Karnataka Diploma CET 2017 Question Paper Electrical and Electronics

DIPLOMA - COMMON ENTRANCE TEST-2017
COURSE DAY : SUNDAY DATE : 02-07-2017
EE ELECTRICAL AND
ELECTRONICS TIME : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

MAXIMUM MARKS TOTAL DURATION MAXIMUM TIME FOR ANSWERING
180 200 MINUTES 180 MINUTES

MENTION YOUR QUESTION BOOKLET DETAILS
DIPLOMA CET NUMBER VERSION CODE SERIAL NUMBER

B- 1 21G310
DOs :
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11=11
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IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. This question booklet contains 180 (items) questions and each question will have one statement and four
answers. (Four different options / responses.)
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that this booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items etc., if so, get it replaced by a
complete test booklet. Read each item and start answering on the OMR answer sheet.
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• Read each question (item) carefully.
• Choose one correct answer from out of the four available responses (options / choices) given under
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Completely darken / shade the relevant circle with a BLUE OR BLACK INK BALL POINT PEN
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to you to carry home for self-evaluation..
8. Preserve the replica of the OMR answer sheet for a minimum period of ONE year.

EE-BI 11111111111111111111111

PART - A
APPLIED SCIENCE

1. The equation of motion of a body tbr distance travelled S„ ' in the n a'' second is given by

(A) S„ = u + 2-(2n - I) (B) Sr, =u-2-(2n-l)

(C) S, = u + 2-(2n +1) (D) S„ = u -.11-(2n + I)

2. A bullet of mass 0.01 kg is tired with a velocity of 96() ms-1 from a rifle of mass 3 kg. the
velocity of recoil of rifle is

(A) -320 ms-I (B) -0.31 ms-1

(C) -3.2 ms-I (D) ms-1

3. One of the following is not a scalar quantity :
(A) Mass (B) Density
(C) Force (D) Speed

4. !fa body fixed about a point rotates in clockwise direction, the Moment of force is - measured
as
(A) Positive (B) Negative -
(C) Zero (D) Equal

5. The resultant magnitude of two -forces P and Q acting in same line and in same direction is
(A) P-Q (B) P+Q
P
(C) Q - P (D)
Q

B-1

6. The resultant magnitude of two forces 6 N and 8 N acting at right angles to each other is

(A) 100 N (B) 10 N

(C) 48 N (D) 14 N

7. The value of resultant magnitude of two forces acting at a point is maximum, when the
angle between the two forces is

(A) 0° (B) 90°

(C) 180° (D) 45°

8. Rise of liquid in a capillary tube is due to

(A) Energy (B) Viscosity

(C) Surface tension (D) Pressure

9. The ratio of volume stress to volume strain is called

(A) Bulk modulus (B) Young's modulus

(C) Rigidity modulus (D) Poisson's ratio

10. The reciprocal of bulk modulus of elasticity is called

(A) Compressibility (B) Rigidity

(C) Plasticity (D) Modulus of elasticity

11. The force of cohesion is maximum in

(A) Solids (B) Gases

(C) Liquids (D) Plasma

EE 3 11-1

12. The value of surface tension is 80 dyne/cm. What will be its value in Nm-I ?

(A) 8x102 Nm-I (B) 80 NirlI

(C) 8x10' Nm-1 (D) 8x10/

13. Pressure at the bottom of a container having base area of 10 m2 tilled with water to a height
of 10 m is

(A) 9.8 x 104 Pa (B) 980 x 104 Pa

(C) 9.8 x 10-4 Pa (D) 980 x 10-4 Pa

14. 100°C when expressed in absolute scale is

(A) 100 K (B) O K

(C) 273 K (D) 373 K

15. Gas law which gives the relation between pressure and volume changes is

(A) Boyle's law (B) Charles' law

(C) Gay7 Lussac's law (D) Hooke's law

16. Amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one gram of water through I °C is

(A) Heat capacity (B) Conductivity

(C) Caloric (D) Joule

17. An example of longitudinal wave is

(A) Sound waves (B) Waves on the surthee of water

(C) Light waves (D) Electromagnetic waves

B-1 4 EE

18. The relation between velocity of sound v, and absolute temperature T is

(A) v « T (B) va—
T

(C) v oc -17 (D) v o< T2

19. The distance between a node and the next antinode in a stationary wave is equal to
(A) one wavelength (B) half wavelength
(C) twice wavelength (D) one fourth wavelength

20. Damage caused by marching military columns to the suspension bridge is due to
(A) Echo (B) Resonance
(C) Beats (D) Interference

21. During forced vibrations, if the forced frequency is F1 and natural frequency is F, , the body
resonates if
(A) Fi > F, (B) F, >

(C) F1 =2.5 F, (D) F1 = F,

22. The fundamental frequency of transverse vibrations of the stretched string is inversely
proportional to
(A) tension (B) length of string
(C) square root of tension (D) square root of length of string .

23. Minimum length of a hall to produce an echo is
(A) 50 m (B) 34m
(C) 25 m (D) 17m

F. 5 B-1

24. The property of light that Huygen's wave theory could explain is
(A) Polarisation (B) Photoelectric effect
(C) Interference (D) Compton effect

25. The- spectrum of black body radiation is successfully explained by

(A) Newton's corpuscular theory of light

(B) Huygen's wave theory of light

(C) Maxwell's electromagnetic theory of light
(D) Planck's quantum theory of light

26. For constructive interference of light, the path difference should be

(A) (B) (2n +1)

(C') (2n +1)— (D) (2n +1)-
4

27. Two very close objects are just resolved if the central maximum of one object is on

(A) central maximum of another

(B) first minimum of another

(C) beyond second minimum of another

(D) between central maximum and first minimum of another

28. The light is incident at polarising angle 0i, andthe angle of refraction is r, then

(A) Op+ r = 0° (B) 0 + r = 90°

(C) Op+ r = 180° (D) 011+ r = 360°

B-1 6 EE

19. Minimum energy required to remove an electron from the metal surface is called
(A) Kinetic energy (B) Potential energy
(C) Work function (D) Energy function

30. When the size of the scattering particle is small, the intensity of scattered light is inversely
proportional to
(A) fourth power of wavelength (B) square of wavelength
(C) square root of wavelength (D) cube of wavelength

31. Time for which an atom stays in metastable state is of the order of
(A) Seconds (B) Milli-seconds
(C) Micro-seconds (D) Nano-seconds

3/. If an element emits 13-ray then its atomic number
(A) increases by one (B) decreases by one
(C) remains same (D) decreaSes by two

33. If the concentration of H+ ions is more than I 0-7 gin ion per litre, the solution is
(A) Base (B) Acid
(C) Neutral (D) Both Acid and Base

34. A galvanic cell is one in which
(A) chemical energy produce electric energy
(B) electric energy produce chemical energy
(C) chemical energy will not produce electric energy
(D) electric energy will not produce chemical energy

FE 7 B-1

35. The S.I. unit of Coefficient of Viscosity is
(A) Poise (B) NSm-2

(C) NS-Im2 (D) NS-1 n

36. The prefix used for 10+9 is
(A) Mega (B) Tera
(C) Giga (D) Hecta

37. The physical quantity which has the dimensional formula [MOT-2 is

(A) Force (B) Surface tension
(C) Viscosity (D) Work

38. The least count of slide callipers is given by

(A) 1 MSD + 1 VSD (B) 1 MSD x 1 VSD

1 MSD
(C) I MSD 1 VSD (D)
1 VSD

39. The product of force and time is

(A) Momentum (B) Moment
(C) Impulse (D) Acceleration

40. The change in position of a particle in a particular direction is referred to as
(A) Speed (B) Displacement

(C) Velocity (D) Acceleration

B-1 8 EE

PART — B
APPLIED MATHEMATICS

41. The sine of the angle between the vectors (2i — 2j + k) and 2i + j + 2k is
GS -N 65".
(A) (B)
3 V3

(c) s (D) 65
9

tan245+cot230
42. If x sin2 45 — then the value of x is
sin45+ cos-45
(A) 4 (B) 2
(C) 6 (D) 8

4 71 3 / 71 . 7i
43. The value of —sec- — —cosec- —+— tan- -- 2 — is
3 3 6 4 4 3
11 53
(A) (B)
12 12
7
(C) (D) --
12 12

44. The value of
sec 2
3+O
(-)r
sin (90-0) 2 tan (180-0) .
+ is
cos (360— 0) cosec(it+ 0) tan (-0)
(A) I (B) —I
(C) 3 (D) 2

45. The value of cosec 43 cot 43 cot 47 cos 47
(A) 1 (B). 0
(C) —I (D) 2
Spitce For Rough Work

FE 9 B-1

t 69° + tan 66°
The value of tan
46.
1- tan 69° tan 660
(B) -I
(D)

A
47. If tan -- =.v then sin A + tan A is

4x 4x
(A) x2
(B)
- ! +x'
4x 4x
(C) (D) I_ .v4
1+ x4

48. The value of sin 70° - sin 50° - sin I0° is
(A) I (B) 0
I
(C) -1 (D)

49. x is also equal to

(A) cosec - (B) cosec x

1
(C) cosec-1 (D)
sin x

50. Centroid divides the median in the ratio
(A) 2: 1 (B) I:2
(C) 1 : 1 (D) 1:4

51. The co-ordinates of a pOint which .divides the line join of the points. (a + b, a - b) and
(a - b. a 4- b) in the ratio 2 : 3 is
5a + 5b 5a - 5b a+b a -b
(A) (B)
- 5 5
5a + b 5a -L. h 5a — b a+ 5b
(C) (D)
5 5 5 5

13-1 10 EE

52. The equation of straight line whose intercepts are 3 and 5 on the axes is
(A) 5x — 3y= 15 (B) 5x + 3y = 15
(C) 5x + 3y = 1 (D) 15x + 15y = 1

53. The angle between the lines whose slopes are -Nig and respectively is
3
7r 7C
(A) — (B) —
6 3

(C) - (D) )•
4

54. The equation of the straight line passing through (2, 3) and x intercept is twice its y intercept
is
(A) x + 2y = 8 (B) — 2y = 8
(C) +y=4 (D) 2x + 2y = 8

55. The equation to the line passing through the point (-6, 7) and parallel to the line joining
(3, 4) and (6, —8) is
(A) 4x + y + 31 =0 (B) + 4y - 1 =0
(C) x - 4y + 1 =0 (D) 4x + y + 17 = 0

56. lim (sec 0 — tan 0) is equal to
--)7t
(A) 0 (B) 1

(C) (D) TC

x—4
57. lim is equal to
x --44 3—V13—x
(A) 3 (B) 9
(C) 6 (D) 0

dy
58. If y = (1+ log x , then — is
(lX
5
(A) 5(log.04 (B) :- (1-Flogx)4

(C) 5(1+ log x)4 (D) 5x4 logx

59. ItiA = cos t and y = sin t, then —y is
dx
(A) —1 (B) 1
,1
(C) (D) ,
21/1—t 2 VI -t2

60. If y = x log y, then — is
dx
log y
(A) (B)
—y —y

log y' log y'
(C') (D)
—y

x +I , dv
61. If y = , then --:- i s
.1- + 2 dx
I /x+ 3
(A) (B)
(x + 2)2 (x+ 2 )2
(D) ,x-3
(C) (` + 2)2 (x+ 2)-

O. The equation of tangent to the curve y2 = 4x at ( I, 2) is
(A) x -F y 3 = 0 (B) x — y + = 0
(C') 2x y = 0 (D) 2x + y — 4 =

B-1 12 LE

63. The maximum value of 7 - 8x - 2.v2 is
(A) 15 (B) -4
(C) -2 (D) 31

64. . The value of flog 2x dx is
(A) .v log 2x + x + C (B) x log 2.v - x + C
1 1
(C) — +C (D) -+C
2x

65. The value of f see4 X • tan xdx
see 4X
(A) +C (B) 4 sec4x + C
4
4
tan X
(C) 3 sec2x + C (D) +C
4

66. The value of f.vlogxdv is
"fr
x, x- x- , x
(A) — logx--+1... (B)

(C) —
2 logx -x-
—+ (D) — logx + — +C
4 4

67. tan -.v dx is equal to

7i
--1
(A) 4 (B) 1 -
4
71.2 n2
(C) (D) -
16 16

EE 13 8-1

68. The value of ix — x2 dx is

(B) 0

(C) oo (D)
3

69. The volume generated by revolving the line y = x + 1 about the x-axis between the ordinates
x = 0 and x = 2

76 n 107E
(A) units (B) units
3 3

(C) units (D) 4 units
3

I/3

70. The degree and order of the differential
rential equation = 1+ dy are
dx- dx

(A) 2 and 1 (B) 1 and 2

(C) 3 and 2 (D) 2 and 3

dy
71. The solution of differential equation — + y tan x = sec x is
dx

(A) y sec x = tan x + C

(B) y sin x = sec x + C

(C) log(sec = tan x + C

(D) y see x = —cot x + C

B-1 14 EE

I /
72. The value of x if 2 x 3 = 0 is
3 4 3

(A) 0 (B) —3

(C) 3 (D) 18

73. The value ofx, if 4x + y= 7, 3y +4= =5 and 3z + 5.v = 2 is

(A) 0 (B) 1

(C) 3 (D) —1

[2 —I
74. If A = then A-1 is
3 —4

1—4 [— 4 1-
(A) — (B) — —5
5 I

—4 — I 11
(D) --
I 2 11 —3 2

2 — I-
75. The characteristic equation of the matrix A = is
5 —6

(A) A2 + 8A — 71=0 (B) A2 +4A-171=0

(C) A2 + 4A + 71=0 (D) A2 +4A-71=0
Space For Rough \\fork

EE 15 13-1

5 1-
76. If 2 , then A is
1 3 2

[ 3 2]
(A) (B)
-2 0 [3'1 —2
0
3
(C) (D)
1_ 2 0

, / /4
77. The middle term of the expansion of( x- —=)- is
X

(A) 24 C10 210 .1'12 (B) 24 C1 1 112 .v12

(C) 24 C13210 x10 (D) 24011112 112

78. The term independent of x in 4 is
3.r )
(B) 9 C,(3)
..,
(D) 9 C6(:1)
4

79. If 3i — 2j + k, i — 3j + 5k, 2i + j — 4k are the sides of a triangle, then the triangle is
(A) Right angled triangle (B) Equilateral triangle
(C) Isosceles triangle (D) Isosceles right angled triangle

80. If 7,13 = (2, —1, 4) and i;) = (2, —3, 4), then projection of -a3 on g is
3
(A)21 (B)
V
_ _73
(C) (D)
-%/29 71

B-1 16 EE

•

PART — C

ELECTRICAL & ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING

81. The peak factor for a sine wave is given by
(A) RMS value / Peak value (B) Peak value / RMS value
(C) Mean value / Peak value (D) Mean value / RMS value

82. is a phenomena due to which an emf is induced in the second coil due to a
change in current in the first coil.
(A) Dynamic induction (B) Self induction
(C) Mutual induction (D) Static induction

83. The power dissipation of pure capacitor is
(A) Low (B) Zero
(C) High (D) Less than one

• 84. In RLC series circuit if XL = Xc, then the power Iiictor is
(A) leading (B) lagging
(C) 1 (D) zero

85. The energy stored in a capacitor is given by all the equations except
CV2
(A) E= QV (B)

(C) E = Q2 (D) E — QCV

86. Power taken by 3 phase load is given by expression
(A) VI I / cos 0 (B) 43 VOL cos 0
(C) Vph 11)11 cos 41) (D) -1-
3 VphIph cos 0

87. N type semiconductors are formed when impurity is added to a pure
semiconductor.
(A) Trivalent (B) Tetravalent
(C) Bivalent (D) Pentavalent

FE 17 B-1

88. PN diode is mainly used in
(A) Rectifiers (B) Amplifiers
(C) Voltage Regulators (D) Oscillators

89. Transistor is used as amplifier in mode.
(A) CC' (B) CE
(C) CB (D) None of the above

90. The input impedance ofJFET is
(A) zero (B) low
(C) high . (D) 100

91. The material used tOr I.ED is
(A) Silver oxide (B) Germanium oxide
(C) Platinum trioxide (D) Gallium arsenide

92. When one of the inputs to a two input NAND gate is at logic 'zero' the output will be

(A) logic 'zero'
(B) logic 'high'
(C) dependent on the other input condition
(D) None of the above

93. 2's complement of 10100 is
(A) 01011 (B) 10100
(C) 01100 (D) 10001

94. According to Boolean algebra (A + AB) is equal to

(A) A (B) B

(C) AB (D) 1

t3-1 18 EE

95. Each individual term in SOP form is called
(A) Max term (B) Min term
(C) SOP term (D) POS term

96. Binary equivalent of hexadecimal number (6CE)16 is
(A) (11001001110), (B) (011011001110),
(C) (011011001010), (D) (011011001101),

97. The PIV rating of diode in Full wave Bridge rectifier is
(A) Vm (B) 2Vm
(C) (D) V11114

98. type Bias is called universal bias for a transistor.
(A) Base resistor bias (B) Emitter feedback bias
(C) Collector feedback bias (D) Potential divider bias

99. With negative feedback, the bandwidth - of amplifier
(A) increases (B). decreases.
(C) remains unchanged (D) None of the above

IN. An oscillator employs feedback.
(A) positive (B) negative
(C) no (D) neutral

101. In a full adder, when inputS A = 1, B = 1 and Ci = 0, the sum(S) and carry(CY) are
(A) S = 0, CY = 0 (B) S = 0, CY = 1
(C) S= 1, CY = 0 (D) S= 1, CY = 1

102. The race around problem is overcome using •
(A) SR flip flop (B) JK flip flop
(C) T-flip flop (D) Master-slave JK flip flop

EE • 19 B-1

103. The maximum modulus of a counter using 5 Clip flops is
(A) 8 (B) 10
(C) 32 (D) 40

104. The number of control inputs for an S : 1 multiplexer is
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 8

105. The most widely used ADC is
(A) Dual slope ADC (B) Single slope ADC
(C) Counter type ADC (D) Successive approximation ADC

106. . requires refreshing by periodic recharging to retain data.
(A) Static RAM (B) Dynamic RAM
(C) Bipolar RAM (D) EPROM

107. To reduce Eddy current losses, the armature of de machine is
(A) made of silicon steel (B) provided with dummy coils
(C) laminated (D) provided with interpoles

108. In lap winding the number of brushes is always equal to
(A) two only (B) double the number poles
(C) half the number poles (D) same as number of poles

109. Which DC motor is preferred tier elevator ?
(A) Shunt motor (B) Differentially compound motor
(C) Synchronous motor (D) Series motor

110. In a DC shunt motor. the supply voltage V is given by
(A) V = Et, + (R,1 + Rs`) 4- V1,1.„,11
(B) r-r F, + Ra + V, ,
oruNa
(C') V = Eh — (R„ + R,)— Vbrush

(D) V = Eb — la R.1

R-1 20 EE

1 1 1. Which characteristic of DC motor is also called mechanical characteristic '?
(A) Speed vs. Torque (B) Torque vs. 1,,

(C) Speed vs. 1. (D) Eb vs. I f

112. Which of the following motor has constant speed ?
(A) Series (B) Shunt
(C) Cumulatively compound (D) Differentially compound

113. Which of the following motor is suitable for computer printer ?
(A) Reluctance motor (B) DC series motor
(C) Stepper motor (D) Hysterisis motor

114. The need not he same for proper parallel operation of 3-4 alternators.
(A) Phase sequence (B) Frequency
(C) Terminal voltage (D) Current rating

115. For a 250 rpm, 50 Hz alternator, the number of poles will he
(A) 24 (B) 8
(C) 12 (D) 6

116. In case of alternators, the dark and bright lamp method is used for
(A) Load balancing (B) Phase sequence
(C) Synchronizing (D) Load transfer

117. The emf induced in the windings of a transformer will
(A) Independent of the core flux
(B) In phase with the core flux
(C) Lags the core flux by 90°
(D) Leads the core flux by 90°

Space For Rough NVork

21 B-1

118. The emf induced in the secondary winding of a 50 Hz single-phase transformer having 1000
turns on its secondary is 222 V. The maximum flux density in the core is 0.1 Wb/m2. The
cross-section area of the core is
(A) 0.1 in2 (B) 0.01 in2
(C) I m2 (D) 0.001 m2

119. The ratio of the size of an auto transformer to the two winding transformer is
(A) (n — 1)/n (B) (1 — n)/n
(C). n/(n —I ) (D) n/(1 — n)

120. A 3-phase, 6 poles induction motor is supplied from 50 Hz, .400 V supply which runs at
960 rpm then percentage slip is
(A) 4% (B) 40%
(C) 20% (D) 45%

121. The condition tin• maximum torque in an induction motor is when
(A) rotor resistance equal to sliptims rotor reactance
(B) rotor resistance greater to sliptims rotor reactance
(C) rotor resistance equal to rotor reactance
(D) rotor resistance greater to rotor reactance

122. The no-load test is conducted in an induction motor to determine
(A) copper loss of rotor only
(B) copper loss of stator only
(C) copper loss of stator, core loss, friction and windage loss
(D) core loss only

123. The torque power factor of an induction motor will be high when
(A) running at no-load (B) running at full load
(C) rotor is blocked (D) the rotor is crawling

B-1 22 EE

124. The damper windings is provided in a synchronous motor to
(A) develop starting current (B) reduce starting current
(C) develop starting torque (D) reduce starting torque

125. Synchronous speed of a synchronous motor
12 0 12 0 f
(A) Ps = pf (B) — p

1 20 P Pf
(C) (D) =l
20

126. Direction of rotation of slit,phase type induction motor can be reversed by
(A)- Reversing the supply terminal
(B) Reversing the connections of only the auxiliary winding terminals
(C) Reversing the connection of either main winding or the auxiliary winding terminals
( D) Reversing the connection of only the main winding terminals

127. The degree of repeatability in a set of measurements is known as
(A) Accuracy (B) Precision
(C) Sensitivity (D) Error

128. The example of absolute instrument is
(A) Energy meter (B) Wattmeter
(C) `D' Arsonval galvanometer (D) Tangent galvanometer

- 129. Wheatstone's Bridge is used to measure

(A) low resistance (B) medium resistance
(C) high resistance (D) insulation resistance

130. The range of DC voltmeter is extended by using
(A) Multipliers (B) Shunts
(C) CTs (D) PTs

EE 23 B-1

4

131. Brake magnet are used in
(A) Energymeters (B) Wattmeters
(C) Ammeters (D) Voltmeters

132. If I is the current to be measured, Im is the current flowing through the ammeter and R1 is
the meter resistance, then the value of shunt resistance for extending the range of the DC
ammeter is. given by R =
I m Rm I m Rm
(A) (B)
- —

+ — 1111
(C) R (D)
- m - -m I m Rm

133. In transmission, the channel capacity is shared by both communicating
devices at all times.
(A) Simplex (B) Half-duplex
(C) Full-duplex (D) Automatic

134. Routing algorithm is handled by layer.
(A) Presentation (B) Network
(C) Datalink (D) Session

135. A carbon microphone is a
(A) variable resistance device (B) variable inductance device
(C) variable capacitance device (D) variable LC device

136. The uplink and downlink frequencies are made different in satellite links in order to
(A) Reduce transmitter power
(B) Increase isolation between transmitter and receiver
(C) Reduce antenna size
(D) Reduce receiver size

B-1 24 EE

137. Signal propagation in waveguides is by
(A) Electrons (B) Electrical & magnetic field
(C) Holes (D) Neutrons

138. Measuring physical conditions at some remote locations and transmitting this data for
analysis is called
(A) Telemetry (B) Demodulation
(C) Modulation (D) Multiplexing

139. Demand factor is given by
(A) Individual average demand / Plant capacity
(B) Maximum demand / Connected load
(C) Average.load / Maximum demand
(D) Station output in kWh / Power plant capacity

140. Which of the following is not a major consideration while selecting the site for Nuclear
power plant ?
(A) Safety of plant (B) Disposal of waste
(C) Availability of water (D) Head of water

141. In Hydro power plant, the power generated is given by the equation P =
735.5
(A) 75 QFlr kW (B) 73.5 QH1-1 kW

735.5
(C) 73.5 QH/n kW (D) 755 QH kW

142. Photovoltaic solar energy conversion system makes use of
• (A) Fuel cells (B) Solar cells
(C) Solar ponds (D) Surface mirrors

EE 25 B-1

143. In thermal power plants, the extracts heat from flue gases and makes the air
hot before entering into the boiler.
(A) Economizer (B) Superheater
(C) Air preheater (D) Condenser

144. In a thyristor holding current is
(A) equal to latching current (B) less than latching current
(C) more than latching current (D) none of the above

145. Natural commutation of a thyristor takes place when
(A) Anode current becomes zero
(B) Gate current becomes zero
(C) Voltage across the device becomes zero
(D) Voltage across the device becomes negative

146. In a step up chopper output voltage V() is

(A) less than Vs (B) more than V,

(C) equal to V, (D) none of the above

147. The number of thyristors required ti► r single- phase to single-phase mid-point cyclo-
converter
(A) 6 (B) 8
(C) 4 (D) 2

148. A dual converter is generally used where
(A) reversible d.c. is required
(B) a rectifier, the other as an inverter
(C) an inverter, the other as an amplifier
(D) an inverter, the other as an oscillator

B-1 26 EE

149. SNIPS are superior to linear power supplies in respect of
(A) size and efficiency (B) efficiency and regulation
(C) regulation and noise (D) noise and cost

150. In an RC tiring circuit the tiring angle control range is
(A) 0° to 90° (B) 0° to 180°
(C) 0° to 240° (D) 0° to 360°

151. Inverters arc used to convert
(A) AC to DC (B) DC to AC
(C) AC to variable AC (D) fixed dc to variable d.c.

152. Heat sink provided to SCR tbr
(A) Heating of SCR
(B) Increase forward conduction
(C) Cooling of SCR
(D) Block forward conduction

153. Buck/Boost converter is used to
(A) Stepping up only (B) Step down only
(C) Step up and Step down (D) Constant

154. Buchholz's relay is a - actuated relay.
(A) current (B) voltage
(C) gas (D) oil

155. A relay used for protection of motors against overload is
(A) Impedance relay
(B) Electromagnetic attraction type relay
(C) Thermal relay
(D) Translay relay

27 B-1

156. Outdoor type switch gear is generally used for voltage beyond
(A) 11 kV (B) 66 kV
(C) 33 kV (D) 132 kV

157. In which portion of the transmission system faults occur frequently '?
(A) Transformers (B) Overhead lines
(C) Alternators (D) Underground cables

158. Which of the following circuit breaker has the highest reliability and negligible maintenance'?
(A) Air blast (B) SF6
(C) Oil (D) Vacuum

159. The basic elements of an electric drive are
(A) Electric motor and transmission system
(B) Electric motor, transmission & control system
(C) Transmission and control system
(D) Electric motor and conversion equipment

160. In crushers. a motor has to start against
(A) Low load (B) Medium load
(C) Normal load (D) Heavy load

161. The motor normally used tbr crane travel is
(A) slip ring motor
(B) ward-Leonard control dc shunt motor
(C) synchronous motor
(D) ditThrential compound motor

162. Specific energy consumption is least in
(A) Urban service (B) Suburban service
(C) Mainline service (D) City service

B-1 28

163. When the speed of the train is estimated taking into account the time of stop at a station in
addition to the actual running time between stops is known as
(A) Average speed (B) Schedule speed
(C) Notching speed • (D) Free running speed

164. For heating of cover pages of hooks in book binding method can he employed.
(A) Eddy current heating (B) Induction heating
(C) Dielectric heating (D) Microwave heating

165. The basic principle of refrigeration is
(A) First law of thermodynamics (B) Second law of thermodynamics
(C) Lambert's cosine law (D) Planck's law

166. Aluminimum is difficult to weld due to
(A) It is light in weight
(B) It conducts away heat very rapidly
(C) Its melting point is low
(D) It is highly malleable

167. The process of providing an oxide film is known as
(A) Ionizing (B) Anodizing
(C) Alloying (D) None of the above

168. The function of choke in fluorescent tube circuit is
(A) reduce flickering
(B) reduce stalling current
(C) reduce starting surges
(D) initiate the arc and stabilizing it

29 B-1

169. The resistance of the conductor is
(A) directly proportional to its area of cross-section.

(B) inversely proportional to its length.

(C) inversely proportional to its resistivity.

(D) inversely proportional to its area of cross-section.

170. A parallel combination of two resistances 100 Q each is connected in series with another
parallel combination of two resistances 50 Q each. The effective resistance will be

(A) 150 Q (B) 300

(C) 7552 (D) 5000

171. The capacitance of a capacitor is given by C = Farads.

(A) Q • V (B) 2
V

(D)

172. has negative temperature co-efficient of resistance.

(A) Carbon (B) Copper

(C) Silver (D) Gold

173. The power consumed by a bulb having a resistance of 100 Q when connected across 200 V
supply is equal to

(A) 400 W (B) 200 W

(C) 100 W (D) 50 W

B-1 30 EE

174. A 200 W bulb is used tbr 5 hours a day. The monthly enemy consumption during the month
of April will be
(A) 1000 kWhr. (B) 100 kWhr.
(C) 30 kWhr. (D) 300 kWhr.

175. In a lead acid battery, the negative plate is made up of
(A) Pb (B) PhO,
(C) PhSO, (D) PbSO4

176. The capacity of batteries are expressed in
(A) Volt-ampere (B) Ampere-hour
(C) Ampere/hour (D) Volts

177. Which one of the tollowing materials have highest resistivity ?
(A) Nichrome (B) Constantin
(C) Carbon (D) Manganin

V
178. The ratio of T in reciprocity theorem is called

(A) Transfer inductance (B) Transfer conductance
(C) Transfer resistance (D) Transfer reactance

179. A passive network is the one which contains
(A) two sources of emf in it.
(B) only one source of emf in it.
(C) no source of emf in it.
(D) only one source of emf and resistance.

180. The property of material which opposes the creation of magnetic flux in it is known as
• (A) Maunetomotive force (B) Permeance
(C) Reluctance (D) Reactance

31 8-1

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