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MAHA SET 2019 Question Paper 2 Life Science

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Page 1

Test Booklet Code & Serial No.
A
LIFE SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator Seat No.
1. (Signature) ......................................... (In figures as in Admit Card)
(Name) ................................................ Seat No. ..............................................................
2. (Signature) ......................................... (In words)

(Name) ................................................ OMR Sheet No.
JUN - 34219 (To be filled by the Candidate)
Time Allowed : 2 Hours] [Maximum Marks : 200
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 100
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided 1.
on the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of 100 objective type questions. Each question
will carry two marks. All questions of Paper II will be compulsory. 2.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are 3.
requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as
follows :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept (i)
a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in
the booklet with the information printed on the cover (ii)
page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/questions
or questions repeated or not in serial order or any
other discrepancy should not be accepted and correct
booklet should be obtained from the invigilator within
the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question
Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be
given. The same may please be noted.
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
(iii)
should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on 4. (A), (B), (C) (D)
the correct response against each item.
Example : where (C) is the correct response.

A B D (C)
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR A B D
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place
other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 5.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet. 6.
8. If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put 7.
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space
8.
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the
end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with 9.
you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed
to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
conclusion of examination.
10.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11.
11. Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers. 12.

Page 2

2

Page 3

Life Science
Paper II
Time Allowed : 120 Minutes] [Maximum Marks : 200

Note : This Paper contains Hundred (100) multiple choice questions. Each question

carrying Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

1. Archegonia are absent in the ovule 3. Which of the following is NOT

caused by deficiency of mineral
of ...................... .
nutrition ?
(A) Cycas
(A) Etiolation
(B) Taxus
(B) Shortening of internode
(C) Pinus
(C) Necrosis

(D) Gnetum (D) Chlorosis

2. Membranes of which one of the 4. Rous sarcoma virus, which induces

following pairs are contiguous ? the formation of sarcomas in

chickens. Which of the following is
(A) ER and Golgi bodies
the product of oncogene V-src ?
(B) Nucleus and ER
(A) Epidermal Growth Factor (EGF)

(C) Golgi bodies and plasma (B) Tyrosine Kinase
membrane
(C) Tyrosinase

(D) Golgi bodies and lysosomes (D) Serine Kinase

3 [P.T.O.

Page 4

5. Hemophilia and colour blindness 7. Maple syrup urine disease, one of the

are : inherited metabolic disorder is

caused because of blockage of
(A) Autosomal dominant inheritance
oxidative decarboxylation of -keto
patterns
acids derived from valine, leucine
(B) Y-linked recessive inheritance
and isoleucine. Which of the
(C) X-linked recessive inheritance
following enzyme is missing or
(D) Y- and X-linked dominant defective in the patient ?
inheritance respectively
(A) Homogentisate reductase
6. Which one of the following
(B) Branched chain dehydrogenase
statements is correct ?
(C) Oxaloacetate decarboxylase
(A) Chromosomes separate in
(D) Acetoacetate carboxylase
meiosis I and chromatids
8. Which one of the following sequences
separate in meiosis II
functions as a signal for N-linked
(B) Chromosomes separate in
glycosylation in rough endoplasmic
meiosis II and chromatids
reticulum ?
separate in meiosis I
(A) Asn-X-Ser and Asn-X-Thr
(C) Chromosomes separate in both
(B) Asn-X-Ser and Asn-X-Pro
meiosis I and meiosis II

(C) Asn-X-Thr and Asn-X-Gly
(D) Chromatids separate in both,

meiosis I and meiosis II (D) Asn-X-Gly and Asn-X-Pro

4

Page 5

9. Oxysomes for F0-F1 particles are 11. By what process does Thorium-230

present on : decay to radium-226 ?

(A) Thylakoids
(A) Gamma emission

(B) Outer mitochondrial membrane
(B) Alpha emission
(C) Outer chloroplast membrane
(C) Beta emission
(D) Inner mitochondrial membrane
(D) Electron capture
10. What is the sequence of cell
12. Which of the following is the most
organelles getting separated during

cell fractionation by differential suitable mode to study protein

centrifugation ? conformational changes and to probe

(A) Nucleus, mitochondria, micro- the location of active sites and

somes, cytosol coenzymes in fluorescence spectro-

(B) Cytosol, nucleus, microsomes, scopy ?

mitochondria
(A) Quenching

(C) Microsomes, mitochondria,
(B) Quantum yield
cytosol, nucleus
(C) Intrinsic fluorescence
(D) Cytosol, microsomes, mito-
(D) Extrinsic fluorescence
chondria, nucleus

5 [P.T.O.

Page 6

13. Which of the following is NOT a 16. Which one of the following is
method used in mass spectroscopy produced during water stress and
for introducing the sample without that brings stomatal closure ?
thermal decomposition ?
(A) Ethylene
(A) MALDI
(B) Abscisic acid
(B) Electrospray
(C) Ferulic acid
(C) Plasma desorption
(D) Coumarin
(D) Pyrolysis
17. Which of the following enzymes is
14. In polyacrylamide gel electro-
not a part of fatty acid synthetase
phoresis, the breakdown of disulfide
complex ?
linkages in protein is carried out by
using : (A) Enoyl reductase

(A) TEMED (B) -hydroxy acyl CoA dehydro-
genase
(B) Bisacrylamide
(C) -keto acyl reductase
(C) -mercaptoethanol
(D) Acetyl transacylase
(D) SDS

15. Helianthus annuus flowers track 18. Reducing power required for

the sun. This phenomenon is known biosynthesis of fatty acids in liver

as : is provided by :

(A) Phototropism (A) TCA cycle

(B) Photoperiodism (B) -oxidation of fatty acid

(C) Positive heliotropism (C) Hexose monophosphate shunt

(D) Negative heliotropism (D) Glycogenolysis

6

Page 7

19. Starting with a fertilized egg 22. Somatostatins and opioids are
examples of :
(zygote), a series of sequential five
cell divisions would produce an early (A) Purine neurotransmitters

embryo with how many cells ? (B) Peptide neurotransmitters

(A) 8 (C) Amino acid neurotransmitters

(B) 16 (D) Mono amine neurotransmitters

(C) 32 23. Nucellar polyembryony is common
in species of :
(D) 64
(A) Citrus
20. If the Golgi apparatus is associated
(B) Citronella
with secretion, we would expect it
most abundantly in : (C) Croton

(A) Muscle (D) Crotallaria

24. The conformation of the polypeptide
(B) Blood
chain is determined by the torsion
(C) Gland
or rotation angles around C –N and
(D) Bone C –C bonds of each amino acid
participating in it. Which of the
21. Which one of the following is NOT
following pairs of amino acids is
a function of kidney ?
conformationally the most and the
(A) Thermoregulation least restricted amino acids ?

(B) Coordinated muscle movement (A) Glycine and Proline

(C) Blood pressure control (B) Proline and Alanine

(D) Maintaining ionic balance and (C) Alanine and Proline

pH of the blood (D) Proline and Glycine

7 [P.T.O.

Page 8

25. Prostaglandin H2 synthase a key
enzyme in the synthesis of prosta- 27. In a normal kidney Bowman’s
glandins from linear fatty acid
has two types of catalytic activities. capsule, the blood is filtered and the
They are :
filtrate contains :
(A) Cyclooxygenase and Reductase
(B) Monooxygenase and Reductase
(A) RBC, haemoglobin, water,
(C) Monooxygenase and Peroxidase
(D) Cyclooxygenase and Peroxidase glucose and small molecular

26. Glucose-6-Phosphate
weight proteins

Fructose-6-Phosphate (B) Water and glucose

(C) Water, glucose and large

molecular weight proteins

Fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate (D) Only water

28. In tender coconut, initially the endo-
Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate +
Dihydroxyacetone Phosphate sperm is :
Such a set of opposing reaction
shown as (A) and (B) in above figure (A) Free nuclear
is an example of :
(B) Cellular
(A) Reversible reaction

(B) Substrate cycle (C) Helobial
(C) Product cycle
(D) Both cellular and helobial
(D) Enzyme cycle
8

Page 9

29. The lymphatic system has the 31. Liver is the principal site of
synthesis of :
following functions except :
(A) Plasma albumin
(A) It maintains the balance of fluid
(B) Plasma globulin
between the blood and tissues,
(C) Vitamin B12
known as fluid homeostasis.
(D) Vitamin C
(B) It forms part of the immine
32. Which one of the following mutagens
system and helps defend against
can add alkyl group to guanine
bacteria and other pathogens. resulting in direct mispairing with
thymine ?
(C) It facilitates absorption of fats
(A) 5-bromo uracil
and fat-soluble nutrients in the
(B) UV-rays
digestive system.
(C) Acridine orange
(D) It facilitates exchange of gases
(D) EMS
in tissues.
33. Hox genes are critical for the proper
30. Which is the source of foodstuff placement of segment structures of
‘Nori’ ? animals during early embryonic
development except :
(A) Porphyra
(A) Different vertebrae of humans
(B) Polytrichum
(B) Caecum in humans
(C) Potamogeton
(C) Antennae in fruit flies

(D) Pteridium (D) Wings in fruit flies

9 [P.T.O.

Page 10

34. Mutation in which one of the 37. In the ATP synthase of mitochondria
following proteins will inhibit
.................. subunit has the ATP/ADP
recognition of mismatched base pairs
during DNA repair ? binding site.

(A) Mut H (A) Alpha

(B) Mut S (B) Beta
(C) Uvr D
(C) Gamma
(D) Mut L
(D) Delta
35. ..................... is involved in the
specification of germ cells in all 38. In electron microscopy the fixative
animals studied.
used for plant materials is :
(A) Sry
(A) Alcohol
(B) Sox 9
(B) Acetic alcohol
(C) Wnt 4

(D) Vasa (C) Glutaraldehyde

36. The lagging strand of DNA is (D) Formaldehyde
replicated in short pieces because :
39. Continuous activity of cambium in
(A) Of limitation of space
the stem leads to :
(B) Otherwise the helix will become
distorted (A) Diffuse porous wood

(C) DNA polymerase can synthesize (B) Ring porous wood
in one direction only
(C) Fibrous wood
(D) To make proof-reading of code
easier (D) Semi ring porous wood

10

Page 11

40. In Leishmania it was shown that 42. If red and white seed colour shows

the minicircles : a ratio of 1 : 4 : 6 : 4 : 1 in F2

(A) Encode guide RNA (gRNA) generation, it is due to :

molecules involved in the RNA
(A) Duplicate genes
editing of maxicircle cryptogene
(B) Polygenic trait controlled by
(B) Encode guide RNA (gRNA)
three genes
molecules involved in the RNA
(C) Epistatic genes
editing of minicircle cryptogene

(D) Polygenic trait controlled by two
(C) Encode micro RNA
genes
(D) Encode noncoding RNA
43. The process of neoplastic cells
41. With reference to plants, micro-
moving through the circulatory
propagation in vitro means :
system and becoming lodged in a
(A) Propagation of tiny plants
vessel causing obstruction is referred
(B) Production of a large number of
to as :
progeny plants
(A) Anaplasia
(C) Production of plants at
(B) Neoplasia
microlevel

(D) Production of plants from (C) Thrombosis

microspores (D) Embolism
11 [P.T.O.

Page 12

44. Double lines in pedigree analysis 47. A small organic non-protein
shows : molecule that carries chemical

(A) Sex unspecific groups between enzymes is :

(B) Unaffected offspring (A) Cofactor

(C) Marriages between related (B) Coenzyme
individuals
(C) Catalyst
(D) Marriages between unrelated
(D) Substrate
individuals
48. The key element in the magnetic
45. Down’s syndrome is caused due to
sensor system of pigeons and
aberration in :
migrating birds is :
(A) Chromosome 2
(A) Columella
(B) Chromosome 20
(B) Cochlea
(C) Chromosome 21
(C) Lagena
(D) X-Chromosome
(D) Extracolumella
46. The enzyme useful in conversion of
49. X-rays induce mutagenic changes
penicillin G to 6-aminopenicillonic
acid is : by :

(A) Penicillin acylase (A) Transitions

(B) Penicillinase (B) Frame shifting

(C) Carboxypeptidase (C) Transversions

(D) Aminopeptidase (D) Chromosomal breakage

12

Page 13

50. Which of the following sn RNAs pair 53. The ..................... of the influenza-

to form the catalytic active site enveloped virus appear to be

during pre-mRNA splicing ? involved in attachment to the host
cell receptor site.
(A) U6-U2
(A) Pili
(B) U1-U2
(B) Fimbriae
(C) U6-U4
(C) Haemagglutinin
(D) U5-U4
(D) Neuraminidase
51. The progeny of a single homozygous
54. Eating meat from cattle with bovine
self-pollinated plant is called spongiform encephalitis can cause a
as ....................... . variant of ................. in humans.

(A) Inbred line (A) Kuru

(B) Isogenic line (B) Fatal familiar insomnia

(C) Pureline (C) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

(D) Geistmann-Straussler-Scheinker
(D) Near-isogenic line
syndrome
52. Female gametophyte in Gnetum at
55. Saffron is produced from the flowers
later stage is :
of ...................... .
(A) Uninucleate
(A) Mesua ferrea
(B) Binucleate
(B) Crocus sativus
(C) Eight nucleate (C) Nelumbo nucifera

(D) Multinucleate (D) Mammea suriga

13 [P.T.O.

Page 14

56. Lyme disease is spread by : 59. Chromosomal elimination is one of

the strategy to develop .................. .
(A) Bed bugs
(A) Polyploids
(B) Leech
(B) Amphidiploid
(C) Mosquito
(C) Haploid
(D) Ticks
(D) Autopolyploid
57. Which of the following pairs is NOT
60. Which component of prokaryotic
correct ?
RNA polymerase facilitates the
(A) C3 plants - Maize
recognition of promoter sequences ?
(B) C4 plants - Kranz anatomy
(A) subunit

(C) Calvin cycle - PGA
(B) subunit

(D) Hatch and slack cycle - Oxaloacetic
(C) subunit
acid
(D) subunit
58. Delay in senescence in the plants is
61. An appropriate term for human
caused by :
resident flora is :

(A) IBA
(A) Commensals

(B) IAA (B) Parasites

(C) Cytokinin (C) Pathogens

(D) Gibberellin (D) Mutualists

14

Page 15

62. Transplantation of stem cell 65. Methyl transferases of restriction

populations from genetically identical modification systems seem to have

donor to the recipient is said to be : evolved by :

(A) Autologus (A) Convergent evolution

(B) Syngeneic (B) Divergent evolution

(C) Mix of convergent and
(C) Allogeneic
divergent evolution
(D) Xenogeneic
(D) Natural evolution
63. For thorough mixing of medium and
66. Which of the following is NOT a
inoculum the part of the fermentor
premating mechanism of isolation ?
useful is :
(A) Temporal isolation
(A) Shaft
(B) Zygotic mortality
(B) Headspace
(C) Behavioural isolation
(C) Impeller
(D) Mechanical isolation
(D) Sparger
67. A clade is a set of species :
64. Peptide antigen assemble with
(A) Derived from a common
class 1 MHC aided by :
ancestor
(A) Chaperone molecules
(B) Derived from two ancestors
(B) Immunoglobulins
(C) Derived from multiple ancestors
(C) T-cell receptor
(D) Inhabiting a particular
(D) Cytokines environment

15 [P.T.O.

Page 16

68. Center of origin of coffee is : 70. The zone at the edge of lake, sea or

(A) Brazil ocean which is alternatively exposed

(B) Peru to air and immersed in water is

(C) Moluccas called ........................ .

(D) Ethiopia
(A) Pelagic zone

69. Difference between Allopatric and
(B) Benthic zone
Sympatric speciation is with respect

to : (C) Lentic zone

(i) Attainment of reproductive (D) Littoral zone

isolation
71. What is the ultimate function of any
(ii) Geographical separation
ecosystem ?
(iii) Overlap in their distribution
(A) Survival of species
(A) Only (i)

(B) Balance of natural system
(B) Only (ii)

(C) Only (iii) (C) Flow of energy

(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) (D) Biological control

16

Page 17

72. The appearance of lichens and moss 75. The population of asiatic lion is
where there were previously no
small. Therefore, there is greater
living things is an indication of the
chance of :
start of :

(A) Intraspecific competition (A) Gene flow

(B) Environmental resistance (B) Genetic drift

(C) Primary succession
(C) Mutation
(D) Resource partitioning
(D) Selection
73. If one wishes to compare the means
of two independent samples, the 76. Which of the statements regarding

appropriate test statistics would be : DNA replication is correct ?

(A) F-test (A) The leading strand is
(B) Student t-test synthesized discontinuously

(C) Chi-square from multiple primers.

(D) Correlation coefficient analysis
(B) The polymerase enzyme caps
74. On an average, which ecosystem has
the 5 end of the nascent DNA
the lowest net primary productivity
strand
per unit area ?

(A) An open ocean (C) Lagging strand helicases are

(B) An estuary composed of 5 identical sub-units

(C) A freshwater lake (D) Synthesis of the leading strand

(D) A coral reef requires one RNA primer

17 [P.T.O.

Page 18

77. The transposase gene encodes an 79. The phosphorus cycle is unusual in

enzyme that : that it is entirely :

(A) Facilitates general recom- (A) Within the aquatic ecosystem

bination (B) Within the terrestrial ecosystem

(B) Facilitates viral replication (C) Sedimentary

within a genome (D) Gaseous

(C) Facilitates site-specific 80. Which one of the following is a

integration of transposable distance based method of tree

elements construction ?

(D) Facilitates transport of solutes (A) UPGMA

78. The expression of the following (B) Maximum parsimony

genes is essential for the lysogenic (C) Maximum likelihood

path of lambda phage when it infects (D) Bayesian

E.coli :
81. The term anthesis refers to :

(A) N, Cro
(A) Formation of an anther

(B) CI, CII, CIII (B) Opening of a flower

(C) P, O (C) Development of flower

(D) att, xis, inf (D) Dehiscence of anther

18

Page 19

82. If cells of Escherichia coli are grown 85. In mammals, mature functional
in a medium containing radioactive
spermatozoa are produced in :
32P, the 32P would be found in all,

except : (A) Testis

(A) DNA (B) Vas deferens

(B) RNA (C) Epididymis
(C) ATP
(D) Seminal vesicle
(D) Carbohydrates
86. Isoenzymes are ...................... .
83. The DNA profiling technique which
demonstrates the similarity between (A) Oligomeric proteins which have
different animal species with different physico-chemical
reference to some specific proteins properties and catalyse the
coding sequences is known as :
same reaction.
(A) Zoo blot
(B) Monomeric proteins which have
(B) Garden blot
different physico-chemical
(C) Phylogenetic blot
properties and catalyse the
(D) Animal profiling
same reaction.
84. The most important region in the
(C) Oligomeric proteins which have
atmosphere for microbial dispersal
is : same physico-chemical properties

(A) Stratosphere and catalyse different reactions

(B) Troposphere (D) Monomeric proteins which have

(C) Ionosphere same physico-chemical properties

(D) Strato-ionosphere and catalyse different reactions.

19 [P.T.O.

Page 20

87. Molecular clocks located throughout
89. For the reaction A B at 298 K,
the body in peripheral tissues are
the change in enthalpy is – 7
organized into a coherent,

hierarchical system by a ‘‘master’’ kJ.mol–1 and the change in entropy

clock is located :
is – 25 J.K–1.mol–1. How much is

(A) In the pineal gland
the free energy change and whether
(B) In the adenohypophysis
the reaction is spontaneous or non-
(C) In the hypophysis
spontaneous ?
(D) In the supra chiasmatic nucleus

(SCN) of the hypothalamus (A) G = 450 J.mol–1 and reaction

88. Microtubule depolymerizing drug, is not spontaneous
such as colchicine, is expected to :
(B) G = 450 J.mol–1 and reaction
(A) Inhibit mitosis but allow

cytokinesis is spontaneous

(B) Inhibit cytokinesis (C) G = 900 J mol–1 and reaction

(C) Allow mitosis beyond
is spontaneous
metaphase
(D) G = 900 J mol–1 and reaction
(D) Induce formation of multiple

contractile rings is not spontaneous

20

Page 21

90. The southern blotting technique
92. Inducible genes are transcribed
depends on :
because ..................... .
(A) Similarities between the

sequences of probe DNA and (A) The inducer inactivates the
experimental DNA
repressor protein
(B) The molecular mass of proteins

(B) Repressor binds to the promoter
(C) The amino acid sequence of a

protein
(C) Repressor binds to the operator
(D) Dissimilarities between the

RNA and DNA (D) Repressor-inducer bind to the

91. A solution is made by mixing 50 ml operator

of 2 M K2HPO4 and 25 ml of 2.0 M
93. Two micron plasmid can be obtained
KH2PO4. The solution is diluted to

a final volume of 250 ml. What is from the following yeast :

the pH of the final solution ?
(A) Candida shehatae
(PK = 6.82)

(A) 6.82 (B) Pichia pastoris

(B) 7.12
(C) Schizosaccharomyces pombe
(C) 6.52

(D) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(D) 7.51

21 [P.T.O.

Page 22

94. Which of the following is a phagemid 96. What is the applied centrifugal field

vector ? at a point equivalent to 5 cm from

the centre of rotation and an angular
(A) pUC19

velocity of 3000 rad s–1 ?
(B) pBR322
(A) 4.5 × 10–7 cms–2
(C) EMBL3
(B) 5.4 × 10–7 cms–2

(D) p Bluescript
(C) 3.4 × 10–7 cms–2

95. Colocalization of two fluorescently
(D) 6.5 × 10–7 cms–2

labelled proteins in a cell is usually
97. Mutation in gene rel A in bacteria
visualized by :
results in .................... .

(A) Phase contrast microscopy
(A) Relaxed mutants

(B) Scanning electron microscopy
(B) Silent mutants

(C) Confocal microscopy
(C) Constitutive mutants

(D) Atomic force microscopy (D) Dominant mutants

22

Page 23

98. Glycogen, starch and cellulose are 99. The amino acid that interrupts

polymers of glucose. Which of the -helix conformation in protein by
following statements are true about
developing kinks in the structure :
these polymers ?
(A) Serine
(i) Glycogen and starch are having
(B) Valine
1-4 and 1-6 glycosidic bonds.

(ii) Cellulose is having 1-4 (C) Proline

glycosidic linkage. (D) Leucine

(iii) All these polymers are giving
100. Which one-electron carrier protein
energy for the cells.
transfers electron from photosystem

(iv) Glycogen is present in animals
I to photosystem II and is functionally
and starch in plants.
similar to cytochrome C of
(v) Amylase enzyme is useful in
mitochondria ?
digestion of these polymers.
(A) Plastoquinone
(A) (i), (ii) and (v)
(B) Phycobillin
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(C) Phycoerythrin
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(D) Plastocyanin
(D) (ii), (iii) and (v)
23 [P.T.O.

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ROUGH WORK

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Document Details

Board / OrgMaharashtra Exams
ExamMAHA SET
TypeQuestion Paper
Pages24
Updated30 Apr 2026