MAHA SET 2015 Question Paper 3 Life Sciences

Test Booklet No.
M
LIFE SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator Seat No.
1. (Signature) ......................................... (In figures as in Admit Card)
(Name) ................................................ Seat No. ..............................................................
2. (Signature) ......................................... (In words)

(Name) ................................................ OMR Sheet No.
AUG- 34315 (To be filled by the Candidate)
Time Allowed : 2½ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 150
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 20 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided 1.
on the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of 75 objective type questions. Each question
will carry two marks. All questions of Paper-III will be compulsory, 2.
covering entire syllabus (including all electives, without options).
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are
requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as 3.
follows :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
(i)
a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions
in the booklet with the information printed on the (ii)
cover page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/
questions or questions repeated or not in serial
o rder or any other discre pancy should not be
accepted and correct booklet should be obtained
from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes.
Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be
replaced nor any extra time will be given. The same
may please be noted.
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
should be entered on this Test Booklet. (iii)
4. Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item. 4. (A), (B), (C) (D)
Example : where (C) is the correct response.

A B D
(C)
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place A B D
other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
5.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put 6.
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space 7.
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your 8.
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the
end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with 9.
you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed
to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 10.
11. Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited. 11.
12. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers. 12.

2

LIFE SCIENCE

Paper III

Time Allowed : 2½ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 150

Note : This paper contains Seventy Five (75) multiple choice questions. Each

question carries Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

1. Biosystematics is concerned with 2. In which of the following
information on : Bryophytes, pseudo-elaters are
(i) evolution and classification of formed :
populations
(A) Marchantia
(ii) genetic variability of
(B) Riccia
populations
(C) Sphagnum
(iii) breeding behaviour of
(D) Anthoceros
populations
3. The motile male gamete forms in
(iv) Competition and local
adaptations of populations both ................... .

(A) (i) and (ii) only (A) Cycas and Ginkgo

(B) (i) and (iii) only (B) Ginkgo and Pinus

(C) (i) (C) Pinus and Gnetum

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (D) Gnetum and Juniperus

3 [P.T.O.

6. In photorespiration, the
4. Cytoplasmic Male Sterility (CMS) is
incorporation of one molecule of O2
the result of ...................... in the
into the 2, 3–enediol isomer of

mitochondrial genome. ribulose 1, 5-biphosphate generates

an unstable intermediate that
(A) hybridization
rapidly splits into ................... .

(B) mutation (A) 2-phosphoglycolate and

3-phosphoglycerate
(C) selection
(B) 2-phosphoenol pyruvate and
(D) recombination
2-phosphoglycolate

5. As per N.I. Vavilov’s concept, (C) 3-phosphoglycerate and

2-phosphoenol pyruvate
primary centres of origin of crop
(D) 2-phosphoglycolate and
plants have great ................... .
2-phosphoglyoxylate

(A) genetic diversity 7. Which growth regulator helps to

reduce the senescence of leaf ?
(B) phenetic diversity
(A) Auxin

(C) ecosystem diversity (B) Cytokinin

(C) Gibberellin
(D) biodiversity
(D) Ethylene
4

8. Which of the following crops is 10. Cybrids are obtained by the

technique :
autotetraploid ?

(A) Micropropagation
(A) Potato
(B) Protoplast fusion

(B) Banana
(C) Genetic transformation

(C) Wheat (D) Pollen culture

(D) Sweet potato 11. The nematode body cavity is a

pseudocoel because it :
9. Effective breeding for disease
(A) is surrounded by a muscle layer
resistance is achieved by creating
and lined by the alimentary
..................... .
canal

(A) artificial epidemics (B) is filled with pseudocoelomic

fluid
(B) greenhouses

(C) has very little parenchyma
(C) field surveys
(D) contains large cells called

(D) hybrids
pseudo-coelomocytes

5 [P.T.O.

12. In which snake the third supra- 14. Action potential of neurones does not

follow :
labial scale touches the eye and the
(A) graded potential
nostril ?
(B) a threshold of stimulation
(A) Russell’s viper
(C) the all or none law

(B) Cobra (D) an influx of sodium ions

(C) Krait 15. Vitellogenesis is facilitated by :

(A) Corpus luteum
(D) Rat-snake

(B) Granulosa
13. The structural and functional
(C) Placenta
unit of muscle contraction is
(D) Yolk sac
the :
16. In mammals the circadian clock is

(A) Myofibril located within the :

(A) suprachiasmatic nucleus
(B) Myosin

(B) cerebellar cortex
(C) Sarcomere
(C) basal ganglia

(D) A and I bands
(D) frontal cortex

6

17. Orienting response of organisms in 19. The vegetative stage of the malarial
which an animal turns to face an

oncoming current of water is known parasite is known as :

as :
(A) trophozoite
(A) geotaxis

(B) hydrotaxis (B) sporozoite

(C) rheotaxis
(C) schizozoite
(D) thigmotaxis

18. As compared to plain-dwellers, (D) merozoite

residents of high altitudes are likely
20. The insoluble protein fraction of silk
to have :

(A) increased haemoglobin and is :

increased number of

erythrocytes (A) elastin

(B) larger RBCs and smaller
(B) fibroin
volume of blood

(C) elevated body temperature and (C) keratin

high breathing rate
(D) sericin
(D) reduced haemoglobin and

smaller number of erythrocytes

7 [P.T.O.

23. As per IUCN a large area of
21. Which of the following substances or
unmodified or slightly modified land,
agent is paving the way to and/or sea retaining its natural
character and influence, without
understanding a larger phenomenon
permanent or significant habitation,
of environmental signaling ? which is protected and managed so
as to preserve its natural condition
(A) Teratogens is called as :

(A) strict nature reserve
(B) Carcinogens
(B) wilderness area

(C) Mutagens (C) national park

(D) natural monument
(D) Estrogens
24. The “C-value paradox” of evolution
of genomes states that :
22. The initial step in adhesion between
(A) increase in the number of
leucocytes and endothelial cells that protein coding genes is
proportional to the increase in
line blood vessels is mediated by a
the genome size
family of transmembrane proteins is (B) increase in the number of
protein-coding genes is not
called :
proportional to the increase in
the genome size
(A) Selectins
(C) the number of genes is greater
(B) Spectrin in higher organisms than the
relative increase in the genome
(C) Ankyrin size

(D) all chromosomes have more or
(D) Porins
less same number of genes

8

25. The rate of spontaneous 27. Which of the following types of
depurination in DNA is about 104
histone modifications causes
purines per day in a mammalian
epigenetic regulation of eukaryotic
cell. This type of spontaneous
chromatin leading to active
mutation is caused by :
transcription :
(A) breaking of the N-glycosidic

bond (A) H3-K9-acetylation

(B) breaking of the phosphodiester
(B) H3-K9-trimethylation
bond
(C) H4-K10-phosphorylation
(C) breaking of the hydrogen bond
(D) H1-phosphorylation
(D) deamination of adenine or

guanine base 28. Water is effective in screening the

26. Polytene chromosome of Drosophila electrostatic interactions between

is a good experimental system to dissolved ions because it has :
study :
(A) a high dielectric constant
(A) DNA replication
(B) a high fluidity property
(B) DNA recombination

(C) a high electrical conductivity
(C) Inducible gene expression

(D) Chromosomal translocation (D) a neutral pH value

9 [P.T.O.

29. Food webs based on the concept who 32. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a
eats whom, emphasizing the feeding ubiquitos bacterium. The underlying
relationships are called :
condition of the patient is a major
(A) Energy flow food webs factor in the virulence of P.
(B) Functional food webs aeruginosa Which of the following
(C) Connectedness webs is a major determinant of the

(D) Source webs pathogenicity of this organism ?

30. The pyramid of productivity or (A) Fluorescein
energy flow is always :
(B) Pyocyanin
(A) in upright position
(C) Pyoverdin
(B) subject to reversals

(C) in inverted position (D) Exotoxin A

(D) subject to no change 33. Analysis of the metabolites produced

31. Rotavirus is a common cause of by an organism fermentation of
diarrhoea in children. Which of the glucose reveals small amounts of
following statements best describes 6-phosphogluconic acid. This
rotavirus ?
fermentation organism is most likely
(A) It is an RNA virus
to be :
(B) Tests for detection of antigen
(A) Enterobacter
are rarely useful

(C) Culture is the routine method (B) Escherichia

of confirming infection (C) Leuconostoc
(D) It is rarely a nosocomial
(D) Streptococcus lactis
pathogen

10

34. How many of the following bacteria 37. The cells which are key cellular
are involved in asymbiotic nitrogen bridge between adaptive and innate
fixation ? Azotobacter, Azospirillum, immunity are :
Rhizobium, Agrobacterium, (A) T cells
Beijerinkia
(B) B cells
(A) 1
(C) Dendritic cells
(B) 2
(D) Neurons
(C) 3
38. When two uncharged atoms are
(D) 4 brought very close together, the two
35. The synthesis of 5-hydroxymethyl nuclei are said to be in van der
cytosine (HMC) during replication, Waals contact, when the net :
which substitute for cytosine (C) is (A) attraction is maximum
characteristic features of :
(B) repulsion is maximum
(A) Phage T4
(C) attraction is equal to repulsion
(B) Phage (lambda)
(D) attraction is minimum
(C) Phage X174
39. Sugar pucker conformation of
(D) Phage M13 B-form of DNA is :
36. Endogenous antigens are presented (A) C–2' endo
to T-lymphocytes via :
(B) C–3' endo
(A) MHC class I molecules
(C) C–2' endo for pyrimidines and
(B) MHC class II molecules C–3' endo for purines
(C) MHC class III molecules (D) C–2' endo for purines and
(D) Interleukins C–3' endo for pyrimidines

11 [P.T.O.

40. Mixed reversible inhibition is due 42. Which of the following pentose is not
to :
formed during pentose phosphate
(A) binding of inhibitor to the active
site of enzyme pathway ?

(B) inhibitor binds at separate site,
(A) Ribulose 5-phosphate
but may bind to either E or Es

(C) inhibitor binds to separate site (B) Ribose 5–phosphate
but only to the Es complex
(C) Xylulose 5-phosphate
(D) inhibitor binds at separate site
but only to the E
(D) Xylose 5-phosphate
41. In an enzyme-catalyzed reaction,
Km (Michaelis-Menten constant) is 43. No net conversion of fatty acids to
a characteristic of an enzyme used
for its substrate and is independent glucose occurs in mammals because

of the amount of enzyme used for .................... .
its experimental determination, but
Vmax (limiting value of the initial (A) pyruvate dehydrogenase
rate when all the active sites are
occupied) has no absolute value but reaction is irreversible

varies with the :
(B) of the presence of citrate
(A) Time
synthase
(B) Km/2

(C) substrate concentration beyond (C) lack of glycerol kinase
saturation

(D) amount of enzyme used (D) lack of acetyl CoA carboxylase

12

44. Which of the following biochemical 46. Which of the following becomes

reaction shows highest standard free oncogenic when it has a truncation

energy change ? in the N-terminal extracellular

domain ?
(A) UDP-glucose + H2O UMP +
(A) PDGFR
glucose 1–phosphate

(B) EGFR
(B) Glucose 1–phosphate

glucose 6–phosphate (C) FGFR

(D) GMCSFR
(C) Malate fumarate + H2O

47. Cryptic splice sites are those :
(D) Palmitate + 23O2 16CO2

+16H2O (A) Which are used in some cells

but not in others
45. Which of the following enzyme
(B) Which are always used
reactions is termed as acyl group

transfer reaction ? (C) Which are involved in

alternative splicing
(A) Chymotrypsin
(D) Which are within exons or
(B) Lysozyme
introns that resemble
(C) Hexokinase consensus splicing signals, but

(D) Isomerase are not true splice sites

13 [P.T.O.

48. The proteome of a cell is defined 50. What is the role of the rho protein
as : in termination of transcription ?
(A) all the proteins that a cell is
(A) It is a helicase that actively
capable of synthesizing
breaks base pairs between the
(B) all the proteins present in a cell
over the cells’ life time template and transcript
(C) all the proteins present in a cell
(B) It is a DNA-binding protein
at a given moment
(D) all the proteins that are post- that blocks the movement of
translationally modified in a RNA polymerase down the
cell at a given moment
template
49. Which of the following statements
correctly describes the (C) It is a subunit of RNA
recombination frequency between
polymerase that binds to RNA
two genes ?
(A) The closer two genes are to each hairpins and stalls transcription
other on a chromosome higher
(D) It is a nuclease that degrades
is the frequency of
recombination between them the 3' ends of RNA transcripts
(B) The more distant two genes are
51. Lampbrush chromosomes represent :
to each other on a chromosome
higher is the frequency of (A) DNA and multiple gene
recombination between them
transcripts of various sizes
(C) If two genes are located on the
same chromosome then no being made
recombination events can occur
between them (B) replication of DNA

(D) If two genes are located on (C) amplification of rRNA genes
different chromosomes then the
frequency of recombination is (D) miRNA transcripts of various
high between them lengths

14

52. What is a pseudogene ? 54. In case of uncapped mRNAs like in
some viruses, ribosome binds to
(A) A gene that is only expressed m RNA during initiation of
translation at the ..................... .
at certain developmental stages
(A) initiation codon directly
(B) A non-functional gene (B) IRES

(C) Poly A tail
(C) A gene that contains a
(D) 3' UTR
mutation but is still functional
55. The length of DNA present in the
(D) A sequence of DNA that is nucleosome core particle in a
somatic cell is usually :
slowly evolving to become an
(A) 100 bp
active gene (B) 146 bp

(C) 200 bp
53. Which of the following partial
(D) 250 bp
diploids can make galactosidase
56. The phenotypic effects seen in
and grow in a medium with lactose phenylketoneuria (PKU), an
inherited disorder are due to :
as a sole carbon source ?
(A) the accumulation of
(A) i– z+ y–/i+ z– y– phenylketones in blood

(B) the absence of phenylalanine
(B) i+ oc z+ y+/i+ z+ y+
hydroxylase

(C) i+ p– z+ y+/i+ z– y– (C) a deficiency of phenylketones in
blood
(D) i+ z– y+/i+ z– y– (D) a deficiency of phenylketones

15 [P.T.O.

57. According to Knudson’s two hit 59. Genomic library is :

hypothesis which provides an (A) a collection of recombinant

explanation for predisposition to molecules with inserts that
contain all of the genes of an
Retinoblastoma :
organism
(A) Mutation in Retinoblastoma
(B) a collection of recombinant
gene is recessive molecules with inserts that
contain all of an organism’s
(B) Mutation in Retinoblastoma
genomic DNA
gene is silent
(C) a collection of recombinant
(C) Mutation is always associated molecules with inserts that
with translocation contain expressed genes of an
organism
(D) It involves an oncogene
(D) a collection of recombinant
58. DNA ligase synthesizes :
molecules with inserts that are

(A) hydrogen bonds between bases sequenced

60. Inserting a gene encoding a
(B) phosphodiester bond between
pathogenic microbe’s surface protein
nucleotides
into a harmless virus produces a :

(C) bond between bases and (A) piggyback vaccines
deoxyribose sugars (B) virulent virus

(D) Peptide bonds between amino (C) active disease causing pathogen

acids (D) pharmaceutical human protein

16

61. Which of the following is a second 64. A beaker marked ‘X’ has 100 ml of
messenger ? water at 80°C while another beaker

(A) SiRNA marked ‘Y’ has 200 ml water at 20°C.

(B) miRNA If we mix the two completely in

(C) cAMP 500 ml beaker and record the

(D) Na+ temperature immediately, the

62. Each molecule of Na–K ATPase temperature will be closest to :

contains the following combination (A) 20°C
of subunits :
(B) 40°C
(A) 4
(C) 80°C
(B) 2 and 2
(D) 50°C
(C) 1 and 3

(D) 4 65. Which one of the following is an
expression for the X-ray diffraction
63. Microtubule depolymerizing drug
technique used for determination of
such as colchicine, is expected to :
structures of biomolecules, according
(A) inhibit mitosis but allow to Bragg’s law :
cytokinesis
(A) 2d . sin Q = n .
(B) inhibit cytokinesis
(B) sin Q = 2d . n
(C) allow mitosis beyond metaphase
(C) 2d . = n . sin Q
(D) induce formation of multiple
sin Q
contractile rings (D) n.
2d

17 [P.T.O.

66. Electrophoresis of a purified protein 68. An amino acid mixture consisting of
in SDS – PAGE in the presence of
phenylalanine, glycine and glutamic
2 mercaptoethanol yields two bands
acid is to be separated by HPLC. The
of 25 KDa and 35 KDa. However in
stationary phase is aqueous and the
a gel filtration chromatography the
mobile phase is a solvent of less
same protein elutes as 60 KDa

protein. What conclusion can be polarity than water. Choose the

drawn from this ? proper sequence of elution of amino

(A) Protein is not purified to acids :

homogeneity (A) Phe, Gly, Glut

(B) Protein is a heterodimer
(B) Phe, Glut, Gly
(C) Protein is a multimer
(C) Gly, Phe, Glut
(D) Two bands observed in SDS-
(D) Glut, Gly, Phe
PAGE are due to protein

degradation 69. Which one of the following is used

67. Electroencephalogram is a record of as a feeder layer for cloning of

electrical activity of the : mouse hybridoma ?

(A) heart (A) HeLa cells

(B) leg muscle (B) NIH3T3 cells

(C) liver
(C) MEL cells

(D) brain
(D) sp20 cells

18

73. Which of the following
70. One microgram of a 3kb plasmid
immunological techniques do not
DNA will approximately contain how
aggregate soluble antigens as end
many number of the DNA molecule ?
point ?
(A) 3 × 109
(A) Double immunodiffusion
(B) 3 × 1011
(B) Immunoblotting
(C) 3 × 106
(C) ELISA
(D) 6.023 × 1023
(D) Hemagglutination
71. Which of the following is not a
method for constructing the 74. In a z distribution, the z value of
microarrays ? 1 represents :

(A) Spotting of DNA fragments (A) Mean
directly on the slide
(B) Standard deviation
(B) Pizoelectric printing
(C) Degrees of freedom
(C) Photolithography
(D) Relative frequency
(D) Crosslinking of DNA on the
slides using glutaraldehyde 75. Chances of making a Type I error
in statistical inference will be higher
72. Which of the following molecules of
same quantity absorb least in when :

uv-visible spectra ? (A) Sample size is > 30
(A) double stranded DNA (B) ‘t’ distribution is used instead of
(B) single stranded DNA actual distribution

(C) deoxyribonucleotides (C) level of significance ( ) is lower
(D) deoxyribonucleosides
(D) confidence interval is wider

19 [P.T.O.

ROUGH WORK

20