Karnataka Diploma CET 2017 Question Paper Chemical Engineering

DIPLOMA - COMMON ENTRANCE TEST-2017
COURSE DAY: SUNDAY DATE :02-07-2017
CH CHEMICAL
ENGINEERING TIME :10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
MAXIMUM MARKS TOTAL DURATION MAXIMUM TIME FOR ANSWERING
180 200 MINUTES 180 MINUTES

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A-1 207089
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CH-Al 11111111110111

PART — A

APPLIED SCIENCE

1. The S.I. unit of Coefficient of Viscosity is
(A) Poise (B) NSin

(C) NS-Im2 (D) NS-1 M-2

2. The prefix used for 10+9 is
(A) Mega (B) Tcra
(C) Giga (D) Hecta

3. The physical quantity which has the dimensional formula [MI21-2 is
(A) Force (B) Surface tension
(C) Viscosity (D) Work

4. The least count of slide callipers is given by

(A) I MSD 1 VSD (B) 1 MSD x I VSD

1 MSD
(C) 1 MSD — 1 VSD (D)
1 VSD

5. The product of force and time is
(A) Momentum (B) Moment
(C) Impulse (D) Acceleration

6. The change in position of a particle in a particular direction is referred to as
(A) Speed (B) Displacement
(C) Velocity (D) Acceleration

A-1 2 CH

7. The equation of motion of a body for distance travelled Sn ' in the ' nth ' second is given by

(A) S u + a--- (2n -1) (B)u - ( n -1)
a2

(C) Sn = u +`-11 (2n +1) (D) Sn = u - (2n + E)
2

8. A bullet-of mass 0.01 kg is fired with a velocity of 960 111S - from a rifle of mass 3 kg, the
velocity of recoil of rifle is

(A) -320 ms-1 (B) - 0.32 ms-1

(C) ms-1 (D) -32 ms-1

9. One of the following is not a scalar quantity :
(A) Mass (B) Density
(C) Force (D) Speed

10. If a body fixed about a point rotates in clockwise direction, the moment of force is measured
as

(A) Positive (B) Negative
(C) Zero (D) Equal

11. The resultant magnitude of two forces P and Q acting in same line and in same direction is
(A) P - Q (B) P + Q

(C) Q - P (D)

CH 3 A-1

12. The resultant magnitude of two forces 6 N and 8 N acting at right angles to each other is
(A) 100 N (B) 10 N

(C) 48 N (D) 14 N

13. The value of resultant magnitude of two forces acting at a point is maximum, when the
angle between the two forces is

(A) 0° (B) 90°

(C) 180° (D) 45°

14. Rise of liquid in a capillary tube is due to

(A) Energy (B) Viscosity

(C) Surface tension (D) Pressure

15. The ratio of volume stress to volume strain is called

(A) Bulk modulus (B) Young's modulus

(C) Rigidity modulus (D) Poisson's ratio

16. The reciprocal of bulk modulus of elasticity is called

(A) Compressibility (B) Rigidity

(C) Plasticity (D) Modulus of elasticity

17. The force of cohesion is maximum in

(A) Solids (B) Gases

(C) Liquids (D) Plasma

A-1 4 CH

18. The value of surface tension is 80 dyne/cm. What will be its value in Nm -1 ?

(A) 8 x102 Nm-1 (B) 80 Nm-'

(C) 8 x10-2 Nm-I (D) 8 x103 Nm-1

19. Pressure at the bottom of a container having base area of 10 m2 filled with water to a height
of 10 m is

(A) 9.8 x 104 Pa (B) 980 x 104 Pa

(C) 9.8 x 10-4 Pa (D) 980 x 10-4 Pa

20. 100 °C when expressed in absolute scale is
(A) 100 K (B) 0 K

(C) 273 K (D) 373 K

21. Gas law which gives the relation between pressure and volume changes is
(A) Boyle's law (B) Charles' law
(C) Gay-Lussac's law (D) Hooke's law

22. Amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one gram of water through 1 °C is
(A) Heat capacity (B) Conductivity
(C) Calorie (D) Joule

23. An example of longitudinal wave is
(A) Sound waves (B) Waves on the surface of water
(C) Light waves (D) Electromagnetic waves

CH 5 A-1

24. The relation between velocity of sound v, and absolute temperature T is

(A) v T (B) —
T

(C) v cx: (D) vacT2

25. The distance between a node and the next antinode in a stationary wave is equal to
(A) one wavelength (B) half wavelength
(C) twice wavelength (D) one fourth wavelength

26. Damage caused by marching military columns to the suspension bridge is due to
(A) Echo (B) Resonance

(C) Beats (D) Interference

27. During forced vibrations, if the forced frequency is F1 and natural frequency is F, , the body
resonates if

(A) Fi > F, (B) F, >

(C) = 2.5 F, (D) F1 =

28. The fundamental frequency of transverse vibrations of the stretched string is inversely
proportional to
(A) tension • (B) length of string
(C) square root of tension (D) square root of length of string

29. Minimum length of a hall to produce an echo is
(A) 50 m (B) 34 m
(C) 25 m (D) 17 m

A-1 6 CH

30. The property of light that Huytzen's wave theory could explain is
(A) Polarisation (B) Photoelectric effect

(C) Interference (D) Compton effect

31. The spectrum of black body radiation is successfully explained by

(A) Newton's corpuscular theory of light

(B) luygen' s wave theory of light

(C) Maxwell's electromagnetic theory of light

(D) Planck's quantum theory of light

32. For constructive interference of light, the path difference should be

2112,
(A)

(C) (2n +1)-
3

33. Two very close objects are just resolved if the central maximum of one object is on
(A) central maximum of another

(B) first minimum of another

(C) beyond second minimum of another

(D) between central maximum and first minimum of another

34. The light is incident at polarising angle Op and the angle of refraction is r, then

(A) OP+ r = 0° (B) OP+ r = 90°

(C) Op+ r = 180° (D) 0p+ r = 360°

CH 7 A-1

35. Minimum energy required to remove an electron from the metal surface is called
(A) Kinetic energy (B) Potential energy
(C) Work function (D) Energy function

36. When the size of the scattering particle is small, the intensity of scattered light is inversely
proportional to
(A) fourth power of wavelength (B) square of wavelength
(C') square root of wavelength (D) cube of wavelength

37. Time for which an atom stays in metastable state is of the order of
(A) Seconds (B) Milli-seconds
(C) Micro-seconds (D) Nano-seconds

38. If an element emits (3-ray then its atomic number
(A) increases by one (B) decreases by one
(C) remains same (D) decreases by two

39. If the concentration of H + ions is more than I o-7 gm ion per litre, the solution is
(A) Base (B) Acid
(C) Neutral (D) Both Acid and Base

40. A galvanic cell is one in which
(A) chemical energy produce electric energy
(B) electric energy produce chemical energy
(C) chemical energy will not produce electric energy
(D) electric energy will not produce chemical energy

A-1 8 CH

PART — B
APPLIED MATHEMATICS

1 7 3
41. The value of x if 2 x 3 = 0 is
3 4 3

(A) 0 (B) —3

(C) 3 (D) 18

42. The value of x, if 4x + y = 7, 3y + 4: = 5 and 3z + Sx = 2 is

(A) 0 (B) 1

(C) 3 (D) —1

2 —1
43. if A= then A-1 is
3 —41'

1 —4 —3 1 —4 1
(A) —— (B) —
5 1 2 5 —3 2

—4 —3 —4 Ii
(C) — I (D) —1
11 1 2 11 —3 2

2 —1
44. The characteristic equation of the matrix A — is
5 —6

(A) A2 + 8A — 71= 0 (B) A2 + 4A —1 71

(C) A2 + 4A + 71= 0 (D) A2 + 4A — 71= 0

CH 9 A-1

2 31 5 1
45. If + A -= , then A is
1 2j
7)_
3 .) _7-
(A) (B)
—2 0 0

—2 3- 0 3
(C) (D)
0 - 7

\ 24
46. The middle term of the expansion of is

24 ) .-)11) ,12 24011212 1 2
(A) (B)
24 c 2 10 x10 24 C122 12 X12
(C) 1 (D)

A
47. The term independent of.v ink x2 is
iv)
6
(A) C6 (4) (B) `) C,(3) -6

‘, 6
4 9C6 3
(C) C6 (D)
4,

48. If 3i — 2j + k, i — 3j 5k, 2i + j — 4k arc the sides of a triangle, then the triangle is
(A) Right angled triangle (B) Equilateral triangle
(C) Isosceles triangle (D) Isosceles right angled triangle

49. If a = (2, —1, 4) and i; = (2, —3, 4), then projection of a on his
23 23
(A) , (B) ,
J21 -\/?9
—23 _ 23
(C)
-\/'9

A-1 10 CH

50. The sine of the angle between the vectors (2i - 2j k) and 2i + j + 2k is
J65 . V65
(A) (B)
3 3

A/65
(C) (D) V65
9

tan245 + cot230
51. If x sin 45 - then the value of x is
sin-45 + cos-,45
(A) 4 (B) 2
(C) 6 (D) 8

4 Tr )a 3 ) 7r
52. The value of —see- --cosec- —+-- tan- -- 2 sin- is
3 6 4 4 3
11 53
(A) (B)
12 12
7 7
(C) (D)

53. The value of
/ -+3 7I \
sec 2+0
sin (90-0) i tan (180- 0) .
+ + is
cos (360-0) cosec (ri +0) tan (-0)
(A) I (B) -1
(C) 3 (D) 2

54. The value of cosec 43 cot 43 cot 47 cos 47
(B) 0
(D) 2

CH 11 A-1

The value of tan 69° + tan 66°
55.
- tan 69° tan 66°
(A) 1 (B) -1
(C) 0 (D)

A
56. if tan = x then sin A tan A is

4x 4x
(A) (B)
1- x- 1+ x`
4x 4x
(C) (D) 4
1 +X i -X

57. The value of sin 70° - sin 50° - sin 10° is
(A) 1 (B) 0
1
(C) -1 (D) -

58. sin-i .v is also equal to

(A) cosec - (B) cosec x
A)
1
(C) cosec 1 x (D)
sin x

59. Centroid divides the median in the ratio
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 :2
(C) 1 : 1 (D) 1 :4

60. The co-ordinates of a point which divides the line join of the points (a + 1), a - b) and
- b, a + b) in the ratio 2 : 3 is
5a + 5b 5a - 5b a +b a -b
(A) (B)
5 5 5
5a + b 5a - b 5a - b a + 5b
(C) (D)
5 5 5 5

A-1 12 CH

61. The equation of straight line whose intercepts are 3 and 5 on the axes is
(A) 5x — 3y = 15 (B) 5x + 3y = 15
(C) 5x + 3y = 1 (D) I5x + 15y = I

62. The angle between the lines whose slopes are Af3 and - respectively is

It Tr
(A) — (B) —
6 3

(C) (D)

63. The equation of the straight line passing through (2, 3) and x intercept is twice its y intercept
is
(A) + 2y = 8 (B) x — 2y = 8
(C) x + y — 4 (D) 2x + 2y = 8

64. The equation to the line passing through the point (-6, 7) and parallel to the line joining
(3, 4) and (6, —8) is
(A) 4x + y + 31 =0 (B) x + 4y — 1 = 0
(C) — 4y + 1 =0 (D) 4x + y + 17 = 0

65. lim (sec 0 — tan 0) is equal to
0 7/2
(A) 0 (B) 1

(C) -
7E- (D)
1

x— 4
66. lim is equal to
4 3 _V13 _ x
(A) 3 (B) 9
(C) 6 (D) 0

CH 13 A-1

67. If y = (1+ log x)) , then dY is
dl"

(A) 5(logx)4 (B) 5(1 + logx)

(C) 5(1 log x- )4 (D) 5x4 logx

dv
68. If x = cos-1 t and y t, then is
dx
(A) —I (B) 1
1
(C) (D)
F
2-\11— t- till - t2

69. If y = x log y, then —7"--
dv is

log xx log yA
(A)
—y x— y

logy'`
(C) logy
—y Yx

x +1 dy
70. If y then is
+2 dv
2x + 1
(A)

1
(C)
(x + 2)2

71. The equation of tangent to the curve y2 = 4x at (1, 2) is
(A) x + y — 3 = 0 (B) x — y + I =0
(C) 2.v — y 0 (D) 2x -+ y — 4 0

A-1 14 CH

72. The maximum value of 7 — 8x— 2x2 is
(A) 15 (B) —4
(C) —2 (D) 31

73. The value of f log 2x dx is
(A) x log 2.v + x + C (B) x log 2x x + C

(C) 1 +C (D) +C
2x

74. The value of fsec4 x • tan x dx

(A) sec 4.xx + C
(B) 4 see4.v + C
4

(D) tan4x
(C) 3 sec-x + C +C
4

75. The value of f x log x dx is

(A) X log .x— X +C
2 x
(B) log x +-- +C
? ? ?
1.2 2
X X
(C) logx-+C (D) log x ++ C
4 4

it/4
76. .1 tan 2 X dx is equal to
0

It
(A) —
Tr - (B) 1 —
4 4
n- 7I -
(C) (D) 1
16 6

CH 15 A-1

77. The value of Jxv'l—x2 dx i s
(1

(B) 0

I
(C) cc (D)
3

78. The volume generated by revolving the line y = x f 1 about the x-axis between the ordinates
x = 0 and x 2

76 TI 10 TE
(A) units (B) units
3 3
7)6
(C) units (D) 4 units
3

-11 3
dy
79. The degree and order of the differential equation day 1+ are
dx' Cdr,

(A) 2 and 1 (B) 1 and 2

(C) 3 and 2 (D) 2 and 3

dy
80. The solution of differential equation - + y tan x = see .v is
dx

(A) y see x = tan x + C

(B) y sin x = sec x + C

(C) log(sec x) = tan x + C

(D) y sec x = —cot x C

A-1 16 CH

PART — C
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING

It consists Of 81 to 180 questions :

81. Discharge in laminar flow through pipe varies
(A) as the square of the radius
(B) inversely as the pressure drop
(C) inversely as the viscosity
(D) as the square of the diameter

82. Potential flow is the flow of
(A) compressible fluids with shear
(B) compressible fluids with no shear
(C) incompressible fluids with shear
(D) incompressible fluids with no shear

83. The head loss due to sudden contraction is proportional to
(A) velocity (B) velocity head
(C) turbulence (D) None of these

84. Power loss in an orifice meter is that in venturimctcr.
(A) less than (B) same as
(C) more than (D) equal to

85. Slurries can be most conveniently pumped by a pump.
(A) Screw (B) Reciprocating
(C) Gear (D) Centrifugal

86. Pitot tube measures the of a fluid.
(A) pressure (B) average velocity
(C) average flowrate (D) point velocity

CII 17 A-1

87. Sewage sludge. is type of Non-newtonian fluid.
(A) Dilatant (B) Bingham plastic
(C) Psuedo plastic (D) None of these

88. What causes the cavitation in centrifugal pump
(A) High suction pressure (B) Low barometric pressure
(C) Low suction pressure (D) High suction velocity

89. Mercury is an ideal barometric fluid mainly due to its
(A) High density (B) Low compressibility
(C) Low capillary action (D) Very low vapour pressure.

90. Viscosity of water is about times that of air at room temperature.
(A) 15 (B) 55
(C) 155 (D) 1050

91. Velocity head on sudden enlargement in a horizontal pipe is converted into head.
(A) Elevation (B) Pressure
(C) Both elevation and pressure (D) Neither elevation nor pressure

92. Existence of boundary layer in fluid flow is because of the
(A) Surface tension (B) Fluid density
(C) Fluid viscosity (D) Gravity forces

93. Manometers measure the pressure.
(A) Vacuum as well as atmospheric (B) Difference in
(C) Absolute (D) Gauge

94. Bernoulli's equation does not apply to the functioning of
(A) Venturimcter (B) Orifice meter
(C) Pitot tube (D) None of these

A-1 18 CH

95. A globe valve is the most suitable for applications in which
(A) fluid flow control is required
(B) fluid contains dispersed solid particles
(C) valve is required either fully open or fully closed
(D) one way flow is required

96. For an ideal fluid flow, Reynold's number is
(A) 2100 (B) 100
(C) 0 (D) cc

97. Check valve is used for flow.
(A) Very precise control (B) Unidirectional
(C) Multidirectional (D) None of these

98. A rotameter works on the principle of pressure drop.
(A) constant (B) variable
(C) both constant and variable (D) neither constant nor variable

99. A streamline is
(A) the line connecting the midpoints of flow cross sections
(B) defined for uniform flow only
(C) drawn normal to the velocity vector at every point
(D) always the path of a particle

100. Bernoulli's equation is dependent on the
(A) First law of thermodynamics
(B) Third law of thermodynamics
(C) Law of conservation of momentum
(D) None of these

CH 19 A-1

101. Heat transfer by conduction is described by
(A) Fourier's law (B) Newton's law of cooling
(C) Stefan-Boltzmann law (D) Fick's law

102. According to Stefan-Boltzmann law, the radiant heat transfer is proportional to
(A) the absolute temperature.
(B) the second power of the absolute temperature.
(C) the third power of the absolute temperature.
(D) the fourth power of the absolute temperature.

103. Baffles used on shell side of heat exchanger will
(A) decrease heat transfer rate (B) increase heat transfer rate
(C) not affect heat transfer rate (D) decrease pressure drop on shell side

104. Dropwise condensation occurs on surface
(A) clean dirt free (B) smooth clean
(C) contaminated cooling (D) polished

105. Heat transfer rate per unit area is called
(A) Thermal conductivity (B) Heat flux
(C) Heat transfer co-efficient (D) Thermal diffusivity

106. Pick out the correct statement :
(A) Rate = Driving force x Resistance
(B) Driving force = Rate x Resistance
(C) Resistance = Driving force x Rate
(D) Rate = Resistance / Driving force

107. Prandtl number is given by —
Co C
(A) (B)
a k
hD
(C) (D)
k hC

A-1 20 CH

108. A 2-4 heat exchanger involves
(A) only counter flow of fluids
(B) only parallel flow of fluids
(C) both counter and parallel flow of fluids
(D) Smaller pressure drop compared to 1-2 exchanger

109. A black body does not radiation.
(A) absorb or emit (B) refract
(C) reflect (D) both refract and reflect

110. What is the logarithmic mean of r1 and r, ?
r, — — r7
(A) (B)
r
/n in

ri — r, r — r1
(C) (D)
ri ri
/n — /n --
r,

111. Diffusion is a process of
(A) movement of particles from region of higher concentration to one of lower
concentration
(B) movement of particles through a semipermeable membrane
(C) rarefaction of particles
(D) accumulation of particles on a solid surface

112. To separate a binary mixture the relative volatility should be
(A) equal to one (B) less than one
(C) greater than one (D) greater than zero

113. Flash distillation operation is suitable for separating components which
(A) boil at very close temperature
(B) boil at widely different temperatures
(C) form minimum boiling azeotrope
(D) form maximum boiling azeotrope

CH 21 A-1

114. Bound moisture in a solid is that liquid which exerts an equilibrium vapour pressure
(A) equal to that of the pure liquid at the given temperature
(B) less than that of the pure liquid at the given temperature
(C) greater than that of the pure liquid at the given temperature
(D) equal to or less than that of the pure liquid at the given temperature

115. The Si. unit of volumetric diffusivity is
(A) m2/s (B) m/s
(C) ins/s (D) m-/s-

116. In distillation overhead product contains
(A) only one component (B) two components
(C) any number of components (D) only saturated liquid

117. Rayleigh's equation applies to distillation
(A) differential (B) flash
(C) equilibrium (D) molecular

118. During drying operation it is easier to remove the moisture.
(A) equilibrium (B) critical
(C) unbound (D) hound

119. Drying of a wet solid under constant drying conditions means the exposure of the wet solid
to the air of constant
(A) humidity (B) velocity
(C) temperature (D) humidity, velocity and temperature

120. Which of the following is not a continuous drier'?
(A) Drum drier (B) Spray drier
(C) Tunnel drier (D) Tray drier

A-1 22 CH

121. Measurement of the amount of dry gas collected over water from volume of moist gas is
based on the
(A) Charles law (B) Dalton's law of partial pressure
(C) Avogadro's hypothesis (D) Boyle's law

122. N.T.P. corresponds to
(A) 1 atm absolute pressure and 0 °C (B) 760 mm Hg gauge pressure and 0 °C
(C) 760 ton and 15 °C (D) 101.325 kPa gauge pressure and 0 °C

123. Number of gram moles of solute dissolved in 1 kg of solvent is called its
(A) Normality (B) Molarity
(C) Molality (D) Formality

124. Volume percent for gases is equal to the
(A) weight percent
(B) mole percent
(C) weight percent only for ideal gases
(D) mole percent only for ideal gases

125. Internal energy is independent of the for an ideal gas.
(A) pressure (B) volume
(C) both pressure and volume (D) neither pressure nor volume

126. One Newton is equal to dynes.
(A) 102 (B) 103
(C) 104 (D) 105

127. Which of the following ratios defines the recycle ratio in a chemical process ?
(A) Gross feed stream / recycle feed stream
(B) Recycle stream / fresh feed stream
(C) Recycle stream / gross feed stream
(D) None of these

CH 23 A-1

128. A limiting reactant is the one, which decides the in the chemical reaction.
(A) equilibrium constant (B) conversion
(C) rate constant (D) none of these

129. Average molecular weight of air is about
(A) 21 (B) 29
(C) 23 (D) 79

130. Disappearance of snow in subzero weather exemplifies the process of
(A) Evaporation (B) Sublimation
(C) Vaporisation (D) Melting

131. The most suitable instrument, for measuring the temperature of a red hot furnace is
(A) Platinum resistance thermometer (B) Thermocouple
(C) Optical pyrometer (D) Bimetallic thermometer

132. Psychrometer is used for measuring
(A) humidity of gases (B) moisture content of solids.
(C) water of crystallisation (D) hygroscopic nature of solids

133. Bellows are made of thin sheets of
(A) leather (B) paper
(C) plastic (D) copper

134. Humidity of air is measured by a
(A) Polarimeter (B) Polarograph
(C) Hygrometer (D) Rotameter

135. Which of the following judges the accuracy of an instrument ?
(A) Dead zone (B) Drift
(C) Static error (D) Dynamic en•or

A-1 24 C11

136. The bulb of vapour pressure thermometer is a
(A) primary element (B) secondary element
(C) manipulating element (D) functioning element

137. Thermocouples use two
(A) dissimilar metal wires (B) similar metal wires
(C) similar metal strips (D) dissimilar metal strips

138. If a solution has pH = 2, it is
(A) highly acidic (B) weakly acidic
(C) neutral (D) alkaline

139. The disadvantage of using water as manometric liquid is its
(A) high vapour pressure (B) corrosive nature
(C) high boiling point (D) low vapour pressure

140. Generation of an e.m.f. when two solutions of different hydrogen ion concentration are
separated by a thin glass wall forms the working principle of
(A) CO2 analyser (B) Spectrometer
(C) pH meter (D) Polarograph

141. Offset
(A) varies with time (B) varies exponentially with time
(C) does not vary with time (D) varies as square of time

142. Steady state deviation resulting from a change in the value of the load variable is called the
(A) offset (B) error ratio
(C) deviation (D) static error

143. The mechanism which changes the value of the manipulated variable in response to the
output signal from the control unit is called the
(A) manipulating element (B) controlling element
(C) final control element (D) comparing element
Space For. Rough Work

CH 25 A-1

144. For which type of the following controllers, the offset is zero and it has the highest
maximum deviation ?
(A) P-I controllers (B) P-D controllers
(C) P controllers (D) P-I-D controllers

145. In a heat exchanger, outlet temperature of heating/cooling fluid is the variable.
(A) load (B) manipulated
(C) controlled (D) none of these

146. The symbol x z in a block diagram stands for

(A) multiplier (B) dynamic function
(C) summing junction (D) measuring function

147. For high loads, the suitable controller is
(A) on-off
(B) positioning (P, PI, PD, PID controllers etc.)
(C) both on-off and positioning (P, P1, PD, PID controllers etc.)
(D) neither on-off nor positioning (P, PI, PD, PID controllers etc.)

148. Addition of derivative control to proportional controllers reduces the
(A) stabilising time (B) maximum deviation
(C) offset (D) none of these

149. Feed forward controller is used to account for changes.
(A) load (B) set point
(C) manipulated variable (D) none of these

A-1 26 CII

150. Which of the following controllers has maximum offset ?
(A) P controller (B) P-I controller
(C) P-D controller (D) P-1-D controller

151. Flow many moles of electrons weigh one kilogram ? (Mass of electron = 9.108 x 10-31 kg,
Avogadro number = 6.022 x 1023)

(A) 6.022 x 1023 (B) x 1031
9.108
6.022 - 1
(C) x 10)4 (D) < 108
9.108 9.108 x 6.022

152. The enthalpy of formation of ammonia is —46.0 kJ mo1-1. The enthalpy change for the
reaction 2NH3 N, + 3H, is
(A) + 46.0 kJ (B) — 23 kJ
(C) + 92.0 kJ (D) — 92.0 kJ

153. Separating of is an example of endothermic reaction.
(A) proton from proton
(B) neutron from neutron
(C) electron from electron
(D) electron from a neutral atom

154. A spontaneous reaction is impossible, if
(A) both AH and AS are negative (B) both Ali and AS are positive
(C) AH is negative and AS is positive (D) AH is positive and AS is negative

155. The concentration of reactants is increased by x, then equilibrium constant k becomes

(A) K (B) K/x
(C) K + x (D) log Kix

CII 27

156. The half life period of a zero order reaction is
(A) proportional to initial concentration of reactants.
(B) independent of initial concentration of reactants.
(C) inversely proportional to initial concentration of reactants.
(D) inversely proportional to square of initial concentration of reactants.

157. The rate at which substance reacts depends on its
(A) atomic number (B) active mass
(C) molecular weight (D) atomic weight

158. Which of the following is both Arrhenius and Bronstcd acid ?
(A) A/C/3 (B) BF_
(C) HNO3 (D) CO,

159. The quantity of electricity required to liberate one gram equivalent of an element is called

(A) ampere (B) faraday
(C) ohm (D) volt

160. The buffer action of blood is due to the presence of
(A) amino acid and ammonia (B) bicarbonate and carbonic acid
(C) HC/ and NaC/ (D) Urea and Na-

161. The hybridization of carbon atoms in alkanes is
(A) sp (B) sp`
(C) sp' (D) sp3d

162. Give the IUPAC name of the compound CH3OCH,CH3 is
(A) dimethyl ether (B) methoxy ethane
(C) methyl ethyl oxide (D) propyl ether

A-1 28 CH

163. Acetylides are metallic salts obtained by the action of certain metals on
(A) ethane (B) ethene
(C) ethyne (D) methane

164. Presence of halogens in organic compounds is detected by test.
(A) Beilstein's (B) Iodoform
(C) Millon's (D) Silver nitrate

165. The functional group of ether is
0
I
(A) — C — 0 (B) —C—O—C—

O
II
(C) 0=C=0 (D) C —H

166. An isomer of ethanol is
(A) methanol (B) acetone
(C) dimethyl ether (D) diethyl ether

167. Natural gas composed primarily of
(A) methane (B) n-butane
(C) n-octane (D) a mixture of n-octane and iso-octane

168. Which of the following alkenes will react fastest with hydrogen under catalytic conditions ?

(A) = (B) _, C =
R-/- H H H
SR CSR
(C) R/ C = (D) _„C =
R H R R

CH 29 A-1

169. general formula is obeyed by

(A) alkenes only (B) cycloalkanes only
(C) arenes only (D) Both alkenes and cycloalkanes

170. Cetane number of high speed diesel must be >
(A) 30 (B) 45
(C) 75 (D) 95

171. Increasing the capacity of a screen the screen effectiveness.
(A) decreases (B) increases
(C) does not effect (D) None of these

172. Fluid energy is used for
(A) cutting (B) grinding
(C) ultra grinding (D) crushing

173. Soft and non abrasive materials can be made into fines by
(A) attrition (B) compression
(C) cutting (D) none of these

174. Screw conveyors are
(A) run at very high rpm
(B) suitable for sticky materials
(C) suitable for highly abrasive materials
(D) All of these

A-1 30 CII

175. are mixed using ribbon blenders.
(A) Lumpy solids and low viscosity liquids
(B) Dry powders
(C) High viscosity liquids
(D) Thick pastes

176. Which of the following is not categorised as a mechanical operation ?
(A) Agitation (B) Filteration
(C) Size enlargement (D) Humidification

• 177. Propellers are
(A) axial flow mixers
(B) low speed impellers
(C) used for mixing liquids of high viscosity
(D) radial flow mixers

178. In paint industries, blending of light paste is done by using a
(A) masticator (B) change can mixer
(C) kneader (D) None of these

179. Which of the following is a coarse crusher ?
(A) Smooth roll crusher (B) Toothed roll crusher
(C) Gyratory crusher (D) Tube mill

180. Apron conveyors are used for
(A) heavy loads and short runs (B) small loads and long runs
(C) heavy loads and long runs (D) None of these

CH 31 A-1

A-1 32 CH