupants and spawns litigation. Invariably, there are claims to occupancy rights based on long
years of stay at the same location. There are court judgments that stress rehabilitation measures and consultation with the oustees before eviction. Some courts have
also recorded the view that mandatory rehabilitation may prove to be an incentive for encroachment. The Haldwani eviction effort has unfortunately taken communal
overtones, and there appears to be a clamour for the early eviction of the Muslim residents. India does not have a good record on rehabilitation of those evicted from
public spaces, and this case presents an opportunity to the Supreme Court to lay down the law on meaningful rehabilitation as well as effective prevention of
encroachments.

Rehabilitation ………………..
A:-Is must for evicting the encroachers
B:-Is not mandatory procedure for evicting the encroachers
C:-May prove to be an incentive for encroachment
D:-None of the above
Question16:-Read the following passage and answer the question

There are two chief types of inattention whose danger threatens every person. First, we may be thinking about the right things, but not thinking hard enough. We lack
mental pressure. Outside thoughts which have no relation to the subject in hand may not trouble us much, but we do not attack our problem with vim. The current in our
stream of consciousness is moving too slowly. We do not gather up all our mental forces and mass them on the subject before us in a way that means victory. Our
thoughts may be sufficiently focused, but they fail to "set fire." It is like focusing the sun's rays while an eclipse is on. They lack energy. They will not kindle the paper after
they have passed through the lens. This kind of attention means mental dawdling. It means inefficiency. For the individual it means defeat in life's battles; for the nation it
means mediocrity and stagnation. A college professor said to his faithful but poorly prepared class, "Judging from your worn and tired appearance, young people, you are
putting in twice too many hours on study." At this commendation the class brightened up visibly. "But," he continued, "judging from your preparation, you do not study
quite half hard enough." Happy is the student who, starting in on his lesson rested and fresh, can study with such concentration that an hour of steady application will
leave him mentally exhausted and limp. That is one hour of triumph for him, no matter what else he may have accomplished or failed to accomplish during the time. He
can afford an occasional pause for rest, for difficulties will melt rapidly away before him. He possesses one key to successful achievement.

The successful thinking needs……………
A:-Best Judgement
B:-Hardwork
C:-Concentration
D:-Mental Pressure
Question17:-Read the following passage and answer the question

Nearly six decades after the Green Revolution, it appears that the wheel with respect to the general perception on millets is coming full circle. After being reduced to
marginal status during the Green Revolution years, millets are slowly regaining favour among policymakers and consumers. Faced with a food shortage in the 1960s,
India opted for an input-intensive push that yielded huge productivity gains in wheat and rice. But now the times have changed; India is self-sufficient in wheat and rice
output. But the health effects of wheat and rice overconsumption and the impact on the production side on soil and water resources are no longer in dispute. The Centre
observed with regret while heralding the New Year as ‘International Year of Millets’ that millets output in India accounted for 40 per cent of all cultivated grains till the

1960s, against about 16 per cent at present, or 45-50 million tonnes a year now. Millets, with their iron, calcium and zinc content, can make a big difference in combating
micro-nutrient deficiency in India, besides diabetes and heart disease. Meanwhile, farmers growing millets can make do with 20 cm of rain annually, against 120-140 cm
needed for rice. That millets are by default organic — since the crop does not rely on chemicals and pesticides and its essentially small growers lack the resources to use
them — actually makes it a big draw in a world where organic produce is in demand. What is not working for millets is its poor prices, low productivity, processing
difficulties and above all, insufficient demand. Prices will rise and infrastructure will come up if demand improves, even as research on hybrids is expected to lift yields.
Government agencies at the States and Centre are trying out two approaches to lift demand. First, States such as Odisha are raising rural demand through awareness
campaigns, while also distributing millet-based meals through mid-day meal programmes in schools and anganwadis, an approach that is likely to boost market prices,
particularly if there is a procurement process to back this up. The second approach is to lift urban demand through promotional campaigns. A NABARD paper has
suggested that millet foods be served on trains and flights. Ready to cook millets can work for the young in particular. It is possible that as urban demand picks up, it will
challenge the decades-old notion of millets being a non-aspirational food meant for the downtrodden. The Centre has raised MSP for millets, but in the absence of
procurement and demand (the former being weak because of the latter), prices have not picked up. Production of millets in India, grown primarily in Rajasthan,
Maharashtra, Karnataka, Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh, accounts for 41 per cent of global output. Yet, India is only the fifth largest exporter, earning barely $30 million
annually. Being grown by small farmers in dry regions, it is ideally suited to Farmer Producer Organisations. The Budget should give millets a financial and institutional
push.

The cultivation of millets as popular cereals has not happened due to…………..
A:-Lack of Government subsidies
B:-Lack of fertilizer subsidies
C:-Not inclusion of millets in the civil supplies
D:-Lack of demand
Question18:-Read the following passage and answer the question

The stock market regulator’s decision to extend the suspension of trading in derivative contracts of paddy, wheat, chana, mustard, soyabean, crude palm oil and moong
by another year, is surprising, given the obvious ineffectiveness of this measure in controlling price increases. Trading in the futures contracts of these commodities was
initially suspended for a year in December 2021, in a bid to check food price inflation. But prices continued to surge in the months following the ban, mainly due to
increase in consumption following unlocking of the economy after the third wave of the pandemic, and also the supply shock caused by the Russia-Ukraine conflict.
Price movements following similar trading suspensions in the past too reveal that suspension of trading does not help in checking prices. Also, with CPI for cereals
easing a little in the last two months, regulators could have waited for market forces to bring down prices. While policymakers may be focused on controlling inflation,
they need to recognise the impact of the ban on the agri-commodity derivatives market in India. SEBI’s move has resulted in halving the daily turnover of commodity
derivatives exchanges over the past year. Commodities exchanges have already been struggling to regain investor trust since the NSEL scam in 2013. A sudden
suspension of derivatives trading in important commodities, extended over many months, creates uncertainty which will drive away traders and hedgers. Policymakers
need to recognise the important role that commodity derivatives play in helping users hedge themselves against price risk. Besides, given the decentralised trading of
agri-commodities in APMC mandis across India, the futures market helps in price discovery too. With national online spot trading in agri-commodities through platforms
such as e-NAM taking time to realise its potential, it would be good to boost activity in agri derivatives market, instead of curbing it. Spot prices are mainly determined by
demand and supply for the commodity; research has shown that it is not possible to establish an explicit link between volatility in future and spot prices — a point of view
shared by the Abhijit Sen Committee (2008). However, a supplementary recommendation made by the panel is worth considering — to remove from the futures market
those commodities where such a link is established. In order to take an informed decision, a study must be commissioned. The list of such commodities should be shared
with stakeholders to remove trading-related uncertainty. That said, there are many shortcomings in the derivatives market for agri commodities that need to be addressed
to make them accessible for farmers and other users. The contracts need to be simple in design and exchanges should conduct outreach programmes for farmer
producer organisations, through which farmers can use these instruments. Currently, the exchanges are dominated by traders, with the participation of farmers and other
users being low. Institutional participation should be encouraged.

Commodity derivatives are …………….
A:-Used as hedge against price risk
B:-Increases the prices
C:-Decrease the prices
D:-Not impacting the price level at all
Question19:-Read the following passage and answer the question

Global equity markets turned extremely nervous this week with market benchmarks declining sharply, the primary reason behind this sell-off being the gloomy growth
outlook for 2023 projected by the central banks of the US, UK and the European Union, and their resolve to continue aggressive monetary tightening next year. The
overarching concern of the three central banks appeared to be pulling inflation down towards their long-term targets and all of them indicated that further monetary
tightening was warranted until price stability was restored. The US Federal Reserve hiked the Federal Funds Rate by 50 basis points to 4.25-4.50 per cent and has
indicated that the pace of rate hikes will not slacken next year despite inflation moving lower in November. It has also indicated that the terminal rate could be 5.1 per
cent, instead of 4.5 per cent projected in September 2022 and that rates will not begin moving lower until 2024. The Bank of England and the European Central Bank too
hiked their policy rates by 50 basis points, in a bid to tame raging inflation. Both the US Fed and the ECB used the term ‘restrictive’ to describe the policy stance which
they intend to adopt to curb demand. The attempt appears to be to move demand lower to address the demand-supply mismatch. Of concern is the fact that all three
central banks appear to be willing to sacrifice near-term growth to ensure price stability. This monetary tightening so far in 2022, is already beginning to impact growth in
these regions. The Chairman of the Federal Reserve Jerome Powell pointed out that consumer spending has slowed reflecting lower disposable income, prices in the
housing segment have cooled due to rising mortgage rates and investments by businesses are coming down. Given the delay in transmission of the rate hikes, demand
is expected to further dampen next year, leading to lower growth rates for 2023. The Federal Reserve Board members are now projecting the real GDP growth at 0.5 per
cent in 2023, down from the earlier projection of 1.2 per cent. The Bank of England retained the projections given in its November policy meeting — that GDP will
continue to decline throughout 2023 and in the first half of 2024 as well due to the impact of high energy prices and rising interest rates. The Euro system staff projections
for euro area have also been revised lower for 2023 to 0.5 per cent and they expect a shallow and short-lived recession ahead. This gloomy prognosis for growth in the
world’s leading economies does not bode well for India’s merchandise and services trade. The difficult external environment will challenge growth in the domestic IT
services industry which is currently fuelling domestic consumption. External finance for Indian corporates will also be difficult due to tightening liquidity, rising interest
rates and weakening rupee. While India’s growth projections for next year are among the highest, the economy can not remain insulated from slowing global growth. RB
I will have to be mindful of these factors which deciding on its future policy actions.

The capital investments in the Indian Corporate companies are affected by……..
A:-US Fed tightening liquidity
B:-Increasing interest rates
C:-Strong Dollars
D:-All of the above
Question20:-Read the following passage and answer the question

Crypto assets, including private crypto currencies and non-fungible tokens, pose a unique challenge to regulators with their issuance as well as the transactions taking
place beyond traditional channels involving banks, other financial intermediaries or central banks. With users able to transact on platforms located in other countries and
transfer funds easily across borders, ability to tax these transactions and to halt the misuse of these channels for illicit purposes also becomes difficult through unilateral
action. Therefore, India and some other countries have been calling for concerted action by all nations and a standardised regulatory framework to regulate these assets.
The Crypto-Asset Reporting Framework (CARF), drafted by the OECD, is in response to this. It primarily seeks to enable exchange of information between countries so
that all crypto asset related transactions or money transfer done by the residents of a country are available with the government and regulators. Indian regulators were
extremely concerned about the surge in trading in crypto assets during the pandemic; about 9 to 11 crore users were estimated to be indulging in speculative trading in
these assets. But the Centre’s move to tax gains made in trading crypto assets at punitively high rate in the Union Budget of 2022 and mandating crypto trading platforms
to deduct TDS of 1 per cent on sale of these assets have helped restrain this speculative fervour effectively. Trading volume on Indian crypto trading platforms is down
over 75 per cent over the last one year. But India, as well as other countries are yet to decide whether holding and trading in crypto assets is a legal activity or not. Also, it
is currently not possible to acquire information regarding crypto trading transactions by Indian residents on overseas platforms. The CARF regulation outlines a way in
which information can be collected from crypto asset trading platforms and service providers and shared with the countries where the traders or users reside. The
framework addresses four areas – one, the scope of crypto currencies covered by the rules, two, the entities and individuals mandated to collect the data and the
reporting requirement, three, the kind of transactions which have to be reported and four, the due diligence needed to identify the crypto asset users and to identify the
tax jurisdiction to which they belong so that information can be exchanged. The model rules contained in the CARF can be included in the domestic laws and the OECD

is planning to work with all jurisdictions over the coming months to implement the framework. The OECD has met decent success with the Common Reporting Standard
which has resulted in over 100 countries exchanging information regarding 111 million financial accounts in 2021, helping check tax evasion. Replicating this with crypto
transactions may be the way forward to bring all countries onboard in adopting similar rules for regulating crypto assets. Though regulatory scrutiny could result in
reducing the speculative activity in this segment, users will be pleased as adoption of these rules will make trading and use of crypto assets a legal activity. This will
ensure that those who wish to mine and trade in these assets can continue doing so, but under full regulatory glare.

The fundamental requirement for crypto currency regulation is………………………….
A:-Monitoring
B:-Data exchange between the countries
C:-Effective international policing
D:-None of the above
Question21:-Convert the sentence given in the question into INDIRECT SPEECH.

‘Call the first witness’, said the magistrate
A:-The magistrate shouted them to call the first witness
B:-The magistrate requested them to call the first witness.
C:-The magistrate urged them to call the first witness.
D:-The magistrate commanded them to call the first witness
Question22:-Convert the sentence given in the question into INDIRECT SPEECH.

Venessa said, ‘How clever I am!’
A:-Venessa exclaimed that she was very clever
B:-Venessa had exclaimed that she is very clever
C:-Venessa was exclaimed that she was very clever
D:-Venessa was exclaimed that she is very clever
Question23:-Convert the sentence given in the question into INDIRECT SPEECH.

‘Have you anything to tell me, little bird?’ asked the Prince.
A:-The prince inquired the bird if it has anything to tell him.
B:-The Prince asked the bird whether it had anything to tell him.
C:-The Prince asked the bird whether it has anything to tell him.
D:-The Prince inquired the bird if that has anything to tell her.
Question24:-Convert the sentence given in the question into INDIRECT SPEECH.

The English Teacher said to her, ‘Do not read so fast’.
A:-The English Teacher had advised her do not to read so fast.
B:-The English Teacher has advised her not to read so fast.
C:-The English Teacher advised her do not to read so fast.
D:-The English Teacher advised her not to read so fast.
Question25:-Convert the sentence given in the question into INDIRECT SPEECH.

The King said ,'Alas! Our enemies are too strong'
A:-The King exclaimed sadly that his enemies are too strong.
B:-The King exclaimed sadly that his enemy were too strong.
C:-The King exclaimed sadly that his enemies were too strong.
D:-The King had exclaimed sadly that his enemies were too strong.
Question26:-Convert the sentence given in the question into DIRECT SPEECH.

The Guest Lecturer said that it gave him great pleasure to be there that evening.
A:-The Lecturer said, ‘It give me great pleasure to be here this evening’.
B:-The Lecturer said, ‘It gives me great pleasure to be here this evening’.
C:-The Lecturer said, ‘It gave me great pleasure to be here this evening’.
D:-The Lecturer said, ‘It give me great pleasure to be there this evening’.
Question27:-Convert the sentence given in the question into DIRECT SPEECH.

He replied that he could not drive away the mother, who had born him and nourished him
A:-He replied that, ‘How can I drive away the mother, who bore me and nourished me?’
B:-He replied, ‘How can I drives away the mother, who bore me and nourished me?’
C:-He replied, ‘How will I drive away the mother, who bore me and nourished me?’
D:-He replied, ‘How can I drive away the mother, who bore me and nourished me?’
Question28:-Convert the sentence given in the question into DIRECT SPEECH.
Raja thought that his time had come and decided to meet death like a man.
A:- ‘My time has come’, thought Raja. ‘Let me meet death like a man’.
B:- ‘My time have come’, thought Raja. ‘Let me meet death like a man’.
C:- ‘My time would come’, thought Raja. ‘Let me meet death like a man’.
D:- ‘My time has come’, thought Raja. ‘Let’s me meet death like a man’.
Question29:-Convert the sentence given in the question into DIRECT SPEECH.
I wrote that I would visit him next day.
A:-I wrote, ‘I should visit him tomorrow’
B:-I wrote, ‘I shall visit him next day’
C:-I wrote, ‘I shall visit him tomorrow’
D:-I wrote to him that, ‘I should visit him tomorrow’
Question30:-Convert the sentence given in the question into DIRECT SPEECH.

The captain replied that he had promised to reward his soldiers and that he had kept his word.
A:-The Captain had replied, ‘I had promised to reward my soldiers. I have to keep my word’.
B:-The Captain replied, ‘I have promised to reward my soldiers. I have kept my word’.
C:-The Captain replied, ‘I has promised to reward my soldiers. I has kept my word’.
D:-The Captain replied, ‘I have promised to reward my soldiers. I have kept his word’.

Question31:-The following question has two blanks, each blank indicating something has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of
the sentence as a whole.

When we work continuously, …….several hours we feel very tired and, unless we have some break, we cannot carry …. and our health may be injured.
A:-For, on
B:-On, for
C:-For, over
D:-Over, for
Question32:-The following question has two blanks, each blank indicating something has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of
the sentence as a whole.

A man who cannot laugh fails …….. attract friends, loses his health, grows pessimistic and deprives himself ……. any pleasure in life.
A:-To, to
B:-Of, to
C:-To, of
D:- With, to
Question33:-The following question has two blanks, each blank indicating something has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of
the sentence as a whole.

People were made to become curious ………. to how they were governed and what they got ….. the taxes they paid.
A:-With, from
B:-From, with
C:-As, from
D:-From, as
Question34:-The following question has two blanks, each blank indicating something has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of
the sentence as a whole.

Generally your conduct …. good and therefore you will not be punished for having been guilty of …. act of folly, but I advise you to be more prudent in future.
A:-Is, the
B:-Are, an
C:-Are, a
D:-Is, an
Question35:-The following question has two blanks, each blank indicating something has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of
the sentence as a whole.

Inspired ……. Napoleon, the first Emperor of the French and a great soldier, …….. the most war-like spirit, his armies won many victories.
A:-By, with
B:-With, by
C:-By, Over
D:-With, like
Question36:-
Look at the italicized part of the sentence. Below the sentence are given some possible substitutions for the italicized part. If one of them is better than the italicized part,
indicate your response against the corresponding letter. If none of these substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response.

is the sweetest of all flowers.
A:-A
B:-An
C:-All
D:-No Improvement
Question37:-
Look at the italicized part of the sentence. Below the sentence are given some possible substitutions for the italicized part. If one of them is better than the italicized part,
indicate your response against the corresponding letter. If none of these substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response.

today.
A:-Have the late lunch
B:-Had a late lunch
C:-Has the late lunch
D:-No improvement
Question38:-Look at the underlined part of the sentence. Below the sentence are given some possible substitutions for the italicized part. If one of them is better than the
italicized part, indicate your response against the corresponding letter. If none of these substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response.

What cannot be cured be endured
A:-Which
B:-While
C:-Whom
D:-No improvement
Question39:-Look at the italicized part of the sentence. Below the sentence are given some possible substitutions for the italicized part. If one of them is better than the
italicized part, indicate your response against the corresponding letter. If none of these substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response.

The watch .
A:-Had been founded
B:-Has been found
C:-Have been found
D:-No improvement
Question40:-Look at the capitalized and italicized part of the sentence. Below the sentence are given some possible substitutions for the italicized part. If one of them is
better than the italicized part, indicate your response against the corresponding letter. If none of these substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as
your response.

He persevered difficulties
A:-On account of
B:-Instead of
C:-In lieu of
D:-No improvement
Question41:-In the following question, a sentence is divided into four parts (A,B,C,D). Rearrange it in the proper sequence in order to make a meaningful sentence.

A: Subhash Chandra Bose died before
B: who fought and sacrificed his life for the freedom of the country
C: his aim was achieved, and yet
D: he will always remembered as a great hero,
A:-ABCD
B:-ACDB
C:-DACB
D:-DABC
Question42:-In the following question, a sentence is divided into four parts (A,B,C,D). Rearrange it in the proper sequence in order to make a meaningful sentence.

A: happiest hours of his life to books
B: that he owed the
C: and yet he tells us in his biography
D: Macaulay had wealth and fame, rank and power
A:-ADCB
B:-DCBA
C:-ABDC
D:-DBAC
Question43:-In the following question, a sentence is divided into four parts (A,B,C,D). Rearrange it in the proper sequence in order to make a meaningful sentence.

A: colours, makes the surface shine, discovers every
B: I consider a human soul without education like marble in the quarry,
C: ornamental cloud, spot and view that run through the body of it
D: which shows none of its inherent beauties, until the skill of the polisher fetches out the
A:-CABD
B:-BCAD
C:-BDAC
D:-CBAD
Question44:-In the following question, a sentence is divided into four parts (A,B,C,D). Rearrange it in the proper sequence in order to make a meaningful sentence.

A: regularly dismissed by researchers as a psychological effect
B: intervention that has been presented to them as a real one and used to be
C: the placebo effect is when an individual’s medical condition
D: or pain shows signs of improvement based on a fake
A:-CABD
B:-CDBA
C:-CADB
D:-CBDA
Question45:-In the following question, a sentence is divided into four parts (A,B,C,D). Rearrange it in the proper sequence in order to make a meaningful sentence.

A: running this economy without technology is
B: practically impossible as virtually all forms of collaborative consumption use the
C: internet to connect providers with customers, whether they are renting
D: a house or looking for a place to board their dogs
A:-ABCD
B:-DCBA
C:-ADBC
D:-ADCB
Question46:-In the following question, some sentences are given which are on the same theme. Decide which sentence is the most preferable with respect to grammar,
meaning and usage, suitable for a formal writing in English
A:-I am not able to understand your conduct which has been described to me as very peculiar.
B:-I am not able to understand your conduct which have been described to myself as very peculiar.
C:-I am unable to understands your peculiar conduct as per a given description to myself.
D:-I myself not ables to understand conduct of yourselves which was very peculiarly described to myself.
Question47:-In the following question, some sentences are given which are on the same theme. Decide which sentence is the most preferable with respect to grammar,
meaning and usage, suitable for a formal writing in English.
A:-When he take the medicine, he felt better as it cure his head ache.
B:- When he took the medicine, he felts better as it cured her head ache.
C:-When he took the medicine, he felt better as it cured his head ache.
D:-When he takes the medicine, he felt better as it cured his head ache
Question48:-In the following question, some sentences are given which are on the same theme. Decide which sentence is the most preferable with respect to grammar,
meaning and usage, suitable for a formal writing in English.
A:-Judging by the result of the examination, I think that Raja is clever than Rama
B:-Judging by the result of the examination, I thought that Raja is clever than Rama
C:-Judging by the result of the examination, I think always Raja is cleverer than that Rama
D:-Judging by the result of the examination, I think that Raja is cleverer than Rama
Question49:-In the following question, some sentences are given which are on the same theme. Decide which sentence is the most preferable with respect to grammar,
meaning and usage, suitable for a formal writing in English.
A:-If you have a look the newspaper, you will find a lot of space devoted to advertisements.
B:-If you have a look at the newspaper, you will find a lot of space devoted to advertisements.
C:-If you have a look at the newspaper, you will find a lots of spaces devoted to advertisements.
D:-If you had an look at the newspaper, you will find the lot of space devoted to advertisements.

Question50:-In the following question, some sentences are given which are on the same theme. Decide which sentence is the most preferable with respect to grammar,
meaning and usage, suitable for a formal writing in English.
A:-The letter being badly written, I had great difficulty in making out its contents.
B:-The letter is being badly wrote, I had a great difficulty in making out it contents.
C:-The letter be badly written, I had had great difficulty in making out its contents.
D:-The letter being very badly write, I had great difficulty in making out its contents.
Question51:-Find the Odd man out

25, 96, 380, 1516, 6060, 24236, 96940, 387755….
A:-6060
B:-24236
C:-96940
D:-387755
Question52:-Find the missing number in the following series.

2, 3, 8, 63,………,15745023
A:-3968
B:-3967
C:-3969
D:-3965
Question53:-The banker’s discount on a bill due 4 months hence at 15 percent is Rs 150. The true discount is…………
A:-140.58
B:-140.85
C:-142.25
D:-142.85
Question54:-The boat goes ten kilo meter in one hour along the stream and four kilo meter in one hour against the stream. The speed of the stream in kilo meter per hour
is……………….
A:-7
B:-5
C:-3
D:-14
Question55:-In a kilometre race, X beats Y by 20 meters or five seconds. Then, find X’s time over the course.
A:-240 sec
B:-242 sec
C:-245 sec
D:-241 sec
Question56:-A ladder leaning against a wall makes an angle of 30 degree with the ground. If the length of the ladder is twenty meter, find the distance of the foot of the
ladder from the wall.
A:-10 meter
B:-17.3 meter
C:-14.18 meter
D:-20 meter
Question57:-From a point X on a level ground, the angle of elevation of the top of a tower is 60 degree. If the tower is 200 meter high, the distance of pint X from the foot
of the tower is……………
A:-346 meter
B:-200 meter
C:-100
D:-200
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled
Question58:-Imran sold a furniture at the cost of rupees 7500 at a loss of 25 percent. At what cost will he have to sell it to get a profit of 50 percent?
A:-12000
B:-14000
C:-15000
D:-20000
Question59:-An inspector rejects 0.05 percent of the meters as defective. How many will he examine to reject 5?
A:-100
B:-500
C:-7500
D:-1000
Question60:-Distance between the stadium A and B is 800 km. A train covers the journey from A to B at 80 kmph and return to A with a uniform speed of 40 kmph. Find
the average speed of the train during the whole journey in kmph.
A:-50.33
B:-53.22
C:-53.33
D:-60
Question61:-A 125 meter long train is running at the speed of 36 kmph. Find the time taken by it to pass a man standing near the railway line.
A:-12 sec
B:-10 sec
C:-9 sec
D:-2.77 sec
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled
Question62:-Find out the correct ascending order of fractions.
A:- , , , ,
B:- , , , ,
C:- , , , ,
D:- , , , ,

Question63:-If , the value of is………………
A:-3.52
B:-3.42
C:-3.32
D:-3
Question64:-If the car covers the distance of 1440 km in one full day and night, calculate the speed.
A:-37.29 miles per hour
B:-35.28 miles per hour
C:-30.28 miles per hour
D:-24 miles per hour
Question65:-If A can do a work in 10 days and B can work in 5 days, in how many days both A and B together can complete the work?
A:-
B:-
C:-
D:-
Question66:-A cone shaped water tank has the base diameter of four meters and the height of eight meters. Calculate the capacity of the tank.
A:-33.5 cubic meter
B:-32.5 cubic meter
C:-34.5 cubic meter
D:-None of the above
Question67:-The rectangular tank has the height of twenty meters, length of ten meters and width of ten meters. Calculate the surface area.
A:-1000 square meter
B:-2000 square meter
C:-500 square meter
D:-900 square meter
Question68:-A’s age is 2 times that of B’s age. C’s age is 2 times that of D’s age. B’s age is three times that of C’s age. The sum of C and D’s age is 15 and the difference
is 5. What is the sum total of ages of A, B, C, D together?
A:-105
B:-100
C:-90
D:-110
Question69:-The sum of two numbers is 111 and their difference is 23. The product of the two number is………
A:-2948
B:-2949
C:-2947
D:-Can't be determined
Question70:-The average salary of all the staff in a firm is 9200. The average salary of nine clerks is 10000 rupees and average of the rest is 8000. Calculate the total
number of staff in the firm
A:-10
B:-16
C:-20
D:-15
Question71:-The average age of 39 people is 15 years. If the age of the person be included, then the average age increases by 3 months. What is the age of the
person?
A:-26
B:-24
C:-25
D:-27
Question72:-A members in a sports academy play one or two or all of the three games – Tennis, Squash, Badminton. 5 members play only tennis, 8 play only squah, 7
play only badminton. Three members play only two games – Tennis and Squash. Four members play only Squash and Badminton. Four other members play only
Tennnis and Badminton. Two members play all the three games.

In all how many members play Squash?
A:-16
B:-17
C:-8
D:-None of these
Question73:-The least among the following is…………..
A:-
B:-
C:-
D:-
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled
Question74:-Three sprinters X, Y , Z start at 9.00 AM in the same direction to run around a circular stadium. X completes a round in seventy five seconds, Y in eighty
seconds, Z in ninety seconds, all starting in the same point. At what time they will meet again at the starting point?
A:-61 min
B:-59 min
C:-60 min
D:-None of these
Question75:-Raja divides Rs 8600 among five sons, 4 daughter and 2 grand children. If each daughter receives 4 times as much as each grand children, and each son
receives five times as much as each grand children, how much does each son receive?
A:-1200
B:-1100
C:-1150
D:-1000
Question76:-Which of the following is wrong?

A:-
B:-
C:-
D:-
Question77:-If then what is the value of
A:-
B:-
C:-
D:-None of these

Question78:-Find the number which is not the multiple of 11
A:-10809568
B:-10810162
C:-10809920
D:-10810086
Question79:- 6385 – 2432 + 9685 = ? + 3380.
A:-2352
B:--2352
C:-10258
D:--10258
Question80:-Which of the following is a prime number?
A:-225
B:-439
C:-135
D:-72
Question81:-If then,
A:-

B:-

C:-
D:-Can't be determined
Question82:-
A:-0
B:-
C:-1
D:-
Question83:-What is the value of X ?
A:-0
B:-1
C:-120
D:-24
Question84:-Raja invests Rupees 1500 for five years and gets the final accrued amount of 2055.13 rupees. Calculate the rate of interest.
A:-6.25
B:-6.75
C:-7.5
D:-None of the above
Question85:-What would be the Compound Interest accrued on an amount of rupees 10000 at the rate of 7 percent per annum in five years?
A:-4025.25
B:-4025.49
C:-4020.25
D:-None of the above
Question86:-There are four semi-circular gardens of each side of a square shaped pond with each side 7 meters. The cost of fencing the entire plot at the rate of rupees
20/m is…………………..
A:-850
B:-840
C:-880
D:-810
Question87:-Each side of a regular hexagon is two centi meters. The area of the hexagon is…………………..
A:-
B:-
C:-
D:-
Question88:-Find the volume of a hemisphere of radius 17.5 cm
A:-11229.16
B:-11229.61
C:-11224.64
D:-None of the above
Question89:-A restaurant offers soup in a cylindrical bowl of diameter 10 cm. If the bowl is filled with soup to the height of 5 cm, how much soup the restaurant has to
prepare daily to sell to 100 customers?
A:-40.8 litres
B:-43.2 litres
C:-39.8 litres

D:-39.2 litres
Question90:-What was the day of the week on 15th August, 1947?
A:-Thursday
B:-Friday
C:-Saturday
D:-Sunday
Question91:-How many times do the hands of a clock coincide in every 12 hours?
A:-11
B:-10
C:-12
D:-8
Question92:-An accurate clock shows the time as 4.00 PM. After the hour hand moved 135 degree, the time would be……………
A:-7.30 PM
B:-7.00 PM
C:-6.30 PM
D:-6.00 PM
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled
Question93:-An accurate clock shows 7’O clock in the morning. Through how many degrees will the hour hand rotate when the clock shows 1’O clock in the afternoon.
A:-120
B:-180
C:-100
D:-160
Question94:-Find the income derived from 100 shares of Rs 25 each at 5 premium, brokerage being ½ per share and the rate of dividend being per annum.
A:-187.5
B:-188.5
C:-186.5
D:-185.5
Question95:-Calculate the annual income derived from Rs 1000, 10 percent stock at 10
A:-100
B:-1
C:-10
D:-1000
Question96:-A basket contains 2 green, 3 yellow, 4 blue and 6 violet balls. If the two balls are drawn at random from the basket, what is the probability that both are
violet?
A:-
B:-
C:-
D:-
Question97:-Mr Amrith purchased a furniture for 3000 rupees and sold it on the same day for 3600 rupees, allowing the buyer a credit of 2 years. If the rate of interest be
10 percent per annum, then Mr Amrith has a gain of…………
A:-1 percent
B:-0 percent
C:-10 percent
D:-5 percent
Question98:-What is the speed of the boat in still water?

I.The boat running downstream takes 8 hours from P to Q

II.The boat running upstream takes 10 hours from Q to S.

The necessary statements to answer the question is/are
A:-I only
B:-II only
C:-Both I and II
D:-Can't be determined
Question99:-Maran was running from his college to the hostel and back again. How long did it take him to cover the entire distance from college to hostel then hostel to
college?

I.Maran was running from the college to hostel at the speed of 5 km/hr

II.Maran was running from hostel to college at the speed of 8 km/hr

Necessary statements to answer the question is/are
A:-I only
B:-II only
C:-Both I and II
D:-Can't be determined
Question100:-Directions: Study the following question and all the three statements given to decide whether any information provided in the statement(s) are/is redundant
and can be dispensed with while answering the question.

In how many days can the work be completed by P, Q, R together?

I.P&Q together can complete the work in four days

II.Q&R together can complete the work in eight days.

III.P&R can complete the work in twelve days.

A:-I only
B:-II only
C:-III only
D:-All the three statements are necessary to answer the question.
Question101:-In the following question, there is a statement given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Read the conclusion and then decide which of the
given conclusions follows from the statement.

Statement: You talk when you cease to be at peace with your thoughts.

Conclusion I. No one speaks nothing when their thoughts are not peaceful.

Conclusion II. Undisturbed thoughts lead to successful speeches.

Give answer
A:-Only conclusion I follows
B:-Only conclusion II follows
C:-Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
D:-Both conclusion I and II follow
Question102:-In the following question, there is a statement given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Read the conclusion and then decide which of the
given conclusions follows from the statement.

Statement: Do not fear to be eccentric in opinion, for every opinion now accepted was once eccentric.

Conclusion I. All the unaccepted opinions are not eccentric once.

Conclusion II. The eccentric opinions are most likely to be rejected later.

Give answer
A:-Only conclusion I follows
B:-Only conclusion II follows
C:-Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
D:-Both conclusion I and II follow
Question103:-In the following question, there is a statement given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Read the conclusion and then decide which of the
given conclusions follows from the statement.

Statement: A truth that’s told with bad intent beats all the lies you can invent

Conclusion I. A truth told with bad intention is much more sinister than fabricated lies.

Conclusion II. Truth alone triumphs. So truth should be given primacy whatsoever the end result.

Give answer
A:-Only conclusion I follows
B:-Only conclusion II follows
C:-Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
D:-Both Conclusion I and II follows
Question104:-In the following question, there is a statement given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Read the conclusion and then decide which of the
given conclusions follows from the statement.

Statement: Those who know do not speak. Those who speak don not know.

Conclusion I. Ignorant offers opinion on everything.

Conclusion II. Those with knowledge prefer silence to blabber.

Give answer
A:-Only conclusion I follows
B:-Only conclusion II follows
C:-Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
D:-Both conclusion I and II follows
Question105:-In the following question, there is a statement given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Read the conclusion and then decide which of the
given conclusions follows from the statement.

Statement: When the power of love overcomes the love of power, the world will know peace.

Conclusion I. The motive for power rests to establish peace.

Conclusion II. Peace is end product of strong love for power.

Give answer

A:-Only conclusion I follows
B:-Only conclusion II follows
C:-Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
D:-Both conclusion I and II follow
Question106:-In the following question, there is a statement given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Read the conclusion and then decide which of the
given conclusions follows from the statement.

Statement: One of the penalties of refusing to participate in politics is that you end up being governed by your inferiors.

Conclusion I. Politics is not meant for all the member of the society.

Conclusion II. Non participation in politics leads to inefficient governance.

Give answer
A:-Only conclusion I follows
B:-Only conclusion II follows
C:-Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
D:-Both conclusion I and II follows
Question107:-In the following question, there is a statement given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Read the conclusion and then decide which of the
given conclusions follows from the statement.

Statement: Agriculture and the domestication of animals were important components of the economic life of ancient people. Due to the favourable climatic conditions they
were able to raise two or sometimes three crops in a year. In addition to this, by resorting to weaving cotton, dyeing fabrics, making clay pots, utensils, and handicrafts,
sculpting, cottage industries, masonry, manufacturing, transports (i.e., carts, boats and ships),etc., they were able to generate surpluses and savings for further
investment.

Conclusion I. More than one crop could be cultivated in ancient times due to widespread irrigation facilities.

Conclusion II. Not only agriculture but allied industries also flourished during ancient times.

Give answer

A:-Only conclusion I follows
B:-Only conclusion II follows
C:-Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
D:-Both conclusion I and II follow
Question108:-In the following question, there is a paragraph given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Read the conclusion and then decide which of the
given conclusions follows from the statement.

Paragraph: Commerce provides the necessary link between producers and consumers. It embraces all those activities, which are necessary for maintaining a free flow of
goods and services. Thus, all activities involving the removal of hindrances in the process of exchange are included in commerce. The hindrances may be in respect of
persons, place, time, risk, finance, etc. The hindrance of persons is removed by trade, thereby, making goods available to consumers from the possession or ownership
producers. Transport removes the hindrances of place by moving goods from the place of production to the markets for sale. Storage and warehousing activities remove
the hindrance of time by facilitating holding of stocks of goods to be sold as and when required. Goods held in stock, as well as, goods in course of transport are subject
to a risk of loss or damage due to theft, fire, accidents, etc. Protection against these risks is provided by insurance of goods. Capital required to undertake the above
activities is provided by banking and financing institutions. Advertising makes it possible for producers and traders to inform consumers about the goods and services
available in the market. Hence, commerce is said to consist of activities of removing the hindrances of persons, place, time, risk, finance and information in the process of
exchange of goods and services.

Conclusion I. Commerce brings communities closer and makes available goods from various places to various consumers.

Conclusion II. Constraints of risk are addressed by financial companies.

Give Answer
A:-Only conclusion I follows
B:-Only conclusion II follows
C:-Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
D:-Both conclusion I and II follow
Question109:-In the following question, there is a statement given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Read the conclusion and then decide which of the
given conclusions follows from the statement.

Statement: Joint Hindu family business is a business owned and carried on by the members of a Hindu Undivided Family, which is governed by the Hindu law. Karta
—the oldest male member of the family— controls the business. The strong points of joint Hindu family business include effective control, stability in existence, limited
liability and increased loyalty among family members. But this form of organisation too suffers from certain limitations such as limited resources, lack of incentives,
dominance of the karta and limited managerial ability.

Conclusion I. No other law is applicable to Joint Hindu Family Business except Hindu Law.

Conclusion II. One person can dominate the business and thus very susceptible for making wrong decisions.

Give answer
A:-Only conclusion I follows
B:-Only conclusion II follows
C:-Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
D:-Both conclusion I and II follow

Question110:-In the following question, two statements numbered I and II are given. There may be cause and effect relationship between two statements. These two
statements may be the effect of same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes without having any relationship. Read both the
statements and mark your answer accordingly.

Statement I: Tax planning has become very necessary these days for the successful running of the business.

Statement II: There are a number of tax laws in the country and they influence almost every aspect of the functioning of modern business.

A:-Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B:-Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C:-Both statement I and statement II are independent causes
D:-Both statement I and II are effect of independent causes
Question111:-In the following question, two statements numbered I and II are given. There may be cause and effect relationship between two statements. These two
statements may be the effect of same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes without having any relationship. Read both the
statements and mark your answer accordingly.

Statement I: A sole proprietor enjoys considerable degree of freedom in making business decision and decision making is prompt because there is no need to consult
others.

Statement II: Sole proprietor can timely capitalise the market opportunities as and when they arise.
A:-Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B:-Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C:-Both statement I and statement II are independent causes
D:-Both statement I and II are effect of independent causes
Question112:-In the following question, there is a statement given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Read the conclusion and then decide which of the
given conclusions follows from the statement.

Statement: Business is considered to be an economic activity because it is undertaken with the objective of earning money or livelihood and not out of love, affection,
sympathy or any other emotion. It may be mentioned here that this activity can be undertaken either on small and individual level, e.g. purchase and sale by a
shopkeeper or on large scale in a more formal and organised level like purchase and sale by a cooperative society or company.

Conclusion I. Employer should not have any empathy towards employees as it may affect their productivity and business goals.

Conclusion II. Business activity always associated with large scale of economies.

Give answer
A:-Only conclusion I follows
B:-Only conclusion II follows
C:-Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
D:-Both conclusion I and II follow
Question113:-In the following question, two statements numbered I and II are given. There may be cause and effect relationship between two statements. These two
statements may be the effect of same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes without having any relationship. Read both the
statements and mark your answer accordingly.

Statement I: Cooperative societies are unable to attract and employ expert managers.

Statement II: Large IT conglomerates are laying of staff at the time of recession.
A:-Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B:-Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C:-Both statement I and statement II are independent causes
D:-Both statement I and statement II are effect of independent causes
Question114:-In the following question, two statements numbered I and II are given. There may be cause and effect relationship between two statements. These two
statements may be the effect of same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes without having any relationship. Read both the
statements and mark your answer accordingly.

Statement I: Subsidence is the sinking of the ground because of the underground material movement.

Statement II: Land subsidence occurs when large amount of groundwater have been withdrawn from certain types of rocks, such as fine-grained sediments.
A:-Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B:-Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C:-Both statement I and statement II are independent causes
D:-Both statement I and statement II are effect of independent causes
Question115:-In the following question, two statements numbered I and II are given. There may be cause and effect relationship between two statements. These two
statements may be the effect of same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes without having any relationship. Read both the
statements and mark your answer accordingly.

Statement I: Adani Enterprises share value decreased phenomenally recently.

Statement II: Recently RBI asks Indian Banks for details of exposure to Adani group of companies.
A:-Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B:-Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C:-Both statement I and statement II are independent causes
D:-Both statement I and statement II are effect of independent causes
Question116:-In the following question, two statements numbered I and II are given. There may be cause and effect relationship between two statements. These two
statements may be the effect of same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes without having any relationship. Read both the
statements and mark your answer accordingly.

Statement I: Inflation is the sustained increase in the general price level.

Statement II: Increase in money supply results in too much money chases too few goods.
A:-Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B:-Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C:-Both statement I and statement II are independent causes
D:-Both statement I and II are effect of independent causes
Question117:-In the following question, two statements numbered I and II are given. There may be cause and effect relationship between two statements. These two
statements may be the effect of same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes without having any relationship. Read both the
statements and mark your answer accordingly.

Statement I: Low interest rates are associated with recession.

Statement II: High interest rates lead to capital flights.
A:-Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B:-Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C:-Both statement I and statement II are independent causes
D:-Both statement I and statement II are effect of independent causes
Question118:-In the following question, two statements numbered I and II are given. There may be cause and effect relationship between two statements. These two
statements may be the effect of same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes without having any relationship. Read both the
statements and mark your answer accordingly.

Statement I: Sun produces energy by means of nuclear fusion.

Statement II: Nuclear reactor produces energy by means of nuclear fission.

A:-Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B:-Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C:-Both statement I and II are independent causes
D:-Both statement I and II are effect of independent causes
Question119:-In the following question, two statements numbered I and II are given. There may be cause and effect relationship between two statements. These two
statements may be the effect of same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes without having any relationship. Read both the
statements and mark your answer accordingly.

Statement I: Gold smuggling is rampant in the recent past when taking into the consideration of number cases caught by enforcement agencies.

Statement II: High customs duty disincentives the regular legal import
A:-Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B:-Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C:-Both statement I and statement II are independent causes
D:-Both statement I and II are effect of independent causes
Question120:-In the following question, two statements numbered I and II are given. There may be cause and effect relationship between two statements. These two
statements may be the effect of same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes without having any relationship. Read both the
statements and mark your answer accordingly.

Statement I: Import duty on finished products is lower than duty rates on domestic procurement of raw materials.

Statement II: Inverted duty structure makes the domestic industries highly non-competitive vis-à-vis foreign companies.
A:-Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B:-Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C:-Both statement I and statement II are independent causes
D:-Both statement I and II are effect of independent causes
Question121:-Assertion (A) : Uranium can undergo fission reaction.

Reason (R) : Uranium has a heavy unstable nucleus.
A:-Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B:-Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
C:-A is true, but R is false
D:-A is false, but R is true
Question122:-Assertion (A) : Copper sulphate crystals are green in colour.

Reason (R) : Copper sulphate crystals reflect only blue colour.
A:-Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B:-Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
C:-A is true, but R is false
D:-A is false, but R is true
Question123:-Assertion (A) : Anthocyanins are blue, red, or purple pigments found in plants.

Reason (R) : In acidic condition, anthocyanin appears as blue pigment.
A:-Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B:-Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
C:-A is true, but R is false
D:-A is false, but R is true

Question124:-Assertion (A) : Capital flight is the major problem of free floating exchange rate system.

Reason (R) : Capital flight occurs due to change in the interest rates.
A:-Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B:-Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
C:-A is true, but R is false
D:-A is false, but R is true
Question125:-Assertion (A) : Alluvial soil is highly suitable for tea cultivation.

Reason (R) : Alluvial soils are comprising of silt and sand carried down by the rivers and are very fertile.
A:-Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B:-Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
C:-A is true, but R is false
D:-A is false, but R is true
Question126:-Assertion (A) : Bats possess the ability to fly in the dark.

Reason (R) : Bats emit ultra violet rays.
A:-Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B:-Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
C:-A is true, but R is false
D:-A is false, but R is true
Question127:-Assertion (A) : People tend to wear white cloths during summer.

Reason (R) : White cloths are poor reflectors of heat.
A:-Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B:-Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
C:-A is true, but R is false
D:-A is false, but R is true
Question128:-Assertion (A) : The highlanders tend to have increased haemoglobin level in their blood.

Reason (R) : High level of haemoglobin increases oxygen supply to all tissues.
A:-Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B:-Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
C:-A is true, but R is false
D:-A is false, but R is true
Question129:-Assertion (A) : Governor is the constitutional head the State Government.

Reason (R) : Governor is an indirectly elected authority.
A:-Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B:-Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
C:-A is true, but R is false
D:-A is false, but R is true
Question130:-In the following question consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. Decide whether the data provided in the statements
are sufficient to answer the question.

Question: How many children does Raja have?

Statements:

I. Rama is the daughter of Ramya who is the wife of Raja

II. Ramesh is the son-in-law of Raja
A:-I alone is sufficient while II alone not sufficient
B:-II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
C:-Neither I or II is sufficient
D:-Both I and II are sufficient
Question131:-In the following question consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. Decide whether the data provided in the statements
are sufficient to answer the question.

Question: What is the code for ‘animals’ in the code language?

Statements:

I. In the code language, ‘All animals are equal’ is written as ‘zig moy nui eri’

II.In the same code language, ‘Some are more equal than others’ is written as ‘sum yu bui nui oder iza’.
A:-I alone is sufficient while II alone not sufficient
B:-II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
C:-Neither I or II is sufficient
D:-Both I and II are sufficient
Question132:-In the following question consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. Decide whether the data provided in the statements
are sufficient to answer the question.

Question: How is A related to C?

Statements:

I. B is sister of C and D is brother of C.

II. C’s mother is married to A’s husband who has two sons and one daughter.
A:-I alone is sufficient while II alone not sufficient
B:-II alone is sufficient while I alone not sufficient
C:-Neither I or II is sufficient
D:-Both I and II are sufficient
Question133:-In the following question consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. Decide whether the data provided in the statements
are sufficient to answer the question.

Question: Among P, Q, R, S, T and U, who is the taller?

Statements:

I. P and S are taller than Q, T and U but none of them is the tallest

II.P is taller than S but shorter than R.
A:-I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient
B:-II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
C:-Neither I or II is sufficient
D:-Both I and II are sufficient
Question134:-In the following question consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. Decide whether the data provided in the statements
are sufficient to answer the question.

Question: Raja’s and Ramesh’s investment in the partnership firm are in the proportion of 4:3 respectively. What is Raja’s share in the total investment?

Statements:
I. Ramesh’s investment is 75 percent that of Raja’s investment.

II. Ramesh’s investment is Rs 10000.
A:-I alone is sufficient while II alone not sufficient
B:-II alone is sufficient while I alone not sufficient
C:-Neither I or II is sufficient
D:-Both I and II are sufficient
Question135:-In the following question consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. Decide whether the data provided in the statements
are sufficient to answer the question.

Question: What is the mathematics marks obtained by Rama and Ramya together?

Statements:

I. Rama has obtained 50 marks less than what Ramesh has.

II. Ramya has obtained 50 marks more than what Ramesh has.
A:-I alone is sufficient while II alone not sufficient
B:-II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
C:-Neither I or II is sufficient
D:-Both I and II are sufficient
Question136:-In the following question consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. Decide whether the data provided in the statements
are sufficient to answer the question.

Question: How old is Z now?

Statements:

I. Five years ago, the average of X and Y was 30 years.

II. With Z joining now, the average becomes 35 years.
A:-I alone is sufficient while II alone not sufficient
B:-II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
C:-Neither I or II is sufficient
D:-Both I and II are sufficient
Question137:-In the following question consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. Decide whether the data provided in the statements
are sufficient to answer the question.

Question: Raja and Rama are in a partnership business. At the end of the financial year, the firm accrued the profit of Rs 100000. What would be the share of Raja?
Statements:

I. Raja has invested Rs 25000 each in every quarter. Rama has invested Rs 50000 each in every quarter.

II.Rama withdrew from the business at the end of the financial year.
A:-I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient
B:-II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
C:-Neither I or II is sufficient
D:-Both I and II are sufficient

Question138:-In the following question consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. Decide whether the data provided in the statements
are sufficient to answer the question.

Question: In how many days can P alone complete the work?

Statements:

I. P and Q can complete the work in 10 days while Q alone takes 5 days.

II. R works double as fast as P and can complete the work in 5 days.
A:-I alone is sufficient while II alone not sufficient
B:-II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
C:-Either I or II is sufficient
D:-Both I and II are sufficient
Question139:-In the following question consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. Decide whether the data provided in the statements
are sufficient to answer the question.

Question: What is the length of the running train?

Statements:

I. The train crosses a signal point in 9 seconds.

II. The train crosses the 240 meter long platform in 24 seconds.
A:-I alone is sufficient while II alone not sufficient
B:-II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
C:-Neither I or II is sufficient
D:-Both I and II are sufficient
Question140:-In the following question consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. Decide whether the data provided in the statements
are sufficient to answer the question.

Question: What is the perimeter of the square?

Statements:

I. A circle is inscribed in the square.

II. The area of the circle is 49 π (Read as forty nine pi)
A:-I alone is sufficient while II alone not sufficient
B:-II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
C:-Either I or II is sufficient
D:-Both I and II are sufficient
Question141:-Name the only player in the history of football to win three world cups.
A:-Diego Maradona
B:-Pele
C:-Cristiano Ronaldo
D:-Lionnel Messi
Question142:-Who has received Khel Ratna Award for the year 2022?
A:-Neeraj Chopra
B:-B C Suresh
C:-Sharath Kamal Achanta
D:-Bahadur Gurung
Question143:-Name the first women referee in the FIFA Worldcup history?
A:-Stephannie Frappart
B:-Alex Morgan
C:-Alexia Putellas
D:-Debora Cristiane de Oliveira
Question144:-Who is the current President of the Indian Olympic Association?
A:-P T Usha
B:-Rajeev Mehra
C:-Adille Sumariwalla
D:-Anil Khanna
Question145:-Which country is hosting 2026 FIFA World cup?
A:-USA
B:-Canada
C:-Mexico
D:-All of the above
Question146:-Which country hosted 2022 FIFA Under 17 Women’s world cup?
A:-Qatar
B:-England
C:-Australia
D:-India
Question147:-Name the first Indian wrestler to be crowned as under-20 world champion?
A:-Bajrang Punia
B:-Anshu Malik

C:-Antin Panghal
D:-Sushil Kumar
Question148:-Which media company bagged broadcasting rights of Paris Olympics, 2024?
A:-Walt Disney
B:-Netflix
C:-Sony
D:-Viacom 18
Question149:-Which among the following player created a record as the professional football player with most appearances in FIFA world cup?
A:-Lionnel Messi
B:-Cristiano Ronaldo
C:-Diego Marodona
D:-Pele
Question150:-In the FIFA world cup 2022, who won the Golden boots?
A:-Lionnel Messi
B:-Mbappae
C:-Cristiano Ronaldo
D:-Neymar
Question151:- The Conference of Parties (COP) of the United Nations Framework Convention of Climate Change held at…………
A:-Egypt
B:-Glasgow
C:-Paris
D:-Mexico
Question152:-Which one of the following is the largest source of methane emissions?
A:-Wetlands
B:-Fossil Fuel Extraction
C:-Rice cultivation
D:-Burning of plant matter
Question153:-United Nation’s Food and Agricultural Organization has announced 2023 as the International Year of………………
A:-Water
B:-Millets
C:-Agro Diversity
D:-Pulses
Question154:-Name the animal which was recently accepted as a food animal by Food Safety and Standards Authority of India.
A:-Himalayan Goral
B:-Changthangi
C:-White pig
D:-Himalayan Yak
Question155:-Japanese Encephalitis is a viral disease transmitted by……
A:-Horse fly
B:-House Fly
C:-Culex Mosquitoes
D:-Anophelus Mosquitoes
Question156:-'Panchamirta Concotion' for climate change announced by Prime Minster of India at …...
A:-Glasgow
B:-Paris
C:-Egypt
D:-Newdelhi
Question157:-Which of the following plants is not an invasive species?
A:-Lantana camera
B:-Senna spectabilis
C:-Eupatorium
D:-Bambusa bambos
Question158:-Which state government has launched ‘Project Nilgiri Tahr’ to protect the endangered Nilgiri Tahr?
A:-Kerala
B:-Karnataka
C:-Tamilnadu
D:-Andhrapradesh
Question159:-In the Western Ghats, a brand new indigenous species named Apis Karinjodian discovered belonged to the group of……………
A:-Trees
B:-Reptiles
C:-Honey Bees
D:-Orchids
Question160:-Blizzard is the cold wind occur in the following country
A:-USA
B:-UK
C:-Australia
D:-China
Question161:-India’s first national repository for life sciences data located at…………
A:-Rajiv Gandhi Institute of Biotechnology, Trivandrum
B:-IIT, Delhi
C:-Indian Biological Data Centre, Faridabad
D:-CCMB, Hyderabad
Question162:- What is the process by which sun produces its energy?
A:-Fission

B:-Fusion
C:-Radiation
D:-Reflection
Question163:-DMH-11 is the genetically modified hybrid variety of the following plant
A:-Maize
B:-Mustard
C:-Mosambie
D:-Horse gram
Question164:-World’s first intra-nasal vaccine for covid-19 developed by………………..
A:-China
B:-Israel
C:-India
D:-USA
Question165:-In India, Gross Domestic Product (GDP) estimates are released by……………….
A:-RBI
B:-NSSO
C:-NSO
D:-Indian Statistics Institute
Question166:-Which one of the following is TRUE about ‘Sovereign Green Bonds’?
A:- Sovereign Green Bonds will not be eligible for trading in the secondary financial markets
B:-Non-Resident Indian’s are not allowed to invest in Sovereign Green Bonds
C:- The Sovereign Green Bonds is auctioned by RBI
D:-The proceeds of Sovereign Green Bonds will be deployed in fully private sector funded projects
Question167:-Which one of the following is the major and prime objective of the central banks?
A:-Economic Groeth
B:-Price Volatility
C:-Price Stability
D:-Exchange Rate Volatility
Question168:- The interest rate increase by the United States Federal Reserve will likely result in……………
A:-Net Foreign Portfolio Investors buying Indian Company’s stocks
B:-Net Foreign Portfolio Investors selling Indian Company’s stocks
C:-Increase in the indices of NIFTY and SENSEX
D:-Decrease in the interest rate by RBI
Question169:-‘Food Price Index’, which tracks international prices of the most globally traded food commodities is released by…………………….
A:-United States Department of Agriculture
B:-Food and Agricultural Organization
C:-Indian Agricultural Statistics Research Institute, New Delhi
D:-International Food Policy Research Institute, Washington
Question170:-Recently, Novelic, a …………………….based radar sensor technology company, with a focus on in-cabin sensing technology, was purchased by Sona
BLW for an enterprise value of about 566 crores.
A:-Austria
B:-Germany
C:-France
D:-Serbia
Question171:-Joshimath, a sinking city, known for ‘land subsidence’ located in the ………………….district of Uttarakhand.
A:-Uttarkashi
B:-Tehri Garhwal
C:-Chamoli
D:-Rudraprayag
Question172:- ‘Odessa’ is a major port located in ………………..
A:-India
B:-Ukraine
C:-Russia
D:-Mexico
Question173:-The company and its origin country is given. Identify the wrong pair.
A:-Samsung Group- South Korea
B:-Apple Inc- USA
C:-L G - Japan
D:-Oppo- China
Question174:-Some company’s names and its brand taglines are given. Identify the wrong pair.
A:-Disneyland – The happiest place on Earth
B:- Nike – Just Do It
C:-Samsung – Do what you can
D:-BMW – The ultimate driving machine
Question175:-Which Index is used in calculating retail inflation in India?
A:-Whole Sale Price Index
B:-Cost of living Index
C:- SENSEX
D:-Consumer Price Index
Question176:-Name the Indian company which would buy US based Concert Pharmaceuticals for 576 million dollars to gain access to its experimental drug for treating
patchy baldness.
A:-Natco pharma
B:-Cipla
C:-Sun Pharmaceuticals
D:-Biocon

Question177:-Which of the following multinational company was penalized about 1337.76 crores by Competition Commission of India for alleged unfair and anti-
competitive practices related to android devices?
A:-Microsoft
B:-Apple
C:-Metaverse
D:-Google
Question178:-Name the US based investment research firm which released a report about Adani Group recently
A:-FiFitch Ratings
B:-Hidenburg
C:-Moodys
D:-Deloitte
Question179:-‘Galathea bay’ of Great Nicobar recently in news for the following reason…….
A:-Galathea bay is announced as marine biosphere reserve
B:-Government plans a trans-shipment port
C:-Rich offshore oil fields are discovered
D:-Known for rare and one of the oldest coral reef formations
Question180:- Recently India issued notice which of the following country seeking modification of the 1960 Indus Water Treaty?
A:-Afghanistan
B:-Pakistan
C:-China
D:-None of these