CBSE Class 12 Political Science Question Paper 2020 Set 59-5-2 Solutions

Strictly Confidential: (For Internal and Restricted use only)
Senior School Certificate Examination-2020
Marking Scheme – POLITICAL SCIENCE
(SUBJECT CODE : 028) (PAPER CODE : 59/5/2)
General Instructions: -

1. You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and correct
assessment of the candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to serious
problems which may affect the future of the candidates, education system and teaching
profession. To avoid mistakes, it is requested that before starting evaluation, you must
read and understand the spot evaluation guidelines carefully. Evaluation is a 10-12
days mission for all of us. Hence, it is necessary that you put in your best efforts
in this process.
2. Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It should
not be done according to one’s own interpretation or any other consideration. Marking
Scheme should be strictly adhered to and religiously followed. However, while
evaluating, answers which are based on latest information or knowledge and/or
are innovative, they may be assessed for their correctness otherwise and marks
be awarded to them.
3. The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each
evaluator on the first day, to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the
instructions given in the Marking Scheme. The remaining answer books meant for
evaluation shall be given only after ensuring that there is no significant variation in the
marking of individual evaluators.
4. Evaluators will mark( √ ) wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer ‘X”be marked.
Evaluators will not put right kind of mark while evaluating which gives an impression that
answer is correct and no marks are awarded. This is most common mistake which
evaluators are committing.
5. If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part. Marks
awarded for different parts of the question should then be totaled up and written in the
left-hand margin and encircled. This may be followed strictly.
6. If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-hand margin
and encircled. This may also be followed strictly.
7. If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving more
marks should be retained and the other answer scored out.
8. No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be penalized
only once.
9. A full scale of marks 0-80 has to be used. Please do not hesitate to award full marks if
the answer deserves it.
10. Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e. 8 hours
every day and evaluate 20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25 answer books
per day in other subjects (Details are given in Spot Guidelines).
11. Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by the
Examiner in the past:-
 Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
 Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
 Wrong totaling of marks awarded on a reply.
 Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the title page.
 Wrong question wise totaling on the title page.
 Wrong totaling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
 Wrong grand total.
 Marks in words and figures not tallying.
 Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
 Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick mark
is correctly and clearly indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with the X for
incorrect answer.)

 Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks
awarded.

12. While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it should
be marked as cross (X) and awarded zero (0)Marks.

13. Any unassessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totaling error
detected by the candidate shall damage the prestige of all the personnel engaged in the
evaluation work as also of the Board. Hence, in order to uphold the prestige of all
concerned, it is again reiterated that the instructions be followed meticulously and
judiciously.

14. The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the Guidelines
for spot Evaluation before starting the actual evaluation.

15. Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried over
to the title page, correctly totaled and written in figures and words.

16. The Board permits candidates to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on request in an
RTI application and also separately as a part of the re-evaluation process on payment of
the processing charges.

SECTION A
Q1. Fill in the blanks to make the given sentence meaningful.
Internet is an example of Global______ ______.
Ans Global Public Goods ½+ Pg
. Any other relevant answer ½= 40
1
Q2. Which two former Soviet Republics had violent secessionist
movements ?
Ans The former Soviet Republics which saw secessionist movements ½+ Pg
. ½= 26
a) Chechnya 1
b) Dagestan
c) Azerbaijan
d) Georgia
e) Ukraine
f) Kyrgystan
(any two)
Q3. Identify any two fields in which the Soviet Union lagged behind the
West.
Ans (i) Technology ½+ Pg
. ½ 19
(ii) Infrastructure =1
(iii) In fulfilling the aspirations of the people
(iv) Lack of new ideas and information from the west
(v) Lack of democracy and absence of freedoms

or any other relevant. (any two)
Q4. Which one of the following was NOT a consequence of disintegration
of the USSR ?
(a) Many new states emerged.
(b) Russia emerged as a new superpower.
(c) Power relations in world politics changed.
(d) The capitalist system emerged as the winner.
Ans (b) Russia emerged as a new superpower 1 Pg
. 23
Q5. Complete the following sentence in a meaningful way.
The second world war ended when the United States dropped two
atomic bombs on the Japanese cities of_____and________
OR
The Russian Revolution of 1917 was inspired by the ideals of
_______as opposed to capitalism and the need for an ________society.

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Ans Hiroshima and Nagasaki ½X Pg
½=1 3
Or

Socialism……… egalitarian(Equal) society 2X½ Pg
=1 19
Q6. What does the circle shown in the ASEAN flag symbolise?
Ans The circle symbolises the unity of ASEAN 1
.
Q7. Choose the correct option that has significantly contributed to the
process of 'Globalization'.
(a) Fear of war
(b) Security threats
(c) Advancement of technology
(d) Achievements of the United Nations
Ans (c) Advancement of technology 1 Pg
. 138
Q8. Correct and rewrite the following statement in your answer book.
"India signed and ratified the Kyoto Protocol in 2002 and was como to
meet the requirements of the Kyoto Protocol because the emisigreen
house gases in India was not significant."
Ans India signed …………. in 2002 was exempted (not compelled ) to meet the 1 Pg
. requirements of ……….. 123
Q9. Explain the main objective of the United Nations.
Ans • To prevent international conflict 1 Pg
. 86
• To facilitate cooperation among States
Or any other relevant point (Any one Point).
Q10 In your opinion, which one of the following is better for India and why?
. Working against the Hegemon or Working with the Hegemon.
Ans The candidates may give their opinion on any of the alternatives but must 1 Pg
. support it with relevant reasons. 47
Candidates may give following reasons for
Working with the Hegemon
Example:
• Instead of engaging in activities opposed to the hegemonic power, it
may be advisable to extract benefits by operating within the
hegemonic system.
• Mutual convergence of interest will help India further its national
interest.
(or any other relevant point) (any one)
Pg
45

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OR
Reasons for working against the Hegemon; 1
Working against Hegemon
• India should maintain its aloofness from hegemon and focus on
increasing its own national power.
• Through NA India should work for unity and cooperation among Third
world countries.
Q11 Which one of the following statements related to the Indo-China
. War(1962) is correct?
(a)China could not cross the line of control.
(b) The Soviet Union remained neutral during the conflict
(c) The Soviet Union helped China against India.
(d) The Chinese forces did not withdraw their troops to earlier position.
Ans (b) The Soviet Union remained neutral during the conflict 1 Pg
. 72
Q12 According to the guidelines of the the Second Five Year Plan, how did
. the government try to protect the domestic industries?
Ans (i) The government imposed substantial trade tariff on imports 1 Pg
. 53
(ii) The government adopted protectionism to protect domestic
industries.
(iii) Import substitution
( or any other relevant point ) (any one)
Q13 Which one of the following leaders played an important role in the
. integration of princely states with India ?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) C. Rajagopalachari
(d) B.R. Ambedkar
Ans (b)Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 1 Pg
. 17
Q14 Name any two important leaders of the Bharatiya Jana Sangh formed
. in 1951.
Ans (i) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee 2*½ Pg
. =1 39
(ii) Deen Dayal Upadhyay
(iii) Balraj Madhok
(iv) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(v) Lal Krishan Advani
(any two)
Q15 Highlight the reason behind conducting the first nuclear explosions by
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. India in May 1974.
Ans India wanted to use nuclear power for peaceful purposes. 1 Pg
. 78
Q16 Who is considered to be the proponent of Bahujan Empowerment and
. Founder of Bahujan Samaj Party?
Ans Kanshi Ram 1 Pg
. 183
Q17 Explain any one reason for the movement against outsiders in Assam.
Ans (i) The fear of indigenous Assamese being reduced to minority. 1 Pg1
. 65
(ii) The fear of losing jobs and spread of poverty
(iii) Against the cultural domination of Bengalis and other outsiders
(iv)Against faulty voters registers that included the names of lack of
immigrants.
( or any other relevant point) (any one)
Q18 Why did the Janata Party government appoint a Commission of Inquiry
. headed by Justice J.C. Shah in May 1977 ?
Ans (i) To enquire into several allegations of the abuse of authorities by the 1 Pg
. Indira Gandhi government 113
(ii) The excess and malpractices committed
(iii) The actions taken in the wake of emergency
( any one)
Q19 Analyse the root cause of the fall of the government headed by Morarji
. Desai.
Ans (i) Janata Party lacked direction, leadership and a common programme. 1 Pg
. 123
(ii) The Janata party government could not bring about a fundamental
change in policies from those pursued by the Congress.
(iii) There was in party fighting and power struggle within the Janata party.
( any one)
Q20 What main objective did Indira Gandhi want to achieve by launching a
series of initiatives under the Ten Point Programme in 1967?
Ans (i) She wanted to give the government policy a left orientation 1 Pg
. 92
(ii) She wanted to prove herself as pro-poor
(iii) She slowly wanted to sideline the syndicate and create her own
support base with a trusted group of advisors from outside the
party.
(iv) To regain the ground that Congress had lost in the 1967 elections
(v) She wanted to implement the Ten Point Programme which
included social control of banks, nationalization of General
Insurance,ceiling on urban property and income, public distribution
of food grains ,land reforms and provision of home sites to the

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rural poor.
(any one)
SECTION –B
Q21
. Match correctly the following in Column’ A’ with those in Column ‘B’
Column A Column B
i.Leader of Naxalite (a) Fakhruddin Ali
Movement Ahmed
ii. The leader who led (b) JagmohanLalSinha
students movement in
Bihar in 1974
iii. The Judge of Allahbad (c ) Jayaprakash
High Court who passed a Narayan
judgement against Indira
Gandhi on 12th June 1975
iv. The President who (d) CharuMajumdar
issued the proclamation of
emergency in 1975
Ans (i) - (d) ½ x4
. (ii) - (c) =2
(iii) - (b)
(iv) - (a)

Q22 Highlight the main reason that led to the emergence of the idea of
. Global Security.
Ans Reasons for emergence of idea of Global security. (2) Pg
. 107
The idea of Global security emerged in response to global nature of threats
such as global warming, international terrorism and health epidemics like
AIDS and Bird Flu. Global problems can be solved with international co-
operation.
Q23 Name any four founder leaders of the NAM.
.
Ans (i) Jawahar Lal Nehru 4x½ Pg
. (ii) Sukrano =2 10
(iii) Gamal Abdel Nasser
(iv) Kwame Nkrumah
(v) Josip Broz Tito
(any four)
SECTION - C
Q24 "European Union is a highly influential regional organization." Justify
. the statement with any four suitable arguments.

Ans (i) European Union is the world's biggest economy . 4x1= Pg
. (ii) Its currency Euro, can pose threat to US dollar. 4 53
(iii) Its share in world trade is three times larger than that of US .
(iv) Two of its members are the permanent members of Security

Page 5

Council of UN .
(v) It acts as an important block in international economic institutions
like the World Trade Organisation.
(vi) EU uses diplomacy, economic investments and negotiations as in
the case of dialogue with China on human rights and
environmental degradation.
(vii) Militarily EU combined forces are the second largest in the world.
(viii) Two EU members -Britain and France are also nuclear power
states
(ix) The EU is world's second most important source of space and
Communication Technology.
( any four points)

Q25 Describe any four features of the ideology of the Bhartiya Jana Sangh.
.
Ans Ideology of Bhartiya Jana Sangh 4x1= Pg
. (i) It emphasised the idea of one country, one culture and one nation. 4 39
(ii) It believed that India could become modern, progressive and &67
strong on the basis of Indian culture and tradition.
(iii) It called for reunion of India and Pakistan (Akhand Bharat)
(iv) Party was for replacement of English with Hindi.
(v) Party was opposed to giving concessions to religious and cultural
minorities.
(vi) It advocated for developing Nuclear Weapons.
(vii) Advocated pro-US foreign policy.
Q26 Explain any four features of the India’s Nuclear Policy.
. OR
Explain the cause and consequences of the Kargil Conflict of 1999.
Ans (i) Committed to use of Nuclear Energy for peaceful purpose. It 4x1= Pg
. conducted its First Nuclear Test in 1974. 4 78-
(ii) It did not sign NPT and CTBT as these were treated as 79
discriminatory.
(iii) It was committed to ‘No First Use’.
(iv) India conducted a series of Nuclear Tests in May 1998,
demonstrating its capacity to use nuclear energy for military
purposes.
(v) India reiterated its commitment to global, verifiable and non-
discriminatory nuclear disarmament leading to a Nuclear
Weapons free world.
(any four)

OR

Cause of Kargil conflict of 1999 :
2+2
Several points on the Indian side of Line of Control( LOC) were occupied by =4 Pg
the Pakistani forces ; (Mujahideens) 76

Consequences of the Kargil conflict :
(i) India recovered control of many of the lost points.
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(ii) It drew International attention as both India and Pakistan had
attained nuclear capability.
(iii) In Pakistan, this conflict became a source of a major controversy.
(any two)
Q27 Analyse the impact of political rise of Other Backward Classes in India.
.
Ans Impact of political rise of Other Backward Classes 4x 1 Pg
. (i) Congress lost the support of Other Backward Classes and many Non- =4 180
Congress Parties got the support of OBCs -
(ii) Many Non-Congress Parties had base in the rural areas with OBCs 183
(iii) Many new parties emerged with the support of OBCs such as BSP
(iv) A concensus emerged among all political parties to continue the
reservation policy for OBCs
(v) In some states OBCs supported parties came to power, such as in Uttar
Pradesh.
(vi) The Mandal Commission made many recommendations to improve the
conditions of OBCs. The decision of the National Front Government to
implement the recommendations of the Mandal Commission sparked
agitations and violent protests in many cities of North India.
(any four)
SECTION- D
Q28 Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow
. :
The opposition to Emergency could keep the Janata Party together
only for a while. Its critics felt that the Janata Party lacked direction,
leadership, and a common programme. The Janata Party Government
could not bring about a fundamental change in policies from those
pursued by the Congress. The Janata Party split and the government
which was led by Morarji Desai lost its majority in less than 18 months.
Another government headed by Charan Singh was formed on the
assurance of the support of the Congress party.
(i) In which year did the Janata Party government come to
power?
(ii) Analyse any two reasons responsible for the split of the
Janata Party.
(iii) Why could the Charan Singh government remain in power for
just about four months only ?

Ans (i) 1977 1+2 Pg1
. (ii) (a) Janata party lacked direction, leadership and +2= 23
common Ideology and programme. 5
(b) It could not bring a fundamental change in its policies which were in
any way different from that of the Congress.
(c) There was power struggling within the Janata Party .
(any two)
(iii) Because the Congress party withdrew its support and the Charan Singh
government fell/ Lost majority.

Page 7

Q29 Study the cartoon given below carefully and answer the following
. questions :

(a) What is the significance of bicycles in a large country like China ?
(b) Highlight the message being given by the symbols shown in the
two wheels of the bicycle.
(c) Show with the help of any two examples how China has opened its
economy to other countries.
Ans a. China is the largest user /manufacturer of bicycles in the world . 1+2
. b. Existence of duality in today's China Strong state control of the +2=
Communist Party has opened the door to privatisation and 5
capitalism.
c. (i) China has privatised agriculture in 1982
(ii) It privatised industries in 1998
(iii) Trade barriers have been eliminated
(iv) Special Economic Zones (SEZs) have been created in China
(v) China has become an important destination for Foreign Direct
Investments (FDI) anywhere in the world.
(vi) It has large foreign exchange reserves that allow it to make big
investments in other countries.
(vii) China's accession to WTO in 2001 is a step in its opening to
outside world .

(OR any other relevant point.) (any two)

Q29 Note: The following questions are for the visually impaired candidates
. only in lieu of question number 29.
(29.1) What measure was adopted by China to overcome the shortage
of foreign exchange under its earlier model of economy ?
(29.2) Highlight any two reasons for China to open its economy to
other countries.
(29.3) Highlight any two reforms made by China to grow its economy.
Ans 29.1 In order to overcome the shortage of foreign exchange China decided 1+2
. to substitute imports by domestic goods +2=
5
29.2 (i) To get rid of stagnation in its economy.
(ii) To get benefits of the world market.

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(iii) For economic development
29.3 (i) Privatization of agriculture in 1982.
(ii) Trade barriers were eliminated in SEZ.
(iii) “Open door Policy” and economic development
(iv) Relations with US 1972
(v) Started ‘four modernizations’-
agriculture,industry,science and technology and military.
(vi) Privatisation of industry
(vii) It allowed Foreign Direct Investment(FDI)
(viii) It became a member of WTO- World Trade Organisation
Q30 Study the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that
. follow :
The UN is an imperfect body, but without it the world would be worse
off. Given the growing connections and links between societies and
issues – what we often call 'interdependence' - it is hard to imagine
how more than seven billion people would live together without an
organization such as the UN. Technology promises to increase
planetary interdependence, and, therefore, the importance of the UN
will only increase. Peoples and governments will have to find ways of
supporting and using the UN and other international organisations in
ways that are consistent with their own interests and the interests of
the international community more broadly.
(i) Identify any two limitations of the United Nations that make it an
imperfect body.
(ii) How would the world be worse off, if there were no United Nations
?Explain.
(iii) Give any one example of planetary interdependence.
Ans (i) (a) It has no forces of its own. 2+2
. (b) Financially it is dependent on its member nations. +1=
(c) It is dominated by big power or big permanent members of the 5
Security Council.
(d) It cannot take an independent action against any country.
(e) Represents Western values and interests
OR any other limitation (any two )

(ii) If there were no United Nations, the world would definitely be worse off
because:
(a) UN has served to bring US and the rest of the world into dialogue
and discussions over international issues.
( b) UN serves as an organisation to bring its member states on a
single platform in dealing with conflict and social and economic
development.
(c) UN provides an arena to modify US attributes and policies .

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(d) UN helps in the matters of War and Peace
(e) It provides mechanisms, rules and bureaucracy to help member
states to cooperate.
(f) UN helps in solving challenging issues that can be dealt only when
member states work together.
(any two points)
(Example of planetary interdependence - Technology ,Environmental
issues, Epidemics

or any other relevant example .
Q31
.

In the given political outline map of India, five states have been marked
as (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Identify these states on the basis of
information given below and write their correct names in your answer
book along with the respective serial number of the information used
and the concerned alphabet given in the map as per the following
format.
Sr. No. of the Concerned Name of the
Information used Alphabet State

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)

(i) The State from which Haryana was carved out.
(ii) The State which was created in 1963.
(iii) The State from which Jharkhand was carved out.
(iv) The State which was formed by separating Telugu speaking areas
from Madras (now Tamil Nadu).
(v) The State where the Communist Party Government was formed in
1957.

Page 10

Ans (i) E Punjab 5x1=
. (ii) A Nagaland 5
(iii) C Bihar
(iv) D Andhra Pradesh
(v) B Kerala
Q31 Note: The following questions are for Visually impaired candidates
. only in lieu of(Map Question) :
(31.1) Name the State where the Congress Party could not win majority
in 1967 Assembly elections.
(31.2) Which State was formed in December 1952 ?
(31.3) From which State was Jharkhand carved out?
(31.4) Name the State which had been earlier part of Andhra Pradesh.
(31.5) Lal-Denga was the leader of which Indian State ?
Ans For visually impaired candidates only 5x1=
. 5
(31.1) Kerala/Punjab/Haryana/Uttar Pradesh/Madhya
Pradesh/Bihar/West Bengal/Orissa/Madras state
(31.2) Andhra Pradesh
(31.3) Bihar
(31.4) Telangana
(31.5) Mizoram
SECTION –E
Q32 Explain any four causes of the Cold War.
. OR
Explain any four consequences of Shock Therapy
Ans Causes of Cold War 4x1 Pg
. (i) Emergence of two super powers (USA and USSR) after the end of ½=6 3-6
Second World War.
(ii) Conflict of ideologies (Socialism v/s Capitalism) between two
super powers.
(iii) Formation of Military alliances by Superpowers. For example
NATO, CEATO, CENTO, WASAW, PACT.
(iv) Both the super powers had Nuclear weapons and tried to become
the only one super power of the World.
(v) The possession of Nuclear weapons by both the super powers
proved to be a deterrence and did not allow the full scale war.

Or any other relevant point (any four)

OR
Consequences of Shock Therapy
(i) In Russia, the large state-controlled industrial complex almost
collapsed, as about 90 percent of its industries were put up for
sale to private individuals and companies. This was called the

Page 11

largest garage sale in history.
(ii) The value of the Ruble (Currency of USSR) declined.
(iii) Rate of inflation was very high and people lost all their savings. 4x1 Pg
(iv) The collective farm system disintegrated leaving people without ½=6 25
food security and Russia started to import food.
(v) The old trading structure broke down with no alternative in its
place.
(vi) The old system of social welfare was systematically destroyed.
(vii) The withdrawl of government subsidies pushed large sections of
the people into poverty.
(viii) The academic and intellectual manpower migrated.
(ix) Privatisation led to new disparities.

Or any other relevant point To be explained (any four)
Q33 Do you agree that popular movements go a long way in strengthening
. democracy? Justify your answer by giving any three suitable
arguments.
OR
The Assam Movement from 1979 to 1985 is the best example of the
movements against outsiders. Support the statement with suitable
arguments.
Ans i. Popular movements help the government to know about the
. problems, aspirations and demands of the people. 3x2= Pg
ii. Expressing the demands and participating in the democratic criticism 6 142
of the government reduce the chance of revolution and violence. &
145
iii. Collective actions and assertions also lead to social unity .
iv. These movements train the people in the leadership movement to
project some leaders.
v. Movements also lead to develop consensus in different sections and
groups of the people .
vi. Making people aware of their rights, responsibilities and expectations
from democratic institutions.
vii. Popular movements perform an educative task and contribute to
expansion of democracy rather than causing disruptions.
or any other relevant point ( any three)

Note :If a candidate does not agree with the statement, he/ she has to give
three arguments to support his/ her answer.
OR
• It is said to be the best example because the movement started with
its main demand that all outsiders who had entered Assam after 1951 6x1= Pg
should be sent back. 6 165
• They fear that the indigenous Assamese will be reduced to a minority.
• They fear losing jobs and spread of poverty.
• They are against the cultural domination of Bengalis and other
outsiders.
• They are against the faulty voters registers that included the names of
lakhs of immigrants.
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• The agitation followed various methods and mobilized all sections of
Assamese people .
• After 6 years of turmoil, the Rajiv Gandhi led government entered into
negotiations with the AASU leaders in 1985.
• A mutual Accord was signed.
• After this, AASU organised themselves as original political party and
came to power with the promise to resolve their problems and build a
' Golden Assam'

(To be assessed as a whole)

Q34 Describe India's stand on global environmental issues.
. OR
Describe any six consequences of globalization.
Ans India's stand— 6 Pg
. 125-
126
• India signed and ratified the 1997 Kyoto Protocol in 2002 .
• India is of the view that per capita emission rates of the developing
countries are a tiny fraction of those in the developed world.
• India is of the view that the developed countries are responsible for
most of the historical and current green house gas emissions and
emphasizes that the economic and social developments are the first
and overriding priority of the developing countries.
• Developed countries must help developing countries to meet their
commitments .
• India is also of the view that the SAARC countries should adopt a
common position on major global environment issues.
• Indian government is participating in global efforts through a number
of programmes like National auto fuel policy mandates cleaner fuels
for vehicles .
• The Energy Conservation Act (2001 )aims to improve Energy
efficiency .
• Electricity Act (2003) encourages use of renewable energy .
• India is importing natural gas and encourages adoption of clean fuel
policy.
• Indian Government is keen to launch National Mission of Biodiesel.
• India has one of the largest renewable energy programme in the
world.
OR
Consequences of Globalisation
(i) All over the world, the old concept of 'welfare state' is giving way to a 6x1=
more minimal state. 6
(ii) It does not affect state capacity as the govt. continues to perform the
same function
(iii) It enhances state capacity with the help of technology.
(iv) It has affected the sovereignty of the countries.
(v) It has widened the choice of the customers leading to cultural

Page 13

hetrogeneity.
(vi) It has led to the qualitative change in the goods and commodities.
(vii) It has helped the economic growth of various developing countries.
(viii) Homogeneous culture is developing.
(ix) Indigenous culture of various countries is facing challenges and threats.
(x) Eating habits, dress sense and interest in music and films has undergone
a change.

or any other relevant point ( any six points )

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