MAHA SET 2015 Question Paper 2 Chemical Sciences

Test Booklet No.
F
CHEMICAL SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator Seat No.
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(Name) ................................................ Seat No. ..............................................................
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(Name) ................................................ OMR Sheet No.
AUG - 33215 (To be filled by the Candidate)
Time Allowed : 1¼ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 20 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
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1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided 1.
on the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of 50 objective type questions. Each question
will carry two marks. All questions of Paper-II will be compulsory, 2.
covering entire syllabus (including all electives, without options).
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A B D
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ROUGH WORK

2

Chemical Science
Paper II
Time Allowed : 75 Minutes] [Maximum Marks : 100
Note : This Paper contains Fifty (50) multiple choice questions, each question
carrying Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

1. The species in which the central atom uses sp2 hybrid orbitals in its bonding

is :

(A) PH3 (B) NH3

(C) BCl 3 (D) SbH3

2. Which of the following is a Lewis acid ?

(A) Br– (B) Cl –

(C) S– (D) Ag+

3. The strength of hydrogen bonds follow the order :

(A) ClH .... Cl > NH .... N > OH .... O > FH .... F

(B) ClH .... Cl < NH .... N < OH .... O < FH .... F

(C) ClH .... Cl < NH .... N > OH .... O > FH .... F

(D) ClH .... Cl < NH .... N < OH .... O > FH .... F

3 [P.T.O.

4. A student pipetted out five 25.00 ml samples of HCl solution, transferred
each sample to a conical flask, diluted them with distilled water and
titrated against NaOH solution, having phenolphthalein indicator. The
following burette reading were noted :
SET Burette reading (mL)

(I) 35.22

(II) 36.14

(III) 36.13
(IV) 36.15

(V) 36.13
Which of the probable explanation for the variations in the results ?

(A) The burette was not rinsed with the NaOH solution
(B) Student misread the first set reading

(C) A different amount of water was added to the first sample

(D) The pipette was not rinsed with HCl
5. Based on the VSEPR theory, the molecule IF5 has a shape of :

(A) Trigonal bipyramid (B) Square pyramid

(C) Octahedral (D) Pentagonal bipyramid
6. A solution with pH = 2 is more acidic than one with pH = 6 by the factor
of :
(A) 4000 (B) 4
(C) 8000 (D) 10,000

7. The bond order for NO+ species is :
(A) 2 (B) 2.5

(C) 3 (D) 1.5
4

8. Which of the following statements describes the following titration
curve ?

(A) A strong base is added to a strong acid

(B) A strong base is added to a weak acid

(C) A strong acid is added to a strong base

(D) A strong acid is added to a weak base

9. A gas ‘Z’ is bubbled through a solution containing ‘X’ and ‘Y’. If the reduction
potentials are in the order of X > Y > Z, then :

(A) Y will oxidize X and Z

(B) Y will oxidize Z but not X

(C) Y will oxidize both X and Y

(D) Y will reduce both X and Z

5 [P.T.O.

10. The depression of freezing point for 1 M Urea, 1 M glucose and 1 M NaCl

are in the ratio :

(A) 1 : 2 : 3 (B) 3 : 2 : 2

(C) 1 : 1 : 2 (D) 1 : 1 : 3

11. Consider the following three set of experiments :

(I) (II) (III)

Colorless solution changes to blue colored solution in :

(A) II (B) III

(C) I (D) I and III

6

12. A graph of concentration of the product (x) as a function of time t for the

reaction A B is shown :

d A
Then which of the following represents the Vs. time plot correctly ?
dt

d A d A
(A) (B)
dt dt

d A d A
(C) (D)
dt dt

7 [P.T.O.

13. Consider the half cell reaction :

Mn O 4 8H + 5e Mn 2 4H 2 O; E 0 1.51 V

Mn O 2 4H + 2e Mn 2 2H 2 O; E 0 1.23 V

For the reaction

Mn O 4 4H + 3e Mn O 2 2H 2 O;

E0 is :

(A) 1.70 V (B) 5.09 V

(C) 0.27 V (D) 0.84 V

14. The point group symmetry of cis ML4X2 is :

(A) C 4v (B) D 4h

(C) C 2h (D) C 2v

15. When acidic K2Cr2O7 solution is added to Na2S solution, green Cr3+ ions

and free S are formed. When same acidic K2Cr2O7 solution is added to NaCl

solution, no change is noted. Among the substances involved in these reactions

which one is the best reducing agent ?

(A) K2Cr2O7 (B) Na2S

(C) Cr3+ (D) S

8

16. During the adiabatic process the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional

to the cube of its absolute temperature. The value of for the gas is :

3 7
(A) (B)
2 2

5 9
(C) (D)
3 7

17. The correct IUPAC nomenclature for the following compound is :

(A) (E) Pent-2-en-4-yne (B) (E) Pent-1-yne-3-ene

(C) (E) Pent-4-yne-2-ene (D) (E) Pent-3-en-1-yne

18. The number of stereoisomers in (2S, 3R) tartaric acid are :

(A) Two (B) Three

(C) One (D) Four

9 [P.T.O.

19. (2R, 3R)-D-Erythrose on oxidation with nitric acid gives tartaric acid. The
correct stereochemical structure of the product in this case is :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

20. Consider the following compounds A, B and C.

(A) (B) (C)

The order of carbonyl stretching frequencies in the IR spectrum of the above
is :

(A) A < B < C (B) A > B > C

(C) C > B > A (D) A > C > B

10

21. Consider the molecules I and II.

(I) (II)

Which one of the following represents their correct configurational notation

in terms of Cahn-Ingold-Prelog system ?

(I) (II)

(A) R S

(B) S E

(C) R Z

(D) S Z

22. 2,2'-bis (diphenylphosphino)-1,1'-binaphthalene (BINAP) contains .................

stereogenic centers and is a .................... molecule.

(A) Zero, prochiral (B) Zero, chiral

(C) Zero, achiral (D) One, chiral

11 [P.T.O.

23. The two compounds given below are :

(A) Diastereomers of each other

(B) Identical

(C) Enantiomers of each other

(D) Regioisomers of each other

24. Diels-Alder reaction proceed via concerted cycloaddition [4 + 2] path, hence

they exhibited :

(A) Regiospecificity

(B) Stereospecificity

(C) Regioselectivity

(D) Stereoselectivity

12

25. Identify the X and Y reagents used in the following reaction :

+ (X) + (Y) Sh a kin g

(A) Alkali and CCl4 (B) Alkali and CHCl3

(C) Alkali and CH2Cl2 (D) Alkali and CH3Cl

26. Chlorobenzene substrate does not undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction
under NTP with base/nucleophile, because it possess :

(A) (4n) delocalized electron cloud

(B) Strong electronegative chlorine atom

(C) (4n + 2) delocalized electron cloud

(D) Partial (C–Cl) double bond character

27. Identify the reacting compounds (X) and (Y) which on condensation forms the
following product :

St r on g Ba se
(X) + (Y) 1, 5-diphenylpentan-1,4-dien-3-one

(A) Acetone and Benzaldehyde via Aldol reaction

(B) Acetaldehyde and Benzaldehyde via Aldol reaction

(C) Acetophenone and Benzaldehyde via Aldol reaction

(D) Benzophenone and Benzaldehyde via Aldol reaction
13 [P.T.O.

28. Identify the mole ratio of the substrate and the reaction condition for the
formation of the following product :

Z = Con dit ion Dibenzalacetone

(x) (y)

(A) [x = 2 and y = 1] under z = acidic conditions

(B) [x = 1 and y = 2] under z = acidic conditions

(C) [x = 2 and y = 1] under z = basic conditions

(D) [x = 1 and y = 2] under z = basic conditions

29. Identify the product of reaction between diphenyl amine, sodium nitrite and
hydrochloric acid (C6H5)2 – NH + NaNO2 + HCl (X) product :

(A) X = (C6H5)2—N—N=O

(B) X = (C6H5)2— N —C6H4N=O
|
H

(C) X = (C6H5)2—N O

(D) X = (C6H5)2—N—N—(C6H5)2

30. The spin multiplicity of singlet carbene and triplet nitrene are respectively :

(A) 0, 1 (B) 1, 0

(C) 1, 1 (D) 0, 0

14

31. Predict the pair of product corresponding to path (x) and path (y) respectively
in the given transformations :

(A) and

(B) and

(C) and

(D) and

15 [P.T.O.

32. The chemical abbreviation of DDT is one of the following :

(A) p-dichlorodiphenyl trichloroethane

(B) p-dichlorodiphenyl tetrachloroethane

(C) p-dichlorodiphenyl trichloropropane

(D) p-dichlorodiphenyl tetrachlorobutane

33. The commercially important ore of lead is :

(A) Bauxite (B) Galena

(C) Haematite (D) Cinnabar

34. Which of the following metals cannot be obtained by the electrolysis of their

aqueous solution ?

(A) Iron (B) Lead

(C) Silver (D) Sodium

35. Aluminothermic reaction is :

(A) Oxidation reaction (B) Reduction reaction

(C) Redox reaction (D) Neutralization reaction

36. The ionization potentials of the given elements/ions change in the order :

(A) Mg+ > Na > Mg2+ (B) Mg2+ > Mg+ > Na

(C) Na > Mg+ > Mg2+ (D) Mg2+ > Na > Mg+

16

37. The geometry and shape of XeO3 is, respectively :

(A) triangular and trigonal pyramidal

(B) tetrahedral and trigonal pyramidal

(C) tetrahedral and triangular planar

(D) trigonal pyramidal and triangular

38. A polynuclear metal carbonyl which contains only one bridging carbonyl group
is :

(A) Fe2(CO)9 (B) Tc2(CO)10

(C) Os2(CO)9 (D) Fe3(CO)12

39. The octahedral complexes are .......... times stabilized as compared to the
tetrahedral complexes when all other parameters except the geometry are
same.
4 2
(A) (B)
9 3
9
(C) 2 (D)
4
40. The number of types of isomerism possible in [Rh(en)2 Cl(NO2)]Cl and the
number of isomers is, respectively :

(A) 3 and 6 (B) 3 and 9

(C) 4 and 9 (D) 4 and 12

41. Which one of the following compounds has the smallest (Halogen-S-Halogen)
bond angle ?

(A) SOF2 (B) SOCl2

(C) SOBr2 (D) SOI2
17 [P.T.O.

42. Which of the following two are isostructural ?

(A) XeF2 and IF2 (B) NH3 and BF3

(C) CO 32 a nd SO 32 (D) PCl5 and ICl5

43. The acidic character of the given hydroxides increases in the order :

(A) B(OH)3 < Mg(OH)2 < Al(OH)3

(B) Mg(OH)2 < B(OH)3 < Al(OH)3

(C) B(OH)3 < Al(OH)3 < Mg(OH)2

(D) Mg(OH)2 < Al(OH)3 < B(OH)3

44. Which of the following statements is false ?

(A) The –1
C–O of free CO ligand is 2143 cm

(B) The C–O band in [Ti(CO)6]2– is higher in energy than those in free

CO

(C) The 2+ is even higher in energy than those
C–O band in [Fe(CO)6]

in free CO
k
(D) In IR spectroscopy is proportional to

45. The electron paramagnetic resonance spectroscopy is well suited for

distinguishing between :

(A) Cu(I) and Ti(IV) complexes (B) Cu(I) and Zn(II) complexes

(C) Cu(I) and Cu(II) complexes (D) Cu(I) and Sc(III) complexes

18

46. Precision of a set of replicate data is described by the term :

(A) Absolute error (B) Determinant error

(C) Percent relative error (D) Coefficient of variation

47. An analytical method for the determination of calcium in limestone was tested
by analysis of a NIST limestone containing 30.35% CaO. The mean result
of five determinations was 30.41% with a standard deviation of 0.098%. What
is the percent relative standard deviation ?

(A) 0.06 (B) 0.32

(C) 0.12 (D) 0.24

48. The standard deviation in an analytical method for the determination of Pb
in automotive exhaust was found to be 1.0 ppm. What is 90% confidence interval
(Z = 1.64) for four replicate analysis ?

(A) ±0.041 (B) ±0.123

(C) ±0.164 (D) ±0.082

49. Which one of the following properties is shown by normal error curve ?

(A) Zero deviation from the mean occurring with minimum frequency

(B) Zero deviation from the mean occurring with maximum frequency

(C) Asymmetrical distribution of positive and negative deviations about
this maximum

(D) Exponential increase in frequency as the magnitude of deviations
increases

50. Chlorinated hydrocarbon in air sample was determined repeatedly for four
times. The standard deviation was found to be 0.04 ppm. What is the standard
error of mean ?

(A) 0.04 (B) 0.02

(C) 0.01 (D) 0.16
19 [P.T.O.

ROUGH WORK

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