aglasem.com
Schools Admission Mock Test Playground
ClassChoose class
StateSelect state

MAHA SET 2018 Question Paper 1

Download MAHA SET 2018 Question Paper 1 PDF. MAHA SET is conducted by Savitribai Phule Pune University. You can get all Maharashtra State Eligibility Test previous year question papers at aglasem.com for free. MAHA SET past year papers will help you prepare for upcoming examination. Solving Pune University MAHA SET Question Papers will help you understand the exam pattern, level of questions and most important topics. MAHA SET 2018 Question Paper 1 is given below. More Detail
MAHA SET 2018 Question Paper 1 - Page 1 of 32

Finished viewing? Save it for later —

Download MAHA SET 2018 Question Paper 1 (PDF · 32 pages)
Downloaded 49 times

About MAHA SET 2018 Question Paper 1

MAHA SET 2018 Question Paper 1 is available here for free download. Published by Maharashtra Exams for MAHA SET, this question paper can be viewed online or downloaded as a PDF (32 pages). Candidates preparing for MAHA SET can use MAHA SET 2018 Question Paper 1 to understand the exam pattern, the type of questions asked, and the overall difficulty level.

Frequently Asked Questions

How can I download MAHA SET 2018 Question Paper 1?

Open this page and click the Download button to save MAHA SET 2018 Question Paper 1 as a PDF. It is completely free on AglaSem Docs.

Is MAHA SET 2018 Question Paper 1 free to download?

Yes. MAHA SET 2018 Question Paper 1 can be viewed online and downloaded as a PDF free of cost on AglaSem Docs.

How many pages does MAHA SET 2018 Question Paper 1 have?

MAHA SET 2018 Question Paper 1 contains 32 pages, which you can read online or download together as a single PDF.

Where can I find more MAHA SET study material?

You can find more MAHA SET question papers, sample papers, syllabus, and answer keys on AglaSem Docs.

MAHA SET 2018 Question Paper 1 – Text

Read the full text of this question paper below — useful to quickly search, copy and reference the content online without downloading the PDF.

📄 View text version (32 pages)

Page 1

Test Booklet Code & Serial No.
A

Signature and Name of Invigilator Seat No.
1. (Signature) ......................................... (In figures as in Admit Card)
(Name) ................................................ Seat No. ..............................................................
2. (Signature) ......................................... (In words)

(Name) ................................................ OMR Sheet No.
JAN - 00118 (To be filled by the Candidate)
Time Allowed : 1¼ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 32 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided 1.
on the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of sixty (60
60)
60 multiple-choice type of questions,
out of which the candidate would be required to answer any 2.
fifty (50
50)
50 questions. In the event of the candidate attempting
more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions attempted
by the candidate would be evaluated.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet 3.
will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are
requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as
follows :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the (i)
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet. (ii)
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions
in the booklet with the information printed on the
cover page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/
questions or questions repeated or not in serial
order or any other discre pancy should not be
accepted and correct booklet should be obtained
from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes.
Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be
replaced nor any extra time will be given. The same
may please be noted. (iii)
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), 4. (A), (B), (C) (D)
(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item.
Example : where (C) is the correct response.
(C)
A B D
A B D
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place 5.
other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 6.
7. Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put 7.
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space 8.
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the
end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with 9.
you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed
to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
conclusion of examination.
10.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited. 11.
12. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers. 12.

Page 2

2

Page 3

Paper I
I
Time Allowed : 75 Minutes] [Maximum Marks : 100
Note : (1) This Paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question
carrying Two (2) marks.
(2) Attempt any Fifty (50
50)
50 questions.
(1) (60) (2)

(2) (50
50)
50

1. Out of the following, which is the
1.
correct statement ?
(A) Teaching is a dependent (A)
process.
(B) Teaching is an independent (B)
process.
(C)
(C) Product of teaching must be
learning.
(D) Learning is dependent upon
teaching. (D)
2. ............................... is very important 2.
in the process of learning.
(A) School atmosphere (A)
(B) Infrastructure (B)
(C) Previous knowledge (C)
(D) Teacher’s personality (D)
3. ............................... results in effective 3.
teaching.
(A) Classroom discipline (A)
(B) Punctuality of students (B)
(C) References used by teacher (C)
(D) Clear communication (D)
3 [P.T.O.

Page 4

4. Effective teacher ......................... . 4.

(A) allows students to ask questions
(A)
(B) completes syllabus within time
(B)
(C) provides a variety of learning
(C)
experiences

(D) explains everything to absent (D)

students

5. ‘............................’ is not a 5.
characteristic of good teaching aid. (teaching aid)

(A) It should be very small (A)

(B) It should be accurate in every (B)
respect
(C)
(C) It should be easily portable

(D) It should be upto date (D)

6. If your students have problems 6.
related to learning your subject,
then the best solution is .............. .

(A) increasing homework (A)

(B) supervised study (B)

(C) diagnostic teaching (C)

(D) frequent assessment (D)
4

Page 5

7. The phrase “................... giving 7.
personal attention to each student
individually ...................” is an
example of :
(A)
(A) succinctness

(B) circumlocution (B)

(C) wordiness (C)

(D) tautology (D)

8. A well-written .............................. 8.
attracts potential readers and
facilitates the cataloguing of a
research report in an electronic
database.
(A)
(A) title
(B)
(B) summary

(C) abstract (C)

(D) synopsis (D)

9. A proposal that may provisionally 9.
serve as a starting point for further
research is known as a ................. .

(A) hypothesis (A)

(B) theory (B)

(C) model (C)

(D) principle (D)

5 [P.T.O.

Page 6

10. A ........................... is used to show 10.

exact values.

(A) pie chart (A)

(B) table (B)

(C) bar diagram (C)

(D) dot plot (D)

11. Which of the following is the most 11.
recent and dependable source of
information on a broad scientific
topic ?
(A)
(A) Research paper
(B)
(B) Bibliography
(C)
(C) Review article

(D) New textbook (D)

12. The ............................... is the best 12.

indicator of the total importance of
a journal to researchers.

(A) Garfield quotient (A)

(B) Impact factor (B)

(C) Eigen factor (C)

(D) g-index (D)

6

Page 7

Answer Question Nos. 13 to 18
13 18
based on either the English
passage or the Marathi passage :

The distinction that modern artists
and art critics make between the
arts, on the one hand, and crafts,
on the other, was foreign to classical
antiquity. Both arts and crafts were
regarded by the ancient Greeks as
“productions according to rule” and
both were classified as techne, which
can be translated as “organized
knowledge and procedure applied for
the purpose of producing a specific
preconceived result.” This concept
runs directly counter to the deeply
ingrained insight of modern
aesthetic thought that art cannot be
reduced to rule, cannot be produced
in accordance with pre-established
concepts or rules, and cannot be
evaluated using a set of rules
reducible to a formula.

The Greek concept, with its
attendant notion that the
appropriate criterion for judging
excellence in both the arts and the
7 [P.T.O.

Page 8

crafts was the “perfection” of their
production, predominated until the
middle of the eighteenth century,
when the French aesthetician
Charles Batteux heralded the idea
that what distinguishes the arts
from the crafts and the sciences is
the arts’ production of beauty. This
idea lasted until the beginning of the
present century when some critics
argued that “beauty” was a highly
ambiguous term, far too broad and
indefinite for the purpose of defining
or evaluating art, while, on the other
hand, many artists expressly
repudiated “beauty” because of its
too narrow associations with an
outmoded view that art was
beautiful and therefore should not
be evaluated or analyzed, but
should merely be appreciated. Since
1900, a large number of definitions
of art have emerged, each of them
covering a sector of accepted creative
and critical practice but none of
them, apparently, are applicable to
the whole of what is accepted as art
by the art world.
8

Page 9

13. According to the ancient Greeks,
13.
arts and crafts were :

(A) the creations of divine power

(B) the creations produced as per
certain set rules (A)
(C) foreign concepts in arena of
(B)
culture

(D) hollow inventions of the artists (C)
and the art critics
(D)
14. Ancient Greeks considered the arts
and crafts to be : 14.

(A) analogous to each other

(B) distinct forms of creation

(C) the creations leading to human
(A)
contentment

(D) the classical concepts meaning (B)
production
(C)
15. As per the modern aesthetic view :
(D)
(A) art is an organized knowledge
and procedure that leads to 15.
some results
(A)
(B) art cannot be governed by rules

(C) art can definitely be result- (B)
oriented
(C)
(D) art is the essence of pre-
conceived ideas (D)

9 [P.T.O.

Page 10

16. To judge the excellence in arts and 16.
crafts, perfection was the primary
criterion for : (A)

(A) the modern artists (B)
(B) the modern art critics
(C)
(C) the ancient Greeks

(D) the art lovers
(D)
17. Charles Batteux believed that it is
‘arts’ production of beauty’ that 17.
distinguishes :

(A) the arts and crafts from sciences

(B) the arts from sciences

(C) the arts from the crafts and (A)
sciences
(B)
(D) the arts and sciences from crafts
(C)
18. The author of the passage tries to
suggest that : (D)
(A) there is a lack of all-inclusive
18.
definition of art

(B) beauty can be the basis of
evaluation of art
(A)
(C) art can be judged by the
opinions of its lovers (B)

(D) the ancient concept of art is (C)
more acceptable than the
modern one (D)

10

Page 11

19. Which of the following is the correct
19.
full form of CBFC in the context of
Indian films ?

(A) Central Board of Film
(A)
Certification

(B) Censor Board of Film Content
(B)
(C) Central Board for Film
Censorship (C)

(D) Central Board for Film
(D)
Classification

20. In the context of journalism, what 20.

is meant by ‘Page 3’ news ?

(A) Hard news about politics, (A)

society etc. published on Page
No. 3 of a newspaper

(B) Soft stories on social and (B)

personal lives of celebrities and
stars

(C) News about rape, murder and
other crimes published on Page (C)

No. 3 of a newspaper

(D) Investigative and analytical
news about corruption (D)

published on Page No. 3 of a
newspaper

11 [P.T.O.

Page 12

21. In the context of computer 21.
generated (typed) text, identify the
odd non-verbal clue from the
following :
(A)
(A) bold
(B) emoticon (B)

(C) italic (C)

(D) underline (D)
22. From the perspective of the 22.
advertiser, what is the ultimate
criteria of success of advertisement
as communication ?
(A) The ad is remembered by a (A)
large general public
(B) The ad is accepted and (B)
internalized by the target group
(C) The ad is aesthetically liked by
(C)
a large general public
(D) The ad is discussed by the
target group (D)

23. A teacher who considers ‘Knowledge’ 23.
as existing primarily in the students’
ability to interpret, generally tend
to emphasize more on :
(A) Powerful lecturing (A)

(B) Transmitting information (B)

(C) Presentation (C)

(D) Discussion and negotiations (D)

12

Page 13

24. Denis McQuail defines communi- 24.
cation as ‘a process which increases
commonality — but also requires
elements of commonality for it to
occur at all.’ Which of the following
cannot be a logical, reasonable
inference of this definition ?
(A) Communication depends on (A)
culture located at various levels
(B) Sender is more important for (B)
the process of communication
(C) Communication introduces a (C)
change in sender and receiver
(D) Communication creates a (D)
shared symbolic environment
25. Let f be a mapping from X = {1, 2, 25.
3, ......., 50} to itself such that for X = {1, 2, 3, ......., 50}
m, n X, m n implies that m, n X,
f(m) f ( n ). Then which of the m n f(m) f(n).
following is true ?
(A) There is m X such that (A) m X
f(m) = m f(m) = m
(B) For every m X, we may have (B) m X f(m) = m – 1
f(m) = m – 1
(C) For every m X, we may have (C) m X f(m) = m + 1
f(m) = m + 1
(D) For every even m X, we must (D) m X
1 1
have f(m) = m f(m) = m
2 2
13 [P.T.O.

Page 14

26. A substitution takes a ‘word’ written 26. X Y
in the letters X and Y and gives a X Y
new word by replacing each (old) X
Y XY
with a Y, and each (old) Y with XY.
YXY XYYXY
For instance, it converts YXY to
XYYXY. Starting with the 1-letter
word w0 = X, we get new words w0 = X
w1 = Y, w2 = XY, w3 = YXY and so w1 = Y, w2 = XY, w3 = YXY
on with each wn + 1 obtained from wn + 1 wn
wn by applying the substitution. If l = w10 X
(l, m) is the pair with l = number m = w9 Y
of X in w10 and m = number of Y
(l, m) = ............ .
in w9. Then (l, m) = ............ .
(A) (21, 34)
(A) (21, 34)
(B) (34, 34)
(B) (34, 34)

(C) (34, 21) (C) (34, 21)

(D) (55, 34) (D) (55, 34)

27. In a group of people, every engineer 27.
is a teacher, no politician is a
teacher, every lady teacher is an
engineer. Then which of the
following statements is not true for
the group ?

(A) There is a lady politician who (A)
is an engineer
(B)
(B) No lady engineer is a politician
(C)
(C) There is no male engineer who
is also a politician
(D)
(D) Every politician is an engineer
14

Page 15

28. Female rabbits are either juvenile 28.
or adult. Each month, each juvenile
grows to adulthood and each adult
female gives birth (on average) to
one juvenile female. Starting with
one juvenile female rabbit, how 10
many female rabbits will there be
after 10 months ?
(A) 71
(A) 71
(B) 79
(B) 79
(C) 81 (C) 81

(D) 89 (D) 89

1 1 1 1
29. If x1 = 1, x2 = 1 + , x3 = 1 + 29. x1 = 1, x2 = 1 + , x3 = 1 +
2 2 2 2
1 1 1 1 1 1
+ 2 , ......., xn = 1 + + 2 + ....... + 2 , ......., xn = 1 + + 2 + .......
2 2 2 2 2 2
1 1
+ n , then which of the following + n 1,
2 1 2
statements is true ?
(A) 2 < xn < 3, for n 10 (A) 2 < xn < 3, n 10
(B) xn 1.8 for every n (B) xn 1.8, n
(C) xn = 2 for some n (C) xn = 2, n
(D) xn < 2 for every n (D) xn < 2, n
30. The number of positive divisors of 30. 8000
8000 is : :
(A) 25 (A) 25
(B) 26 (B) 26
(C) 28 (C) 28
(D) 18 (D) 18
15 [P.T.O.

Page 16

31. Which of the following will complete 31.
the series ?
17, 23, 37, 53, ........ .
17, 23, 37, 53, ........ .
(A) 61
(A) 61
(B) 59
(B) 59

(C) 73 (C) 73

(D) 71 (D) 71

32. Which of the following will complete 32.
the series ?
EG, IK, NP, .........., AC
EG, IK, NP, .........., AC
(A) RT
(A) RT
(B) TV
(B) TV
(C) SU
(C) SU

(D) SV (D) SV

33. In a code language the word 33. ‘CHENAI’
‘CHENAI’ is coded as 49615210, 49615210
then what is the code for the word
‘SANGLI’
‘SANGLI’ ?
(A) 2021581310
(A) 2021581310
(B) 202147129
(B) 202147129

(C) 201158139 (C) 201158139

(D) 202148128 (D) 202148128

16

Page 17

34. Which of the following shows the
34.

correct relationship among players,

Kabaddi players and Football

players ?

(A) (A)

(B) (B)

(C) (C)

(D) (D)

17 [P.T.O.

Page 18

35. If Football is lighter than Tennis-
35.
ball and Basketball is heavier than
Tennisball, but lighter than hand-
ball, then which is the correct
ascending order of balls in terms of
weight ?
(A) Football, Tennisball, Basket-
ball, Handball (A)
(B) Basketball, Handball, Tennis-
ball, Football (B)
(C) Football, Tennisball, Handball,
Basketball (C)

(D) Tennisball, Football, Basket-
(D)
ball, Handball
36. Based on the following statements 36.
which of the following conclusion(s)
given below follow(s) ?
Statement A : All animals are
intelligent and all intelligent things
are human beings.
Statement B : Some children are
innocent.
I
Conclusion I : Some animals are
human beings. II
Conclusion II : Some children are
not innocent. (A) I

(A) Only I (B) II
(B) Only II
(C) I II
(C) Both I and II
(D) Neither I nor II (D) I II
18

Page 19

37. The following table presents the 37.
number of families in a village
earning a certain level of monthly
income from their factory job in the
nearby town :
Number of Income band
Families (in Rupees) 42 5,000—9,999
42 5,000—9,999 40 10,000—14,999
40 10,000—14,999 36 15,000—19,999
36 15,000—19,999
18 20,000—24,999
18 20,000—24,999
5 25,000—30,000
5 25,000—30,000
Which of the following statements
are correct ?
(i) 54% 10,000
(i) Approximately 54% of the
20,000
families earn between
Rs. 10,000 and Rs. 20,000. (ii) 70% 10,000
(ii) There are 70% families who
earn more than Rs. 10,000. (iii)
(iii) A family with highest income 29,500
earns Rs. 29,500.
(iv) 10,000 14,999
(iv) Median income is between
Rs. 10,000 and Rs. 14,999.
(A) (i), (ii) (iii)
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) (iv)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv) (C) (i), (ii) (iv)

(D) (i), (iii) and (iv) (D) (i), (iii) (iv)

19 [P.T.O.

Page 20

38. The following are the number of 38.
cases filed under Sec. 498A of 498 2013, 2014, 2015
Domestic Violence Act during the
month of December, 2013, 2014 and
2015 at three cities, namely Pune,
Hyderabad and Jaipur :

Year P une Hyderabad Jaipur 2013 40 50 30
2013 40 50 30 2014 50 55 50
2014 50 55 50 2015 50 60 80
2015 50 60 80

Which of the following statements
are true ? (i)
(i) Maximum increase occurred in 2014 2015
Jaipur from 2014 to 2015.
(ii)
(ii) Minimum increase occurred in
2013 2014
Hyderabad from 2013 to 2014.

(iii) Average increase for the period
(iii)
together is lowest in the case of
Hyderabad.

(iv) Minimum increase has occurred
(iv)
in the case of Pune from 2014 2014 2015
to 2015.

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (A) (i), (ii) (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (B) (ii), (iii) (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) (C) (i), (iii) (iv)

(D) (i), (ii) and (iv) (D) (i), (ii) (iv)
20

Page 21

39. Pass percentage of a school for 39. 2003 2008
six consecutive years starting
from 2003 to 2008 are 45, 56,
45, 56, 42, 61, 55 52
42, 61, 55 and 52. If the ratio of
students who appeared for the 2003 2008
exam in the years 2003 to 2008 are 2 : 3 : 4 : 3 : 2 : 3
2 : 3 : 4 : 3 : 2 : 3, then the pass
percentage of the school in six years
together is :
(A) 51.5%
(A) 51.5%
(B) 47.5%
(B) 47.5%
(C) 55% (C) 55%

(D) 42.5% (D) 42.5%
40. A survey conducted among 480 40. C1 C2
students of two colleges C1 and C2 480
regarding the type of computers they
use, resulted in the following table,
with partial information. It is known C1 C2
that the ratio of number of students 9:7
of C1 and that of C2 is 9 : 7 :
College Des ktop Lap top Bot h None
C1 — — — 15
C1 — — — 15
C2 120 — 30 — C2 120 — 30 —
Total — 195 70 40 — 195 70 40
How many students of college C1 C1
have at most one system ?
(A) 195 (A) 195
(B) 90 (B) 90
(C) 255 (C) 255
(D) 315 (D) 315
21 [P.T.O.

Page 22

Direction (Q. Nos. 41 and 42) : 41 42

In the following table, the number

of students who passed in four

subjects, English, Hindi, Marathi

and History in divisions A, B and

C of standard X of a particular

school is given :

Division English Hindi Marathi History
A 29 30 38 25
A 29 30 38 25
B 34 32 36 30
B 34 32 36 30
C 26 34 31 29
C 26 34 31 29
41. B
41. What is the possible maximum

number of students in Division B,

who passed in all the four

subjects ?
(A) 34

(A) 34
(B) 30
(B) 30
(C) 36
(C) 36

(D) 26
(D) 26
22

Page 23

42. The maximum possible number of 42.

students who passed in both Hindi

and Marathi in three divisions

combined is :
(A) 93
(A) 93

(B) 96
(B) 96

(C) 105 (C) 105

(D) 111 (D) 111

43. Identify the incorrect pair from the 43.
following :
(A) .ttf =
(A) .ttf = font file
(B) .wav =
(B) .wav = audio file
(C) .jpg =
(C) .jpg = graphic file

(D) .exe = exclusive data file (D) .exe =

44. Find the correct pair from the 44.
following :
(A) 1 = 104
(A) 1 Kilobyte = 104
(B) 1 = 106
(B) 1 Megabyte = 106
(C) 1 = 1012
(C) 1 Gigabyte = 1012
(D) 1 = 1015
(D) 1 Terabyte = 1015

23 [P.T.O.

Page 24

45. In the context of internet what is 45. (ftp)

the full form of ftp ?

(A) formatted transfer process (A)

(B) formal texting process (B)

(C) file transmission procedure (C)

(D) file transfer protocol (D)

46. The principle that internet service 46.

provider and government regulators

should treat all data on Internet

as of same importance and not

discriminate or charge differently

by user, content, website etc. is

called on :

(A)
(A) Digital equality

(B)
(B) Digital democracy

(C) Net priority (C)

(D) Net neutrality (D)

24

Page 25

47. Which of the following is the correct
47.
chronology of internet facilities ?

(A) Amazon, Google, Snapchat,

Facebook
(A)
(B) Google, Facebook, Amazon,

Snapchat
(B)

(C) Google, Amazon, Facebook,

Snapchat (C)

(D) Amazon, Google, Facebook,
(D)
Snapchat

48. Identify the correct pair from the 48.

following :
(A)

(A) Amazon — Sabir Bhatiya

(B)
(B) Google — Sergey Brin

(C)
(C) Twitter — Julian Assange

(D) YouTube — Jimmy Wales (D)

25 [P.T.O.

Page 26

49. Which type of waste is classified as 49.

hazardous ?

(A) Chemical (A)

(B)
(B) Household
(C)
(C) Commercial
(D)
(D) Agricultural
50.
50. .................................. is a major source

for fecal contamination in water.
(A)
(A) Domestic effluent
(B)
(B) Chemical effluent
(C)
(C) Steel plant effluent

(D) Pharma industries effluent (D)

51. .............................. is mainly 51.
responsible for depletion of ozone in

the stratosphere.
(A)
(A) Chlorofluorocarbon
(B)
(B) Chlorine
(C)
(C) Sulfur dioxide

(D) Carbon dioxide (D)

26

Page 27

52. A major initiative undertaken 52.
for water conservation namely
“Jalayukta Shivar” in :

(A) Maharashtra (A)

(B) Orissa (B)

(C) Bengal (C)

(D) Rajasthan (D)

53. Which of the following resources is 53.
renewable ?

(A) Coal (A)

(B) Petroleum (B)

(C) Natural gas (C)

(D) Forest (D)

54. Socio-economical impact due 54.
construction of multipurpose dams
in river vallies is mainly concern
for :
(A)
(A) Forest loss
(B)
(B) Water quality
(C)
(C) Seismicity

(D) Project affected people (D)

27 [P.T.O.

Page 28

55. Educationist and theirs special 55.

educational contribution — choose
correct : (1)

(Y) Louis Braille (1) Handicapped
(2)
learners

(R) Helen Kellar (2) Deaf learners
(3)
(L) Thomos Edison (3) Dumb and
Deaf learners
(4)
(W) Lal Adwani (4) Blind learners

(A) Y—(2), R—(4), L—(1), W—(3)
(A) —(2), —(4), —(1), —(3)
(B) Y—(3), R—(2), L—(4), W—(1)
(B) —(3), —(2), —(4), —(1)
(C) Y—(4), R—(3), L—(2), W—(1) (C) —(4), —(3), —(2), —(1)

(D) Y—(2), R—(1), L—(3), W—(4) (D) —(2), —(1), —(3), —(4)

56. Regarding the Maharashtra 56. 1994
University Act, 1994 which one of
the following Articles suggested a
various rules of admission for the
senior college ?
(A) 65
(A) Article 65
(B) 66
(B) Article 66
(C) 67
(C) Article 67

(D) Article 68 (D) 68

28

Page 29

57. Yoga Education Mission is related 57.

to :

(A) Medical Education (A)

(B) General Education (B)

(C) Technical Education (C)

(D) Professional Education (D)

58. ‘Abhijeet goes to singing class.’ 58.

Which type of education is this ?

(A) Formal education
(A)

(B) Informal education
(B)

(C) Non-formal education
(C)

(D) Technical education and non-

(D)
technical education

29 [P.T.O.

Page 30

59. Match the List I with List II and 59. I II
select the correct answer from the
group given below :
List I List II I II
(Universities) (Locations)
(Y) Jagannath (1) Tirupati
(1)
Sanskrit
University
(R) Rashtriya (2) Darbhanga (2)
Sanskrit
University
(L) Kameshwarshing (3) Puri (3)

Sanskrit
University (4)
(W) Gurukul Kangari (4) Haridwar
Sanskrit
University (A) —(4), —(3), —(1), —(2)

(A) Y—(4), R—(3), L—(1), W—(2) (B) —(2), —(4), —(3), —(1)
(B) Y—(2), R—(4), L—(3), W—(1)
(C) —(1), —(2), —(4), —(3)
(C) Y—(1), R—(2), L—(4), W—(3)
(D) —(3), —(1), —(2), —(4)
(D) Y—(3), R—(1), L—(2), W—(4)
60. What is the full form of ICSSR ? 60. (ICSSR)
(A) Indian Council of Social Science
Research (A)
(B) Indian Council of Space Science (B)
Research
(C)
(C) Indian Council of Scientific
Search and Research
(D) Indian Congress of Space and (D)
Scientific Research
30

Page 31

ROUGH WORK

31 [P.T.O.

Page 32

ROUGH WORK

32

Document Details

Board / OrgMaharashtra Exams
ExamMAHA SET
TypeQuestion Paper
Pages32
Updated30 Apr 2026