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Test Booklet No.
M
FORENSIC SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator Seat No.
1. (Signature) ......................................... (In figures as in Admit Card)
(Name) ................................................ Seat No. ..............................................................
2. (Signature) ......................................... (In words)
(Name) ................................................ OMR Sheet No.
AUG - 39315 (To be filled by the Candidate)
Time Allowed : 2½ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 150
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided 1.
on the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of 75 objective type questions. Each question
will carry two marks. All questions of Paper-III will be compulsory, 2.
covering entire syllabus (including all electives, without options).
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are
requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as 3.
follows :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
(i)
a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions
in the booklet with the information printed on the (ii)
cover page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/
questions or questions repeated or not in serial
order or any other discre pancy should not be
accepted and correct booklet should be obtained
from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes.
Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be
replaced nor any extra time will be given. The same
may please be noted.
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
should be entered on this Test Booklet. (iii)
4. Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item. 4. (A), (B), (C) (D)
Example : where (C) is the correct response.
A B D
(C)
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place A B D
other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
5.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put 6.
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space 7.
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your 8.
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the
end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with 9.
you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed
to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 10.
11. Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited. 11.
12. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers. 12.
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Forensic Science
Paper III
Time Allowed : 2½ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 150
Note : This paper contains Seventy Five (75) multiple choice questions, each
carrying Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.
1. The yellow needle shaped crystals 3. Dacron is the trade name of :
produced in barberios test for (A) Polyethylene Tetraphthalate
seminal fluid examination are (PET)
because of : (B) Dimethylene Tetraphthalate
(A) Choline Iodide (PCDT)
(B) Choline Asperase (C) Nylon 6, 6
(D) Nylon 6
(C) Spermine Picrate
4. Potassium ferricyanide is used for
(D) Acid Phosphatase
detection of which component of
2. Fluroglucein test for jute gives :
urine ?
(A) Blue color
(A) Urea
(B) Brick red color (B) Creatinine
(C) Pink color (C) THG
(D) Pale yellow color (D) Ammonia
3 [P.T.O.
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5. Which chemical is not responsible 7. Thymol phthalein test is used to
for oxidation of disulphide bonds in detect the presence of :
hair ?
(A) Brick material
(A) Hydrogen peroxide
(B) Cement
(B) Mercapto ethanol
(C) Dyes
(C) Thioglycollic acid
(D) Pigments
(D) Sodium hydroxide
8. The spacing in between the striations
6. For comparison purpose, the
crossed by a tool having thin cutting
difference in refractive index
edge changes with :
reference and questioned glass must
(A) Nature of teeth on tool
exceed :
(A) 0.02 (B) Angle of tilt
(B) 0.002 (C) Angle of progression
(C) 0.0002 (D) Relative hardness of tool and
(D) 0.00002 surface
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9. When tyre impressions are found at 11. The frequency of Carabeli’s cusp is
crime scene, it is possible for the higher among :
forensic examiner to determine :
(A) Mongoloids
(A) The speed at which the vehicle
(B) Caucasoids
was moving
(C) Nigroids
(B) The style and/or manufacturer
of the tyre (D) Mongoloids as well as Nigroids
(C) The wear and mileage on the
12. An accessory cusp that is found on
tyre
the anterior side of the buccal
(D) The make and model of the
surface of mandible molar, more
car
often on first molar and rarely on
10. Release and re-application of brakes
second and third molar, is called a :
is responsible for creation of :
(A) Carabeli’s cusp
(A) Impending skid marks
(B) Protostylid
(B) Gap skid marks
(C) Bounce skid marks (C) Enamel pearl
(D) Scuff marks (D) Hypocone
5 [P.T.O.
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13. The most commonly found 15. The sex of an unknown human
pelvis can be better found out from
congenitally missing teeth are :
which of the following parameters ?
(A) Third molar and lateral incisors
(A) Sub-pubic angle and width and
depth of greater sciatic notch
(B) First molar and canines
(B) Length of ilium
(C) Canines and second molar
(C) Size of obturator foramen
(D) Central incisor and second (D) Thickness of sacrum
pre-molar 16. What is FORDISC ?
(A) It is a government agency that
14. Which of the following parameters
gives money to forensic
can be used to determine age from anthropologists
skull of an infant of less than two (B) A special school for forensic
anthropology
years of age ?
(C) An acronym for Forensic
(A) Closure of sagittal suture Odontological Research,
Department of Intensive
(B) Emergence of permanent teeth
Skeletal Collection
(C) Closure of frontanelles (D) It is a computer program used
to perform metric analyses on
(D) Closure of basilar suture
contemporary skeletal remains
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17. The divergence in signature which 19. Two approaches utilized for
encounters infrequently is better
latent print identification and
known as :
individualization are :
(A) Spurious signature
(A) Systems engineering and
(B) Accidental variation
human problem solving
(C) Receipt signature
techniques
(D) Natural variation
(B) Human problem solving
18. In case of “Dye Sublimation”
techniques and data reduction
printing technology, the type of ink
techniques
used is :
(C) Data processing and data
(A) Liquid ink
reduction
(B) Resinous ink
(C) Dry toner (D) Human agronomics and system
engineering
(D) Liquid toner
7 [P.T.O.
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20. Assertion (A) : 21. For developing latent print on
The initial identification of the latent mirror, it is most suitable to use :
print is made by comparing it with (A) Black powder
the inked print using 2X or 3X (B) Gray powder
magnifiers
(C) Manganese dioxide powder
Reason (R) :
(D) A mixture of carbon and ferric
The magnification results into more oxide powder
clarity to the fingerprint for
22. The fingerprint pattern may be
comparison
impaired permanently in case of :
(A) (A) is true but (R) is false (A) Scabies
(B) (A) is false but (R) is true (B) Scalds
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true (C) Eczema
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false (D) Leprosy
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23. Average number of ridge 25. Which was the original fingerprint
characteristics found in a fingerprint system adopted by Scotland Yard in
is : 1901 that converted ridge patterns
(A) 225 on all ten fingers into a series of
(B) 150 letters and numbers arranged in the
form of fractions ?
(C) 310
(D) 65 (A) Bertillon system
24. Latent prints developed with which (B) William Herschel system
of the following methods may be (C) Galton system
further enhanced by staining with
(D) Henry system
either Gentian Violet or Coumarin
26. The credit for developing edgeoscopy
540 laser dye or Rhodamine 6G
goes to :
dye ?
(A) Francis Galton
(A) Ninhydrin
(B) Rene Forgeot
(B) Iodine fuming
(C) Alkyl-2-cyanoacrylate method (C) Salil K. Chatterjee
(D) Osmic acid fuming method (D) Richard Henry
9 [P.T.O.
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28. Postmortem lividity helps in the
27. Which of the following is not correct
determination of the following,
regarding diatoms ?
except :
(A) Diatoms are aquatic uni-
(A) Cause of death
cellular plants (B) Time of death
(C) Motive of death
(B) Diatoms have an extra
(D) Position of dead body
cellular part composed of
29. The change from fetal haemoglobin
magnesium
to adult haemoglobin is helpful in
(C) Acid digestion technique is used assessing :
to extract diatom (A) Period of survival of a new born
infant after birth, particularly
(D) Presence of diatom in the bone
in the first six months
marrow is an indication of
(B) Age of an adult
antemortem aspiration of
(C) Age of a juvenile
water (D) Age of an adolescent
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30. The large averted and irregular 32. The alleged impact of lunar cycle on
sized of wound is suggestive of : human criminal behaviour is :
(A) Entry wound of gun
(A) Lunar effect
(B) Exit wound of gun
(B) Transylvania effect
(C) Stab wound
(C) Hauling effect
(D) Lacerated wound by blunt
(D) Cosmo effect
object
33. In case of an attack by a wild
31. In which of the following asphyxial
animal results in which kind of
death, there is no pressure over the
wound ?
neck structure :
(A) Lacerated
(A) Hanging
(B) Bruise
(B) Throttling
(C) Gun-shot
(C) Ligature strangulation
(D) Blunt
(D) Gagging
11 [P.T.O.
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34. Polygraph doesn’t detect : 36. Tsuchihashi’s classification is
(A) Blood pressure
associated with :
(B) P-300
(A) Podography
(C) Respiration
(B) Cheiloscopy
(D) GSR
35. The term “document” is defined (C) Dactylography
under :
(D) Ear print
(A) Section-3 of Indian Evidence
37. Inventor of MAGNA brush used for
Act, 1872
fingerprint development was :
(B) Section-6 of Indian Evidence
Act, 1872 (A) Marcello Malphigi
(C) Section-3 of Indian Penal Code,
(B) Henry Faulds
1860
(C) James Marsh
(D) Section-6 of Indian Penal Code,
1860 (D) Herbert L. McDonnell
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38. Section 376 of IPC 1860 was 40. Which of the following is the correct
ammended in which of the following sequence for examination of
years ?
Forensic evidence ?
(A) 2010
(A) Recognition, Identification,
(B) 2011
Individualization and
(C) 2012
Reconstruction
(D) 2013
39. Assertion (A) : (B) Recognition, Individualization,
It is always easy to differentiate Identification and
between class and individual
Reconstruction
characteristics
Reason (R) : (C) Identification, Recognition,
Class characteristics are common to Individualization and
a particular group
Reconstruction
(A) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) Individualization, Recognition,
(B) (A) is false but (R) is true
Identification and
(C) Both (A) and (R) is true
Reconstruction
(D) Both (A) and (R) is false
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41. The first forensic science laboratory 43. Head space GC is used for the
was established in India in which analysis of :
of the following years ?
(A) Paint
(A) 1931
(B) Blood Alcohol
(B) 1941
(C) Benzodizepine
(C) 1951
(D) Morphine
(D) 1961
44. Total reflection X-ray fluorescence is
42. A non-destructive instrumental
a relatively new technique designed
method for determining crystalline
for :
structure of chemical compound
is : (A) Surface analysis of semi-
conductor
(A) X-ray diffraction
(B) Emission spectrography (B) Surface analysis of glass
(C) Pyrolysis gas chromatography (C) Surface analysis of plastic
(D) IR-spectroscopy (D) Depth analysis of glass
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45. The Beer Lambert’s law gives a 47. Stereomicroscope can be best
linear correlation with positive described as :
gradient between :
(A) Two comparison microscopes
(A) Wavelength and absorbance aligned with a comparison
(B) Molar extinction coefficient and bridge
concentration
(B) Two compound microscopes
(C) Molar extinction coefficient and aligned so that each of them can
absorbance
see a slightly different part of
(D) Absorbance and concentration an object
46. FID, ECD and NPD are detectors (C) A compound microscope with
commonly used in :
two separate stage and one
(A) GC ocular
(B) HPLC
(D) A compound microscope with
(C) HPTLC two eyepiece and a camera
(D) CE mount
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48. In SEM, secondary electrons : 49. Which of the following microscopes
has the highest resolution ?
(A) strike the object releasing other
electron (A) SEM
(B) TEM
(B) strike the object and then reflect
from the surface (C) Stereomicroscope
(D) Fluorescence microscope
(C) are emitted when a beam of
primary electrons strike the 50. Wavelength range of vacuum UV
object radiation is :
(A) 210-290 nm
(D) are emitted by the nucleus of
the various elements when the (B) 250-400 nm
object is struck by a beam of (C) 400-600 nm
X-ray (D) 100-200 nm
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51. Flavouring and coloring agents in 53. Assertion (A) :
alcohol are collectively called as : Derivatives of phosphoric acid
having insecticidal activity are safe
(A) Kick enhancing agent
for mammals
(B) Additives
Reason (R) :
(C) Congenerics
The replacement of one of the
(D) Fillers oxygen atoms by sulphur in the
derivatives of phosphoric acid
52. The blue color of PDS Kerosene is
decreases the toxicity of compound
due to the presence of :
related to mammals
(A) Rhodamine-B
(A) (A) is true but (R) is false
(B) Fast Blue-B
(B) (A) is false but (R) is true
(C) Di-alkyl amino anthraquinone (C) Both (A) and (R) are true
(D) Phenyl azo-2-naphthol (D) Both (A) and (R) are false
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54. “Crack” is abused through : 56. Which of the following is not
classified as hallucinogen ?
(A) Snorting
(A) Marijuana
(B) Oral ingestion
(B) Methadone
(C) Injection
(C) Psilocybin
(D) Inhalation
(D) LSD
55. Metallic poisons obtained after dry
57. Person who hide banned drugs into
ashing method are analyzed using :
their body for the purpose of
(A) Gel chromatography
smuggling is known as :
(B) Ion chromatography
(A) Drug Tourist
(C) Gas chromatography
(B) Back Packers
(D) Miceller electrokinetic capillary (C) Stuffers
chromatography
(D) Middle man
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58. Which of the following is not an 60. Heat of conversion of explosive into
alkaloid of opium ? gases is of the order of :
(A) Codeine (A) Milli-sec.
(B) Narcotine (B) Micro-sec.
(C) Morphine (C) Nano-sec.
(D) Ecgonine (D) Pico-sec.
59. Which of the following is known as 61. Which of the following is a liquid
“Date Rape Drug” ? explosive ?
(A) Heroin (A) PETN
(B) Cocaine (B) RDX
(C) Charas (C) TATP
(D) Flunitrazepam (D) HMX
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62. In a 7.62 × 39 mm cartridge, the two 63. When alcohol is burnt, the flame is
figures represents : of :
(A) Calibre of the firearm from (A) Red color
which it is fired and the length
(B) Yellow/Orange color
of the cartridge
(C) Blue color
(B) Calibre of the firearm from
(D) Pale yellow color
which it is fired and length of
64. Secret writing written by which of
the cartridge case
the following can not be deciphered
(C) Calibre of the firearm from
using heat treatment ?
which it is fired and length of
(A) Lemon juice
the bullet loaded in cartridge
(B) Saliva
(D) Calibre and length of the
(C) Onion juice
chamber of the firearm from
which it is fired (D) Pineapple juice
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66. The amplification curve produced by
65. “FACTS” in case of fingerprint
PCR is :
examination stands for :
(A) Linear
(A) Fingerprint analysis and
(B) Parabola
criminal tracing system (C) S-shaped
(D) Inverted
(B) Fingerprint assessment and
67. The temperature required for
criminal tracing system
denaturation of DNA in PCR
(C) Fingerprint analysis and is :
(A) 75ºC
criminal tracking system
(B) 95ºC
(D) Fingerprint analysis and
(C) 4ºC
criminal transfer system
(D) 60ºC
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68. The negative controls in 70. Which is not a step in Southern
blotting procedure ?
amplification contains all PCR
(A) Ligation of DNA into vector
components, except :
(B) Separation of DNA fragments
(A) Template
on a gel
(B) Polymerase
(C) Transfer of DNA fragments to
(C) Magnesium a nitrocellulose membrane
(D) dNTPs (D) Hybridization of the membrane
with a labelled probe
69. The role of magnesium in PCR
71. Didioxy DNA sequence exclusively
is :
depends on one of the following :
(A) To inhibit DNA degradation
(A) Termination
(B) Required by DNA polymerase
(B) ATP
(C) Required for annealing
(C) Plasmid vector
(D) Required for denaturation step (D) Vector primer
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72. Polymerase chain reaction is
74. Which of the following components
considered revolutionary technology
of human blood can be used to
because of all of the following,
except : determine sex ?
(A) It enables an unlimited
(A) Erythrocytes
production of DNA fragments
in-vitro
(B) Thrombocytes
(B) It is highly sensitive technology
(C) Leucocytes
(C) Its experimental protocol is
simple
(D) Haemoglobin
(D) It enables the direct production
75. The agglutinins for M and N
of synthetic gene that did not
exist before antigens :
73. Which of the following is not a
(A) Always occur in human blood
primary blood group ?
(A) Kell (B) Seldom occur in human blood
(B) Lewis
(C) Occur in human saliva only
(C) Auberger
(D) Lutheram (D) Occur in human bile only
23 [P.T.O.