CBSE Class 12 Question Paper 2023 Solution Political Science

e s t i o n P a p er
Qu
Solu t i o n
2023

Strictly Confidential: (For Internal and Restricted use only)
Senior School Certificate Examination, 2023

Marking Scheme – POLITICAL SCIENCE (SUBJECT CODE – 028)

General Instructions: -
1 You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and correct assessment of
the candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to serious problems which may affect the
future of the candidates, education system and teaching profession. To avoid mistakes, it is
requested that before starting evaluation, you must read and understand the spot evaluation
guidelines carefully.
2 “Evaluation policy is a confidential policy as it is related to the confidentiality of the
examinations conducted, Evaluation done and several other aspects. Its’ leakage to public in
any manner could lead to derailment of the examination system and affect the life and future
of millions of candidates. Sharing this policy/document to anyone, publishing in any magazine
and printing in News Paper/Website etc may invite action under various rules of the Board
and IPC.”
3 Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It should not be done
according to one’s own interpretation or any other consideration. Marking Scheme should be strictly
adhered to and religiously followed. However, while evaluating, answers which are based on
latest information or knowledge and/or are innovative, they may be assessed for their
correctness otherwise and due marks be awarded to them. In class-X, while evaluating two
competency based questions, please try to understand given answer and even if reply is not
from marking scheme but correct competency is enumerated by the candidate, marks should
be awarded.
4 The Marking scheme caries only suggested value points for the answers These are in the nature of
Guidelines only and do not constitute the complete answer. The students can have their own
expression and if the expression is correct, the due marks should be awarded accordingly.
5 The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each evaluator on the
first day, to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the instructions given in the Marking
Scheme. . If there is any variation, the same should be zero after delibration and discussion. The
remaining answer books meant for evaluation shall be given only after ensuring that there is no
significant variation in the marking of individual evaluators.
6 Evaluators will mark( √ ) wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer CROSS ‘X’ be marked.
Evaluators will not put right( √ ) while evaluating which gives an impression that answer is correct
and no marks are awarded. This is most common mistake which evaluators are committing.
7 If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part. Marks awarded for
different parts of the question should then be totaled up and written in the left-hand margin and
encircled. This may be followed strictly.
8 If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-hand margin and encircled.
This may also be followed strictly.
9 If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving more marks should be
retained and the other answer scored out with a note "Extra Question".
10 No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be penalized only once
11 A full scale of marks 80 marks given in Question Paper has to be used. Please do not hesitate to
award full marks if the answer deserves it.
12 Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e. 8 hours every day
and evaluate 20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25 answer books per day in other
subjects (Details are given in Spot Guidelines).
13 Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by the Examiner in
the past:-

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 Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
 Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
 Wrong totaling of marks awarded on an answer.
 Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the title page.
 Wrong question wise totaling on the title page.
 Wrong totaling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
 Wrong grand total.
 Marks in words and figures not tallying/not same.
 Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
 Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick mark is
correctly and clearly indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with the X for
incorrect answer.)
 Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks awarded.
14 While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it should be marked
as cross (X) and awarded zero (0)Marks.
15 Any un assessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totaling error detected by
the candidate shall damage the prestige of all the personnel engaged in the evaluation work as also
of the Board. Hence, in order to uphold the prestige of all concerned, it is again reiterated that the
instructions be followed meticulously and judiciously.
16 The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the “ Guidelines for spot
Evaluation” before starting the actual evaluation.
17 Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried over to the title
page, correctly totaled and written in figures and words.
18 The candidates are entitled to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on request on payment of the
prescribed processing fee. All Examiners/Additional Head Examiners/Head Examiners are once
again reminded that they must ensure that evaluation is carried out strictly as per value points for
each answer as given in the Marking Scheme.

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SECTION – A Pg Marks Tot
Q1. Choose the correct option to complete the sentence:
Mikhail Gorbachev was___________________.
(a) General Secretary of the Communist Party of USSR
(b) the founder of the Communist Party of Russia 1
(c) a leader of Western European countries
(d) a leader against reforms in the USSR
Ans a) General Secretary of Communist Party of USSR P-19

Q2. Choose the correct option to complete the sentence:
Arab Spring was a_________________. 1
(a) Political movement (b) Cultural movement
(c) Social movement (d) Environmental movement
Ans a) Political Movement (R.M.)

Q3. Which one of the following organisations works to prevent 1
international conflicts?
(a) United Nations Human Rights Commission
(b) United Nations Security Council
(c) ASEAN
(d) Amnesty International
Ans (b) United Nation Security Council P-86

Q4. Which one of the following is not a threat to global security? 1
(a) Global warming (b) International terrorism
(c)Epidemics (d) Rising prices
Ans (d) Rising Prices. P-107

Q5. Which of the following statements about environment are correct? 1
(i) Environmental concerns are part of the global politics.
(ii) A conference on environment was held in Rio-de-Janeiro in 1992.
(iii) The UN has assigned the environmental programmes to UN
Human Rights Commission.
(iv) The Earth Summit was organised by the United Nations.
Choose the correct option.
(a) (i), (iii), (iv) (b) (i), (ii), (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) (d) (ii), (iii), (iv)
Ans (b) (i) ,(ii), (iv) P-119

Q6. Which one of the following is the main cause of Globalisation? 1
(a) The formation of United Nations
(b) The development of new technology
(c) The establishment of the World Bank
(d) The rise of economy in India and China
Ans (b) The Development of new technology P-138

Q7. From the following options, choose the set of States that belong to 1
North-East India only.
(a) Assam, Manipur, Chhattisgarh
(b) Manipur, Tripura, Nagaland
(c) Jharkhand. Nagaland, Uttarakhand
(d) Manipur, Maharashtra, Mizoram

3

Ans ( b) Manipur ,Tripura, Nagaland P-23

Q8. Choose the correct option to complete the sentence: 1
Five Year Plans were adopted by the Government of India as a policy
of ________________.
(a) planned development (b)mixed economy
(c) socialism (d) industrialisation
Ans (a) Planned development P-49
Q9. Who gave a call for a nationwide Railway Strike in 1974? 1
(a) Jayaprakash Narayan (b)George Fernandes
(c) Ram Manohar Lohia (d) Morarji Desai
Ans (b) George Fernandes P-107

Q10. Arrange the following in the chronological order: 1
(i) Pakistan sent tribal infiltrators to Kashmir.
(ii) Sheikh Abdullah became Prime Minister of Jammu and Kashmir.
(iii) The Punjab Accord was signed by Longowal and Rajiv Gandhi.
(iv) Jammu and Kashmir was a Princely State.
Choose the correct option.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (b) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
(c) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii) (d) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
Ans ( b) iv,i,ii,iii P-156
Q11. Who among the following was the first Prime Minster to start
economic 1
reforms in India?
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b)Rajiv Gandhi
(c) Manmohan Singh
(d) Inder Kumar Gujral
Ans ( b) Rajiv Gandhi P-174

Q12. Assertion (A): In May 1977 the Janata Party government appointed 1
a Commission of Inquiry headed by Justice J.C.Shah.
Reason (R): The Commission was appointed to inquire into the
reasons for declaring Emergency, by the Indira Gandhi Government.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason(R) is the
correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason(R) is not
the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Ans (c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason(R) is wrong P-113

SECTION – B
Q13. Highlight any two important features of the ‘ASEAN way’.
2x1 2
Ans ASEAN way is a form of interaction that is
i) Informal 2x1 2
ii) Non- Confrontational and P-56
iii) Cooperative
 It respects the national sovereignty of member nations.
4

Q14. Show with the help of any two examples, the strength of the United 2x1 2
Nations.
Ans The strength of United Nations lies in the following:- P-82
i) It helps countries to cooperate to make better living conditions for us P-83 2x1 2
all.
ii) Some issues are global eg. Global warming, epidemics. UN helps
nations come together to resolve.
iii)It can play an important role in helping nations discuss contentious
issues and find peaceful solution.

Examples that show the strengths of UN are as follows:-
1. UN passed a resolution that helped resolve conflict
between Lebanon and Israel.
2. UN health agencies have worked to help nations deal with
COVID pandemic.
( or any other example) (any two)

Q15. Explain the term “Security”. 2
Ans Security implies freedom from threats. Threats which damage the core P-100 2
values are extremely dangerous and can endanger these values beyond
repair.
Q16. Name any four regional parties which have ever formed their 4x½ 2
government in any State.
Ans i) BSP_ Bahujan Samajwadi Party-UttarPradesh P- 4x ½ 2
ii) AGP-Asom GanaParishad-Assam 150-
iii) Akali Dal-Punjab 194
iv) Shiv Sena-Maharashtra
v) National Conference-J&K
Or any other ( any four)
Q17. Highlight any two recommendations of the Mandal Commission. 2x1 2

Ans Recommendations of the Mandal Commission. Pg
i)Reservation of 27 percent of seats in educational institutions and govt 182
jobs for backward classes.
ii) Backward classes should be understood as castes other than the 2x1 2
Schedule Castes.
iii) Land Reforms to improve the condition of OBCs. (Any two)
Q18. In which year was the first coalition government formed in India and 1+1 2
why?
Ans First Coalition government was formed in the year 1989. As the P-90
Congress party could not win a clear majority of seats in Lok Sabha.
V.P.Singh formed the Coalition government with the help of specific
National Front and Janata Dal alliance of BJP and the Left Front.
Or 1+1 2
Even if a candidate mentions about a State govt, the marks should be
award
For example
At state level , first coalition governments were formed in 1967 in
states viz.
Because no single party could win the majority.
SECTION C

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Q19. Write the full form of UNICEF and state any two functions of it. 1+3 4

Ans UNICEF- The United Nation International Children’s Emergency Ref.
Fund. Mat.
Function: 4
1+3
(i) To collect emergency funds for children and to help in their
development work all across the world.
(ii) To help and encourage the works that promote children health and
better life in all parts of the world.
Or any other function
Q20. Analyse any two effects of globalisation on your daily life. 2x2 4
Ans Every candidate may give different effects P-
(i) More job opportunities are available at the international level. 140-
(ii)Standard of living has risen. 143 2x2 4
(iii) Markets have lot of choices for the customers.
(iv) New brands have flooded the international Market.
(v) New Gadgets have changed the life style.
(vi) Food of Different nations is available for consumption.
(vii) Films/Music of different nations is available in the market.
Or any other relevant point (any two)
Q21. Suggest any two measures to conserve the natural resources. 2x2 4
Ans (i) 3 Rs- Reduce, Reuse and Recycle P- 4
(ii) Save forests – Plant more trees 119-
(iii) Use renewable sources of energy 21 2x2
(iv) Obey international rules, regulation and environmental laws.
Or any other relevant point ( any two)
Q22. Explain any four features of India-Israel relations. 4x1 4
Ans India –Israel relations: Ref.M 4x1 4
(i) Historical and culture ties between India and Israel go back .
from time immemorial.
(ii) Diplomatic Relations officially started from 1992 when Isreali
embassy established in India.
(iii) Heads of both the state have paid visits to each other’s country.
(iv) The two nations have started cooperated in various fields like
cultural exchange, security & Defence, counter terrorism,
space research , water and energy and agriculture
developments.
( any other )
Q23. Highlight any four steps taken by Indira Gandhi to remove poverty. 4×1 4
Ans Steps taken by Indira Gandhi to remove poverty. P-92 4×1 4
(i) Nationaliation of Banks.
(ii) Abolition of Privy Purse.
(iii) Nationalisation of General Insurance.
(iv) Ceiling on Urban property
(v) Land Reform
(vi) Public distribution of food grains
Or any other relevant point
SECTION D
Q24. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that P-73 4x1 4

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follow:
“The war with China alerted the Indian leadership to the volatile
situation in the North-East region. Apart from being isolated and
extremely under-developed, this region also presented India with the
challenge of national integration and political unity."
(i) Which one of the following States is not a North-Eastern State?
(a)Arunachal Pradesh (b) Uttarakhand
(c) Meghalaya (d) Tripura
Ans. (b) Uttarakhand
(ii) Which one of the following States was affected the most due to Sino-
Indian conflict ?
(a) Assam (b) Nagaland
(c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Sikkim
Ans. (c) Arunachal Pradesh
(iii) Which one of the following States was created in the North-East just
after the end of Indo-China War?
(a) Nagaland (b) Assam
(c) Sikkim (d) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans.(a) Nagaland
(iv) Which political party got split just after the Indo-China War due to
internal differences?
(a)Swatantra Party
(b) Congress Party
(c)Communist Party of India
(d) Jana Sangh
Ans. (c)Communist Party of India

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Q25. In the given political outline map of India (on page 15), four 4x1 4
States/Union Territories have been marked as A, B, C and D. Identify
these States/Union Territories on the basis of the information given
below and write their correct names in your answer-book along with
the respective serial number of the information used and the
concerned alphabets given in the map as per the following format:
Serial number of the Concerned alphabet Name of the State
information used given in the map
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(i) The State to which the Chairman of the Mandal Commission. B.P
Mandal, belonged.
(ii) The State where Bahujan Samaj Party formed its first
government.
(iii) The Union Territory which was constituted in 2019.
(iv) The State from which the political party Dravida Munnetra
Kazhagam originated.

Ans Serial number of the Concerned alphabet Name of the State
information used given in the map
(i) B Bihar
(ii) D Uttar Pradesh
(iii) A Jammu &
Kashmir
(iv) C Tamil Nadu
Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired 4x1 4
Candidates
only in lieu of Q.No. 25:
(25.1) Name the founder leader of the Bahujan Samaj Party.
(25.2) Who was the first Non-Congress Prime Minister of India?
(25.3) B.P. Mandal, the Chairman of Mandal Commission belonged
to which State of India?
(25.4) Which Union Territory was constituted in 2019?
Answers for the Visually Impaired Candidates 4x1 4
25.1 Kanshi Ram
25.2 Morarji Desai
25.3 Bihar
25.4 Jammu and Kashmir
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Q26. Study the cartoon given below and answer the questions that follow: P-73 4x1 4

(i) The tiger sitting on the right-hand side represents which
organisation?
(a) Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam
(b)Liberal Tigers of Tamil Estate
(c)Liberation Tigers of Tamil East
(d)Liberal Tigers of Tamil Eelam
Ans.(a) Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam
(ii) The conflict in Sri Lanka from 1983 onwards was based on which of
the following?
(a) Discrimination by the government between political parties
(b) Discrimination by the government between two communities
(c) Discrimination by the government between two regions
(d) Discrimination by the government between two religions
Ans. (b) Discrimination by the government between the two
communities
(iii) Which one of the following statements about Sri Lankan crisis is
true?
(a) India did not interfere in the crisis and kept away from the
problem.
(b) India asked the United Nations to resolve the problem.
(c) India signed an Accord with Sri Lanka and got involved in the
solution to the problem.
(d) India snapped its diplomatic relations with Sri Lanka during the
crisis.
Ans.(c) India signed an Accord with Sri Lanka and got involved in the
solution to the problem.
(iv) What message does the cartoon convey?
(a) Sri Lankan government managed to balance the two rival groups.
(b) Both the groups were against the government.
(c) The government treated both the communities equally.
(d) It was very difficult to maintain balance between the two rival
groups.
Ans.(d) It was very difficult to maintain balance between the two rival
groups.
Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired 4x1 4
Candidates
only, in lieu of Q. No. 26
(26.1) In Sri Lanka, there was a conflict between_________________.
(a) two communities (b) two regions
(c) two religions (d) two ideologies
(26.2) In 1989, India sent troops to Sri Lanka, named as:
(a) Indian Peace Groups
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(b) Indian Peace Keeping Force
(c) Indian Peace Workers
(d) Indian Troops for Tamils
(26.3) Name the group of Tamils who fought against the army of
Sri Lanka.
(a) Indian Tamils
(b) LTTE
(c)Tamils for Democracy
(d) Tamil United Front
(26.4) In spite of conflict, Sri Lanka has registered_____________.
(a) rise in its economy and development
(b) fall in its economy
(c) rise in the population
(d) fall in its trade
Answers for the Visually Impaired Candidates P-73 4x1 4
26.1 (a) two communities
26.2 (b) Indian Peace Keeping Force
26.3 (b)LTTE
26.4 (a) rise in its economy and development
SECTION E

Q27. (a) Analyse any three reasons responsible for the disintegration of the 3x2 6
Soviet Union.
OR
(b) Analyse any two reasons for the beginning of 'Arab Spring' and 4x1½ 6
any two outcomes of this movement.
Ans Reasons for the disintegration of USSR P-21
(a) (i) Internal weakness of the Soviet System (Political & economic)
which failed to meet the aspirations of the people. 3x2 6
(ii) Most of the resources were used to maintain & develop
military arsenal, nuclear weapons and space research – which
lead to huge burden on the economy of USSR and the needs of
the people got neglected.
(iii) Soviet system had become stagnant and non-accountable to
people.
(iv) Rampant corruption inability to correct the mistakes and
unwillingness to allow made the system unpopular.
(Any three to be explained ) (or any other)
OR
(b) Reasons:-
(i) Corruption Ref.
(ii) unemployment M. 4x1½ 6
(iii) Poverty
(iv) Autocratic dictatorship
Outcomes:
(i) Demand for democracy spread in Arab countries.
(ii) The role of many dictatorship and rules
Collapsed due to the movement ‘Arab –spring’
( to be explained )
Q28. (a) Highlight any three challenges faced by India after independence 3x2 6
OR
(b) Highlight the role of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel to bring the
Princely States into the Indian Union Support your answer with the 3x2 6
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help of any three examples.
Ans Three challenges: P-6 3x2 6
(a) (i) To shape the nation that was united and also accommodative
of the diversity found in our society & India.
(ii) To establish democracy maintain and sustain is to establish
equality and end of discrimination.
(iii) To ensure development & well – being of the society –
protection for the socially disadvantaged groups, religion and
cultural minorities.( To be explained)
OR
(i) Sardar Patel known as the ‘Iron Man’ of India approached all
the Princley states, negotiated with them convinced them to
join the Union of India.
(b) (ii) Sardar Patel faced challenge in three states – Hyderabad,
Junagarh
& Kashmir.
(iii) He used the Indian forces to face this challenge in Hyderabad
and won merger with India. 4x1½ 6
(iv) Junagarh was also pressurised & compelled to join Union of
India.
(v) Manipur was divided on the issue of merger. The Government
of India succeeded in pressurising the Maharaja of Manipur to
sign the Merger Agreement in Sept 1949.
(vi) Sardar Patel also had the intention to use tough measures in
Jammu & Kashmir, but due to different reasons could not act
as per his plans. Still he remain an astounding leader to
combine in himself the features of ‘Nationalist , catalyst and
|Realist.’
Q29. (a) Evaluate the strength of European Union as the most effective 3x2 6
regional organisation on the basis of any three facts.
OR 3x2
(b) "Despite various problems, the people in all the South Asian 6
countries share the aspiration and support for democracy"
Justify the statement with any three suitable examples.
Ans Strength of the European Union P-52- 3x2 6
(a) (i) European Union is the world largest economy today. 54
(ii) Euro as a currency of European Union can pose a threat to US
dollar.
The GDP of EU is much larger than that of the US .
(iii)Militarily, the EU’s combined armed forces are the second largest
in the world .It has two member states which are nuclear powers .
(iv) Politically too ,EU is extremely influential. Previously two of its
members UK and France (and now France only) are permanent
members of the UNSC.
or any other relevant point ( any three)
OR
Democratic system has not been very successful in Pakistan, Myanmar
and Sri Lanka .They have seen considerable struggle to establish P-67- 3x2 6
complete democracy. Examples are as follows:- 71
(b) (i) In Pakistan, military rule has ended and after 2006 democracy has
been restored, but not truly democratic.
(ii) In Nepal, people’s movement was a long struggle to replace
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constitutional monarchy with a democratic government in which they
succeeded
(iii)In Bangladesh too, the early years saw a military dominant
regime. By 1979 demand for democracy gave way to multi-party
elections and a representative democracy was established in 1991.
or any other relevant point ( any three point )

Q30. (a) Analyse any three reasons for the dominance of the Congress 3x2 6
Party in Indian politics during the initial twenty years after
independence.
OR
(b) Analyse any three reasons for the declaration of Emergency in 3x2 6
1975.
Ans Reasons for dominance of Congress Party P-30-
(a) (i)The Congress party had inherited a Legacy of the national movement. 32 3x2 6
(ii) It had wide organizational base spread all across the country. It
enjoyed national popularity even when other regional parties contested
elections.
(iii)The Congress party was very accommodative of different ideologies
in the first two decades. Most of the other Non-Congress parties today
have their origin in the Indian National Congress.
or any other relevant point ( any three point )
(b) OR
Reasons for declaring Emergency in 1975
(i) Tensions in the relationship between the government and Judiciary.
Congress advocated parliamentary supremacy and alleged judiciary a P-
conservative institution. 107- 3x2 6
(ii) After Bangladesh war -Prices were rising and expectations of the 108
people were raised by the slogan ‘Garibi hatao’. So people were
unsatisfied and agitated when these were not fulfilled.
(iii)Gujarat and Bihar movements -Students unrest and participation of
leaders like Morariji Desai and Jayaprakash Narayan put government into
trouble.
(iv) Judgement of Allahabad High Court on 12th June 1975- which
declared the election of Indira Gandhi (PM) invalid. Accordingly, she
was no more a member of Lok Sabha which was threat to her Prime
ministership.
(v)Combined opposition parties demanded her resignation -Ramlila
Maidan rally- where JP give a call and had asked the army ,the police and
the Government employees not to obey the illegal and immoral order -all
these reasons combined together let to the declaration of emergency.
Or any other reasons ( any three)

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