CBSE Class 12 Question Paper 2023 Solution Geography

e s t i o n P a p er
Qu
Solu t i o n
2023

Marking Scheme
Strictly Confidential
(For Internal and Restricted use only)
Senior School Certificate Examination, 2023
SUBJECT : GEOGRAPHY (SUBJECT CODE 029) (PAPER CODE 64/1/1)
General Instructions: -
1
You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and correct
assessment of the candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to serious problems
which may affect the future of the candidates, education system and teaching profession.
To avoid mistakes, it is requested that before starting evaluation, you must read and
understand the spot evaluation guidelines carefully.

2
“Evaluation policy is a confidential policy as it is related to the confidentiality of the
examinations conducted, Evaluation done and several other aspects. Its’ leakage to
public in any manner could lead to derailment of the examination system and affect
the life and future of millions of candidates. Sharing this policy/document to
anyone, publishing in any magazine and printing in News Paper/Website etc may
invite action under various rules of the Board and IPC.”

3
Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It should not
be done according to one’s own interpretation or any other consideration. Marking
Scheme should be strictly adhered to and religiously followed. However, while
evaluating, answers which are based on latest information or knowledge and/or are
innovative, they may be assessed for their correctness otherwise and due marks be
awarded to them. In class-X, while evaluating two competency-based questions,
please try to understand given answer and even if reply is not from marking scheme
but correct competency is enumerated by the candidate, due marks should be
awarded.

4
The Marking scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers
These are in the nature of Guidelines only and do not constitute the complete answer. The
students can have their own expression and if the expression is correct, the due marks
should be awarded accordingly.

5
The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each
evaluator on the first day, to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the
instructions given in the Marking Scheme. If there is any variation, the same should be
zero after delibration and discussion. The remaining answer books meant for evaluation
shall be given only after ensuring that there is no significant variation in the marking of
individual evaluators.

6
Evaluators will mark( √ ) wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer CROSS ‘X” be
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marked. Evaluators will not put right (✓)while evaluating which gives an impression that
answer is correct and no marks are awarded. This is most common mistake which
evaluators are committing.

7
If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part. Marks
awarded for different parts of the question should then be totaled up and written in the left-
hand margin and encircled. This may be followed strictly.

8
If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-hand margin and
encircled. This may also be followed strictly.

9
If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving more
marks should be retained and the other answer scored out with a note “Extra Question”.

10
No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be penalized only
once.

11
A full scale of marks 70 (example 0 to 80/70/60/50/40/30 marks as given in Question
Paper) has to be used. Please do not hesitate to award full marks if the answer deserves
it.

12
Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e., 8 hours
every day and evaluate 20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25 answer books
per day in other subjects (Details are given in Spot Guidelines).This is in view of the
reduced syllabus and number of questions in question paper.

13
Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by the
Examiner in the past:-
● Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
● Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
● Wrong totaling of marks awarded on an answer.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the title page.
● Wrong question wise totaling on the title page.
● Wrong totaling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
● Wrong grand total.
● Marks in words and figures not tallying/not same.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.

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● Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick mark
is correctly and clearly indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with the X for
incorrect answer.)
● Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks awarded.

14
While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it should
be marked as cross (X) and awarded zero (0)Marks.

15
Any un assessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totaling error
detected by the candidate shall damage the prestige of all the personnel engaged in the
evaluation work as also of the Board. Hence, in order to uphold the prestige of all
concerned, it is again reiterated that the instructions be followed meticulously and
judiciously.

16
The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the “Guidelines
for spot Evaluation” before starting the actual evaluation.

17
Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried over to
the title page, correctly totaled and written in figures and words.

18
The candidates are entitled to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on request on
payment of the prescribed processing fee. All Examiners/Additional Head Examiners/Head
Examiners are once again reminded that they must ensure that evaluation is carried out
strictly as per value points for each answer as given in the Marking Scheme.

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MARKING SCHEME 2023

(ANNUAL EXAMINATION)
SUBJECT- GEOGRAPHY (029)
PAPER CODE 64/1/1

Set 1
MM:70
Q EXPECTED ANSWERS/VALUE POINTS Page Distribu
No. No. in tion of
TB Marks
SECTION A
17X1=17
Q.No. 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice Questions
1. (a) Urbanization Pg. 10
T.B-I 1
2 (c) Basic need Pg. 26
T.B-I 1

3 (b) Only I, II and III are correct Pg. 15
T.B-I 1
4 (d. Vegetable production Pg. 40
T.B-I 1
5 (a) North Western Europe Pg. 39
T.B-I 1
6 (a) Mixed farming Pg. 38
T.B-I 1
7 (c) Australia Pg.28
T.B-I 1
8 (c) Statements I and II both are correct, Statement II is Pg. 79
the correct result of Statement I. T.B-I 1

9 (a) Natural disasters Pg. 12
T.B-I 1

Pg. 144
10 (c) Mizoram T.B-I 1

11 (a) Indo-European, Dravidian, Austric and Sino-Tibetan Pg. 10 1
T.B-II
12 (d.) Only I and IV are correct. Pg. 43
T.B-II 1

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13 (c) Kandla Pg. 129
T.B-II 1
14 (d) i – 2, ii – 3, iii – 4, iv – 1 Pg. 117
T.B-II 1
15 (a) Money sent by migrants
1
16 (b) Employment
1
17 (c) Imbalance in age and sex
1
SECTION B
Question No. 18 &19 are Source Based
18 Difference between secondary and tertiary activities:
(18.1) The main difference between secondary
activities is that the expertise provided by
services relies more heavily on specialized
skills, experience,, and knowledge of the
workers rather than on the production
techniques,machinery and factory process. (1)

(18.2) Relation of tertiary activity with production
and exchange :
i. Professionals provide their services/skill
against the payment of fee e.g. lawyer,
doctor, education, consultants, and skilled
labour etc.
ii. Professionals providing their services in
trading (goods and services),transportation
and communication.
Any one point of relation (1)
(18.3) (i) Trade, (ii) Transport,( iii) Health,
3X 1=3
(iv) Education
Any other relevant examples.
Any two examples to be mentioned. (1/2+1/2=1)
19 (19.1). In which year was the decennial growth of
urban population the highest in India ?
19.1. 1981, 46.14% (1)
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(19.2) How much was the total urban population I
the year 2001 ?
19.2. In 2001, the total urban population was
2,85,355. (1)
(19.3) Total growth of number of towns between
1901 to 2011 in India was.
3X 1=3
19.3. 4,344 or 238% (1)
For Visually Impaired Candidates Only :
The characteristics of urban settlements are:--
i. Urban settlements are generally compact
and large in size.

ii. They are engaged in a variety of non
agricultural, economic and administrative
functions.
iii. Cities are functionally linked to rural areas
and towns around them.
iv. Exchange of goods and services take place.
v. Any other relevant point. Pg.34
3X 1=3
Any three characteristic to be explained. TB II

SECTION C 3 X 4=12

Q. No. 20 to 23 are Short Answer Type Questions
20 (a) “ Human beings were able to develop technology after
they developed better understanding of natural laws.”
Evaluate the statement in the context of naturalization
of humans.
i. Technology indicates the level of cultural
development of society.
ii. The understanding of concepts of friction and
heat helped us discover fire.

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iii. Understanding of the secrets of DNA and
genetics enables us to conquer in any diseases.
iv. We use the laws of aerodynamics to develop
faster planes.
v. Knowledge about nature is extremely important
to develop technology, and technology loosens the
shackles of environment on human beings. Pg. 2 3X 1=3
TB- I
vi. In the early stages of their interaction with their
natural environment humans were greatly
influenced by it.
vii. Any other relevant point.
Any three points to be analyzed. Pg. 2 T.B
OR

(b) “ The imprints of human activities are created
everywhere.” Evaluate the statement in the context
of humanization of nature.
i. The people begin to understand their
environment and the forces of nature with
the passage of time.
ii. With social and cultural development
humans develop better and more efficient
technology.
iii. They move from a state of necessity to a
state of freedom.
iv. They create possibilities with resources
obtained from the environment.
v. The human activities create cultural
landscape e.g. health resorts on highlands,
huge urban sprawls, fields, orchards and
pastures in plains and rolling hills, ports,
oceanic routes on oceanic surface and Pg3
satellites. TB I 3X 1=3

vi. Any other relevant point.
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Any three points to be evaluated.
21 Growth of population in Phase III (1951-1981) is
referred to as a period of population explosion in
India because of-
i. Rapid fall in mortality rate but a high
fertility rate of population in the country.
ii. The average annual growth rate was as high
as 2·2%.
iii. It is in this period after the independence
that developmental activities were
introduced through a centralized planning
process and economy started showing up
ensuring the improvement of living Pg-3 3X 1=3
conditions of people at large.
TB- II
iv. Any other relevant point.
Any three points of argument.
22 The objectives of National Mission for Sustainable
Agriculture are :
i. To make agriculture more productive.
ii. Sustainable
iii. Remunerative
iv. Climate resilient by promoting location-
specific integrated/composite farming systems.
v. To conserve natural resources through
appropriate soil and moisture conservation
measures.
Pg 55 3X 1=3
vi. Any other relevant point. TB II

Any three objectives to be described. Pg. 55 TB

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23 (a) The characteristics of the mineral belt of SW Plateau
region of India are-

i. This belt extends over Karnataka, Goa, and
contiguous Tamil Nadu uplands and Kerala.
ii. This belt is rich in ferrous metals and
bauxite.
iii. It also contains high grade iron ore,
manganese and limestone.
iv. This belt lacks in coal deposits except the
Pg 73 3X 1=3
Neyveli lignite mines.
TB II
v. Any other relevant point. 31
Any three points to be mentioned. Pg. 73 T.B-II
OR
(b) The characteristics of the mineral belt of NW
Region of India are-
i. This belt extends along Aravali in Rajasthan
and part of Gujarat.
ii. Minerals are associated with Dharwar
system of rocks.
iii. Copper, zinc have been major minerals.
iv. Rajasthan is rich in building stones, i.e.
sandstone, granite, marble etc. Pg 73
TB II 3X 1=3
v. Any other relevant point. 31
Any three points to be mentioned.

SECTION D 5 X 5=25

Q. No. 24 to 28 are Long Answer Type Questions
24 (a) Factors affecting the location of industries in the world
are-
i. Access to market.
ii. Access to raw material.
iii. Access to labour supply.
iv. Access to sources of energy.
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v. Access to transportation and communication
facilities.
Pg-46
vi. Government policy. & 47
vii. Any other relevant point. 5X1=5
TB I
Any five points to be analyzed.
OR
(b) The classification of industries on the basis of raw
materials are-
i. Agro-based industries.
ii. Mineral-based industries.
iii. Chemical-based industries.
iv. Forest-based industries.
v. Animal-based industries. Pg
50,51
vi. Any other relevant point.
TB I 5X1=5
Any five points to be analyzed.
25 “Pipelines are used extensively to transport liquids and
gases in the world.” Support the statements with
appropriate arguments.

i. Water, petroleum and natural gas for an
uninterrupted flow.
ii. Water supplied through pipelines is familiar
to all.
iii. Cooking gas or LPG is supplied through
pipelines in many parts of the world.
iv. Pipelines can also be used to transport
liquefied coal.
v. In New Zealand, milk is being supplied
through pipelines from farms to factories.
Pg 78 5X1=5
vi. In U.S.A., there is a dense network of oil
TB I
pipelines from the producing areas to the
consuming areas.

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vii. Any other relevant point. 51
Any five points to be explained.
26 Define the term ‘international trade’. Describe two types
of ‘international trade’ in the world.

Exchange of goods and services among countries across
national boundaries is called International trade. (1)

Types of international trade in the world-
a. Bilateral trade : Bilateral trade is done by
two countries with each other. They enter into
agreement to trade specified commodities
amongst them. For example country A may
agree to trade some raw material with
agreement to purchase some specified item to
country or via versa. (2)
b. Multi-lateral trade : As the term suggests
multi-lateral trade is conducted with many
trading countries. The same country can
trade with a number of other countries. The Pg 1+2+2=
81,85 5
country may also grant the status of the Most
Favoured Nation (MFN) on some of the TB I
trading partners. (2)
27 “ Attaining sustainable development in the Indira Gandhi
Canal (Nahar) Command Area requires major thrust upon
the measures to achieve ecological sustainability.”
Evaluate the statement.
i. The first requirement is strict implementation of
water management policy.

ii. The canal project envisages protective irrigation
in Stage-I and extensive irrigation of crops and
pasture development in Stage-II.

iii. In general, the cropping pattern shall not
include water intensive crops. People should be
encouraged to grow plantation crops such as citrus
fruits.
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iv. The CAD programmes such as lining of water
courses, land development and levelling and
warabandi system shall be effectively implemented
to reduce the conveyance loss of water.

v. The areas affected by water-logging and soil
salinity shall be reclaimed.

vi. The eco-development through afforestation
shelter belt plantation and pasture development is
necessary particularly in the fragile environment of
Stage-II. Pg 111

vii. Any other relevant point. TB II 5X1=5 51
Any five points to be explained
28 (a) “India has one of the second largest road networks in
the world”. Support the statement.

i. About 85% of passengers are carried by
roads every year.
ii. 70% of freight traffic are carried by roads
every year.
iii. For the purpose of construction and
maintenance roads are classified as
N.H., S.H., Major District Roads and
Rural Roads.
iv. NH connect the state capitals, major
cities, ports, railway junctions etc. e.g.
Golden Quadrilateral, North-South and
East-West corridors.
v. SH connects state capital with the district
head quarters.
vi. District roads connect district head
quarters with important nodes in the
district.
vii. Most of the roads in rural areas provide
vital links.
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Pg 114
viii. Border roads are of strategic importance
in frontier areas. TB II
5X1=5
ix. Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be explained. Pg. 114 T.B-II
OR
(b) “Indian Railways network is one of the longest in
the world”. Support the statement.
i. Indian Railways is the largest government
undertaking in the country.
ii. It facilitates the movement of passengers
and goods and contributes to the growth of
economy..
iii. It integrates the people of different castes,
religion, culture and economic conditions.
iv. In India, the railway system has been
divided into 16 zones for better management of
railways.
v. Konkan Railway is an important
achievement of Indian Railways.
vi. Railway system is being upgraded e.g. the
operation of the Metro in cities.
vii. Any other relevant point. Pg. 118
T.B-II 5X1=5
Any five points to be explained.

SECTION E
Q. No. 29 & 30 are Map Based Questions
29 See attached Map.
For Visually Impaired Candidates Only.
(Answer any five)
29.1. Algeria
29.2. Pampas
29.3. Yokohama 5X1=5
29.4. Panama
29.5. Auckland/Wellington
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29.6. Suez
29.7. Brazil

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See attached Map.
30 For Visually Impaired Candidates Only.
(Answer any five)
30.1. Bihar
30.2. Gujarat 5X1=5
30.3. Mathura
30.4. Kolkata
30.5. Rajasthan
30.6 Tamil Nadu
30.7 Amritsar

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i

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