MAHA SET 2019 Question Paper 2 Chemical Science

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A
CHEMICAL SCIENCE
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JUN - 33219 (To be filled by the Candidate)
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2

Chemical Science
Paper II
Time Allowed : 120 Minutes] [Maximum Marks : 200
Note : This Paper contains Hundred (100) multiple choice questions. Each question
carrying Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

1. The total number of lone pairs for the ion I3 is :
(A) 0 (B) 3
(C) 6 (D) 9
2. The hybridization for the complex ion [FeF6]3– and [Fe(CN)6]3– is :
(A) d2sp3 and sp3d2 (B) d2sp3 and d2sp3
(C) sp3d2 and sp3d2 (D) sp3d2 and d2sp3
3. Which of the following diatomic molecules is paramagnetic ?
(A) B 2 (B) C 2
(C) N 2 (D) F 2
4. Size of the d orbitals for Si, P, S and Cl follow the order :
(A) Si > P > S > Cl (B) Cl > P > S > Si
(C) Cl > S > P > Si (D) P > S > Si > Cl
5. The molecules P4 and CH4 exhibit the same :
(A) Color (B) Geometry
(C) Boiling point (D) Physical state at 300 K
6. The bond order for O2 and the hypothetical molecules N2 and O2 will follow
the trend :
(A) O2 N2 O2 (B) N2 O2 O2
(C) N2 O2 O2 (D) N2 O2 O2
7. According to CFT, Ni2+ can have two unpaired electrons in :
(A) Octahedral geometry
(B) Tetrahedral geometry
(C) Both octahedral and tetrahedral geometry
(D) Square planar geometry

3 [P.T.O.

8. Which of the following complexes will NOT exhibit ideal octahedral geometry ?
(A) [Ti(H2O)6]3+ (B) [Ni(H2O)6]2+
(C) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ (D) [Cr(H2O)6]3+
9. The carbonyl stretching frequency ( CO) for the complexes (i) [Co(CO)4]–
(ii) [Ni(CO)4] and (iii) [Fe(CO)4]2– will follow the trend :
(A) (ii) > (iii) > (i) (B) (i) > (iii) > (ii)
(C) (iii) > (ii) > (i) (D) (ii) > (i) > (iii)
10. The spin only magnetic moment for the complex Hg[Co(SCN)4] is :
(A) 3 (B) 15
(C) 8 (D)24
11. The molecular formula for sodium bis (thiosulphato) argentate (I) is :
(A) Na2[Ag(S2O3)2] (B) Na3[Ag(S2O3)2]
(C) Na[Ag(S2O3)2] (D) Na3[Ag(S2O3)]
12. The number of terminal carbonyl ligands in the complex [ 5 CP Rh(CO)]3 (where
CP is cyclopentadienide anion) such that each Rhodium centre satisfies the 18
electron rule is :
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 0
13. The 31P {H} NMR spectrum of complex (Rh(PPh3)3Cl] will exhibit :
(A) Two triplets
(B) Two doublets
(C) Doublet of doublet and doublet of triplet
(D) Triplet of doublet and triplet of triplet
14. Which of the following molecules will NOT exhibit a temperature dependent
19F NMR spectrum ?

(A) PF 5 (B) ClF 3
(C) PCl2F 3 (D) SF6

4

15. MnO4 is coloured in aqueous medium while ReO4 is colorless because :
(A) The energy required for LMCT is higher for ReO4 than MnO4
(B) MnO4 is colored due to MLCT
(C) d – d transition are forbidden in ReO4
(D) The energy of d – d transition in ReO4 is much higher than MnO4
16. The number of EPR lines observed in AlH3 radical (27Al, nuclear spin = 5/2)
will be :
(A) 6 (B) 4
(C) 24 (D) 18
17. The EPR spectrum of p-benzosemiquinone radical anion consists of :
(A) a quintet with intensity 1 : 2 : 3 : 2 : 1
(B) a quartet with intensity 1 : 3 : 3 : 1
(C) a quintet with intensity 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(D) a quintet with intensity 1 : 4 : 6 : 4 : 1
18. The Mössbauer spectra of K3[Fe(CN)6] and K4[Fe(CN)6] respectively will
exhibit :
(A) 1 line each (B) 2 lines each
(C) 2 and 1 lines (D) 1 and 2 lines
19. The ion [Ni(Pyridine)4(H2O)2]2+ has d – d absorption bands at 27000, 16500
and 10150 cm–1. The 10 Dq value of Ni2+ ion is :
(A) 10150 cm–1 (B) 10500 cm–1
(C) 16500 cm–1 (D) 6350 cm–1
20. The electric dipole allowed transition in a d3 atomic system is :
(A) 4F 2D (B) 3F 3P

(C) 4F 4P (D) 4F 2G

5 [P.T.O.

21. In which of the following numbers all zeros are significant ?
(A) 0.0007 (B) 0.0700
(C) 70.000 (D) 0.0070
22. The ground term symbol of Pr3+ ion is (At. No. Pr = 59)
(A) 3H6 (B) 3H4
(C) 6H15/2 (D) 6H5/2
23. The -diketonato complexes of which metal ion is used as shift reagent in NMR
spectroscopy :
(A) Ce3+ (B) La3+
(C) Eu3+ (D) Ho3+
24. The symmetry and number of carbonyl stretching bands in the complex are :

(A) C2V, four (B) C2V, three
(C) C3V, two (D) C3V, three
25. The overall charge ‘x’ on the stable complex [ 5 CP Fe(CO)3 ]x should be
(CP = cyclopentadienide anion) :
(A) 0 (B) +2
(C) +1 (D) –1
26. The total number of M – M bonds in the stable complex [(µ – Cl) (µ – CH2)
Os3(CO)10]– are :
(A) 2 (B) 1
(C) 0 (D) 3

6

27. The reaction [Co(NH 3 ) 5 Cl] 2+ + [Cr(H 2 O) 6 ] 2+ [Co(H 2 O) 6 ] 2+ +
[Cr(H2O)5Cl]2+ + 5NH 4 is an example of :
(A) Ligand transfer process only
(B) Ligand exchange process only
(C) Outer sphere electron transfer process
(D) Inner sphere electron transfer process
28. Which of the following complexes will have the highest spin only magnetic
moment ?
(A) [VCl6]4– (B) [Ni(CN)4]2–
(C) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (D) [( 5 – C5H5)2Cr]
29. The respective enzymes involved in CO and CN– poisoning are :
(A) deoxyhemoglobin and oxidized cytochrome C oxidase
(B) deoxyhemoglobin and reduced cyctochrome C oxidase
(C) oxyhemoglobin and oxidized cytochrome C oxidase
(D) oxyhemoglobin and reduced cytochrome C oxidase
30. The reaction CO2 H2O H2CO3 catalysed by the zinc containing enzyme
cationic anhydrase at physiological pH is facile due to :
(A) decrease in nucleophilicity of H2O on coordination to Zn
(B) decrease in nucleophilicity of CO2 on coordination to Zn
(C) increase in nucleophilicity of H2O on coordination to Zn
(D) increase in nucleophilicity of CO2 on coordination to Zn
31. Oxyhemoglobin is diamagnetic due to electron spin coupling between :
(A) Low spin Fe2+ and oxygen molecule
(B) High spin Fe3+ and superoxide radical
(C) High spin Fe2+ and oxygen molecule
(D) Low spin Fe3+ and superoxide radical

7 [P.T.O.

32. Among the following alkaline earth metal ions the exchange rates for the water
molecules from the first coordination sphere at 25°C will be :
(A) Be2+ > Mg2+ > Ca2+ (B) Mg2+ > Be2+ > Ca2+
(C) Ca2+ > Mg2+ > Be2+ (D) Mg2+ > Ca2+ Be2+
33. Which pair of catalyst and its application is incorrect ?
(A) Cis—[Rh(CO)2I2]–; acetic acid synthesis
(B) [Rh(PPh3)3Cl]; alkene hydrogenation
(C) [H Rh(PPh3)3]; asymmetric hydrogenation
(D) [HCo(CO)4]; hydroformylation of alkenes
34. The most abundant transition metal ion in sea water and earth’s crust is :
(A) Molybdenum (B) Copper
(C) Iron (D) Zinc
35. The oxidation state of molybdenum in [( 7-tropylium) Mo(CO)3]+ is :
(A) +2 (B) +1
(C) 0 (D) –1
36. The product of the reaction between 2 Cl– and cis-(Pt(NH3)2(Py)2]2+ will
be :
(A) cis-[PtCl2(NH3)(PY)] (B) cis-[Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
(C) trans-[PtCl2(Py)(NH3)] (D) cis-[PtCl2(Py)2]
37. The correct order of acidity of the following molecules is :

(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(A) (IV) < (III) < (II) < (I) (B) (III) < (IV) < (II) < (I)
(C) (IV) < (II) < (I) < (III) (D) (IV) < (I) < (III) < (II)

8

38. The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is :

(A) 3-ethyl-5-hydroxy-1-methyl cyclohexane
(B) 5-ethyl-3-methyl cyclohexanol
(C) 1-ethyl-3-methyl-5-hydroxy-cyclohexane
(D) 3-ethyl-5-methyl cyclohexanol
39. The correct order of dipole moment for the following compounds is :

(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(A) (III) < (I) < (IV) < (II) (B) (III) < (II) < (I) < (IV)
(C) (I) < (IV) < (III) < (II) (D) (I) < (II) < (III) < (IV)
40. The configurations of the double bonds in the following molecule are :

(A) 2E, 4E (B) 2E, 4Z
(C) 2Z, 4E (D) 2Z, 4Z
9 [P.T.O.

41. Compound P on treatment with NaOH gives major product Q. Predict the correct
stereochemical descriptor for P and Q :

(A) P is ‘R’ and Q is ‘S’
(B) P is ‘R’ and Q is Racemic
(C) P is ‘S’ and Q is ‘R’
(D) P is ‘S’ and Q is Racemic
42. The correct Newmann projection of (2S, 3R)-D-threose is :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

10

43. Which of the following will form the most stable complex with TiCl4 ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

44. The major product of the following reaction is :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

45. Predict the major product of the following reaction :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

11 [P.T.O.

46. The major products X and Y formed in the following reaction sequence

are :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

12

47. The major products of the following reaction sequence are :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

13 [P.T.O.

48. The major product of the following reaction is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

14

49. The number of chemically non-equivalent protons expected in 1H-NMR spectrum
of 2-pinene is :

(A) 7 (B) 10

(C) 9 (D) 6

50. Which among the following substractes (R-I) is not suitable for the desired
reaction below :

(A)

(B) Ph—I

(C)

(D)

15 [P.T.O.

51. The major product of the following reaction is :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

16

52. An organic compound with molecular formula C4H10O shows the following

spect r al dat a i n 1H-NMR is : 0.9(t, J = 6 Hz, 3H) 1.1 (d, J = 6.5 Hz, 3H),

1.5 – 1.6(m, 2H), 3.6 (broad singlet, 1H, Ex. D2O), 3.9 (Sextet, J = 6.5 Hz, 1H).

The correct structure of the compound is :

(A)

(B) CH3—CH2—CH2—CH2—OH

(C)

(D)

53. T h e correct absolute configuration for the following compound is :

(A) 1R, 4R (B) 1R, 4S

(C) 1S, 4R (D) 1S, 4S

17 [P.T.O.

54. In the lowest energy conformation of the compound below, how many alkyl

substituents are axial ?

(A) 3 (B) 2

(C) 1 (D) 0

55. The major product of the following reaction is :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

18

56. The major product of the following reaction is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

19 [P.T.O.

57. The major product of the following reaction is :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

58. The major product of the following reaction is :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

20

59. The major product in the following reaction is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

21 [P.T.O.

60. The major product of the following reaction is :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

61. Major product in the following reaction sequence is :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

22

62. The major product of the following reaction is :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

63. The major product of the following reaction is :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

23 [P.T.O.

64. The major product in the following reaction is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

24

65. The major product of the following reaction is :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

25 [P.T.O.

66. The major product of the following reaction is :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

67. The major product of the following reaction is :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

26

68. The major product in the following reaction is :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

69. For the adsorption of N2 on activated carbon at 77 K :

(A) H = 0; S < 0 (B) H < 0; S < 0

(C) H > 0; S < 0 (D) S = 0; S = 0

70. The bond energies of O2(g) and N2(g) are 941 and 499 kJ/mol respectively.

If Hformation of NO is 90 kJ/mol, the bond dissociation energy of NO is :

(A) 810 kJ (B) 630 kJ

(C) 1130 kJ (D) 565 kJ

71. W h en U r an i u m –235 ( 235U) is bombarded with neutron, fission occurs and the

fragments formed are :

(A) 94Kr + 140Ba + 2n (B) 94Kr + 139Ba + 2n

(C) 94Kr + 139Xe + 2n (D) 94Kr + 140Ba + 1n

27 [P.T.O.

72. Activity when measured as counts per minute is .............. in case of a
mixture of two isotopes.
(A) Difference between the activities of the two isotopes
(B) Sum of the activity of each isotope
(C) Product of activities contributed by each isotope
(D) Ratio of activities of one isotope to the other
73. The isotope of carbon used for radiating is :
(A) 11 C (B) 12 C
(C) 13 C (D) 14 C
74. In a grand canonical ensemble, a system X of fixed volume is in contact with
a large reservoir Y, then :
(A) X can exchange only energy with Y
(B) X can exchange only particles with Y
(C) X can exchange neither energy nor particles with Y
(D) X can exchange both energy and particles with Y
75. A scientist attempts to replace a few carbon atoms in 1.0 g of diamond with
boron atoms or nitrogen atoms in separate experiments. Which of the following
is correct ?
(A) The resulting material with B doping will be an n-type semiconductor
(B) The resulting material with B doping will be a p-type semiconductor
(C) B doping is not possible as B cannot form multiple bonds
(D) The resulting material with N doping will be a p-type semiconductor
76. The DP of a polymer with average molecular weight of 25000 g/mol and monomer
weight of 254 g/mol will be :
(A) 68 (B) 88
(C) 98 (D) 78

28

77. The structural regularity of the polymers is often due to :

(A) Racemization

(B) Optical isomerism

(C) Geometrical isomerism

(D) Both optical and geometrical isomerism

78. Burgers vector is a measure of the lattice distortion due to the presence
of :

(A) point defect (B) line defect

(C) surface defect (D) volume defect

79. If is the fraction of the surface covered at PA (pressure of the adsorbate A),
then :

(A) rate of adsorption is proportional to × PA

(B) rate of desorption is proportional to (1 – ) × PA

Vads at PA
(C)
Vmax

Vmax
(D)
Vads at PA

80. Which of the following are state functions ?

(I) q + w (II) q

(III) w (IV) H – TS

(A) (I) and (IV) (B) (I), (II) and (III)

(C) (II), (III) and (IV) (D) (II) and (III)

29 [P.T.O.

81. If the radius of the hydrogen atom is 53 pm, the radius of the He+ ion will
be close to :

(A) 75 pm (B) 38 pm

(C) 106 pm (D) 27 pm

82. Enthalpy changes in chemical reactions from the data given below :

1 1
H I HI(g) ; H = 26.0 kJ
2 2(g) 2 2(s)

1 1
H2(g) I 2(g) HI(g) ; H = 5.0 kJ
2 2

H sublimation of I2 can be obtained as :

(A) 31 kJ (B) –62 kJ

(C) 62 kJ (D) 21 kJ

83. Work function of Al is 4.2 eV. When light with E = 6.2 eV is incident on an
Al surface, maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photo-electrons will be
(1 eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J) :

(A) 2.0 × 10–19 J (B) 9.9 × 10–19 J

(C) 3.2 × 10–19 J (D) 6.7 × 10–19 J

84. Which of the following equations corresponds to photoelectric effect ?

(A) h = W0 + K.E (B) h = W0 – K.E

(C) h = W0 + K.E (D) h = W0 – K.E

85. The molecule that has the same symmetry as that of NH3 is :

(A) BH3 (B) CHCl3

(C) CH4 (D) BF 3

30

86. The momentum operator in one-dimension is ...............

(A) (B) i
x t t

(C) i (D) i
x x

87. In which of the following pairs both the molecules will give pure rotational
spectra ?

(A) CH4 and CHCl3 (B) CH2Cl2 and CCl4

(C) CH2Cl2 and CHCl3 (D) CH4 and CCl4

88. Which point in the phase diagram best represents supercritical condition ?

(A) A (B) B

(C) C (D) D

31 [P.T.O.

89. H2(g) and N2(g) were placed in a vessel of constant volume and allowed to reach
equilibrium according to the following reaction :
3H2(g ) N 2(g) 2NH 3 ( H r n 92 kJ)

Which of the following is/are true for the system between t1t2 ?
(I) The temperature of the system will decrease.
(II) The rates of the forward and reverse reactions were equal.
(III) The rate of formation of NH3 is equal to the rate of disappearance of H.
(IV) If more NH3(g) is added to the system at time t2 while the temperature
is held constant, total pressure in the container will decrease.
(A) (I) and (II) (B) (II) and (IV)
(C) (III) only (D) (II) only
90. Which of the following are correct ?
(I) Henry’s law is applicable for the dissolution of O2 in water.
(II) Henry’s law is applicable for the dissolution of HCl in water.
(III) Dissolution of gases in liquids increases with pressure.
(IV) Unit of Henry’s law constant is atm–1.
(A) (I), (II), (III) (B) (I), (III)
(C) (II), (III), (IV) (D) (I), (III), (IV)

32

91. August 21, 1986, a cloud of CO2 gas suddenly erupted from a lake in cameroon.
Which of the following account for this incident ?

(I) Over the years CO2 has saturated in the upper layers of lake water.

(II) Over the years large quantities CO2 has dissolved in the bottom layers
of water.

(III) Heavy winds could have overturned the lake water.

(IV) This event is a natural phenomenon explained by Raoult’s law.

(A) (II), (III) and (IV) (B) (I), (III)

(C) (I), (II) and (IV) (D) (II), (III)

92. During the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of KCl which susbtance is formed
at the ................. cathode.

(A) Chlorine (B) Hydrogen

(C) Oxygen (D) Potassium

93. When a drop of liquid at the tip of a capillary is balanced by surface tensional
forces, its weight is equal to :

(A) r2 (B) 2 r

4 3
(C) /2 r (D) r
3

94. The pressure difference across a curved interface can be written as :

1 1 1 1
(A) P=r (B) P=r
R1 R2 R1 R2

1 1 1 1 1 1
(C) P= (D) P=
r R1 R2 r R1 R2

33 [P.T.O.

95. From the given below :
NaCl(s) Na (g) Cl(g) ; H10 786 kJ/mole

H2O(l) Na (g) Cl(g) Na (aq) Cl(aq) ;

H hyd H2 H3 783 kJ/mole
It can be inferred that :
(A) Enthalpy of hydration of NaCl is –3 kJ/mol
(B) Enthalpy of hydration of NaCl is –1569 kJ/mol
(C) Entropy change for dissolution of NaCl must be positive
(D) Enthalpy of hydration of NaCl is 1.5 kJ/mol
96. At high temperatures NO reacts with H2 to produce nitrous oxide N2O, a green-
house gas. According to the following stoichiometric equation :
2NO(g) + H2(g) N2O(g) + H2O(g)
The following experimental data was obtained at 820°C :

Which of the following is correct ?
2d[NO] d[H2O]
(A) k[NO][H2 ] (B) k[NO]2[H2 ]
dt dt
d[H2O] d[H2O]
(C) 1 10 7[NO]2[H2 ] (D) 1 107[NO]2[H2 ]
dt dt

34

97. The reaction between tert-butyl bromide and azide ions in an aqueous solution
is proposed to proceed through the following mechanism :
(CH3 )3CBr(aq) (CH3 )3C(aq) Br(aq)
(CH3 )3C(aq) + N3 (CH3 )3CH3(aq)
Assuming (CH3)3 C+ to be under steady state, which of the following is
correct ?
(I) Rate = k1 k2[(CH3 )3CBr][N3 ]/K 1[Br ]
(II) Rate = k1 k2[(CH3 )3CBr][N3 ]/k 1[Br ] k2[N3 ]
(III) If k2 >>> k–1 plot of [(CH3)3Br] Vs. ‘t’ will be straight line
(IV) If k2 >>> k–1 unit of experimental rate constant will be time–1
(A) (I) and (II) (B) (II) only
(C) (II) and (IV) (D) (II) and (III)
98. Point group of cyclohexane in :
(A) Chair form is D3d
(B) Boat form is C3V
(C) Both chair and boat form is C2V
(D) Boat form is D3d
99. The kinetic chain length of a polymer is defined as the :
(A) Number of monomer units consumed per active center
(B) Number of monomer units consumed per unit time
(C) Number of monomer units consumed per unit concentration
(D) Number of monomer units consumed per active center per unit
concentration
100. The number average molecular weight of a polymer can be determined by :
(A) Vapour pressure osmometry
(B) Sedimentation equilibrium method
(C) Light scattering method
(D) Viscosity method
35 [P.T.O.

ROUGH WORK

36