CBSE Class 12 Political Science Question Paper 2020 Set 59-4-3 Solutions

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Senior School Certificate Examination-2020
Marking Scheme – POLITICAL SCIENCE
(SUBJECT CODE : 028) (PAPER CODE : 59/4/3)
General Instructions: -

1. You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and correct
assessment of the candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to serious
problems which may affect the future of the candidates, education system and teaching
profession. To avoid mistakes, it is requested that before starting evaluation, you must
read and understand the spot evaluation guidelines carefully. Evaluation is a 10-12
days mission for all of us. Hence, it is necessary that you put in your best efforts
in this process.
2. Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It should
not be done according to one’s own interpretation or any other consideration. Marking
Scheme should be strictly adhered to and religiously followed. However, while
evaluating, answers which are based on latest information or knowledge and/or
are innovative, they may be assessed for their correctness otherwise and marks
be awarded to them.
3. The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each
evaluator on the first day, to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the
instructions given in the Marking Scheme. The remaining answer books meant for
evaluation shall be given only after ensuring that there is no significant variation in the
marking of individual evaluators.
4. Evaluators will mark( √ ) wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer ‘X”be marked.
Evaluators will not put right kind of mark while evaluating which gives an impression that
answer is correct and no marks are awarded. This is most common mistake which
evaluators are committing.
5. If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part. Marks
awarded for different parts of the question should then be totaled up and written in the
left-hand margin and encircled. This may be followed strictly.
6. If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-hand margin
and encircled. This may also be followed strictly.
7. If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving more
marks should be retained and the other answer scored out.
8. No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be penalized
only once.
9. A full scale of marks 0-80 has to be used. Please do not hesitate to award full marks if
the answer deserves it.
10. Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e. 8 hours
every day and evaluate 20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25 answer books
per day in other subjects (Details are given in Spot Guidelines).
11. Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by the
Examiner in the past:-
 Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
 Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
 Wrong totaling of marks awarded on a reply.
 Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the title page.
 Wrong question wise totaling on the title page.
 Wrong totaling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
 Wrong grand total.
 Marks in words and figures not tallying.
 Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
 Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick mark
is correctly and clearly indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with the X for
incorrect answer.)

 Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks
awarded.

12. While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it should
be marked as cross (X) and awarded zero (0)Marks.

13. Any unassessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totaling error
detected by the candidate shall damage the prestige of all the personnel engaged in the
evaluation work as also of the Board. Hence, in order to uphold the prestige of all
concerned, it is again reiterated that the instructions be followed meticulously and
judiciously.

14. The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the Guidelines
for spot Evaluation before starting the actual evaluation.

15. Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried over
to the title page, correctly totaled and written in figures and words.

16. The Board permits candidates to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on request in an
RTI application and also separately as a part of the re-evaluation process on payment of
the processing charges.

SECTION – A
Q1 Explain the meaning of “Neutrality”.
OR
Explain the meaning of “Isolationism”
Ans. Neutrality means a policy of staying out of war. States practicing neutrality 1 Pg11
do not get involved in a war and also do not take any position on the
appropriateness of morality of war.
OR
Isolationism means remaining aloof or staying away from the world affairs
as a neutral entity.

Q2. Correct and rewrite the following sentence in your answer
book.
Global commons are those resources which are owned by big
countries only

Ans Global Commons are those resources which are not owned by 1 Pg 20
anyone country but are common to all

Q3. Which one of the following is a right cause of globalisation ?
(a) The U.S. people initiated globalisation.
(b) Technology led to globalisation.
(c) The Cold War led to globalisation.
(d) The policy of Non-alignment led to globalisation.

Ans (b)Technology led to globalization 1 Pg
138

Q4. As permanent members of the U.N. Security Council, which
special power do Britain and France enjoy?
Ans Britain and France enjoy VETO POWER 1 Pg 54

Q5. Complete the sentence to make it meaningful. Even after the
U.N. refused to give its mandate to the invasion, President
Clinton ordered “Operation
Ans Operation Infinite Reach 1 Pg 24
Q6. The U.N. was founded as a successor to which international
organization?

Ans The UN was founded as a successor to League of Nations. 1 Pg 84

Q7. Write the full form of LTTE.
Ans. Meaning of LTTE - Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam 1 Pg72

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Q8. Which one of the following was NOT an outcome of Shock
Therapy?
(a) The old system of social welfare got destroyed.
(b) Industries were put up for sale to the private sector.
(c) The value of the Russian currency, the 'Ruble rose
dramatically.
(d) Russia started to import food grains.

Ans (c)The value of the Russian currency, the ‘Ruble’ rose dramatically 1 Pg 25

Q9. What was the core idea behind Non-alignment ?

Ans Core Idea behind NAM-
i. To democratise international system by thinking about an
alternative world order to redress existing inequalities. 1
ii. Idea based on recognition that decolonized States share Pg 13
historical affliation and can become a powerful force if they
come together

Any other relevant point (Any one)

Q10. Fill in the blank with a suitable word to make the sentence
meaningful. "Soviet Union represented the ideology
of______during the Cold War.
Ans
Soviet Union represented the ideology of Socialism \ Communism 1 Pg 3
during the Cold War.
(Anyone)
Q11 Give any one suitable argument to justify the Chipko
Movement.

Ans.. (i) The villagers were refused the permission to fell ash trees for 1 Pg
making agricultural tools but the same patch was allotted to 129
the commercial sports manufacturers.
(ii) This involved the larger issues of ecological and economic
exploitation of the region.
(iii) The locals demanded an effective control over natural
resources like land,water and forests.
Or any other relevant argument (Any one)

Q12. Identify the Prime Minister of India from amongst the following
whoheaded the first Coalition Government in India.
(a) AtalBihari Vajpayee
(b) V.P. Singh

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(c) Morarji Desai
(d) H.D. DeveGowda

Ans V.P.Singh (Morarji Desai can also be considered) 1 Pg
119
Analyse the reason for preponing the fifth General Elections in
Q13. India from1972 to 1971.

Reason for preponing of 5th General Election in India- 1
Ans (i) The split in Congress led to Congress government in minority Pg 96
(ii) To end Indira Gandhi’s dependence on other political parties
(iii) To strengthen her party position in Parliament

Or any other relevant reason (Anyone)
Q14. State any one feature of the ideology of Swatantra Party.
Ans. Ideology of swantra party 1 Pg41
(i) It wanted the government to be less and less involved in controlling the
economy.
(ii) It was critical of the state intervention in the economy , centralised
planning of nationalisation of public sector.
(iii) It favoured public sector.
( Any one)
Q15. Explain the meaning of 'Congress Syndicate' as a part of the
CongressParty.
Ans Syndicate was the name given to a group of powerful influential 1 Pg 92
leaders from within the Congress.
Q16. Show with the help of any one example when India refrained to
condemn the U.S.S.R. during the Cold War period.
Ans When USSR invaded Hungary in 1956, India did not join its public 1 Pg 67
condemnation.

Q17. Is there any mention of‘ International Peace and Security’ in the
Constitution of India ? If yes, then where and under which
Article of the Constitution has it been mentioned ?
Yes, International peace and security is mentioned in the Constitution
Ans 1 Pg 66
of India under Article 51 of Indian Constitution.
Q18. Which one of the following was not a part of the early
development policy?
(a) Planning
(b) Self sufficiency
(c) Privatisation
(d) Social and economic justice
Ans (c) Privatisation
1 Pg 49
Q19. What was the Two Nation Theory as advanced by the Muslim
League ?
Ans The two Nation Theory stated that India consisted of not one but two 1 Pg 8
people Hindus and Muslims.Hence, a separate country for Muslims is
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required and was demanded.

Q20. Why was the United Front government of 1996 similar to the
National Front Goverenment of 1989?
Ans • United front government of 1996 National Front government of 1 Pg
1989 were similar as both were coalition governments’ i.e. 177
governments were formed with the support of regional parties.
• They were supported by the left front.
(Any one)
SECTION B
Q21. Highlight any two facts that establish that Russia was accepted as the
successor state of the Soviet Union.
Ans. Russia was accepted as the successor of USSR as it- 2x1= Pg20
(i) Inherited the Soviet seat in the UN Security Council. 2
(ii) Russia accepted all the international treaties and commitments of
the Soviet Union.
(iii) It took over as the only nuclear state of the post Soviet and
carried out the programs related to space.
(Any two)
Q22. Name any four agencies of the United Nations that deal with social
and economic issues.
Ans. Four agencies of United Nations - 4x ½ Pg86
WHO - World Health Organisation, =2
UNDP - United Nations Development Programme
UNHRC - United Nations Human Rights Commission
UNESCO - United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural
Organisation
UNICEF - United Nations International Children's Educational Fund
(Any four)

Q23. Show with the help of any two examples that Indira Gandhi could win
the support of people and party workers against the clash with
Syndicate in 1969.
Ans. (i) V.V. Giri , the candidate for presidential election supported by Indira 2x1= Pg94-
Gandhi won the election. It shows the support of MPs and MLAs. 2 96
(ii) She won the elections in 1971 with thumping majority which shows the
support of people.

SECTION C
Q24 Evaluate the role played by Indian helping the Tibetan refugees.
Ans In 1959, Dalai Lama crossed over into the Indian border and sought Asylum 4 Pg69
which was granted.
(i) A large number of Tibetan’s have sought refuge in India. In Delhi, there
are a large settlements of Tibetan Refugees.
(ii) Dharamshala in Himachal Pradesh is the largest Refugee settlement of
the Tibetans in India.
(iii) Many political parties and leaders in India supported the cause of Tibet's
independence.

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Q25. State any four policies and programmes of Bharatiya Jana
Sangh.

Ans.. Policies and programmes of BhartiyaJanaSangha-
i. The idea of one country ,one culture and one nation. 4x1= Pg 39
ii. Called for reunion of India and Pakistan 4
iii. Was in forefront for replacement of English with Hindi as the
official language.
iv. Was against the concessions being offered to religious and
cultural minorities.
v. Was in favour of the abolition of Art370 .

or any other relevant point ( Any four)
Q26 Explain the importance of ASEAN as a regional organization.
OR
Explain any four factors responsible for the economic growth of
Communist China after the Inception of People's Republic of China
in 1949.
Ans Importance of ASEAN 4 Pg57
(i) Its economy is growing much faster.
(ii) It is rapidly growing into a very important Regional organisation.
(iii) It has created a common market for its members.
(iv) It provides a dispute settlement mechanism to resolve economic
disputes.
OR
Factors for economic growth of Communist China -
(i) Economy was based on the Soviet model. 4x1= Pg 59
(ii) Capital accumulated from agriculture was spent to develop estate on 4
heavy industries.
(iii) China decided to substitute imports by domestic goods.
(iv) Employment and social welfare was issued to all citizens.
or Any other relevant point.

Q27 Highlight any two lessons learnt from the regional agitations and
movements.
Ans Regional aspirations and movements - 2x2= Pg142
(i) Popular movements have helped to rectify some problems and are an 4
integral part of democracy.
(ii) Popular movements ensured effective representation of diverse groups
and their demands.
(iii) Popular movements reduce the possibility of social conflicts and
revolution.
(iv) Legitimate demands of the people are raised and govt. gets the
knowledge and feel of the pulse of the people.
Any other relevant point. ( Any two)
SECTION D
Q28. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the
questions that follows:
The defeat of the official Congress candidate formalized the split
in the party. The Congress President expelled the Prime Minister
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from the party; she claimed that her group was the real
congress. By November 1969, the Congress group led by the
'syndicate' came to be referred to as the Congress
(Organization) and the group led by Indira Gandhi came to be
called the Congress (Requisitionists). These twoparties were
also described as Old Congress and New Congress. Indira
Gandhi projected the split as an ideological divide.
(i) The passage is related to which election in India ?
(ii) Who was the official Congress candidate in that
election ?
(iii) Why did then Congress President expelled the Prime
Minister from the party ?
(iv) According to Indira Gandhi, how was the split in the
Congress an ideological divide ?
Ans.. (i) Election of President of India – 1969 1 +1
(ii) The official Congress candidate was Mr.NeelamSanjeeva Reddy +1
in that election. +2 =
(iii)The Congress President expelled the PM from the party because 5 Pg 93
of the non compliance of the whip issued by Party President.
(iv)
• The split in the Congress was an ideological divide between
socialists and conservatives, between the pro poor and pro-
rich.
• The ideological difference between old Congress and new
Congress.
(Any one)
Q29. Study the cartoon given below carefully and answer the
questions that follow :

(i)How do the big powers react when new countries claim
nuclear status?
(ii) On what basis can we say that some countries can be trusted
withnuclear weapons while others can't be?
(iii) Besides the big powers, N. Korea and Iran, name any other
two countries which possess nuclear weapons ?

Page 6

Ans..
(i)All the big powers start opposing the new/ coming up nuclear 2+2+ Pg
countries 1=5 102
• They discouraged them .
• They advised them not to spend money on nuclear
ventures.Instead they should spend it for development

or any other relevant reaction (Any two)

(ii) There can be various basis like
• Only terrorism free countries can be relied upon.
• Or Those who are using nuclear power for peace and
development -can be trusted
• Or those who are using nuclear weapons are difficult to be
trusted.
Or any other relevant Basis ( any two )

(iii) (i)India
(ii) Pakistan

Q29 Note: The following questions are for the visually impaired
only in lieu of Q. No. 29.
(29.1) Explain alliance building as a component of traditional sec
(29.2) Mention any two right reasons to justify war.
(29.3) Write the full form of NPT.
Ans. Note- Visually impaired candidates only 2+2
29.1 An alliance is a coalition of states that co-ordinate their actions +1=
to deter or defend against military attack . 5
• countries form alliances to increase their effective power
relative to another country .
29.2 Reasons to justify war-
(i) Self defence
(ii) To protect other people from genocide.
29.3 NPT –Non Proliferation Treaty

Q30. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the
following questions :
During the Cold War years. India found itself on the opposite
side on the divide from the U.S. India's closest friendship during
those years with the Soviet Union. After the collapse of the
Soviet Union, suddenly found itself friendless in an increasingly
hostile internationa environment. However, these were also the
years when India decide liberalise its economy and integrate it
with the global economy. This policy and India's impressive

Page 7

economic growth rates in recent years ha made the country an
attractive economic partner for a number of countries including
the U.S.
(i) Which were the years of the Cold War period ?
(ii) (ii) Explain any two factors responsible for the close
relationship between India and the Soviet Union.
(iii) Give any two examples of economic liberalization that have
benefitted India.
Ans.. (i) Cold War period - 1945 to 1991 1 + 2 Pg 45
( 1961 to 1991 can also be considered) +2=
(ii) 5
• Soviet Union had supported India on the issue of Kashmir in
Security Council.
• India had accepted the planned development and socialist
ideology followed by the USSR
• India has signed a 20 year Treaty of friendship with the Soviet
Union
(Any two)
(iii) Two examples of Economic liberalization that have benefited
India-
• Growth in exports.
• More foreign investments.
• Liberal rules

Any other relevant point
Q31. In the given political outline map of India (on page 17), five
States have been marked as (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Identify
these States on the basis of the information given below and
write their correct names in your
answer-book along with the respective serial number of the
information used and the concerned alphabet given in the map
as per the following format:

Page 8

Sr. no. of the Concerned Name of the
information used alphabet State
in the map
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)

DO
(i)The Princely State which resisted its merger with Union of
India
(ii)The state which was carved out of Punjab in 1966.
(iii) The state which was created in December 1952.
(iv) The 22nd State of the Indian Union.
(v) The state that was created in 1960.
Ans.. (i) Manipur C 1+1
(ii) Haryana D +1+
(iii) Andhra Pradesh E 1+1
(iv) Sikkim A =5
(v) Gujarat B

Q31. Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired
Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 31: . Answer the following
questions :
(31.1) Mention any two Princely States that resisted their merger
with the Indian Union just after independence.
(31.2) What did the signing of the 'Instrument of Accession by
the rulersof the Princely States mean?
(31.3) Why did the people of Hyderabad rise against the Nizam?
(31.4) Who was PottiSriramulu and what was his contribution for
the formation of Andhra state?
Ans. Visually impaired candidates 1+1
+1+
31.1 Hyderabad and Jammu Kashmir 2=5
or any other
31.2 Instrument of Accession means the signing of an agreement for
merging the province in India .

31.3 The people of Hyderabad rose against the Nizam because of his

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atrocities and communal nature.
31.4 PottiSriramulu was a Gandhian worker and a Congress
leader.He contributed in the formation of a separate state of Andhra
Pradesh.He went on an indefinite fast demanding for a separate state
that led to his death after 56 days.This resulted in the violent outburst
in Andhra region and finally the PM announced the formation of a
separate Andhra state in December 1952.
Q32. Explain the meaning of 'Common but differentiated
responsibilities' in thelight of the Earth Summit' and the United
Nations framework Convention on Climate Change-1992.
OR
Explain any six effects of globalisation on the people all over
the world.
Ans (i)The Earth Summit produced conventions dealing with climatic Pg
change, bio-diversity ,forestry and recommended developmental 6 123
practices called Agenda 21.
(ii)There was a consensus on combining economic growth with
ecological responsibility
(iii)A difference in the approach to environment between the countries
of the North and South.
(iv) Rio declaration in 1992 called the principle of common but
differentiated responsibilities.
(v) Rio declaration says, states shall corporate in the spirit of global
partnership to conserve ,protect and restore the health and integrity
of Earth’s ecosystem.
(vi)It was expected that the largest share of historical and current
Global emissions of greenhouse gases has originated in developed
countries.So they are more responsible and must contribute more.
Or any other explanation(Evaluate as a whole )
OR
Effects of Globalization
(i) Globalisation has eroded the state capacity .
(ii) It has also Limited the sovereignity of the state.
(iii) The old welfare state is giving way to a more minimalist 6x1= Pg
state. 6 140
(iv) Greater economic flow among the different countries of
world.
(v) Evolved greater trade across the globe.
(vi) Restrictions imposed on the international trade have been
reduced .
(vii) Choice of the consumers has increased.
(viii) Cultural homogenisation is taking place.
(ix) Eating, dress, music etc habits are changing.
(Any six)
Q33. "The Cold War promoted an arms race as well as arms control.”
Support the statement with any three suitable arguments.
OR
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10

"In the present unipolar world inspite of strong friendly bonds
with Russia, India should change its foreign policy and improve
its relations with the U.S.A.” Support the statement with any
three suitable arguments.

Ans.. (i)Cold war promoted an arms race between the superpowers US and 3 x 2 Pg
USSR.Both had acquired nuclear weapons ,strong armies, missiles, =6 4-5
worships and other related strength.
(ii)But the fear of vast destruction and the fear of self-harm and
destruction prove to be a deterrent.
(iii)Both were rational and responsible and were aware that use of
atomic bombs and nuclear weapons will lead to the danger of human
survival .
or any other relevant argument (Any three)

OR
Although India is having good relations with Russia,yet in the present
context for economic development and to face the challenge posed 3x2 Pg 29
by Pakistan and China- India must have good relations with US also- =6
To be explained under the following heads-
(i) for economic development
(ii) for balance of power .
(iii) for oil ,space research and against terrorism spread by
Pakistan.
or any other relevant argument
Q34. Describe the rise and impact of Other Backward Classes as a
political force in Indian politics.
OR
Describe any four features of the Chipko Movement.

Ans. Rise of OBCs 3+3= Pg
6 181
(i) Support for the Congress from many sections of the backward
classes have declined. they created a space for non - Congress
parties that drew more support from these communities.
(ii) Janta Party in 1977 had a powerful rural base among some
sections of the OBCs.
(iii) Organisations like BAMCEF took a position in favour of political
power to the Bahujans -SCs and STs.
Any other relevant point.
Impact
(i) BSP a party of other backward classes gained political strength
and came to power in Uttar Pradesh.
(ii) Consensus emerged among all political parties to give reservation
to OBCs.
(iii) Every political party tried to win their support and provided them a
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11

chance to win the elections.
(iv) Leaders of the other backward classes created a space in power
politics.
(Any two)
OR

Four factors of Chipko Movement
(i) The movement began in two or three villages of Uttarakhand when 4x1 Pg
government refused permission to villages to fell ash trees for making ½ =6 139
agriculture tools.
(ii) Issue of ecological and economic exploitation were raised.
(iii) Villagers demanded effective control over natural resources like
land, water and forests.
(iv) The movement took up economic issues of landless forest
workers and ask for guarantees of minimum wages.
(v) Women also participated actively.
(vi) Movement was successful as the government issued a ban on
felling of trees in the Himalayan areas.
(Any four)

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