MAHA SET 2018 Question Paper 3 Education

Test Booklet Code & Serial No.

A
Paper-III
EDUCATION
Signature and Name of Invigilator Seat No.
1. (Signature) ......................................... (In figures as in Admit Card)
(Name) ................................................ Seat No. ..............................................................
2. (Signature) ......................................... (In words)

(Name) ................................................ OMR Sheet No.
JAN - 70318 (To be filled by the Candidate)
Time Allowed : 2½ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 150
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 32 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided 1.
on the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of 75 objective type questions. Each question
will carry two marks. All questions of Paper-III will be compulsory, 2.
covering entire syllabus (including all electives, without options).
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are
requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as 3.
follows :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
(i)
a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions
in the booklet with the information printed on the (ii)
cover page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/
questions or questions repeated or not in serial
o rder or any other discre pancy should not be
accepted and correct booklet should be obtained
from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes.
Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be
replaced nor any extra time will be given. The same
may please be noted.
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
should be entered on this Test Booklet. (iii)
4. Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item. 4. (A), (B), (C) (D)
Example : where (C) is the correct response.

A B D
(C)
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place A B D
other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
5.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put 6.
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space 7.
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your 8.
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the
end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with 9.
you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed
to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 10.
11. Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited. 11.
12. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers. 12.

2

EDUCATION
Paper III

III
Time Allowed : 2½ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 150
Note : This paper contains Seventy five (75) multiple choice questions. Each question
carrying Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.
(75) (2)

1.
1. ....................... is not a form of

naturalism.

(A)
(A) Mechanical

(B) Scientific (B)

(C) Physical (C)

(D) Biological (D)

2. One who view the man as a sujbect 2.

and condemn all attempts to

objectify him :
(A)
(A) Realists
(B)
(B) Idealists

(C) Existentialists (C)

(D) Pragmatists (D)

3 [P.T.O.

3. Which school of philosophy believes 3.

in the universal mind ?

(A) Naturalism (A)

(B) Pragmatism (B)

(C) Idealism (C)

(D) Realism (D)

4. According to Sri Aurobindo by 4.
which way we achieve realization of

sublime truth ?
(A)
(A) Strict discipline
(B)
(B) Holistic vision
(C)
(C) Insight thinking
(D)
(D) Yogabhyas
5.
5. Gandhiji’s curriculum is not related

to ....................... .

(A) Core-curriculum (A)

(B) Craft centred curriculum (B)

(C) Activity centred curriculum (C)

(D) Correlated curriculum (D)

4

6. What does social-change mean ? 6.

(A) Social mobility (A)

(B) Change in education system (B)

(C) Change in government (C)

(D) Social progress (D)

7. Equal educational opportunity is a 7.

principle derived from .......... .

(A) Educational sociology (A)

(B) Sociology of education (B)

(C) Economics of education (C)

(D) History of education (D)

8. Stratification in society is based on 8.
......................... .

(A) Power, property and prestige
(A)
(B) Culture, caste and class
(B)
(C) Education earning and
(C)
empowerment

(D) Motivation, mobility and (D)

material

5 [P.T.O.

9. The movement from one social class 9.

to another is known as ................. .

(A) Social status
(A)
(B) Social control
(B)
(C) Social change
(C)
(D) Social mobility (D)
10. The community influences the
10.
....................... .

(A) Education curriculum of the
school (A)
(B) Educational objectives of the
school (B)

(C) Educational practices of the (C)
school

(D) All of the above (D)

11. According to Piaget’s developmental 11.
theory, in ........................ stage child
can learns that symbols represent
something else.
(A)
(A) Sensori-motor

(B) Pre-operational (B)

(C) Concrete operational (C)

(D) Formal operational (D)

6

12. ............................ is not a characteristic 12.
of growth and development.

(A) Principle of continuity (A)

(B) Principle of motivation (B)

(C) Principle of integration (C)

(D) Principle of interrelation (D)

13. ..................... is higher type of thinking 13.
process.

(A) Problem solving (A)

(B) Critical thinking (B)

(C) Reasoning (C)

(D) Reflective thinking (D)

14. ............................ spent a number of 14.

years in counting the words which

were used in popular magazines,

children’s books etc.
(A)
(A) E.I. Thorndike and I. Lorge
(B)
(B) E.I. Thorndike and Pavlov
(C)
(C) E.I. Thorndike and Skinner

(D) E.I. Thorndike and M. Lord (D)

7 [P.T.O.

15. The children of heighted parents 15.
will tend to be average height. This
statement is related to law of
...................... of heredity.
(A)
(A) Similarity
(B)
(B) Variation

(C) Regression (C)

(D) Contrast (D)

16. ........................ primary mental ability 16.
is not included in Thurstone’s
multifactor intelligence theory.

(A) Verbal
(A)
(B) Perceptual
(B)
(C) Musical
(C)
(D) Spatial
(D)

17. Suraj is trying to solve the 17.
mathematical example but he can’t
solve it. Suddenly he get clue and
solve the example. This is ..................
type of learning.
(A) Logical (A)

(B) Insight (B)
(C) Discovery (C)
(D) Co-operative
(D)
8

18. The new concept of latent learning 18.
was propagated by ....................... in
his learning theory.
(A)
(A) Tolman
(B)
(B) Skinner
(C)
(C) Thorndike

(D) Hull (D)

19. The greatest contribution of Hull’s 19.
theory is ....................... .

(A) Strength of the drive
(A)
(B) Habit strength
(B)
(C) Linking the learning to the
needs of the children (C)

(D) The incentive motivation (D)

20. Priya apply the values taught in a 20.
classroom at daily life purposely and
faithfully. This behaviour is related
to .......................theory of transfer of
learning.
(A)
(A) Thorndike’s

(B) Judd’s (B)

(C) Bagley’s (C)

(D) Locke’s (D)

9 [P.T.O.

21. In personality theory, ................... 21.
classifed all human being into
certain biological types according to
their physical structure.
(A)
(A) Kretschmer
(B)
(B) Sheldon

(C) Jung (C)

(D) Allport (D)

22. Every personality is the end-product 22.
of this process of ....................... .

(A) Learning and motivation
(A)
(B) Learning and acquisition
(B)
(C) Heredity and motivation
(C)
(D) Environment and motivation
(D)
23. According to Cattell, curiosity and
23.
dependability are the examples of

.................... type of trait.

(A) Common
(A)

(B) Unique (B)

(C) Surface (C)

(D) Source (D)

10

24. .......................... psychologist stated 24.
that ‘Mental hygiene is a science’.

(A) Crow and Crow (A)

(B) Drever (B)

(C) D.B. Klein (C)

(D) Shaffer (D)

25. Rahul always says to his friend that 25.
he is intimately acquainted with the
district education officers. Here
.................. defence mechanism was
used by Rahul.
(A)
(A) Delusion
(B)
(B) Rationalization

(C) Projection (C)

(D) Identification (D)

26. There is no freedom to the individual 26.

in ........................ type of counselling.

(A) Direct counselling (A)

(B) Non-directive counselling (B)

(C) Group counselling (C)

(D) Individual counselling
(D)

11 [P.T.O.

27. Achivement test is given to a class. 27.

This step is useful for guidance of

........................... .

(A) Slow learners (A)

(B) Backward class learners (B)

(C) Gifted children (C)

(D) Problem children (D)

28. Neha got less marks than her 28. S.S.C.

expectations in the S.S.C.

examination. “She states that this

is because the examiners did not

check the papers properly”. This is

an example of ....................... Defence

Mechanism.
(A)

(A) Projection
(B)
(B) Negativism
(C)
(C) Suppression

(D)
(D) Rationalization

12

29. Cumulative record is a ................... 29.
tool of guidance.

(A) Non-standardized (A)

(B) Standardized (B)

(C) Objective (C)

(D) Appropriate (D)

30. The selection of an appropriate 30.
person in an appropriate place is
called ...................... .
(A)
(A) Placement
(B)
(B) Follow-up
(C)
(C) Guidance

(D) Counselling (D)

31. Researchers use non-probabilistic 31.
sample because ...................... .

(A) Probabilistic sampling is costly (A)
(B) It is a simple and quick method
(B)
(C) It provides freedom for
(C)
continuous representative
selection
(D)
(D) Many a time basic data
necessary for probabilistic (data)

sample is not available

13 [P.T.O.

32. Probability of selection of a unit to 32. (unit)
the sample is :

Sample size
(A)
Population size (A)

Population size
(B) (B)
Sample size

Population size + Sample size
(C) (C)
Population size

Population size (D)
(D) Population size + Sample size

33. Sampling interval for systematic 33.
sampling is calculated by the (sampling interval)
formula :

Poputlation size
(A)
Desired sample size
(A)

Sample size
(B)
Population size (B)

Population size – Sample size
(C) (C)
2 2

Population size + Sample size
(D) (D)
2 2

14

34. Which of the following does not belong 34.

to random sampling technique ?

(A) Systematic sampling (A)

(B) Cluster sampling (B)

(C) Proportional stratified sampling (C)

(D) Purposive sampling (D)

35. Of late ‘random number tables’ are 35.

not in use for sample selection

because :

(A) It is difficult to compute with
(A)

tables

(B) Non-availability of tables
(B)

(C) It is easy to do with computers
(C)
(D) Tables do not provide accurate
(D)
numbers

15 [P.T.O.

36. Three researchers collected data 36.

using same objectives, design and (data)
tool but with independently selected

sample units from same target

population. The comprehensive

report of three researchers is

called :
(A)
(A) Team work
(B)
(B) Cross-sectional study

(C)
(C) Cohort study

(D) Collective study (D)

37. Major drawback of mailed 37.

questionnaire survey is :

(A) Time consumption in collecting

data
(A)
(B) No response from sample unit
(B)
(C) Illegible handwriting in
(C)
questionnaire

(D) Authenticity of data (D)

16

38. The research studies of ................... 38.
approach do not use inferential
statistics to test hypotheses about a
larger population of interest.
(A) Associational research (A)

(B) Non-experimental (B)

(C) Experimental (C)

(D) Descriptive (D)

39. W h i ch on e of t h e fol l ow i n g i s not 39.
the characteristic of historical
research ?
(A)
(A) It is not completely objective
(B)
(B) Purpose is to understand
sequence of events and to
reason out
(C)
(C) Providing meaning to events
(D) (asumptions)
(D) Validate assumptions with
representative data (data)

40. If the research problem requires to 40.
........................., one needs to
undertake quantitative research.
(A) Learn about views of (A)
individuals
(B)
(B) Assess a process overtime
(C) Obtain detailed information
(C)
about few people
(information)
(D) Measure variables
(D)

17 [P.T.O.

41. Vocationalization of education was 41.

first recommended by .............in

India.

(A) Hunter Commission (A)

(B) Seargent Commission (B)

(C) Radhakrishnan Commission (C)

(D) Kothari Commission (D)

42. Indian education requires rapid 42.

vocational expansion to ................. .

(A) Reduce enrolment in general
(A)
education system

(B) Reduce importance of white

collared jobs (B)

(C) Provide skilled manpower
(C)

(D) Provide cheap labour to
(D)
industry

18

43. MHRD, India has proposed as a 43.
policy to ...................... .

(A) encourage degree colleges to
(A)
integrate vocational course as
option

(B) start independent vocational
(B)
courses
(C) +2
(C) confine vocationalization at +2
level
(D)
(D) introduce vocational course in
every degree course

44. The ‘Equivalency Theory’ of distance 44.
education is given by .................... .

(A) Keegan (A)

(B) Holmberg (B)

(C) Moore (C)

(D) Peters (D)

45. From the following which is not an 45.
important feature of Distance
Education System ?
(A)
(A) Study material
(B)
(B) Electronic media

(C) Assignments (C)

(D) Classrooms (D)

19 [P.T.O.

46. According to Ralph Taylor (1949), 46.
major steps of curriculum
development are :
(A)
(A) Objectives – learning
experience – organization –
evaluation – outcomes
(B)
(B) Educational purpose – teaching
methods – course outline –
evaluation (C)
(C) Objectives – syllabus – teaching-
learning – examination
(D)
(D) Objectives – content – teaching
– evaluation

47. Which one of the following is not the 47.
external criteria for curriculum
evaluation ?
(A)
(A) Placement and admission
demand (B)
(B) Job satisfaction and employer’s
(employer)
satisfaction
(C)
(C) Employer’s satisfaction and
placement

(D) Expert opinion and institutional (D)
infrastructure

20

48. Scriven’s formative model (1967) of
48.
curricular evaluation does not
advocate :

(A) Field traits of course materials
(A)
(B) Interacting with learner
(B)
together
(C)
(C) Gather opinions by external
group on course development

(D) Pre-product evaluation to meet (D)

the curricular goals

49. Choice based credit system 49.

curriculum provides scope for :

(A) Analyse theory practicals
separately and evaluate (A)
(B) Integrate theory and practicum
as a unit of valuation
(B)
(C) Provide more importance to
practicals and less to theory
component (C)

(D) Provide more importance to the
theoretical component than (D)
practical

21 [P.T.O.

50. Which one is not the component of 50.
the curriculum ?

(A) Design (A)

(B) Evaluation (B)

(C) Teaching-learning experiences (C)

(D) Abilities (D)

51. From the following .................... is not 51.
a principle of good supervision.

(A) respect individuality of teacher
(A)
(B) hold back praise of teacher
(B)
(C) not confine to four walls of the

school (C)

(D) impartial observation of facts (D)

52. The basic purpose of supervision is 52.
....................... .
(A)
(A) Organize the working of school

(B) Operate the school (B)

(C) Improvement in the working of
(C)
school
(D)
(D) Direct the working of the school

22

53. Leaders who are generally 53.

indifferent to the organization and

work are called ........................ .
(A)
(A) Autocrat
(B)
(B) Deserter
(C)
(C) Compromiser

(D) Missionary (D)

54. From the following ................... is not 54.
a feature of administration.
(A)
(A) Plan
(B)
(B) Stimulate

(C) Diagnose (C)

(D) Inspect
(D)
55. Decision-making is a step in
55.
........................ .

(A) Planning
(A)
(B) Organizing
(B)

(C) Evaluating (C)

(D) Executing (D)

23 [P.T.O.

56. Any teacher wants to evaluate 56.
his students, then evaluation
process starts from ......................... .
(A) Fix the teaching objectives
(A)
(B) Select the evaluation tool
(B)
(C) Fix the evaluation questions
(C)
(D) Fix the type of questions for
evaluation (D)

57. ....................... criteria is observed 57.
more in the test in which objective
questions are included.
(A) Validity (A)
(B) Reliability (B)
(C) Adequacy (C)

(D) Utility (D)
58. If an attitude scale development is
58.
characterised by simple procedure,
involves less time and work, yet
provide good reliability, the method
will be .................... .
(A) Thurstone’s method of paired
comparison
(B) Thurstone and Chave’s method (A)
of equal appearing intervals
(B)
(C) Likert’s method of summated
rating (C)

(D) Gutman’s scalogram method (D)

24

59. Sandeep use psychological test for 59.
his research. The interpretation

process of test was so difficult that’s
why he faced problems. This

experience of Sandeep about test

because of ..................... criterion

weakness.

(A) Discrimination power (A)

(B) Adequacy (B)

(C) Usability (C)

(D) Validity (D)

60. Interchange the questions in 60.
between two tests prepared by Anil.

Then their is no change in the

nature of two tests. So ...................

method was used by Anil for testing
of reliability of the tests.

(A) Test-retest (A)

(B) Parallel forms (B)

(C) Split half (C)

(D) Rational-equivalence (D)

25 [P.T.O.

61. Study of various teaching aids which 61.

we use in teaching and learning

for its effectiveness is called

.......................... .
(A)
(A) Educational technology
(B)
(B) Technology of education
(C)
(C) Technology in education

(D) Instructional technology (D)

62. The correct sequence in system 62.

approach in school education is as

follows :
(A)
(A) Input – process – diagnostic test

– feedback – output
(B)
(B) Input – diagnostic test – process

– feedback – output

(C)
(C) Input – counselling – process –

testing – output

(D) Input – process – counselling – (D)

feedback – output

26

63. ‘Common field of experiences of 63.

sender and receiver is
communication.’ This definition of
communication is given by
.................... . (A)

(A) Shanon and Weaver
(B)
(B) Schramm
(C)
(C) Newcomb

(D) Miller (D)

64. If we want to see the eligibility of 64.
the candidate for specific job, then
we have to use ......................... test.

(A) Criterion-referenced
(A)
(B) Norm-referenced (B)
(C) Achievement (C)

(D) Diagnostic (D)

65. Programmed learning is based on 65.
...................... theory of learning.

(A) Pavlov’s (A)

(B) Hull’s (B)

(C) Thorndike’s (C)

(D) Skinner’s (D)

27 [P.T.O.

66. Nikhil wanders aimlessly in the 66.
classroom. Nikhil may be
........................ .

(A) Learning disabled (A)

(B) Mentally retarded (B)

(C) Hyperactive (C)

(D) Inattentive (D)

67. Vrunda unnecessarily speaks very 67.
fast. The reason is that she has
................. problem.
(A)
(A) hearing
(B)
(B) speaking
(C)
(C) learning disability

(D) mental retardedness (D)

68. The method of using ‘hand 68.
movements’ for explaining verbal
concepts to the hearing impaired
students is called ....................... .
(A)
(A) Finger spell
(B)
(B) Cued speech method
(C)
(C) Action method

(D) Complete communication (D)

method

28

69. The prominent feature of a five years 69.

old child whose IQ is less than 24

is being ..................... .

(A) entirely dependent on others for

movement (A)

(B) able to understand what is told (B)

by others
(C)
(C) able to adjust socially

(D) entirely independent in reading (D)

70. The behaviour asking questions 70.

continuously is primararily seen in

.................... students.

(A) mentally retarded (A)

(B) visually impaired (B)

(C) gifted (C)

(D)
(D) learning disabled

29 [P.T.O.

71. Which of the following is not true 71.
aim of refresher course ?
(A)
(A) To give information about
teaching profession (B)

(B) To introduce new ideas
(C)
(C) To introduce new methods and
techniques of teaching

(D) To update the knowledge (D)

72. ...................... should be used for 72.
admission of teacher education
courses.
(A)
(A) Interest inventory
(B)
(B) Intelligence test

(C) Aptitude test (C)

(D) Achievement test (D)

73. Which of the following is not the
73.
device for modification of teacher
behaviour ?
(A)
(A) Simulated social skill teaching
(B)
(B) Micro-teaching
(C)
(C) Interaction analysis
(D)
(D) Character development
30

74. ‘There should be an independent 74.

channel on television exclusively for

education.’ This recommendation

was given by ......................... .

(A) Ram Murti Committee (A)

(B) National Education Policy (1986) (B)

(C) National Curriculum Frame-
(C)
work-2005
(D)
(D) National Curriculum Frame-

work for Teacher Education-2009

75. In Flander’s observation matrix 75.

when we observe more tallies in

(1, 1), (2, 2) ............ (10, 10) cells. This

shows ................... .
(A)
(A) Teacher’s continuous activity
(B)
(B) Students continuons activity

(C) Silence in the class (C)

(D) Noise in the class (D)
31 [P.T.O.

ROUGH WORK

32