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Series : HMJ/5 SET – 1
.
Code No. 59/5/1
. - -
Roll No.
Candidates must write the Code on
the title page of the answer-book.
NOTE
(I) - (I) Please check that this question paper
15 contains 15 printed pages.
(II) - (II) Code number given on the right hand
- - side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the
answer-book by the candidate.
(III) - 34 (III) Please check that this question paper
contains 34 questions.
(IV) (IV) Please write down the Serial
, Number of the question in the
answer-book before attempting it.
(V) - 15 (V) 15 minute time has been allotted to
- read this question paper. The
question paper will be distributed at
10.15 10.15
10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30
10.30 - a.m., the students will read the
- question paper only and will not
write any answer on the answer-book
during this period.
POLITICAL SCIENCE
80
Time allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 80
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:
(i) - – , , ,
(ii) - 1 20 1
20
(iii) - 21 23 2
40
(iv) - 24 27 4
100
(v) - 28 30
5 150
31
(vi) - 32 34 6
150
(vii)
(viii) - , - , -
:-:
(ix) , ,
–
1.
________ ________
½+½=1
1917 ________ ________
2½=1
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General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
(i) This question paper comprises five sections – A, B, C, D and E.
All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Section A – Q. no. 1 to 20 are very short-answer type questions carrying 1
mark each. They are required to be answered in one word or one sentence
each but not exceeding 20 words.
(iii) Section B – Q. no. 21 to 23 are short-answer type questions carrying 2
marks each. Answers to them should not exceed 40 words each.
(iv) Section C – Q. no. 24 to 27 are long-answer type questions carrying 4
marks each. Answers to them should not exceed 100 words each.
(v) Section D – Q. no. 28 to 30 are two passage based questions and one
picture OR cartoon based question carrying 5 marks each. Answers to them
should not exceed 150 words each.
Question No. 31 is a map question that includes identification of important
places on the basis given information. Write its answers in your answer-
book.
(vi) Section E – Question No. 32 to 34 are long answer type questions carrying
6 marks each. Answer to them should not exceed 150 words each.
(vii) Answer should be brief and to the point and the above word limit be
adhered to as far as possible.
(viii) There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal
choice has been provided in 1 question of one mark, 1 question of four
marks and 3 questions of six marks. Only one of the choices in such
questions is to be attempted.
(ix) However, separate instructions are given with each section and
question, wherever necessary.
SECTION – A
1. Complete the following sentence in a meaningful way.
The second world war ended when the United States dropped two atomic
bombs on the Japanese cities of _____ and _____. ½+½=1
OR
The Russian Revolution of 1917 was inspired by the ideals of ________ as
opposed to capitalism and the need for an ________ society. 2½=1
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2. 1991
? 1
3. ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) 1
4. , ½+½=1
5.
_______ _______ ½+½=1
6. 2½=1
7. , ?
1
8. 1
9. -
“ 2002
” 1
10.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) 1
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2. Who emerged as a national hero in opposing the coup that took place in
the USSR in 1991 ? 1
3. Which one of the following was NOT a consequence of disintegration of
the USSR ?
(a) Many new states emerged.
(b) Russia emerged as a new superpower.
(c) Power relations in world politics changed.
(d) The capitalist system emerged as the winner. 1
4. Identify any two fields in which the Soviet Union lagged behind the West. ½ + ½ = 1
5. Fill in the blanks to make the given sentence meaningful.
Internet is an example of Global __________ __________. ½+½=1
6. Name any two founder members of ASEAN. 2½=1
7. In your opinion, which one of the following is better for India and why ?
Working against the Hegemon or Working with the Hegemon. 1
8. Explain the main objective of the United Nations. 1
9. Correct and rewrite the following statement in your answer book.
“India signed and ratified the Kyoto Protocol in 2002 and was compelled
to meet the requirements of the Kyoto Protocol because the emission of
green house gases in India was not significant.” 1
10. Choose the correct option that has significantly contributed to the process
of ‘Globalization’.
(a) Fear of war
(b) Security threats
(c) Advancement of technology
(d) Achievements of the United Nations 1
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11. 1951 2½ =1
12. ?
(a)
(b)
(c) .
(d) .. 1
13. - ,
? 1
14. - (1962) , ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) 1
15. (..) ? 1
16. 1967 -
? 1
17. 1
18. 1977 , ..
? 1
19. 1
20. ? 1
–
21. 4½=2
22. 1+1=2
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11. Name any two important leaders of the Bharatiya Jana Sangh formed in
1951. 2½ =1
12. Which one of the following leaders played an important role in the
integration of princely states with India ?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) C. Rajagopalachari
(d) B.R. Ambedkar 1
13. According to the guidelines of the Second Five Year Plan, how did the
government try to protect the domestic industries ? 1
14. Which one of the following statements related to the Indo-China war (1962)
is correct ?
(a) China could not cross the line of control.
(b) The Soviet Union remained neutral during the conflict.
(c) The Soviet Union helped China against India.
(d) The Chinese forces did not withdraw their troops back to earlier
position. 1
15. Why had India refuse to sign the Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty
(NPT) ? 1
16. What main objective did Indira Gandhi want to achieve by launching a
series of initiatives under the Ten Point Programme in 1967 ? 1
17. Analyse the root cause of the fall of the government headed by Morarji
Desai. 1
18. Why did the Janata Party government appoint a Commission of Inquiry
headed by Justice J.C. Shah in May 1977 ? 1
19. Explain any one reason for the movement against outsiders in Assam. 1
20. Who is considered to be the proponent of Bahujan Empowerment and
Founder of Bahujan Samaj Party ? 1
SECTION – B
21. Name any four members of Warsaw Pact. 4½=2
22. Explain the difference between refugees and migrants. 1+1=2
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23. ‘A’ ‘B’ 4½=2
‘A’ ‘B’
(a) - (i)
(b) 1975 ‘ ’ (ii)
(c) (iii)
1969
(d) 1974 (iv) ..
–
24. “ ”
41=4
25. 41=4
26. 1971 ,
22=4
22=4
27. 4
–
28.
(a) ?
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23. Match correctly the following in column ‘A’ with those in column ‘B’ : 4 ½ = 2
Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(a) First Prime Minister belonging (i) George Fernandes
to a non-Congress Party
(b) The leader who led people’s (ii) Morarji Desai
march to the Parliament in 1975.
(c) The Presidential candidate who (iii) Jayaprakash Narayan
defeated the official candidate of
the Congress Party in 1969
(d) The leader associated with the (iv) V.V. Giri
Railway strike of 1974
SECTION – C
24. “European Union is a highly influential regional organization.” Justify the
statement with any four suitable arguments. 41=4
25. Describe any four features of the Communist Party of India. 41=4
26. Explain any two reasons that led to National Jubilation in India after the
1971 war with Pakistan. 22=4
OR
Explain with the help of any two examples from India that foreign policy
is always dictated by ideas of national interest. 22=4
27. Assess the impact of coalition governments on the politics of India. 4
SECTION – D
28. Study the cartoon given below carefully and answer the following questions :
(a) What is the significance of bicycles in a large country like China ?
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(b)
(c)
? 1+2+2=5
: 28 :
(28.1) ,
?
(28.2)
(28.3)
1+2+2=5
29.
‘ ’
,
–
(i)
(ii) ?
(iii) 2+2+1=5
30.
,
18
(i) ?
(ii)
(iii) ? 1+2+2=5
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(b) Highlight the message being given by the symbols shown in the two
wheels of the bicycle.
(c) Show with the help of any two examples how China has opened its
economy to other countries. 1+2+2=5
Note : The following questions are for the visually impaired candidates
only in lieu of question number 28.
(28.1) What measure was adopted by China to overcome the shortage of
foreign exchange under its earlier model of economy ?
(28.2) Highlight any two reasons for China to open its economy to other
countries.
(28.3) Highlight any two reforms made by China to grow its economy.
1+2+2=5
29. Study the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow :
The UN is an imperfect body, but without it the world would be
worse off. Given the growing connections and links between societies and
issues – what we often call ‘interdependence’ – it is hard to imagine how
more than seven billion people would live together without an
organization such as the UN. Technology promises to increase planetary
interdependence, and, therefore, the importance of the UN will only
increase. Peoples and governments will have to find ways of supporting
and using the UN and other international organisations in ways that are
consistent with their own interests and the interests of the international
community more broadly.
(i) Identify any two limitations of the United Nations that make it an
imperfect body.
(ii) How would the world be worse off, if there were no United Nations ?
Explain.
(iii) Give any one example of planetary interdependence. 2+2+1=5
30. Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :
The opposition to Emergency could keep the Janata Party together
only for a while. Its critics felt that the Janata Party lacked direction,
leadership, and a common programme. The Janata Party Government
could not bring about a fundamental change in policies from those
pursued by the Congress. The Janata Party split and the government
which was led by Morarji Desai lost its majority in less than 18 months.
Another government headed by Charan Singh was formed on the
assurance of the support of the Congress party.
(i) In which year did the Janata Party government come to power ?
(ii) Analyse any two reasons responsible for the split of the Janata Party.
(iii) Why could the Charan Singh government remain in power for just
about four months only ? 1+2+2=5
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31.
A , B , C , D E
, ,
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(i) ,
(ii) 1963
(iii)
(iv) ( ) , ,
(v) 1957 51=5
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31.
In the given political outline map of India, five states have been marked
as (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Identify these states on the basis of
information given below and write their correct names in your answer
book along with the respective serial number of the information used and
the concerned alphabet given in the map as per the following format.
Sr. No. of the Information Concerned Name of the
used Alphabet State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(i) The State from which Haryana was carved out.
(ii) The State which was created in 1963.
(iii) The State from which Jharkhand was carved out.
(iv) The State which was formed by separating Telugu speaking areas
from Madras (now Tamil Nadu).
(v) The State where the Communist Party Government was formed in
1957. 51=5
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: 31
( ) :
(31.1) 1967 -
(31.2) 1952 ?
(31.3) ?
(31.4)
(31.5) ? 51=5
–
32. ? 4 1½ = 6
4 1½ = 6
33. 6
61=6
34.
? 32=6
1979 1985
6
____________
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Note : The following questions are for Visually impaired candidates
only in lieu of Qn. 31 (Map Question) :
(31.1) Name the State where the Congress Party could not win majority
in 1967 Assembly elections.
(31.2) Which State was formed in December 1952 ?
(31.3) From which State was Jharkhand carved out ?
(31.4) Name the State which had been earlier part of Andhra Pradesh.
(31.5) Lal-Denga was the leader of which Indian State ? 51=5
SECTION – E
32. Why did superpowers need any allies ? Explain any four reasons. 4 1½ = 6
OR
Explain any four factors that were responsible for the disintegration of
the USSR. 4 1½ = 6
33. Describe India’s stand on global environmental issues. 6
OR
Describe any six consequences of globalization. 61=6
34. Do you agree that popular movements go a long way in strengthening
democracy ? Justify your answer by giving any three suitable arguments.
32=6
OR
The Assam Movement from 1979 to 1985 is the best example of the
movements against ‘outsiders’. Support the statement with suitable
arguments. 6
____________
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