Kerala SET 2018 Feb Question Paper Geology

A
18211 120 MINUTES
1. The first mineral to form during the metamorphism of siliceous dolomitic limestones.
A) Tremolite B) Talc
C) Quartz D) Wollastonite

2. The hypothesis of origin of the Earth which explains for similar direction of rotation of all
the planets and the Sun and also accounts for the same plane of rotation of the planets.
A) Planetesimal Hypothesis B) Tidal Hypothesis
C) Nebular Hypothesis D) Double Star Hypothesis

3. The most common ductile response to stress on rocks in the earth’s crust.
A) Fractures B) Joints C) Folds D) Faults

4. Which of the following is an example of Transform or Conservative Plate Boundary
exhibiting dextral movement?
A) East Pacific Ridge B) East African Rift and Valley
C) Japanese Island Arc D) San Andreas Fault

5. Stratigraphic columns worldwide are divided completely on the basis of lithology into
mappable units known as
A) Zones B) Systems C) Formations D) Stages

6. The most widely accepted theory regarding origin of life on earth.
A) Theory of Special Creation B) Theory of Spontaneous Generation
C) Theory of Chemical Evolution D) Theory of Cosmogeny

7. The Solnhofen Plattenkalk or Solnhofen Limestone is a Jurassic Konservat – Lagerstätte in
Germany that preserves a rare assemblage of fossilized organisms. Which of the following is
the most familiar fossils of the Solnhofen Plattenkalk?
A) Tyrannosaurus B) Homosapiens
C) Stegosaurus D) Archaeopteryx

8. To which category of elements does the Rare Earth Elements (REE) belong?
A) Siderophile B) Atmophile
C) Lithophile D) Chalcophile

9. Which among the following states of India comes at the top of the list of mica producing
states as per latest records?
A) Andhra Pradesh B) Jharkhand
C) Rajasthan D) Bihar

10. The easiest and most widely used method for sampling of placer deposits.
A) Grab sampling B) Trench sampling
C) Channel sampling D) Pit sampling

11. The first company to commercially explore the sea floor for massive sulphide deposits.
A) Neptune Minerals B) OceanflORE
C) DEME Group D) Nautilus Minerals

12. What are the areas of the electromagnetic spectrum where the atmosphere is transparent to
specific wavelengths called?
A) Adsorption windows B) Atmospheric windows
C) Absorption windows D) Resolution windows

13. The three R’s of utmost importance in order to save the environment.
A) Repair, Reassess, Retain B) Reserve, Retain, Reuse
C) Reduce, Recycle, Reuse D) Rebuild, React, Resolve

14. The mathematics of spatial relationships as connectivity among point, line and area objects in
the world of GIS is called
A) Topology B) Adjacency
C) Proximity D) Overlay

15. The number of primary lattices (P), body-centered lattices (I) and face centered lattices (CF)
of the unit cells in the 14 Bravais lattices are
A) P – 6, I – 3 and CF – 5 B) P – 7, I – 4 and CF – 3
C) P – 7, I – 3 and CF – 4 D) P – 6, I – 4 and CF – 4

16. Which of the following is the correct sequential order of arrangement of minerals according
to their increasing order of indices of refraction?
A) Corundum < Rutile < Zircon < Topaz < Gypsum
B) Gypsum < Topaz < Corundum < Zircon < Rutile
C) Zircon < Topaz < Gypsum < Rutile < Corundum
D) Rutile < Corundum < Gypsum < Topaz < Zircon

17. The dip of a fault is 90o and rake of the fault is 0o. For an observer standing on the fault and
looking in the strike direction, the type of fault is
A) Normal fault
B) Right-lateral strike slip fault
C) Left-lateral strike slip fault
D) Thrust or Reverse fault

18. The most powerful earthquake ever recorded.
A) 2004 Indian Ocean Earthquake
B) 1964 Alaska Earthquake
C) 1960 Valdivia Earthquake
D) 2011 Tohoku Earthquake

2

19. Match the following plutonic igneous rock with their corresponding volcanic equivalents and
choose the correct answer.
Plutonic Volcanic
a. Gabbro 1. Dacite
b. Granodiorite 2. Andesite
c. Peridotite 3. Latite
d. Monzonite 4. Komatite
e. Diorite 5. Basalt

A) a-2, b-4, c-2, d-1, e-3 B) a-5, b-3, c-1, d-2, e-4
C) a-2, b-5, c-1, d-4, e-3 D) a-5, b-1, c-4, d-3, e-2

20. The ‘Brazilian test’ refers to the
A) Triaxial Compression test on rocks B) Splitting Tension test on rocks
C) Beam Bending test on rocks D) Unconfined Compression test on rocks

21. The coefficient of permeability of an aquifer is commonly referred to as its
A) Transmissivity B) Specific yield
C) Hydraulic conductivity D) Storativity

22. The hydrochemical facies of fields 5 and 7 respectively in the Hill-Piper Trilinear diagram
for assessment of domestic water quality are
A) Calcium Chloride type and Magnesium bicarbonate type
B) Sodium chloride type and Magnesium bicarbonate type
C) Calcium chloride type and Sodium bicarbonate type
D) Magnesium bicarbonate type and Sodium chloride type

23. Fossil remains of which of the following organisms that lived during early Permian and
found solely in Southern Africa, provide one of the strongest evidences favouring the
Continental Drift Theory?
A) Lystrosaurus B) Stegosaurus C) Mesosaurus D) Mosasaurus

24. Which of the following is a Martian crater?
A) Huygen’s crater B) Ganymedia crater
C) Clavius crater D) Asgard crater

25. The Kiaman Reverse Superchron comes in which part of the Geomagnetic Polarity Time
Scale?
A) Cretaceous period B) Jurassic period
C) Ordovician period D) Permo-Carboniferous period

26. The coastline characterized by parallel inlets and long narrow hilly islands or mountain
ridges situated at some distance in the sea and running parallel to the coast.
A) Haff coastline B) Dalmatian coastline
C) Fjord coastline D) Ria coastline

27. The most spectacular authigenic deposits of the ocean floor.
A) Red clays B) Calcareous ooze
C) Manganese nodules D) Turbidites

3

28. The radiometric dating technique which is uniquely suited for determining low-temperature
thermal events using common accessory minerals over a very wide geological range.
A) Fission-track dating B) Rubidium-Strontium dating
C) Samarium-Neodymium dating D) Uranium-Thorium-Lead dating

29. The spatial distribution of mineral deposits is known as
A) Paragenesis B) Paramorphogenesis
C) Grouping D) Zoning

30. Mineable accumulations of metallic ores of iron, copper, zinc, lead, gold and several others
associated with calc-silicate rocks are called
A) Greisen deposits B) Sedex deposits
C) Pneumatolytic deposits D) Skarn deposits

31. The main stratigraphic unit in terms of hydrocarbon potential forming the reservoir rocks in
the Ankleshwar oil-field.
A) Dadhar Formation of Oligocene age
B) Tarkeswar Formation of Miocene age
C) Cambay Shale Group of Palaeocene age
D) Ankleshwar Formation of Eocene age

32. The most popular type of drills employed in mineral exploration.
A) Diamond drills B) Rotary drills
C) Calyx drill D) Pneumatic drills

33. In which of the following underground coal mining methods the recovery is practically
100%?
A) Board and Pillar mining B) Longwall retreating mining
C) Longwall advance mining D) Horizon mining

34. The isotopes of which of the following elements have been useful as stratigraphic markers
for chemostratigraphy?
A) Oxygen B) Carbon
C) Sulphur D) Hydrogen

35. Dendrochronology and tree rings as a dating method was fully developed into a science
largely through the works of
A) H. C. Fritts B) M. G. L. Baillie
C) Leonardo da Vinci D) A. E. Douglass

36. OH 7, nicknamed ‘Johnny’s Child’, the type specimen of Homo habilis, was discovered in
1960 at
A) Lactoli, Tanzania
B) Olduvai Gorge, Tanzania
C) Java, Indonesia
D) Kleine Feldhofer Grotte, Germany

4

37. Match the major ice ages of the Earth’s history with the corresponding time spans and choose
the correct answer.
Ice Ages Time Span
a. Cryogenian 1. 2.58 Ma to present
b. Karoo 2. 450 Ma to 420 Ma
c. Quaternary 3. 360 Ma to 268 Ma
d. Huronian 4. 2.4 Ga to 2.1 Ga
e. Andean-Saharan 5. 720 Ma to 635 Ma

A) a-5, b-2, c-3, d-1, e-4 B) a-3, b-4, e-1, d-5, e-2
C) a-5, b-3, c-1, d-4, e-2 D) a-2, b-5, c-1, d-3, e-4

38. During which period did the brachiopods undergo their greatest differentiation with the
appearance of 14 new super families?
A) Ordovician B) Cambrian
C) Silurian D) Devonian

39. The oldest rock units in Kerala stratigraphy belong to the
A) Khondalite Group B) Wayanad Group
C) Charnockite Group D) Vengad Group

40. The first known aerial photograph was taken from a balloon in 1858 by French photographer
and balloonist
A) James Wallace Black B) Arthur Batut
C) Gasper Felix Tournachon D) Julius Neubronner

41. The Along-track scanner systems are also referred to as
A) Whisk-broom scanners B) Imaging spectroradiomaters
C) Hyperspectral scanners D) Pushbroom scanners

42. What does DBMS stand for?
A) Database Monitoring System B) Database Manufacturing System
C) Database Manipulating System D) Database Management System

43. Ozone layer depletion is mostly caused by
A) CO2 B) CFC C) MIC D) CCl4

44. The element not commonly found in a geological map.
A) Physical landscape features B) Contacts and faults
C) Strike and dip D) Map units – rock types and symbols

45. The most abundant sedimentary rocks.
A) Limestones B) Sandstones
C) Mudrocks D) Agglomerates

46. The coarse grained plutonic variety of calcitic carbonatite.
A) Sovite B) Gregoryite
C) Beforsite D) Alvikite

5

47. The most important application of Mössbauer spectroscopy for minerals:
A) Determination of oxidation states of iron.
B) Determination of lattice parameters and crystal structure.
C) Determination of chemical composition.
D) Determination of Al-Si distribution in minerals and glass.

48. Match the following crystal twins with the corresponding crystal systems and choose the
correct answer.
Crystal Twin Crystal System
a. Baveno twin 1. Triclinic system
b. Spinel twin 2. Tetragonal system
c. Albite twin 3. Monoclinic system
d. Aragonite twin 4. Isometric system
e. Cassiterite twin 5. Orthorhombic system
A) a-5, b-1, c-3, d-2, e-4 B) a-3, b-5, c-1, d-4, e-2
C) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-5, e-2 D) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-5, e-4

49. The most characteristic sedimentary suite of Alpine type orogenic belts:
A) Calcareous facies B) Shelly facies
C) Molasse facies D) Flysch facies

50. Which of the following principles of stratigraphy is fundamental to understanding not only
the relative age of rocks at a place, but also indicates the relative ages of the fossils they
contain?
A) Principal of Faunal Succession B) Principal of Lateral Continuity
C) Principal of Uniformitarianism D) Principle of Superposition

51. Which of the following is the correct Barrowian sequence of metamorphic zones from high
grade to low grade?
A) Staurolite zone → Sillimanite zone → Biotite zone → Kyanite zone → Chlorite zone
→ Garnet zone
B) Kyanite zone → Sillimanite zone → Garnet zone → Chlorite zone → Biotite zone
→ Staurolite zone
C) Sillimanite zone → Kyanite zone → Staurolite zone → Garnet zone → Biotite zone
→ Chlorite zone
D) Chlorite zone → Garnet zone → Biotite zone → Kyanite zone → Staurolite zone
→ Sillimanite zone

52. The world’s oldest known examples of fossil stromatolites are reported from:
A) Gunflint Chert, Minnesota, North America
B) Exuma Cays, Bahamas
C) Belingwe Greenstone Belt, Zimbabwe
D) Marble Bar, Pilbara, Western Australia

53. The system of classification of igneous rocks in which the constituent minerals of an igneous
rock are considered both chemically and quantitatively:
A) Rosenbuch’s classification B) Shand’s classification
C) CIPW classification D) IUGS classification

6

54. Which one of the following is not a relevant Milankovitch cycle?
A) Precession B) Polarity C) Eccentricity D) Obliquity

55. The typical primate fossil of Middle Siwalik:
A) Ramapithecus B) Sivapithecus
C) Sus D) Sugrivapithecus

56. Match the following Precambrian lithostratigraphic units of Indian stratigraphy with
corresponding Groups and choose the correct answer.
Formations Groups
a. Mochia Formation 1. Sausar Group
b. Mulaingiri Formation 2. Papaghni Group
c. Rohtas Formation 3. Udaipur Group
d. Vempalle Formation 4. Semri Group
e. Mansar Formation 5. Bababudan Group

A) a-4,b-5,c-1,d-3,e-2 B) a-5,b-3,c-1,d-2,e-4
C) a-2,b-4,c-5,d-1,e-3 D) a-3,b-5,c-4,d-2,e-1

57. Which one of the following statement is NOT correct?

A) The dip slip is the component of the net slip measured perpendicular to the dip of the
fault plane.
B) The throw of a fault is the vertical component of the dip separation measured in a
vertical section that is perpendicular to the strike of the fault.
C) Heave of a fault is the horizontal component of the dip separation.
D) Rake of a fault is the angle between a line and the strike line of the fault plane in
which it is found, measured on the plane.

58. The transform boundary between the Indian Plate and the Arabian Plate is called the
A) Central Indian Ridge B) Owen Fracture Zone
C) Southeast Indian Ridge D) Dead Sea Transform

59. Guniting and shotcreting are
A) Processes for de-silting of reservoirs.
B) Methods for keeping fractured rocks together in and around tunnel openings.
C) Processes of frost treatment of site rocks.
D) Processes of slope treatment and stabilization.

60. The equation representing the Ghyben-Herzberg relation.
( )
A) = ℎ B) = ℎ
( )

C) = ℎ D) = ℎ
( ) ( )

7

61. In flow nets the portions having wide and equal water table contour spacings and flat
hydraulic gradients indicate regions of ....................
A) Poor aquifer conditions with higher hydraulic conductivities.
B) Good aquifer conditions with lower hydraulic conductivities.
C) Good aquifer conditions with higher hydraulic conductivities.
D) Poor aquifer conditions with lower hydraulic conductivities.

62. The hypothesis which correlates the symmetric magnetic patterns seen on the sea floor with
geomagnetic field reversals.
A) Vine-Matthews hypothesis B) Wegner’s hypothesis
C) Heiskanen hypothesis D) Hess and Dietz hypothesis

63. The potentially useful indicator plant for diamond prospecting.
A) Ocimum centraliafricanum B) Eschscholzia mexicana
C) Pandanus candelabrum D) Equisetum arvense

64. The correct order of precipitation of the metallic sulphides in the zone of supergene
enrichment following the Schurmann’s law according to increasing solubility of metallic
sulphides.
A) Iron → Copper → Silver → Gold → Lead → Zinc
B) Lead → Zinc → Silver → Gold → Copper → Iron
C) Silver → Gold → Copper → Lead → Zinc → Iron
D) Copper → Lead → Zinc → Gold → Silver → Iron

65. The scintillation counters are preferred to GM counters especially in airborne surveys
because
A) they have high γ-ray detection efficiency.
B) they have high timing resolution.
C) they are more versatile and cost efficient.
D) they are insensitive to magnetic fields.

66. The mining method most suitable for steeply dipping ore bodies with strong walls:
A) Shrinkage stoping B) Timbered stoping
C) Breast stoping D) Open underhand stoping

67. The icy zone extending from about 30 to 35 AU from the Sun, beyond Neptune in the Solar
System where most of the dwarf planets and trillions of comets exist:
A) Jovian Belt B) Kuiper Belt
C) Oort Cloud Belt D) Orion Belt

68. The mismatch between the curves for the Earth’s core and pure iron in the variation graph of
density with depth requires the core to include which of the following elements that reduce
the overall density of the core?
A) Chalcophile elements B) Siderophile elements
C) Lithophile elements D) Atmophile elements

69. Which of the following classes of the Isometric System is NOT a hemihedral class?
A) Diploidal Class B) Gyroidal Class
C) Hextetrahedral Class D) Hexoctahedral Class

8

70. The typical sedimentary structure exhibited by greywackes.
A) Flaser bedding B) Convolute bedding
C) Herring bone cross bedding D) Graded bedding

71. Match the following models of landscape evolution with their concepts and choose the
correct answer.
Models Concepts
a. Gilbert’s Model 1. Morphological system
b. Penck’s Model 2. Step-like landscape evolution
c. King’s Model 3. Geographical cycle
d. Treppen Model 4. Pediplanation cycle
e. Davis Model 5. Dynamic Equilibrium Theory

A) a-3, b-5, c-4, d-1, e-2 B) a-5, b-4, c-1, d-2, e-3
C) a-4, b-3, c-5, d-1, e-2 D) a-5, b-1, c-4, d-2, e-3

72. The size grade of ‘granule’ in the Wentworth geometric grade scale.
A) 2 mm to 4 mm B) 1/16 mm to 1/256 mm
C) 4 mm to 64 mm D) 2 mm to 1/16 mm

73. Which of the following are the end members of the orthorhombic pyroxene series?
A) Diopside – Hedenbergite B) Enstatite – Augite
C) Diopside – Ferroaugite D) Enstatite – Orthoferrosilite

74. Regional dynamothermal metamorphism is related geographically as well as genetically to
A) large faults and overthrusts. B) large magmatic intrusions.
C) large orogenic belts. D) large geosynclines.

75. The type of earth satellite orbit in which the orbital plane is always near-polar and allows the
satellite to pass over a section of the Earth at the same time of the day.
A) Sun-synchronous orbit B) Geosynchronous orbit
C) Geostationary orbit D) Molniya orbit

76. Match the following lustres with the corresponding minerals and choose the correct answer.
Lustre Mineral
a. Sub-vitreous 1. Cassiterite
b. Adamantine 2. Calcite
c. Metallic 3. Amianthus
d. Pearly 4. Galena
e. Silky 5. Selenite

A) a-3, b-5, c-2, d-1, e-4 (B) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-5, e-2
C) a-5, b-1, c-3, d-4, e-2 (D) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-5, e-3

77. The measures or activities undertaken to reduce both the effect of a hazard and to reduce the
scale or intensity of a forthcoming disaster.
(A) Response B) Preparedness C) Recovery D) Mitigation

9

78. Which among the following does not fall under the category of core values of Environmental
Impact Assessment (EIA)?
A) Sustainability B) Integrity C) Utility D) Equality

79. The space segment of GPS consists of a constellation of how many satellites in how many
orbits?
A) 32 satellites in 8 orbits B) 21 satellites in 7 orbits
C) 24 satellites in 6 orbits D) 27 satellites in 9 orbits

80. Which of the following is not a ‘greenhouse gas’?
A) Nitrous oxide B) Hydrogen
C) Methane D) Carbon dioxide

81. The type of remote sensing characteristic of the 8 µm – 14 µm wavelength band.
A) Near Infrared Remote Sensing B) Visible Remote Sensing
C) Microwave Remote Sensing D) Thermal Remote Sensing

82. The slope of the straight line portion of the stress-strain diagram is called the
A) Bulk modulus of elasticity B) Fourier modulus
C) Shear modulus of elasticity D) Young’s modulus of elasticity

83. Ramsay’s classification of folds is based upon curvature of the inner and outer lines of a fold
and the behavior of dip isogons. In this classification the parallel folds and similar folds
belong respectively to
A) Class 1A and Class 1C B) Class 1B and Class 2
C) Class 1C and Class 3 D) Class 1A and Class 1B

84. The tectonites having a dominant planar fabric and generally indicating a flattening type of
strain.
A) S-tectonites B) P-tectonites C) L-tectonites D) SL-tectonites

85. Which of the following statement is NOT correct?
A) Stereographic net is used for plotting Beta diagram.
B) Equal area net is used to plot Pi diagram.
C) Beta diagram is plotted on equal area net.
D) Beta and Pi diagrams are used in the analysis of folds.

86. The island arc in which the Eurasian plate is the overlying plate and the Australian plate is
the subducting plate.
A) Ryukyu Islands B) Solomon Islands
C) Kuril Islands D) Sunda Islands

87. The properties of a building stone are given below. What is the building stone?
Mass density : 2500 – 26500 Kg/m3; Crushing strength : 100 – 2500 Kg/m2
Specific gravity : 2.6 to 2.8; Absorption : 0.5 % to 1.2 %
Porosity : Very low; Texture : Interlocking
Colour : Light coloured, variety of appealing colours; Polish: Perfect polish

A) Marble B) Sandstone C) Granite D) Gneiss

10

88. Match the items in I and II and choose the correct answer.
I II
a. Hygrometer 1. Soil moisture
b. Lysimeter 2. Average depth of precipitation
c. Tensiometer 3. Groundwater level
d. Isohyet 4. Relative humidity
e. Pressure transducer 5. Evapo-transpiration
A) a-2, b-4, c-1, d-5, e-3 B) a-4, b-1, c-5, d-2, e-3
C) a-5, b-4, c-3, d-2, e-1 D) a-4, b-5, c-1, d-2, e-3

89. The most widely applied method of all surface geophysical methods for groundwater
investigations.
A) Gravity method B) Electrical Resistivity method
C) Seismic Refraction method D) Water witching method
90. Quite small eyeless trilobites characterized by strong similarity of cephalon and pygidium,
i.e., isophygous form, with two thoracic segments, complete lack of facial sutures and free
cheeks and highly specialized pygidium.
A) Agnostus B) Calymene C) Phacops D) Olenus

91. The Miller-Urey experiment was the first experiment regarding evolution of life to prove the
origin of life. The chemicals used in the experiment were
(A) H2O, CH4, NH3 and H2 B) CO2, SO2, O2 and CCl4
(C) H2CO3, Cl2, H2O2 and NO2 D) O2, SO2, HCL and H2SO4

92. Match the following forms of gastropod shells with corresponding example of gastropod and
choose the correct answer.
Form of shell Gastropod
a. Convolute 1. Planorbis
b. Cylindrical 2. Cypraea
c. Globular 3. Pleurotomaria
d. Trochiform 4. Natica
e. Discoidal 5. Voluta
A) a-3, b-1, c-5, d-2, e-3 B) a-2, b-5, c-4, d-3, e-1
C) a-5, b-3, c-1, d-4, e-2 D) a-5, b-4, c-1, d-3, e-2

93. The schist belts of Kolar and Hutti containing gold deposits belong to
A) Sargur Schist Complex B) Dharwar Supergroup
C) Cuddapah Supergroup D) Older Metamorphic Group

94. The two tectonic zones of the Himalayas viz., Central Crystalline Zone and Tethyan
Himalayan Zone are grouped into a single physiographic unit referred to as
A) Lesser Himalayas B) Trans Himalayas
C) Great Himalayas D) Outer Himalayas

95. The petrified angiosperm logs of which of the following were the first documented records of
any plant fossil in India in 1782?
A) Tipam Sandstone B) Warkalli Sandstone
C) Cuddalore Sandstone D) Satyavedu Sandstone

11

96. Which of the following is the correct sequential arrangement of magnetic epochs of the earth
from the oldest to the youngest?
A) Gilbert reversed → Brunhes normal → Matuyama reversed → Gauss normal
B) Gauss normal → Brunhes normal → Gilbert reversed → Matuyama reversed
C) Gilbert reversed → Gauss normal → Brunhes normal → Matuyama reversed
D) Gilbert reversed → Gauss normal → Matuyama reversed → Brunhes normal

97. The type of unconformity which suggest a period of long term uplift, weathering and erosion
of bedrock, until finally buried by the younger sedimentary units.
A) Disconformity B) Nonconformity
C) Paraconformity D) Angular unconformity

98. The term ‘Quaternary’ was first used in a geological context by
A) Charles Lyell B) Louis Agassiz
C) J. P. Desnoyers D) A. Von Morlot

99. The oldest glacial event that has left behind till sheets throughout northern Europe is the
A) Saalian Glaciation B) Weichselian Glaciation
C) Haslach Glaciation D) Elsterian Glaciation

100. The highest cascading waterfalls in India.
A) Jog Falls B) Kunchikal Falls
C) Nohkalikai Falls D) Meenmutty Falls

101. ‘Magnetic Polarity Reversals’ give evidence for
A) Plate tectonics B) Sea-floor spreading
C) Continental drift D) Evolution of geosynclines

102. The gravity correction which compensates for gravity’s decrease with distance from the
earth’s surface, i.e., proportional to the altitude or elevation.
A) Free-Air Correction B) Terrain Correction
C) Bouguer Plate Correction D) Latitude Correction

103. The major heat producing isotopes in the Earth.
A) K-40, U-238, U-235 and Th-232 B) Ra-226, Th-230, Sm-147 and Cd-113
C) Rb-87, Re-187, Pu-244 and Bi-209 D) Ca-40, Pt-195, Ta-180 and Eu-151

104. The type of secondary halos of dispersion typical for deposits of petroleum and natural gas
and radioactive ores.
A) Biogeochemical halos of dispersion B) Saline halos of dispersion
C) Mechanical halos of dispersion D) Gaseous halos of dispersion

105. Which among the following does not come in the list of important Gondwana coal fields of
India?
A) Umaria coal fields of Madhya Pradesh
B) Makum coalfields of Assam
C) Talchir coal fields of Orissa
D) Giridih coal fields of Jharkhand

12

106. The most common arthropods in the fossil record.
A) Ostracods B) Trilobites C) Cirripedians D) Arachnids

107. Which of the following is the fundamental chronostratigraphic unit of worldwide major rank?
A) Erathem B) Formation C) System D) Period

108. Which of the following is the correct order of evolution of horses from the Eocene times to
the modern horses?
A) Hippidion → Eohippus → Equus → Mesohippus → Parahippus → Hipparion
B) Eohippus → Mesohippus → Parahippus → Hipparion → Hippidion → Equus
C) Mesohippus → Parahippus → Eohippus → Hippidion → Hipparion → Equus
D) Eohippus → Hipparion → Parahippus → Mesohippus → Hippidion → Equus

109. Match the following Phylum/Class of organisms with the corresponding body parts and
choose the correct answer.
Phylum/Class Body parts
a. Echinoidea 1. Rhabdosome
b. Brachiopoda 2. Glabella
c. Graptolithina 3. Ambulacra
d. Trilobita 4. Fosette
e. Foraminifera 5. Crura

A) a-4, b-1, c-5, d-2, e-3 B) a-5, b-1, c-2, d-4, e-3
C) a-3, b-5, c-1, d-2, e-4 D) a-3, b-2, c-5, d-1, e-4

110. Which of the following plant fossils of Gondwana age is considered as an index fossil of the
Triassic?
A) Noeggerathiopsis B) Williamsonia
C) Glossopteris D) Dicroidium

111. The equivalents of the Lameta Beds of Narmada Valley in the Cauvery Basin.
A) Uttattur Formation B) Trichinopoly Formation
C) Ariyalur Formation D) Dalmiapuram Formation

112. In biostratigraphy the stratigraphic range of the rock unit between the first and last
appearance datum of a particular taxon in a local area is called
A) Telizone B) Acme zone C) Range zone D) Biozone

113. Match the following metamorphic facies with the corresponding diagnostic minerals and
choose the correct answer.
Metamorphic facies Diagnostic mineral
a. Eclogite facies 1. Actinolite
b. Zeolite facies 2. Omphacite
c. Greenschist facies 3. Lawsonite
d. Sanidinite facies 4. Tridymite
e. Blueschist facies 5. Laumontite

A) a-3, b-1, c-5, d-2, e-4 B) a-5, b-3, c-2, d-1, e-4
C) a-2, b-5, c-1, d-4, e-3 D) a-4, b-1, c-5, d-4, e-3

13

114. Sigmoidal trails of mineral inclusions in porphyroblasts formed during metamorphic
recrystallization and representing remnants of pre-existing fold fabric or relative movement
between the growing porphyroblast and the groundmass result in

A) Migmatitic structure B) Maculose structure
C) Gneissic structure D) Helicitic structure

115. The codes of the highest category of mineral resources and the lowest category of mineral
resources respectively under the UNFC system are
A) (333) and (111) B) (121) and (333)
C) (111) and (334) D) (222) and (332)

116. Which one of the following is not a type of grinding machine used in ore dressing for finer
grinding?
A) Tumbling mills B) Hammer mills
C) Rod mills D) Ball mills

117. Which one of the following belongs to the category of undifferentiated meteorites?
A) Achondrites B) Irons C) Stony Irons D) Chondrites

118. Match the following Deep Sea Diving Vessels (DSDV) for exploring the ocean floor with
their corresponding countries of commissioning and choose the correct answer.
DSDV Country
a. Archimede 1. Russia
b. Trieste 2. France
c. Konsul 3. Japan
d. Kaiko 4. United States
e. Alvin 5. Switzerland

A) a-4, b-5, c-3, d-1, e-2 B) a-2, b-5, c-1, d-3, e-4
C) a-3, b-4, c-5, d-2, e-3 D) a-2, b-4, c-5, d-3, e-1

119. A soil consisting primarily of organic materials and common in wetlands:
A) Histosols B) Podzols
C) Chernozems D) Fluvisols

120. Which of the following statements regarding lunar rocks is INCORRECT?
A) Mare basalts constitute large portions of the lunar maria.
B) Lunar rocks range in age from about 3.16 billion years to 4.44 billion years.
C) High amount of volatiles and hydrated minerals are typical of the lunar rocks.
D) Lunar crustal rocks are characterized by high concentrations of anorthosite.

*****************

14