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e s t i o n P a p er
Qu
Solu t i o n
2023
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Marking Scheme
Strictly Confidential
(For Internal and Restricted use only)
Senior School Certificate Examination, 2023
SUBJECT NAME: APPLIED MATHEMATICS (SUBJECT CODE S46547A)
(PAPER CODE 465)
General Instructions: -
1 You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and correct
assessment of the candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to serious problems
which may affect the future of the candidates, education system and teaching profession. To
avoid mistakes, it is requested that before starting evaluation, you must read and understand
the spot evaluation guidelines carefully.
2 “Evaluation policy is a confidential policy as it is related to the confidentiality of the
examinations conducted, Evaluation done and several other aspects. Its’ leakage to
public in any manner could lead to derailment of the examination system and affect the
life and future of millions of candidates. Sharing this policy/document to anyone,
publishing in any magazine and printing in News Paper/Website etc may invite action
under various rules of the Board and IPC.”
3 Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It should not
be done according to one’s own interpretation or any other consideration. Marking Scheme
should be strictly adhered to and religiously followed. However, while evaluating, answers
which are based on latest information or knowledge and/or are innovative, they may be
assessed for their correctness otherwise and due marks be awarded to them. In class-
X, while evaluating two competency-based questions, please try to understand given
answer and even if reply is not from marking scheme but correct competency is
enumerated by the candidate, due marks should be awarded.
4 The Marking scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers
These are in the nature of Guidelines only and do not constitute the complete answer. The
students can have their own expression and if the expression is correct, the due marks should
be awarded accordingly.
5 The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each evaluator
on the first day, to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the instructions given
in the Marking Scheme. If there is any variation, the same should be zero after delibration
and discussion. The remaining answer books meant for evaluation shall be given only after
ensuring that there is no significant variation in the marking of individual evaluators.
6 Evaluators will mark( √ ) wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer CROSS ‘X” be
marked. Evaluators will not put right (✓)while evaluating which gives an impression that
answer is correct and no marks are awarded. This is most common mistake which
evaluators are committing.
7 If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part. Marks
awarded for different parts of the question should then be totaled up and written in the left-
hand margin and encircled. This may be followed strictly.
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8 If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-hand margin and
encircled. This may also be followed strictly.
9 If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving more marks
should be retained and the other answer scored out with a note “Extra Question”.
10 No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be penalized only
once.
11 A full scale of marks __________(example 0 to 80/70/60/50/40/30 marks as given in
Question Paper) has to be used. Please do not hesitate to award full marks if the answer
deserves it.
12 Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e., 8 hours
every day and evaluate 20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25 answer books per
day in other subjects (Details are given in Spot Guidelines).This is in view of the reduced
syllabus and number of questions in question paper.
13 Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by the
Examiner in the past:-
● Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
● Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
● Wrong totaling of marks awarded on an answer.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the title page.
● Wrong question wise totaling on the title page.
● Wrong totaling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
● Wrong grand total.
● Marks in words and figures not tallying/not same.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
● Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick mark is
correctly and clearly indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with the X for
incorrect answer.)
● Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks awarded.
14 While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it should be
marked as cross (X) and awarded zero (0)Marks.
15 Any un assessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totaling error
detected by the candidate shall damage the prestige of all the personnel engaged in the
evaluation work as also of the Board. Hence, in order to uphold the prestige of all concerned,
it is again reiterated that the instructions be followed meticulously and judiciously.
16 The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the “Guidelines for
spot Evaluation” before starting the actual evaluation.
17 Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried over to
the title page, correctly totaled and written in figures and words.
18 The candidates are entitled to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on request on payment
of the prescribed processing fee. All Examiners/Additional Head Examiners/Head
Examiners are once again reminded that they must ensure that evaluation is carried out
strictly as per value points for each answer as given in the Marking Scheme.
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Set 4
M.S. Code S46547A
MARKING SCHEME
APPLIED MATHEMATICS
Section A
Q. EXPECTED OUTCOMES/VALUE POINTS Marks
No.
SECTION A
Questions no. 1 to 18 are multiple choice questions (MCQs) and questions
number 19 and 20 are Assertion-Reason based questions of 1 mark each.
1.
Sol. (c) 6 (1)
2.
Sol. (c) 6 (1)
3.
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Sol. −5 10 ] (1)
(d) [
0 −25
4.
Sol. (a) 𝒙 = 𝟑, 𝒚 = 𝟓 (1)
5.
Sol. (b) 8 : 7 (1)
6.
Sol. (b) 𝒙 ∈ (−𝟏, ∞) (1)
7.
Sol. (d) −𝟖𝟏 (1)
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8.
Sol. (a) −𝟏 (1)
9.
Sol. 𝒅(𝑨𝑪) 𝟏 (1)
(d) = 𝒙 (𝑴𝑪 − 𝑨𝑪)
𝒅𝒙
10.
Sol. (c) −𝐱𝐞−𝐱 + 𝐂 (1)
11.
Sol. (b) 𝒙𝒚 = 𝑪 (1)
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12.
Sol. 𝟏 (1)
(b) 𝒆
13.
Sol. (b) accepted (1)
14.
Sol. (c) 𝒏𝟏 + 𝒏𝟐 − 𝟐 (1)
15.
Sol. (a) 𝒚𝒄 = 𝒂 + 𝒃𝒙 (1)
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16.
Sol. 𝑹 (1)
(c) 𝒊
17.
Sol. (b) 10.38% (1)
18.
Sol. (a) I quadrant (1)
19.
Sol. (d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true. (1)
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20.
Sol. (d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true. (1)
SECTION B
This section comprises very short answer (VSA) type questions of 2 marks
each.
21(a).
Sol. Let B be closed after n minutes. Then, pipe A runs for 18 minutes and B runs
for n minutes to fill the tank.
𝟏𝟖 𝐧
𝟐𝟒 + 𝟑𝟐 = 1 (1)
3 n
4 + 32 = 1 n = 8. (1)
Hence, pipe B must be closed after 8 min
OR
21(b).
Sol.
Suppose A takes ‘t’ seconds to run 1 km race. Then, B takes (t + 30)
seconds and C takes (t + 30 + 15) seconds, i.e. (t + 45) seconds.
We find A beats C by (30 + 15) seconds = 45 seconds and it is given that
A beats C by 180 metres.
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C runs 180 m in 45 seconds 𝟏
( 𝟐)
45
C runs 1000 m in (180 × 1000) seconds = 250 seconds.
(1)
t + 45 = 250 t = 205 𝟏
( 𝟐)
Hence, A takes 205 seconds to run 1 km
22.
𝐱+𝟑 –𝐱+𝟕 x–7
Sol. − 𝟐 ≤ 𝟎 𝐱 – 𝟐 0 or x – 2 0 (1)
𝐱–𝟐
Thus, the solution set is (– , 2) ∪ [7, ∞) (1)
23(a).
Sol. 2 – 1 𝟏
( 𝟐)
Here, D = | | = 13
3 5
17 – 1 𝟏
D1 = | | = 91 ( 𝟐)
6 5
2 17 𝟏
D2 = | | = – 39 ( 𝟐)
3 6
D D
Thus, x = D1 = 7; y = D2 = – 3 𝟏
( 𝟐)
OR
23(b).
Sol.
A is singular gives
𝑥 + 1 – 3 4 𝟏
| – 5 𝑥 + 2 2 |=0 ( 𝟐)
4 1 𝑥– 6
i.e. (x + 1) [(x + 2) (x – 6) – 2] + 3[– 5x + 30 – 8] + 4[– 5 – 4x – 8] = 0
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i.e. (x + 1) (x2 – 4x – 14) – 15x + 66 – 52 – 16x = 0
i.e. x3 – 3x2 – 49x = 0 (1)
3±√205
x = 0, 2 𝟏
Hence, x = 0 is the only integral value. ( 𝟐)
24.
Sol. Here, 6y = x3 + 2
𝟏
dy dx ( 𝟐)
6 dt = 3x2 dt
𝟏
dy dx
As dt = 8 dt , we have ( 𝟐)
𝟏
dx dx ( 𝟐)
48 = 3x2 x = 4, – 4
dt dt
𝟏
– 31 ( 𝟐)
when x = 4, y = 11; when x = – 4, y = .
3
– 31
Points on the curve are (4, 11), (– 4, )
3
25.
Sol. 2 𝟏
Let p be the probability that an item is defective so, p = = 0·02. ( )
100 𝟐
𝟏
Here n = 100 m = np = 2 ( 𝟐)
mr 2r e–2
P(X = r) = r! e–m =
𝟏
r!
( 𝟐)
𝟏
𝟐𝟑 𝐞–𝟐 𝟒 ( 𝟐)
P(X = 3) = = 0·135 = 0·18
𝟑! 𝟑
SECTION C
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This section comprises short answer (SA) type questions of 3 marks each.
26(a).
Sol. Let the original quantity of dettol be x litres and the quantity of Dettol
replaced by water be y litres.
x y 3 (1)
So, y = 3. After 3 operations the quantity of dettol left = x(1 – x) .
x 3
After 3 operations the quantity of water in the bottle = x – x(1 – 3x) (1)
x 3 x 3
Hence, the required ratio is x (1 – 3x) ∶ [x − x (1 – 3x) ]
1 3 1 3
= (1 – 3) ∶ [1 − (1 – 3) ]
8 19
= 27 ∶ 27
= 8 : 19 (1)
26(b).
Sol.
Here, 𝑛𝐴 = 3, 𝑛𝐵 = 7 and 𝑛𝐶 = 10.
1 1 1 1
= − −
𝑛 𝑛𝐴 𝑛𝐵 𝑛𝐶
(2)
1 1 1 1
= – –
𝑛 3 7 10
1 19 1 (1)
= n = 11
𝑛 210 19
1
Hence, the tank is filled in 11 hours.
19
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27.
Sol. y = x3 – 6x2 + 9x – 8
dx = 3x2 – 12x + 9
dy
(1)
dy
dx = 3(x − 1)(x − 3)
Critical points are 1, 3 (1)
𝟏
Showing, x=1 is a point of local maxima. ( 𝟐)
𝟏
Showing, x=3 is a point of local minima. ( 𝟐)
28.
Sol. Let A be the event of obtaining two sixes in the first five throws of a die. Let
B be the event of obtaining a six in the sixth throw of a die.
Then required probability = P(AB) = P(A) P(B)
1 1 2 5 3 625
Here, P(B) = 6 and P(A) = 5C2 (6) (6) = 3888 (2)
625 1 625
Thus, Required probability = 3888 6 = 23328 (1)
29.
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Sol. We are given
–
= 50, x = 55, SD = 10, 𝑛 = 20
(1)
H0: = 50
H1: > 50
𝑥̅ −𝜇 55 – 50
t = 𝑆𝐷 = 10 = 2·236 (2)
√𝑛 √20
t cal value > t tab value
Hence H0 is rejected.
So, Advertising Campaign was successful.
30(a).
Sol. Here C = ₹ 4,50,000
S = ₹ 1,00,000
and n = 5 years.
C–S (2)
Annual depreciation D = = ₹ 70,000
n
Thus, yearly depreciation schedule is as follows:
Book value at the Book value at the
Depreciation
Years beginning of the year end of the year
(in ₹)
(in ₹) (in ₹)
1 4,50,000 70,000 3,80,000
2 3,80,000 70,000 3,10,000
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(1 for
3 3,10,000 70,000 2,40,000
correct
4 2,40,000 70,000 1,70,000 table)
5 1,70,000 70,000 1,00,000
30(b).
15 𝟏
Sol. Here P = ₹ 9,50,000, i = 1200 = 0·0125 ( 𝟐)
n = 48 months 𝟏
( 𝟐)
Using the reducing balancing method,
𝑃𝑖 9,5,0000 × 0·0125 (1)
E =1 – (1 + 𝑖)–𝑛 = 1 – (1 + 0·0125)–48
11875 11875 𝟏
=1 – (1.0125)–48 = 1 – 0.5508565 ( 𝟐)
𝟏
( )
𝟐
= ₹ 26,439·21
31.
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Sol.
(2)
Corner Points Value of Z
O (0,0) 0
(1)
A (16,0) 4800
B (8,16) 5440 → Max Value
C (0,24) 4560
So Z is maximum at B (8,16)
Max Value of Z = 5440
SECTION D
This section comprises of Long Answer (LA) type questions of 5 marks
each.
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32(a).
Sol. Here, |A| = – (– 4 – 3) – (12 + 1) + 2(9 – 1)
(1)
= 7 – 13 + 16 = 10 0
– 7 – 13 8 𝑇 – 7 2 3 𝟏
adj(A) = [ 2 (2𝟐)
– 2 2 ] = [– 13 – 2 7]
3 7 – 2 8 2 – 2
1 – 7 2 3
Hence A–1 = [– 13 – 2 7] 𝟏
( 𝟐)
10 8 2 – 2
−1 1 2 −7 2 3 1 0 0
1 (1)
A𝐴−1 = 10 [ 3 −1 1] [−13 −2 7 ] = [ 0 1 0]
−1 3 4 8 2 −2 0 0 1
OR
32(b).
Sol.
The matrix equation AX = B is
1 −1 1 𝑥 4 𝟏
[2 1 −3] [𝑦]= [0] ( )
𝟐
1 1 1 𝑧 2
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|A| = 10
(1)
4 −5 1 ′ 4 2 2
adj A = [2 0 −2] = [– 5 0 5]
2 5 3 1 – 2 3
(2)
4 2 2
–1 1
Here A = [– 5 0 5]
10 1 – 2 3 𝟏
( 𝟐)
𝑥 4 2 2 4 2
1
So, [𝑦] = 10 [−5 0 5 ] [0 ] = [– 1 ]
𝑧 1 −2 3 2 1
(1)
Thus, x = 2, y = – 1, z = 1
33(a).
Sol. Let the two parts be x and 15 – x. Then, let y = x2(15 – x)3 (1)
𝑑𝑦
𝑑𝑥 = x(15 – x)2 (– 5x + 30) (1)
𝑑𝑦 𝟏
= 0 gives x = 0, 15, 6 (1𝟐)
𝑑𝑥
Rejecting x = 0, 15. Hence x = 6
Showing, 𝑥 = 6 is a point of maxima (1)
So, y is maximum when x = 6.
Hence two parts are 6 and 9 𝟏
( 𝟐)
OR
33(b).
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Sol.
Let P (x, y) be the required point which is nearest to Q (1, 4). Then
𝟏
distance PQ should be minimum and hence (PQ)2 should be minimum. ( 𝟐)
2
𝑦2
Now, (PQ)2 = (x – 1)2 + (y – 4)2 = ( 2 – 1) + (y – 4)2 (1)
𝑦 4 – 32𝑦 +68
= (1)
4
𝑦 4 – 32𝑦 +68
Let D = 4
𝟏
𝑑𝐷 ( 𝟐)
= y3 – 8
𝑑𝑦
𝑑𝐷
=0⇒y=2 (1)
𝑑𝑦
𝟏
Showing, y = 2 is a point of minima ( 𝟐)
𝟏
Thus, the point is (2, 2) ( 𝟐)
34.
Sol. Consider year 2014 as the year of origin. Calculation of trend values by
method of least squares.
Squares of
Sales Deviations Deviations Sales
Year
(in lakh ₹) y from 2014 (x) deviation (xy)
(x2)
2010 65 –4 16 – 260
2012 68 –2 4 – 136
2013 70 –1 1 – 70
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2014 72 0 0 0
2015 75 1 1 75
2016 67 2 4 134 (2 for
2019 73 5 25 365 correct
table)
n=7 y = 490 x = 1 x2 = 51 xy = 108
The equation of the straight-line trend is
yc = a + bx
Two normal equations are
y = na + bx
xy = ax + bx2
490 = 7a + b and 108 = a + 51b
(1)
a = 69·9 and b = 0·75
yc = 69.9 + 0.75x (1)
Thus, trend values are
𝑦2010 = 69·9 + 0·75(– 4) = 66·90
𝑦2012 = 69·9 + 0·75(– 2) = 68·40
𝑦2013 = 69·9 + 0·75(– 1) = 69·15
(1 for
𝑦2014 = 69·9 + 0·75(0) = 69·90
correct
𝑦2015 = 69·9 + 0·75(1) = 70·65 trend
𝑦2016 = 69·9 + 0·75(2) = 71·40 values)
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𝑦2019 = 69·9 + 0·75 (5) = 73·65
35.
Sol. CAGR is the mean annual growth rate of an investment over a specified (1)
period of time longer than one year.
1
Ending investment amount no.of years (1)
CAGR = [ ] −1
Start amount
P.V. = ₹ 10,000
F.V. = ₹ 14,000 (1)
n = 6 years
14000 1/6
So, CAGR = (10000 ) – 1 = (1·4)1/6 – 1 𝟏
( 𝟐)
𝟏
= 1·058 – 1 ( 𝟐)
𝟏
= 0·058 ( 𝟐)
Hence, CAGR = 5·8% 𝟏
( 𝟐)
SECTION E
This section comprises of 3 case-study based questions of 4 marks each.
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36.
Sol. 6
n= 100, p = 100 , m= np
6
Here m = 100 100 = 6.
mr
P(r) = 𝑒 −𝑚 r!
𝑚0
(i) P (0) = 𝑒 −𝑚 0! = e–6 = 0·0024 (1)
𝑚2
(ii) P (2) = 𝑒 −𝑚 2! = e–6 2 = 0.0432
36
(1)
1
(iii)(a) P(0) + P(1) = e–6 + e–6 1! = e–6 + 6e–6 = 7e–6 = 0·0168
𝑚 (1+1)
OR
(iii)(b) Mean = Variance = m = np = 6
(1+1)
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37.
Sol. (i) Z = 10x + 20y (1)
(1)
(ii) x + 3y 24
(iii) (a) other constraints are
2x +y ≤ 28
𝑥≥0
𝑦≥0
(1)
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Corner Points Value of Z
O (0,0) 0
A (14,0) 140
B (12,4) 200 → Max value
C (0,8) 160 (1)
P is maximum at B (12,4); which is ₹ 200
OR
(iii) (b)
(1)
Corner Points Value of Z
O (0,0) 0
A (14,0) 140
B (12,4) 200 → Max value
C (0,8) 160 (1)
12 bats and 4 rackets
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38.
Sol. 7·5
Given P = ₹ 30,00,000, i = 1200 = 0·00625
and n = 12 20 = 240 months
𝑃𝑖
(i) EMI = 1− (1+𝑖)−𝑛
30,00,000 × 0·00625 𝟏
= 1− (1·00625)−240 – 1 ( 𝟐)
30,00,000 × 0·00625 × 4·4608
= 𝟏
3·4608 ( 𝟐)
= ₹ 24167.82
(ii) Interest paid on 150th instalment
EMI × [(1 + i)240– 150 + 1 – 1]
= (1 + i)240– 150 + 1
24167 × [1·7629 – 1] 𝟏
= ( 𝟐)
1·7629
= ₹ 10458.70
Principal paid in 150th instalment = EMI – interest
=₹ (24167.82 – 10458.70) 𝟏
( 𝟐)
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= ₹ 13709.12
(iii) (a) Total Interest paid = n EMI – P
= ₹ (240 24167.82 – 30,00,000) (1)
= ₹ 28,00,276.80 (1)
OR
(iii) (b) Total amount paid = n x EMI
(1)
= 240 x 2416.81
= ₹ 5800276.8 (1)
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