PU CET PG 2018 Question Paper MSc_2Yr__Human Genomics_

MSc(2Yr)(Human Genomics)
1. Genome is a collective term for
A) All DNA and RNA molecules within a cell
B) All DNA molecules within a cell
C) All DNA, RNA and protein molecules within a cell
D) All, DNA, RNA and prions within a cell

2. A nucleic acid has a
A) Sugar- diphosphate backbone B) Sugar-triphosphate backbone
C) Sugar-phosphate backbone D) Phosphate backbone

3. A pyrimidine has a
A) Single ring based on carbon atoms
B) Double ring based on carbon and nitrogen atoms
C) Single ring based on carbon and nitrogen atoms
D) Double ring based on carbon atoms

4. The difference between thymine and uracil is of
A) An ethyl group B) A methyl group
C) An acetyl group D) A carboxy group

5. During interphase of cell cycle, most of the chromatin is
A) As euchromatin B) As heterochromatin
C) As neochromatin D) As techochromatin

6. Kinetochores are
A) DNA-RNA complexes B) Protein complexes
C) RNA-protein complexes D) Protein-DNA complexes

7. Human mature erythrocytes are
A) Haploid B) Diploid C) Polyploid D) Nulliploid

8. Nucleic acids are
A) Polyanions B) Polycations C) Zwitterions D) Neutral

9. The initiator codon is the

A) Start of an open reading frame B) Start of replication
C) Start of splicing D) Start of supercoiling

10. tRNAs have a classic cloverleaf structure because of
A) Intermolecular hydrogen bonding B) Intermolecular phosphodiester bonds
C) Intramolecular hydrogen bonding D) Intramolecular covalent bonds

11. 3’ Untranslated region
A) Is at the end of a DNA molecule B) Is at the end of a mRNA
C) Is at the end of a rRNA D) Is at the end of a protein

12. Cyanobacteria are
A) Lithotrophs B) Organotrophs C) Autotrophs D) Chemotrophs
13. Carbon atom can form
A) Covalent single, double and triple bonds
B) Noncovalent single, double, triple bonds
C) Covalent single, and double bonds
D) Noncovalnet single and double bonds
14. Cellular dimensions are limited by
A) Rate of diffusion of solute molecules across cell membrane
B) Rate of synthesis of moleculescollision
C) Rate of enzyme catalysis
D) Rate of ATP synthesis
15. Archea is a
A) Kingdom of life B) Phylum
C) Phylogenetic group D) Type of bacteria

16. Which of the following does not protect body surfaces
A) Skin B) Gut microflora
C) Salivary amylase D) Mucus

17. Clonal selection occurs when antigen is encountered with
A) Neutrophils B) Mast cells C) T cells D) Basophils
18. Immunological unresponsiveness to self antigens is called
A) Tolerance B) Adaptive immunity
C) Memory D) Self defense

19. Which of the following microscopy techniques relies on the specimen interfering with the
wavelength of light to produce a high contrast image without the need for dyes or any damage
to the sample?.
A) Phase contrast microscopy B) Electron microscopy
C) Confocal microscopy D) Transmission electron microscopy

20. Which of the following applies to membrane lipids?
A) Scramblases and flipases catalyze flipping of lipid molecules between outer and inner
leaflets
B) Lipids can move spontaneously from one leaflet to another
C) There is no movement of lipids between outer and inner leaflets

D) Lipids have no movement in membranes.
21. With respect to their surrounding membrane system, which is the odd one out?
A) Nucleus B) Mitochondria
C) Endoplasmic reticulum D) Chloroplast

22. Which of the following is a secondary lymphatic organ?
A) Bone marrow B) Spleen C) Thymus D) Hypothalamus
23. Which antibody is primarily found in mucosal secretions?
A) IgG B) sIgG C) sIgA D) IgA
24. Which type of cell specifically destroys virally infected body cells?
A) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes B) Activated B lymphocytes
C) Phagocytic macrophages D) Plasma cells

25. Which of the following would NOT be true of a transition state analogue for an enzyme
catalysed reaction?
A) It is broken down rapidly by the enzyme
B) It binds to the enzyme's active site
C) It makes more interactions with the enzyme than the substrate
D) It is a powerful inhibitor of the enzyme

26. DNA polymerase contains a lysine residue that is important in binding to DNA. Mutations were
constructed in which this lysine residue was converted to either glutamate, glycine, valine OR
arginine. Which mutation would be predicted to be the most and which the least deleterious to
the ability of the polymerase to bind DNA?
A) Most: valine. Least: glutamate B) Most: arginine. Least: glutamate
C) Most: glutamate. Least: arginine D) Most: arginine. Least: glycine

27. A ribosome is involved in all of the following EXCEPT
A) Formation of a peptide bond
B) Checking fidelity of translation
C) Aminoacylation of tRNA
D) Binding of aminoacyl tRNA to mRNA

28. The specialised structures found at the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes are known as
A) Terminators B) Telomeres C) Centromeres D) Long terminal repeats

29. Hsp70 is a
A) Part of core histones B) Molecular chaperone
C) Part of nucleosome D) Part of replicon

30. Methylation of DNA in mammalian cells is most common at
A) CpG B) GpC C) ApC D) CpC
31. An RNA molecule can be radioactively labelled during its synthesis using
A) γ-32P ATP B) α-32P ATP
C) 32P- dideoxy -ATP D) 3H-thymidine

32. In a bacterial cloning plasmid, one function of a selectable marker could be
A) to code for an enzyme that destroys an antibiotic
B) to code for synthesis of an antibiotic
C) to kill the cell containing plasmid
D) to provide site for replication of plasmid
33. Ion exchange chromatography separates proteins on the basis of
A) Hydrophobicity B) Charge, density and shape
C) Charge and density D) Charge

34. HIV is
A) A virus which causes influenza B) A retrovirus which causes SAIDS
C) A retrovirus which causes AIDS D) A retracted virus which causes AIDS

35. According to Beer-Lamberts law, absorbance of a solute is not dependent upon
A) Concentration B) Density of the medium
C) Length of the light path D) Extinction coefficient

36. Evolution is:
A) Directed to a goal B) An intelligent design
C) A random ongoing process D) Over now

37. The bulk of stored energy in the human body is in the chemical form of
A) ATP B) Glucose C) Glycogen D) Triglycerides
38. In living systems, true criteria for spontaneity of a reaction is
A) Gibbs free energy B) Enthalpy
C) Change in entropy D) Change in Gibbs free energy

39. In living systems usually:
A) Pressure, volume and pH is variable
B) Amount of matter is variable
C) Pressure, temp, pH is constant
D) Pressure, temp, pH is variable
40. Methylation of DNA takes place in
A) Replication process B) Combination process
C) Gene imprinting D) DNA supercoiling

41. During starvation, the blood concentration of which hormone will show major increase
A) Insulin B) Glucagon C) FSH D) Leptin
42. Which of the following structures represents an interface between the nervous and endocrine
systems?

A) Thalamus B) Hypothalamus C) Cerebellum D) Cerebrum
43. One among following is not an allosteric protein
A) GPCRs B) Aspartate transcabamylase
C) Immunoglobins D) Hemoglobin

44. Which one of the following groups of compounds are hormones not formed from?
A) Proteins B) Steroids C) Peptides D) Carbohydrates
B)
45. Which of the following is not the site of action of insulin?
A) Skeletal muscle B) Smooth muscle
C) Liver D) Adipose tissue

46. If the partial pressure of carbon dioxide increases, what happens to the blood pH?
A) It will increase B) It will decrease
C) It will not change D) It will fluctuate constantly

47. mRNA with caps are found in
A) Prokaryotic systems
B) Eukaryotic systems
C) Both in prokaryotic and eukaryotic systems
D) None of the above
48. One of them is involved in translation in prokaryotes
A) RF-5 B) EF-K C) RF-3 D) EF-U
49. In transcription of a gene, the slowest step is
A) Elongation B) Termination C) Release D) Initiation
50. Which of the following process is governed by molecular recognition?
A) Brownian motion B) Passive diffusion
C) Translation by the ribosome D) Osmosis

51. Which one of the following factors would reduce the affinity of oxygen for haemoglobin?
A) Decreased pH B) Increased pH
C) Increased plasma conc. of calcium D) Decreased 2, 3, BPG

52. If the contents of the intestinal lumen are more concentrated than the blood, water will be:
A) Absorbed into the body B) Secreted into the lumen
C) No movement of water will occur D) Active transport of water into the body

53. Histones are
A) RNA binding proteins B) Regulatory proteins
C) DNA binding proteins D) Not proteins

54. The majority of carbon dioxide is transported from tissue to lungs
A) Dissolved in plasma B) Attached to plasma proteins
C) Attached to hemoglobin D) As bicarbonate ions

55. Drosha is a
A) Lipid B) Ligase C) Endoribonuclease D) Exoribonuclease
56. Biological membranes are associated with all of the following except
A) Free movement of proteins and nucleic acids across the membrane

B) Sites for biochemical reactions
C) Release of protons when damaged
D) Prevention of free diffusion of ionic solutes

57. In humans, uric acid is an (excreted) end product in the catabolism of
A) Urea B) Amino acids C) Urines D) Lpyrimidines

58. RNA can make
A) Secondary structures only
B) No structures at all
C) Secondary as well as tertiary structures
D) Only primary structures
59. Proteins three dimensional structure can be determined by
A) Immunoelectron microscopy B) X-ray crystallography
C) MRI D) FTIR

60. Megaloblastic anemia is due to lack of
A) Vitamin B3 B) Vitmain K C) Vitamin B9 D) Vitamin B12
61. Which of the following is not a tandemly repeated DNA sequence?
A) LINES B) Histone genes
C) Ribosomal RNA genes D) Telomeres

62. Which enzyme catalyzes unwinding of DNA?
A) Unwindase B) Topoisomerase C) Helicase D) Flipase
63. In protein synthesis, tRNA acts as a
A) Connector molecule B) Linker molecule
C) Adaptor molecule D) Ligator molecule

64. How many different tRNA molecules are present in a human cell
A) More than twenty B) Just twenty
C) Less than twenty D) Sixty four

65. How many amino acids are encoded by the following mRNA sequence? CUUGAAGCGAUAUGA
A) 6 B) 5 C) 4 D) 3
66. Which among the following amino acid is coded by just one codon?
A) Glycine B) Alanine C) Methionine D) Proline
67. What is the energy source during elongation phase of protein synthesis?
A) CTP B) ATP C) UTP D) GTP

68. Aquaporins are
A) Proteins which mediate water transport
B) Proteins that makes holes in membranes
C) Pores for exocytosis
D) Pores for endocytosis

69. What is the first amino acid incorporated into a polypeptide during bacterial translation?
A) Methionine B) Adenosylmethionine
C) Formylmethionine D) Methylatedmethionine

70. Diacylglycerol and calcium
A) Can act as second messengers B) Cannot act as second messengers
C) Have no role in signal transduction D) Are not of any use

71. What is a YAC
A) A vector B) A probe C) A microarray D) A DNA library

72. Among following which one is a G protein?
A) IF-5 B) IF-6 C) IF-5 D) EF-Tu

73. Which test is used to test the mutagenicity of a compound?
A) PCR B) ELISA C) RT-PCR D) Ames test

74. Living systems are
A) Isolated systems B) Closed systems
C) Open systems D) Not at all true systems

75. Which one is not required during PCR
A) ddNTPs B) dNTPs C) Taq polymerase D) Template

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